A&P Exam Practice Questions
When the ventricles relax, the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle. A. aortic B. pulmonary C. mitral D. left AV E. right AV
A
Which of the following best describes the composition of the dermis? A) Collagen and fibroblasts B) Collagen and living keratinocytes C) Elastic fibers and melanocytes D) Elastic fibers and dendritic cells E) Collagen and dead keratinocytes
A
Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia? A) Removal of the thyroid gland B) Lack of exposure to UV radiation C) Lactation D) Removal of the parathyroid glands E) Pregnancy
A
Which of the following is a feature shared by cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle? A. Muscle fiber striations B. Dependence upon nervous stimulation C. Communication via electrical (gap) junctions D. Intercalated discs E. Autorhythmicity
A
Which of the following is an increase in the number of receptors making a target cell more sensitive to a hormone? A) Up-regulation B) Down-regulation C) The antagonistic effect D) Negative feedback inhibition E) Enzyme amplification
A
Helper T (TH) cells do not __________. A. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells B. secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells C. secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity D. secrete inflammatory chemicals E. secrete fever-producing chemicals
E
In a neuron, the opening of sodium gates typically leads to ________. A) hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane B) plasma membrane voltage returning to the resting membrane potential C) repolarization of the plasma membrane D) drifting of plasma membrane voltage toward a more negative value E) depolarization of the plasma membrane
E
In order for muscle to continue contracting during anaerobic fermentation, which of the following is essential? A) Cholinesterase inhibitors B) Acid phosphatase C) Protease D) Acetylcholinesterase E) Myokinase
E
Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as ________. A) interstitial growth B) endochondral ossification C) metaphysical growth D) intramembranous ossification E) appositional growth
E
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by _________. A. breathing B. gravity C. valves contracting and relaxing D. osmotic gradients E. pressure gradients
E
Special lymphatic vessels, called lacteals, absorb dietary __________ that are not absorbed by the blood capillaries. A. water B. glucose C. vitamins D. amino acids E. lipids
E
The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections. A. basophils B. monocytes C. erythrocytes D. eosinophils E. neutrophils
E
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? A) It has short preganglionic fibers. B) It has short postganglionic fibers. C) Its effects are local. D) It originates in the craniosacral regions of the CNS. E) The terminal ganglia are very close to or within their target organs.
A
Which of the following is not a property of reflexes? A) Reflexes do not require a stimulus. B) Reflexes are not voluntary. C) Reflex responses are very predictable. D) Reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system. E) Reflexes are responses to sensory inputs.
A
Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia? A. Their blood viscosity is increased. B. They are lethargic. C. Their blood osmolarity is reduced. D. Their resistance to blood flow is reduced. E. More fluid transfers from their bloodstream into their intercellular spaces.
A
Which of the following marks the boundaries of a sarcomere? A) Z discs B) H bands C) A bands D) I bands E) M lines
A
Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes? A) Osteoclasts B) Osteogenic cells C) Osteoblasts D) Osteocytes E) Stem cells
A
With regard to the healing of a skin wound, macrophages ________. A) phagocytize and digest tissue debris B) release histamine to increase blood flow to the area C) make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area D) produce and secrete collagenous fibers E) stimulate epithelial cells to multiply
A
The transfer of phosphate from CP to ADP is catalyzed by ________. A) creatinine B) myokinase C) cAMP D) ATP E) creatine kinase
E
What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary? A. Oncotic pressure B. Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure C. Blood colloid osmotic pressure D. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure E. Blood hydrostatic pressure
E
Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation? A) Cardiac muscle only B) Skeletal muscle only C) Skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscle D) Smooth muscle only E) Smooth and cardiac muscle
E
Which of the following cannot act as antigen-presenting cells? A. Reticular cells B. Dendritic cells C. Macrophages D. B cells E. T cells
E
Which of the following is not involved with spinal gating of pain signals? A) The spinothalamic tract B) Nociceptors C) Second-order neurons D) The reticulospinal tract E) Lower motor neurons
E
Which of the following is predominately made up of myosin? A) F actin B) The elastic filament C) G actin D) The thin filament E) The thick filament
E
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture? A) Soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation → bone remodeling B) Bone remodeling → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation C) Bone remodeling → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → hematoma formation D) Hematoma formation → hard callus formation → soft callus formation → bone remodeling E) Hematoma formation → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → bone remodeling
E
Which of the following makes it possible for even a small quantity of hormone to have a strong effect on its target cell? A) Up-regulation B) The antagonistic effect C) Down-regulation D) Negative feedback inhibition E) Enzyme amplification
E
Cytotoxic T (TC) cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both __________. A. secrete interferons B. secrete granzymes and perforin C. participate in the immune response D. participate in nonspecific resistance E. secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
B
Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. How do you suppose these drugs work? A) They prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle. B) They prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax. C) They prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle. D) They prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle, thus slowing down the heart rate. E) They stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle, thus removing calcium from the calmodulin.
B
During exercise, one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises. As a response, blood vessels dilate in the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and heat is lost. This is an example of ________. A) set point adjustment B) negative feedback C) dynamic equilibrium D) integration control E) positive feedback
B
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles __________. A. falls rapidly B. rises rapidly C. remains constant D. rises and then falls E. falls and then rises
B
Lymphatic vessels recover about __________ of the fluid filtered by capillaries. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 50% E. 85%
B
Stimuli produced by sound waves reach the brain following which pathway? A) Auditory canal → tympanic membrane → oval window → cochlear duct → ossicles → spiral organ → fibers of cochlear nerve B) Auditory canal → tympanic membrane → ossicles → oval window → cochlear duct → spiral organ → fibers of cochlear nerve C) Cochlear duct → spiral organ → ossicles → oval window → auditory canal → tympanic membrane → fibers of cochlear nerve D) Tympanic membrane → auditory canal → ossicles → oval window → cochlear duct → spiral organ → fibers of cochlear nerve E) Cochlear duct → oval window → auditory canal → tympanic membrane → ossicles → spiral organ → fibers of cochlear nerve
B
Sympathetic effects tend to last ________ than parasympathetic effects. One reason is that ________. A) longer; acetylcholine is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) B) longer; norepinephrine can diffuse into the bloodstream without being broken down C) about the same; the two divisions use the same neurotransmitters D) shorter; acetylcholine can diffuse into the bloodstream without being broken down E) shorter; acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
B
Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving ________. A) stress B) digestion C) exercise D) arousal E) anger
B
The __________ show(s) a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age. A. lymph nodes B. thymus C. spleen D. pharyngeal tonsils E. appendix
B
The hardness of bone comes from ________, whereas ________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility. A) proteins; collagen B) hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins C) calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate D) glycoproteins; proteoglycans E) collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
B
The long absolute refractory period of cardiocytes _________. A. ensures a short twitch B. prevents tetanus C. makes the heart prone to arrhythmias D. prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses E. causes the pacemaker potential
B
The process of engaging more motor units to increase the strength of a muscle contraction is called ________. A) wave summation B) recruitment C) complete tetanus D) temporal summation E) incomplete tetanus
B
The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is ________. A) erythema B) hematoma C) jaundice D) pallor E) albinism
B
Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity. A. natural active B. artificial active C. natural passive D. artificial passive E. nonspecific
B
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin? A. Biliverdin B. Bilirubin C. Globin D. Heme E. Iron
B
What is the purpose of the triad? A) The triad maintains the resting membrane potential. B) The triad allows for Ca2+ release when a muscle fiber is excited. C) The triad stores sodium. D) The triad removes acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft. E) The triad synthesizes ATP.
B
Which body region is controlled by the largest area of the motor cortex? A) Toes B) Fingers C) Neck D) Shoulder E) Trunk
B
Which fibers are primarily responsible for producing lactate? A) Type I slow-twitch fibers B) Type IIB fast glycolytic fibers C) Red fibers D) Type IIA intermediate glycolytic fibers E) Type I slow oxidative fibers
B
Which of the following is not a function associated with the spinal cord? A) Coordinate the alternating contraction of several muscle groups associated with locomotion B) Conduct sensory information up to the brain C) Protect neurons in both the ascending and descending tracts D) Mediate a reflex, such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain E) Conduct motor information down the cord
C
Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates ________ secretion, which leads to ________. A) growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity B) calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion C) parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity D) calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption E) thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion
C
The ________ secrete(s) a hormone as a response to hypocalcemia. A) thymus B) thyroid gland C) pituitary gland D) parathyroid glands E) pineal gland
D
The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to ________. A) numbness B) muscle wasting C) atrophy D) tetanus E) flaccid paralysis
D
The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor. A. fibrin B. albumin C. sodium D. erythrocytes E. nitrogenous wastes
D
The zona fasciculata in the adrenal gland secretes ________. A) glucagon B) epinephrine C) aldosterone D) cortisol E) estradiol
D
Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue. A) nerve B) loose connective C) epithelial D) muscle E) dense connective
D
What are the first-order neurons in the visual pathway? A) Optic nerve fibers B) Rods and cones C) Amacrine cells D) Bipolar cells E) Ganglion cells
D
When sodium channels are fully open, the membrane of the ventricular cardiocyte _________. A. sharply hyperpolarizes B. sharply repolarizes C. sharply depolarizes D. plateaus E. has no reponse
D
Where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue? A) The sarcolemma of skeletal muscle B) The sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle C) Multiunit smooth muscle D) The intercalated discs of cardiac muscle E) The A bands of skeletal and cardiac muscle
D
Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body? A) Ceruminous glands B) Exothermic glands C) Mammary glands D) Merocrine glands E) Sebaceous glands
D
Which hormone stimulates glucocorticoid secretion? A) TSH B) GHRH C) CRH D) ACTH E) GHIH
D
Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood? A. Pulmonary veins and vena cavae B. Aorta and pulmonary veins C. Aorta and vena cavae D. Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries E. Pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries
D
Which of the following does (do) not belong to the second line of defense? A. The macrophage system B. Natural killer cells C. Inflammation D. The gastric juices E. Interferon and the complement system
D
Which of the following does not contribute to venous return? A. The difference of pressure between venules and the venae cavae B. The expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity during ventilation C. The suction created by the atria slightly expanding during ventricular systole D. Widespread vasodilation E. Contraction of skeletal muscles of the limbs
D
Which of the following forces does not help lymph to flow? A. Rhythmic contractions of lymphatic vessels B. The thoracic pump C. The skeletal muscle pump D. The lymphatic node pump E. Arterial pulsations squeezing lymphatic vessels
D
Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease? A. It is caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin. B. It is due to a hereditary hemoglobin defect. C. It is advantageous in that it can protect carriers against malaria. D. It is a cause of malaria. E. It is a cause of anemia.
D
Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer? A) Stratum basale and stratum corneum B) Stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum C) Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum D) Stratum spinosum and stratum basale E) Stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum
D
During the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome (stress response), stress overwhelms homeostasis. One characteristic of this stage is that ________. A) fermentation is not enough to provide the necessary ATP B) glycogen supplies are depleted C) energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism D) energy demands are met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism E) energy demands are met primarily by fat metabolism
C
Glaucoma is a state of elevated pressure within the eye that occurs when the ________ is obstructed so the aqueous humor is not reabsorbed as fast as it is secreted. A) anterior chamber B) tarsal gland opening C) scleral venous sinus D) lacrimal punctum E) posterior chamber
C
In a taste bud, which cell produces a receptor potential? A) Supporting cells B) Taste hairs C) Gustatory cells D) Sensory nerve fibers E) Basal cells
C
In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to ________ and the hamstrings to ________. A) relax; contract B) contract; contract C) contract; relax D) relax; relax
C
Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called ________. A) bronzing B) cyanosis C) jaundice D) erythema E) pallor
C
Memory T cells can be up to __________ old. A. weeks B. days C. decades D. years E. months
C
Mitosis in the ________ accounts for growth of the nail. A) nail fold B) nail plate C) nail matrix D) hyponychium E) eponychium
C
Of the following hormones, which has more target cells in the body than the others? A) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) Growth hormone (GH) D) Oxytocin (OT) E) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
C
Place the following events in synaptic transmission at a cholinergic synapse in order: A - A postsynaptic potential is produced; B - Voltage gated calcium channels open and calcium enters the cell; C - ACh is released and diffuses across the axon terminal; D - A nerve signal arrives at an axon terminal; E - Ligand gated sodium channels open and sodium enters the cell. A) D, B, E, A, C B) B, D, C, A, E C) D, B, C, E, A D) B, C, D, E, A
C
Which of the following functions would most likely be controlled by the representational hemisphere of the cerebrum? A) Balancing your checkbook B) Diagnosing a patient's disease C) Painting a picture D) Giving a speech E) Answering this question
C
ATP is consumed when ________ transfer solutes from one side of the membrane to the other.
pumps
Membrane proteins that bind to signals (ligands) by which cells communicate are called __________.
receptors
Channel protein gates respond to all these stimuli except ________.
water in the extracellular fluid
Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If solution A has a higher concentration of a nonpermeating solute than solution B, then ________.
water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
What type of tissue is found in the most superficial layer of skin? A) Stratified squamous epithelium B) Dense regular connective tissue C) Simple squamous epithelium D) Areolar connective tissue E) Dense irregular connective tissue
A
A myelin sheath is composed primarily of ________. A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) polysaccharides D) glycoproteins E) proteins
A
A myofilament that runs through the core of a thick filament and anchors it to a Z disc is called a(n) ________. A) elastic filament B) T tubule C) sarcolemma D) myofibril E) thin filament
A
Eicosanoids are derived from ________. A) arachidonic acid B) leukotriene C) prostaglandins D) thromboxanes E) prostacyclin
A
Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in ________. A) the quantity of melanin produced B) the number of keratinocytes C) UV radiation exposure D) the number of melanocytes E) the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood
A
How many muscle fibers stimulate one somatic motor neuron? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
A
If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber does NOT relax at all from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be ________. This can only be achieved in the laboratory. A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) fatigue D) wave summation E) spasm
A
Mammary glands are modified ________ glands that develop within the female breasts. A) apocrine B) merocrine C) sebaceous D) eccrine E) ceruminous
A
Most preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic nervous system synapse with ________. A) 10-20 postganglionic neurons B) parasympathetic neurons C) effectors directly D) no neurons E) somatic neurons
A
The absence of iodine in the diet leads to ________. A) hypothyroidism B) hypoglycemia C) hypoparathyroidism D) hypocalcemia E) hypoxemia
A
The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following except the ________. A) the skeletal muscle of the rectus abdominus B) smooth muscle in the walls of the aorta C) cardiac muscle in the right atrium D) adrenal gland E) parotid salivary gland
A
The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is ________. A) fluid loss B) eschar C) infection D) pain E) heat loss
A
The plasma membrane of ________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas ________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes. A) osteoclasts; osteocytes B) osteocytes; osteoclasts C) osteocytes; osteogenic cells D) osteoblasts; osteoclasts E) osteoblasts; osteocytes
A
What is taken up by the capillaries at their venous end? A. Waste products B. Oxygen C. Glucose D. Amino acids E. Organic nutrients
A
________ secretion is controlled by neuroendocrine reflexes, whereas ________ secretion is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms. A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); luteinizing hormone (LH) C) Oxytocin (OT); antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH); luteinizing hormone (LH) E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); oxytocin (OT)
A
__________ employ a "respiratory burst" to produce bactericidal chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and hypochlorite (HClO). A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Natural killer cells E. Suppressor T cells
A
Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for __________. A. hemophilia B. pulmonary embolism C. thrombocytopenia D. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) E. septicemia
B
Which of the following processes could occur only through a cellular membrane?
Active transport
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle __________. A. can cause pulmonary edema B. can cause systemic edema C. increases the ejection fraction of the right ventricle D. reduces the ejection fraction of the left ventricle E. increases cardiac output in both ventricles
B
A neuron can receive thousands of EPSPs from different neurons, and responds by triggering or not triggering an action potential. This addition and response to the net effect of postsynaptic potentials is called ________. A) recruitment B) spatial summation C) neural summation D) neuronal coding E) temporal summation
B
A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________. A. O; AB B. AB; O C. A; B D. B; A E. O; O
B
All of the following are typical characteristics of neurotransmitters except ________. A) they alter the physiology of the postsynaptic cell B) they are released into the bloodstream before reaching the postsynaptic cell C) they bind to specific receptors on the postsynaptic cell D) they are synthesized by a presynaptic neuron E) they are released in response to stimulation
B
Antigen-presenting cells usually display processed antigens to T cells in the _____________. A. blood plasma B. lymph nodes C. thymus D. red bone marrow E. liver
B
Which is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response? A. Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → differentiation → clonal selection → attack B. Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack C. Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → differentiation → attack D. Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → attack differentiation E. Antigen recognition → differentiation → antigen presentation → clonal selection → attack
B
Which of the following enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes. A) Glucagon B) Estrogen C) Oxytocin (OT) D) Insulin E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
B
Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition? A) Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids. B) The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate. C) Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption. D) Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen. E) Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
B
Which of the following is a portal system? A. Heart → artery → vein → heart B. Heart → artery → arteriole → capillary bed → arteriole → capillary bed → venule →vein → heart C. Heart → artery → artery → arteriole → capillary bed → venule → vein → heart D. Heart → artery → arteriole → capillary bed → venule → vein → vein → heart
B
Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for the hormone that stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete ACTH? A) APRH B) CRH C) GHIH D) TRH E) GHRH
B
________ are secreted by one cell into the tissue fluid, diffuse to nearby cells in the same tissue, and stimulate their physiology. A) Neurotransmitters B) Paracrines C) Parahormones D) Hormones E) Neuromodulators
B
_________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected. A. Complement system globulins B. Interferons C. Granzymes D. Pyrogens E. Perforins
B
Which of the following are powerful vasoconstrictors? A. Norepinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Norepinephrine and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) C. Epinephrine and angiotensin II D. Epinephrine and aldosterone E. Epinephrine and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C
What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?
Both are examples of carrier-mediated transport
. Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________. A. allergens B. venoms C. cancer cells D. extracellular viruses E. toxins
C
After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the _________. A. right ventricle B. pulmonary trunk C. superior vena cava D. ascending aorta E. left atrium
C
An example of a highly vascular tissue is ________ tissue. An example of a tissue that is not highly vascular is ________. A) muscular; osseous tissue B) epithelial; cartilage C) areolar; cartilage D) nervous; osseous tissue E) dense regular connective; dense irregular connective tissue
C
Before B cells secrete antibodies, they differentiate into _________. A. stem cells B. antigen-presenting cells C. plasma cells D. T cells E. macrophages
C
Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found? A. Yellow bone marrow B. Thymus C. Red bone marrow D. Spleen E. Liver
C
Pulmonary arteries have __________ blood pressure compared to systemic arteries. A. similar B. a little lower C. considerably lower D. considerably higher E. a little higher
C
Removal of the __________ would be more harmful to a one-year-old child than an adult. A. spleen B. lymph node C. thymus D. appendix E. palatine tonsil
C
Stroke volume is increased by __________. A. high arterial blood pressure B. negative inotropic agents C. increased venous return D. increased afterload E. dehydration
C
The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiocytes is probably related with __________ staying longer in the cytosol. A. Na+ B. K+ C. Ca2+ D. Cl E. Na+, K+, and Ca2+
C
The resistance stage in the general adaptation syndrome (stress response) is dominated by ________. A) angiotensin B) aldosterone C) cortisol D) norepinephrine E) epinephrine
C
To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ________ into the synaptic cleft. A) junctional folds B) sarcolemma C) synaptic vesicles D) sarcoplasmic reticulum E) terminal cisterns
C
What do pheromones stimulate? A) Taste cells B) Hair cells C) Olfactory cells D) Olfactory glands E) Supporting cells
C
What event causes rhodopsin to go from violet to clear in color? A) Cis-retinal bends to become trans-retinal B) Trans-retinal straightens to become cis-retinal C) Cis-retinal straightens to become trans-retinal D) Trans-retinal bends to become cis-retinal
C
What happens when acetylcholine stimulates its receptors in the neuromuscular junction? A) The positive charge on the sarcolemma decreases. B) The release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum decreases. C) The permeability of the sarcolemma to Na+ increases. D) The inhibitory effect of acetylcholinesterase is overridden. E) The threshold of the muscle fiber lowers.
C
What is the most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary? A. Interstitial Oncotic pressure B. Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure C. Blood colloid osmotic pressure D. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure E. Blood hydrostatic pressure
C
When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates the release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled. This is an example of ________. A) negative feedback B) integration control C) positive feedback D) set point adjustment E) dynamic equilibrium
C
When an enemy cell is present, a(n) __________ secrete perforins, which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane. A. cardiocyte B. plasma cell C. natural killer cell D. antibody E. pulmocyte
C
Where are unmyelinated nerve fibers surrounded by Schwann cells? A) In the CNS B) In the PNS and CNS C) In the PNS D) Nowhere. Unmyelinated nerve fibers are never surrounded by Schwann cells.
C
Which of the following is the last step in the sequence of events happening when cyclic AMP acts as a second messenger? A) cAMP activates protein kinases B) G protein activates adenylate cyclase C) Enzymes are activated or deactivated by the action of protein kinases D) G protein is activated by the binding of a hormone to the receptor E) Adenylate cyclase produces cAMP
C
Wolff's law of bone explains the effect of ________. A) temperature on bone growth B) sex on bone widening C) mechanical stress on bone remodeling D) different diets on bone elongation E) age on bone thickening
C
T cells achieve immunocompetence in the __________. A. bone marrow B. bloodstream C. spleen D. thymus E. liver
D
__________ play an important role in cell division, and they are made of __________.
Centrioles; Microtubules
Which of the following components of the plasma membrane stiffens it?
Cholesterol
Which of the following gives a cell structural support, determines the shape of a cell, and directs the movement of substances through a cell?
Cytoskeleton
As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must ________. A) lower its threshold B) reduce its wave summation C) shift from isometric to isotonic contraction D) recruit more muscle fibers E) shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode
D
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________. A. a self-amplifying mechanism B. an enzymatic amplification C. a positive feedback loop D. a negative feedback loop E. a cascade effect
D
The ________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage. A) osteoid tissue B) secondary ossification center C) epiphyseal line D) metaphysis E) primary ossification center
D
During the absolute refractory period which of the following is true? A) The signal grows weaker with distance. B) If a neuron reaches threshold, the action potential goes to completion. C) The neuron fires at its maximum voltage if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold. D) No stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential. E) It is possible to trigger a new action potential, but only with an unusually strong stimulus.
D
Each upward movement of the basilar membrane causes the stereocilia of the inner hair cells to bend, opening ________ gates. A) Ca2+ B) Cl C) Mg2+ D) K+ E) Na+
D
Epidural anesthesia is introduced to the epidural space between the ________ to block pain signals during pregnancy. A) dural sheath and dura mater B) dura mater and pia mater C) arachnoid mater and pia mater D) dural sheath and vertebral bones E) dura mater and arachnoid mater
D
Even though all action potentials are the same, the brain can differentiate a variety of stimuli by source and intensity. The mechanism by which the nervous system converts these action potentials into meaningful information is called neural ________. A) facilitation B) recruitment C) pooling D) coding E) integration
D
If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be ________. A) spasm B) fatigue C) complete tetanus D) incomplete tetanus E) flaccid paralysis
D
In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called ________ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head, will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to ________ its beats per minute. A) proprioceptors; decrease B) chemoreceptors; increase C) proprioceptors; increase D) baroreceptors; decrease E) baroreceptors; increase
D
Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen where? A) The axon hillock B) The Schwann cell C) The dendrites D) The neurosoma E) The axon
D
Most of the ventricle filling occurs __________. A. during atrial systole B. when the AV valve is closed C. during ventricular systole D. during atrial diastole E. during isovolumetric contraction
D
Neither follicle stimulating (FSH) hormone nor testosterone alone can stimulate significant sperm production, whereas when they act together, the testes produce some 300,000 sperm per minute. This is an example of which principle regarding hormones? A) The antagonistic effect B) Hormone clearance C) The cascade effect D) The synergistic effect E) The permissive effect
D
One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that __________. A. immunity starts in defined organs in the body B. immunity starts in specialized tissues in the body C. immunity is carried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system D. immunity is directed against a particular pathogen E. immunity is carried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system
D
Preganglionic fibers of the ANS run from the ________ to the ________. A) posterior root ganglia; gray matter B) autonomic ganglia; visceral effectors C) posterior root ganglia; autonomic ganglia D) gray matter; autonomic ganglia E) gray matter; posterior root ganglia
D
Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count, which increases their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in ________. A) increased use of myokinase B) reduced ATP consumption C) increased glycolysis D) longer anaerobic fermentation E) longer aerobic respiration
E
A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has what condition? A) Hydrocephalus B) Parkinson disease C) Alzheimer disease D) A stroke E) Meningitis
E
A pyrogen is a substance that causes __________. A. inflammation B. opsonization C. complement fixation D. cytolysis E. fever
E
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type _____ and both children are most likely _____. A. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-negative B. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-positive C. A, Rh-positive; B, Rh-negative D. O, Rh-negative; AB, Rh-negative E. A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive
E
An inhibitory local potential causes which of the following? A) Depolarization of the plasma membrane B) Drifting of the membrane potential towards the resting membrane potential C) Repolarization of the plasma membrane D) Neutralization of the plasma membrane E) Hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane
E
Aspirin and ibuprofen block the ________. A) action of lipoxygenase B) action of phospholipase A1 C) action of phospholipase A2 D) release of arachidonic acid from the plasma membrane E) action of cyclooxygenase
E
Which of the following statements about diabetes mellitus is false? A) Type II DM is more common than type I DM. B) The body produces autoantibodies that destroy the pancreatic beta cells in type I DM. C) Target cells are less responsive to insulin in type II DM. D) Diabetic neuropathy is a common long term effect of DM. E) Both type I and type II DM are characterized by lack of, or low levels of, insulin.
E
Which structure acts as a transducer in the spiral organ? A) Stereocilium B) Round window C) Basilar membrane D) Tectorial membrane E) Inner hair cell
E
__________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma. A. IgD B. IgE C. IgA D. IgM E. IgG
E
__________ provide motility to a sperm cell, __________ act as sensory "antennae" in many cells, and ____________ increase a cell's surface area.
Flagella, cillia, microvilli
Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.
Neuroglia
Which of the following is not a method by which particles can leave a cell?
Pinocytosis
What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?
Protein Synthesis
Which of the following lists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex?
Protein, mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach
Where are you most likely to encounter microvilli?
Small intestine
__________ puts finishing touches on proteins synthesized at __________.
The Golgi Complex; Rough ER
What is an example of active transport?
Transport of Na+ from a place of low concentration to a place of higher concentration
Two solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If solution A has a higher concentration of a non-permeating solute than solution B, then:
Water will pass down its concentration gradient from solution B to A
A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. This means the concentration of solutes in the solution is ________ than the concentration of solutes in the intracellular fluid, and will cause the cell to ________.
higher; shrink
The plasma membrane of cells lining the small intestine has ________, which are specialized for absorption of nutrients.
microvilli
The most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane are __________.
phospholipids
