A&P Exam Chapters 10&11
groups of muscles are separated by which of the following? a. fascia b. fascicles c. perimysium d. endomysium e. epimysium
a. fascia
the ... originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible. a. masseter b. stylohyoid c. temporalis d. genioglossus e. buccinator
a. masseter
when acetylcholinesterase outlasts the release of the acetylcholine from the synaptic vesicles, the skeletal muscle ... a. relaxes b. gets stronger c. releases Ca++ d. contracts e. opens its Na+ channels
a. relaxes
which muscle type depends solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its calcium source? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. smooth and cardiac muscle d. cardiac muscle e. skeletal and smooth muscle
a. skeletal muscle
the minimum stimulus needed to cause muscle contraction is called the ... a. threshold b. innervation c. twitch d. motor unit e. latent period
a. threshold
shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called ... a. incomplete tetanus b. an isotonic contraction c. complete tetanus d. an isometric contraction e. an isokinetic contraction
b. an isotonic contraction
what is the longest muscle in the human body? a. semitendinosus b. sartorius c. erector spinae d. iliopsoas e. semimembranosus
b. sartorius
which term best describes the relationship of the gastrocnemius and gracilis muscles during knee flexion? a. fixators b. synergists c. adductors d. prime movers e. antagonists
b. synergists
what happens when acetylcholine stimulates its receptors in the neuromuscular junction? a. the positive charge on the sarcolemma decreases b. the permeability of the sarcolemma to Na+ increases c. the threshold of the muscle fiber lowers d. the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum decreases e. the inhibitory effect of acetylcholinesterase if overridden
b. the permeability of the sarcolemma to Na+ increases
which of the following is predominantly made up of myosin? a. F actin b. the thick filament c. G actin d. the thin filament e. the elastic filament
b. the thick filament
a volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for painter flexion, whereas a marathon runner depends on the soles muscles for the same action. what characteristics of the soles muscles makes this so? a. they don't have as many blood capillaries per gram of tissue b. they make more use of aerobic respiration c. they have smaller mitochondria d. they break ATP down to ADP and Pi faster e. they have more glycogen in them
b. they make more use of aerobic respiration
what is the purpose of motor nerve varicosities as they relate to smooth muscle? a. they enable each cardiac myocyte to directly stimulate its neighbors. b. they relate neurotransmitter onto smooth muscle cells. c.they prevent single-unit smooth muscle cells from pulling apart. d. they link the thin filaments to the inside of the sarcolemma in smooth muscle e. they reabsorb the decomposition products of acetylcholine after acetycholine after acetylcholinesterase breaks it down
b. they release neurotransmitter onto smooth muscles cells
the triads of a muscle fiber consists of ... a. two thick myofilaments and one thin myofilaments b. two terminal cistern and on T tubules c. they prevent single-unit smooth muscle cells d. they link the thin filaments to the inside of the sarcolemma in smooth muscle e. they reabsorb the decomposition products of a acetylene after acetylcholinesterase breaks it down
b. two terminal cisternae and one T tubule
white sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil on the floor. You bed over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles? a. tibialis anterior b. extensor hallucis longus c. erector spinae d. tibialis anterior and semimembranosus e. semimembranosus
c. erector spinae
muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called ... a. aponeuroses b. compartments c. fascicles d. groups e. retinacula
c. fascicles
if one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be ... a. spasm b. fatigue c. incomplete tetanus d. flaccid paralysis e. complete tetanus
c. incomplete tetanus
an ... muscle is contained within a region whereas an ... muscle acts upon one region but has an origin elsewhere. a. extrinsic; intrinsic b. extraneous; innate c. intrinsic; extrinsic d. innate; extraneous
c. intrinsic; extrinsic
the rectus femoris is an example of what muscle shape? a. triangular b. parallel c. pennate d. elongated e. fusiform
c. pennate
to stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ... into the synaptic cleft. a. sarcoplasmic reticulum b. terminal vesicles c. synaptic vesicles d. sarcolemma e. junctional folds
c. synaptic vesicles
why does one continue to breathe heavy after rigorous activity has stopped? a. myosin heads need more oxygen to fully detach from actin b. the kidneys require oxygen to restore levels of ATP and creatine phosphate c. the body requites more oxygen to restore levels of ATP and creatine phosphate d. the diaphragm is waiting for its acetylcholine to runout e. the lungs stop breathing until the heart rate slows down
c. the body requires more oxygen to restore levels of ATP and creatine phosphate
where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue? a. the A bands of skeletal and cardiac muscle b. the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle c. the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle d. the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle e. multiunit smooth muscle
c. the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle
which of the following is true concerning isotonic eccentric contraction? a. the muscle tenses and shortens. b. the muscle shorten but tension remains constant c. the muscle lengthens but tension remains constant. d. the muscle lengthens and tension declines. e. the muscle tenses but length remains unchanged
c. the muscle lengthens but tension remains constant
which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body? a. latissimus dorsi b. external abdominal oblique c. transverse abdominal d. pectoralis major e. trapezius
c. transverse abdominal
which of the following marks the boundaries of a sarcomere? a. H bands b. I bands c. M lines d. Z discs e. A bands
d. Z discs
what term best describes the relationship between the rectus femurs and biceps femoris? a. prime movers b. synergists c. fixators d. antagonists e. depressors
d. antagosts
which of the following describes muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon? a. inverted attachment b. indirect attachment c. origin d. direct attachment e. insertion
d. direct attachment
all muscle types will respond to an electrical stimulus because all muscle cells are ... a. striated b. isometric .c. involuntary d. excitable e. contractile
d. excitable
when you kick a soccer ball, you contact your quadriceps femoris. because the attachment on the tibia moves towards the attachment of the femur, it is considered the ... a. origin b. innervation c. belly d. insertion
d. insertion
the sarcolemma of a resting muscle fiber is most permeable to ... a. magnesium b. sodium c. calcium d. potassium e. lithium
d. potassium
which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial? a. temporalis b. semispinalis capitis c. splenius capitis d. trapezius e. sternociedomastoid
d. trapezius
skeletal muscle is called ..., because it is usually subject to conscious control. a. excitable b. isometric c. contractile d. voluntary e. striated
d. voluntary
aerobic respiration produces approximately ... more ATP's per glucose molecule than glycolysis does. a. 12 b. 100 c. 48 d. 24 e. 36
e. 36
which of the following contains overlapping think and thin filaments? a. M line b. Z discs c. I band d. H band e. A band
e. A band
the antagonist to the triceps brachia is the ... a. deltoid b. supinator c. anconeus d. teres minor e. biceps brachii
e. biceps brachii
after taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar? a. quadriceps femoris b. levator labii superioris c. platysma d. depressor angel oris e. orbicularis oris
e. orbicularis oris
the process of engaging more motor units to increase the strength of a muscle contraction is called ... a. wave summation b. complete tetabus c. temporal summation d. incomplete tetanus e. recruitment
e. recruitment
the absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to... a. muscle wasting b. atrophy c. numbness d. flaccid paralysis e. tentanus
e. tetanus
which of the following best describes the resting membrane potential (RMP)? a. the extracellular environment is negatively charged b. it has a voltage of about +75 mV. c. it is dependent upon the absorption of potassium ion by the muscle fiber d. the intracellular environment has more positively charged sodium e. the intracellular environment is negatively charged
e. the intracellular environment is negatively charged
what is the purpose of the triad? a. the triad acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft b. the triad stores sodium c. the triad maintains the resting membrane potential d. the triad synthesizes ATP e. the triad allows for Ca2+ release when a muscle fiber is excited
e. the triad allows for Ca2+ release when a muscle fiber is excited
the protein that acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle is ... a. titin b. F actin c. tropomyosin d. dystrophin e. troponin
e. troponin
