A&P Midterm
Which bone of the carpals is found in the distal row: A) trapezium B) scaphoid C) lunate D) triquetrium E) pisiform
a
Cell that becomes trapped in bone matrix and are found within the lacuna: A) osteoblast B) osteocyte C) osteoclast D) osteoprogenitor E) osteoid
B
C2 is unique due to the following: A) odontoid process B) transverse foramen C) vertebral foramen D) costal facets
A
The hyoid bone is unique because it ________. A) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone B) is composed of three bones joined together C) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves D) is the only irregular bone found in the neck E) it serves as an attachment site for neck muscles
A
Which bone forms the prominence of the cheek? A) zygomatic bone B) temporal bone C) sphenoid bone D) palatine bone E) maxilla bone
A
Which bone is in direct contact with the first metatarsal? A) medial cuneiform B) lateral cuneiform C) cuboid D) calcaneus E) intermediate cuneiform
A
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary? A) A bone collar forms around the cartilage model. B) An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue. C) The cartilage matrix begins to deteriorate. D) A medullary cavity forms. E) the Diploë is converted to compact bone
B
Histology would be best defined as a studyof ________ A) cells B) tissues C) cell chemistry D) the gross structures of the body E) The function of how the body works
B
The cardiomyocytes would tend to separate without the inclusion of the following structure: A) myofilaments B) intercalated discs C) striations D) stroma E) nuclei
B
The following bone markings are not found on the temporal bone: A) mandibular fossa B) foramen rotundum C) jugular foramen D) foramen lacerum E) styloid process
B
The study of large body structures, visible to the naked eye, such as the heart is called ________ anatomy. A) microscopic B) gross/macroscopic C) developmental D) pathological E) biological
B
The superior orbital fissure is formed by what bone: A) ethmoid bone B) sphenoid bone C) frontal bone D) orbital bone E) medial walls of temporal bone
B
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________. A) coronal B) sagittal C) lambdoid D) squamous E) wormian
B
Thoracic vertebrae differ from the other vertebrae in that they have ________. A) no transverse processes B) costal facets C) transverse foramina D) no intervertebral discs E) no spinous process
B
What is another term for "neck"? A) cephalic B) cervical C) coxal D) carpal E) crania
B
Which of the following glands or organs produces hormones that tend to decrease blood calcium levels? A) pineal gland B) thyroid C) parathyroid D) spleen E) liver
B
Which of the following is an abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column often seen in the thoracic region? A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) intervertebral herniation E) spina bifida
B
A fracture or break in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________. A) epiphysis B) metaphysis C) diaphysis D) articular cartilage E) cortical shaft
C
A structure that is composed of two or more tissue types that work together to perform specific functions for the body is best defined as: A) complex tissue B) organ system C) organ D) complex cellE) molecule
C
The following organ system is responsible for achieving physical and chemical breakdown of food, absorb nutrients, eliminates solid waste: A) urinary B) reproductive C) digestive D) cardiovascular E) nervous
C
The foramen rotundum and foramen ovale are found in what bone: A) ethmoid B) temporal C) sphenoid D) frontal E) palatine
C
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue called ________. A) Volkmann's (perforating) canals B) central (Haversian) canals C) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers D) the struts of bone known as spicules E) the endosteum
C
The pituitary gland is housed in the following structure: A) sella turcica of the ethmoid bone B) sinuses of the ethmoid bone C) sella turcica of the sphenoid bone D) foramen lacerum E) the crista galli of the ethmoid
C
The process of bones increasing in width is known as ________. A) epiphyseal plate ossification B) epiphyseal plate closure C) appositional growth D) concentric growth E) Countercurrent growth
C
The structural unit of spongy bone within the humerus is called ________. A) osteon B) lamellar bone C) trabeculae D) osseous lamellae E) Diploë
C
What can a deficiency of growth hormone during bone formation cause? A) inadequate calcification of bone B) decreased osteoclast activity C) decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage D) increased osteoclast activity E) inadequate mineralization of bone
C
What is the only freely moveable joint of the skull called A) Temporomaxillary joint B) Temporomastoidal joint C) Temporomandibular joint D) Temporomedullary joint E) Temporomasticatory joint
C
Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? A) calcitonin B) thyroxine C) parathyroid hormone D) estrogen E) testosterone
C
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing? A) femur B) tibia C) fibula D) talus E) lumbar vertebrae
C
Which of the following is the most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy, childhood and adolescence? A) parathyroid hormone B) calcium C) growth hormone D) thyroid hormone E) androgens
C
Which of the following statements is most true concerning feedback mechanisms? A) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host. B) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus. C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body. D) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms. E) Most of the body is governed by positive feedback mechanisms.
C
Which structure allows the diaphysis of the bone to increase in length until early adulthood? A) lacunae B) osteon C) epiphyseal plate D) Perforating (Volkmann's) canal E) Diploë
C
A 70-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling while getting out of bed. She sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the right hip. Preoperative x rays and lab analysis is conducted. Serum calcium levels are at abnormally high levels an and the x ray revel decreased bone density. Based on the information above, what would be the best possible explanation of the fracture: A) osteoblast formation is overactive leading to increased deposits of bone matrix (un-mineralized bone). B) osteoblast activity is outpacing osteocyte formation C) osteoprogenitor cells have been mutated due to the patient reaching the 7th decade of life D) osteoclast activity is outpacing osteoblast formation E) failure of the Haversian system and lamellar bodies to retain compact bone structure
D
A condition where osteoclasts are hyper-active and out-pace osteoblast function, which leads to an increase in blood calcium levels, is characteristic of: A) rickets B) osteomalacia C) osteoarthritis D) osteoporosis E) rheumatoid arthritis
D
Adjacent osteocytes communicate via gap junctions found within what structure: A) lacunae B) Volkmann's (perforating) canals C) Haversian canals (osteon) D) canaliculi E) Sharpey's (perforating) fibers
D
In what bone do we find the cribriform plates? A) sphenoid B) temporal C) occipital D) ethmoid E) frontal
D
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon is the site of ________. A) cartilage and interstitial lamellae B) adipose tissue and nerve fibers C) yellow marrow and spicules D) blood vessels and nerve fibers E) union of Volkmann's (perforating) canals and perforating (Sharpey's) fibers
D
The ectodermal embryonic germ layer give rise to what bone: A) pisiform B) sternum C) humerus D) skull E) tibia
D
The following is not part of the sternum: A) manubrium B) xyphoid process C) body D) clavicular process E) sternal angle
D
The lungs are located in the following cavity: A) cranial cavity B) vertebral cavity C) abdominal cavity D) thoracic cavity E) pelvic cavity
D
The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called ________. A) areolas B) foramina C) sutures D) fontanelles E) spina bifida
D
The structural unit of spongy bone within the cranium is called ________. A) osteon B) lamellar bone C) trabeculae D) Diploë E) osseous lamellae
D
What is the structural unit of compact bone called: A) the osteoid B) spongy bone C) lamellar bone D) the osteon E) the diploë
D
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo? A) elastic connective tissue B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) fibrocartilage D) hyaline cartilage E) reticular cartilage
D
What pairs of ribs are considered true ribs (vertebrosternal ribs) : A) 1 through 5 B) 1 through 6 C) 1through 12 D) 1 through 7 E) 1through 8
D
Which of the following is not a cranial bone? A) parietal B) temporal C) occipital D) orbital E) ethmoid
D
Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy? A) kyphosis B) hunchback C) scoliosis D) lordosis E) spina bifida
D
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth? A) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones. B) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage. C) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage. D) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within. E) Increased division of osteoclastic activity that will outpace osteoblastic activity.
D
Which of the following statements regarding intramembranous ossification is false? A) Selected centrally located mesenchymal cells cluster and differentiate into osteoblasts, forming an ossification center that produces the first trabeculae of spongy bone. B) Lamellar bone replaces woven bone, just deep to the periosteum. C) Accumulating osteoid is laid down between embryonic blood vessels in a manner that results in a network (instead of concentric lamellae) of trabeculae called woven bone. D) Osteoclasts begin to secrete osteoid, which calcifies in a few days. Trapped osteocytes become osteoblasts E) Spongy bone (diploë), consisting of distinct trabeculae, persists internally and its vascular tissue becomes red marrow.
D
_______ is punctured by tiny holes called cribiform foramina that allows for CN 1 (olfactory) to pass: A) sphenoid B) temporal C) occipital D) ethmoid E) parietal
D
Wolff's law is concerned with ________. A) vertical growth of bones being dependent on age B) the modification of bone due to intermittent growth spurts during adolescence C) diameter of the bone being dependent on the ratio of osteoblasts to osteoclasts D) the function of bone being dependent on shape E) the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it the
E
A transverse cut separates the structure to be viewed as: A) horizontally superior and inferior B) diagonally between vertical and horizontal planes C) vertically right and left D) perpendicular to vertical and horizontal planes E) obliquely to ensure that maximal body tissues are traversed
a
Edema occurs when A) areolar tissue soaks up excess fluid in an inflamed area B) adipose cells enlarge by pinocytosis C) collagen fibers enlarge as they change from dehydrated to hydrated shape D) reticular connective tissue invades the area E) red blood cells leave the vascular space and enter tissue
a
Found in the deepest layer to form touch receptors with sensory neurons in the epidermis A) Tactile cells (Merkel cells) B) Dentritic cells (Langerhan cells) C) Lamellar corpuscles (Pacinian corpuscles) D) Tactile corpuscles (Meissner's corpuscles) E) Bulbous corpuscle (Ruffini ending)
a
In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following best describes another vital function of the skin? A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body. C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy. D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases. E) the epidermis is highly vascularized with large deposits of hemoglobin, giving skin it's reddish hue.
a
In embryonic development, the epidermis arises from the ______ A) ectoderm B) mesoderm C) endoderm D) neural crest E) myoderm
a
In which quadrant/region of the abdomen is the appendix located in? A) right lower quadrant B) right upper quadrant C) left upper quadrant D) left lower quadrantE) epigastric region
a
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is characterized in the following way: A) lines most of the upper respiratory tract B) are a subdivision of stratified epithelium C) possesses no goblet cells D) lines most of the upper digestive tract E) are found on the rapidly diving cells of the epidermal surface
a
Reticular connective tissue is mainly located in which of the following organs: A) lymphoid organs B) respiratory organs C) digestive organs D) nervous organs E) digestive organs
a
The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? A) the reticular layer B) the stratum spinosum C) the stratum lucidum D) the papillary layer E) the muscular layer
a
The following bone is in direct contact with the radius A) scaphoid B) trapezium C) pisiform D) capitate E) hamate
a
The following dynamic does not influence diffusion: A) availability of glucose as an energy source B) temperature C) Surface area D) Diffusion distance E) Steepness of the concentration gradient
a
The glenoid cavity is located where the _______. A) humerus articulates with the scapula B) humerus articulates with the clavicle C) clavicle articulates with the scapula D) clavicle articulates with the sternum E) humerus articulates with the ulna
a
The visceral pleura would represent a serous membrane ________. A) covering each individual lung B) lining the thoracic cavity C) covering the heart D) lining the abdominal cavity E) covering both the organ and thoracic cavity
a
These are the most plentiful lipids in the body and provide protection, insulation, and energy (both immediate and stored): A) triglycerides B) cholesterol C) eicosanoids D) steroids E) phospholipids
a
This particular cell type is not found in areolar connective tissue: A) chondrocytes B) fibroblasts C) macrophages D) mast cells E) reticular fibers
a
This type of imaging study uses radiation to penetrate tissue that is best used to visualize bones A) X-ray B) Ultrasound C) MRI D) CT scan E) PET scan
a
Transcription of DNA into mRNA occurs in what organelle/structure: A) nucleus B) nucleoli C) golgi apparatus D) endoplasmic reticulum E) cytoplasm
a
What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) ground substance, fibers, and cells B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts E) bone, blood, muscle
a
What is a vertical section through the body dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called? A) frontal B) median C) sagittal D) transverse E) oblique
a
What layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? A) epidermis B) hypodermis C) dermis D) papillary layer E) reticular layer
a
Which feedback system structure provides input to the control center? A) receptor B) muscle C) response D) effector E) efferent pathway
a
Which of the following hormones or vitamins does not play a role in bone homeostasis. A) vitamin A B) calcitonin C) testosterone D) parathyroid hormone E) Vitamin D
a
Which phalange has just two bones rather than three? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V
a
Which statement best describes connective tissue? A) usually contains a large amount of matrix for support B) typically arranged in a single layer of cells C) primarily concerned with secretion D) usually lines a body cavity E) is a scarce type of connective tissue limited only to highly specialized organs
a
Which tissue type arises from all three embryonic germ layers? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) reticular tissue
a
Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of valence electrons between two atoms (ex. H2)? A) covalent B) ionic C) hydrogen D) atomic E) kinetic
a
________ is an inherited condition that affects melanin production; it leaves the skin hypopigmented in some areas and with normal pigmentation in others. A) Vitiligo B) Rheumatism C) Impetigo D) Rosacea E) albinism
a
Acne is a disorder associated with ________. A) sudiferous glands B) sebaceous glands C) Meibomian glands D) ceruminous glands E) Eccrine glands
b
An injection placed beneath the skin causing it to bleb, would best be an example of? A) an Intramuscular Injection (IM) B) an Intradermal Injection (ID) C) a subcutaneous (SubQ) Injection D) an Intravenous Injection (IV) E) all the options above are acceptable
b
As the spinal cord exits the cranium, it passes through a large opening in the occipital bone called the ______. A) greater trochanter B) foramen magnum C) occipital condyle D) external auditory meatus E) mental foramen
b
Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) sebaceous D) eccrine E) apocrine
b
Groups of cells that are of similar embryonic origin, similar in structure, and perform a common or related function form what structure: A) organ B) tissue C) organism D) organ system E) molecule of that structure
b
How many cervical vertebrae are present in a pregnant 22-year-old female with a history of diabetes and one miscarriage: A) 6 B) 7 C) 12 D) 5 E) 8
b
Ligand gated channels are best classified as type of: A) primary active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) simple diffusion D) secondary active transport E) filtration
b
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex: 1. molecules 2. atoms 3. tissues 4. cells 5. organs A) 1-2-3-4-5 B) 2-1-4-3-5 C) 2-1-3-4-5 D) 1-2-4-3-5
b
Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix. B) Its primary function is nutrient storage. C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic. D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus. E) two types of adipose tissue exist- white adipose and red adipose.
b
Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection. B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable. C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers. E) Fibrinolysis means the formation of a fibrin mesh
b
The Na+/K+ pump is a prime example of what type of transport mechanism A) Passive transport B) primary active transport C) facilitated diffusion D) Hormonal transport E) Voltage gated channel transport
b
The anatomical position is used ________. A) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position during waking moments B) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body C) only when a body is lying down one one's back rather than stomach D) only in situations that are emergencies, i.e. choking E) only used when using radiographic imaging
b
The atomic number, found in the lower left subscript of an element, represents the total number of: A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons & neutrons E) protons, neutrons & electrons
b
The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the: A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) osteoclast D) chondrocyte E) osteon
b
The classic example of amino acids creating bonds to make complex proteins: A + B ®AB. What would be the best definition of this type of chemical reaction? A) decomposition reaction B) synthesis reaction C) redox reaction D) Exchange reaction E) reversible reaction
b
The dorsal body cavity houses which of the following structures/organs? A) intestines B) brain C) lungs D) kidneyE) uterus
b
The following cell is not found in the epidermis? A) keratinocytes B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscles C) dendritic (Langerhans) cells D) tactile (merkel) cells E) melanocytes
b
The following is not a bone of the tarsals A) cuneiform B) capitate C) navicular D) calcaneus E) talus
b
The following structure is not part of the sphenoid bone. A) optic canal B) foramen lacerum C) foramen rotundum D) superior orbital fissure E) foramen spinosum
b
The integumentary system is protected by the action of these phagocytic cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function? A) Melanocytes B) Dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell) C) keratinocytes, comprising more than 90% of integument cells D) Krause's (striated) corpuscles E) Pacini (lamellar) corpuscles
b
The main function of cholesterol within the cell membrane is to________ A) Allow the cell to hydrolyze ATP B) Increase membrane stability C) To assist in cell- cell recognition, specifically glycolipids D) Increase membrane permeability regarding lipid soluble substances E) Function as integral membrane transporters
b
The mastoid and petrous processes are found on the following bone: A) sphenoid B) temporal C) occipital D) ethmoid E) parietal
b
The most significant solvent in the human body is found in the form of: A) Glucose B) blood C) Fat D) Protein E) carbohydrates
b
The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. A) adipose tissue B) elastic cartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) reticular cartilage
b
This is the most common type of cancer that is least likely to be malignant A) squamous cell carcinoma B) basal cell carcinoma C) melanoma D) stratified cell carcinoma E) keritanoma
b
What best describes what occurs in Metaphase: A) the identical daughter cells separate B) the chromosomes align along the equatorial plane C) the chromosomes are pulled toward opposite poles assisted by the centrioles attached to the chromosome kinetochore. D) chromatin is uncondensed and the cell goes about it normal metabolic function E) the phenomenon of chromosomal crossing over at the chiasmata
b
When ionization of bases occur, they dissociate into one or more _____ and one or more _____ A) hydrogen ions (H+); anions B) hydroxide ions (OH-); cations C) hydrogen ions (H+); electrolytes D) hydroxide ions (OH-); anions E) hydrogen ions (H+); cations
b
Which bone acts as a moveable base for the tongue? A) mandible B) hyoid bone C) zygomatic bone D) palatine E) maxilla
b
Which of the following bones is NOT a part of the axial skeleton? A) 12th Rib B) Clavicle C) vomer bone D) xyphoid process E) C1 Vertebra
b
Which of the following is not a major bone feature of the pelvis: A) obturator foramen B) trochlear notch C) acetabulum D) greater sciatic notch E) iliac fossa
b
Which of the following is not considered a survival need in humans: A) nutrients B) sunlight C) oxygen D) temperatureE) atmospheric pressure
b
Which type of exocrine gland is a simple, coiled, tubular gland that is found throughout almost the entirety of the skin? a) Sebaceous gland b) Eccrine sweat gland c) Apocrine sweat gland d) Ceruminous gland e) Meibomian gland
b
____ is the study of the function of the body A) Anatomy B) Physiology C) Immunology D) MetabolismE) Biology
b
A prime example of a polar covalent bond would be? A) H2 (hydrogen gas) B) CO2 (carbon dioxide) C) H2O (water) D) O2 (oxygen) E) CH4 (methane)
c
A type of cancer that develops from pigment-containing cells: A) squamous cell carcinoma B) merkeloma C) melanoma D) keratinoma E) dentric cell carcinoma
c
An atom Oxygen [O] has 8 protons. How many total electrons are present? A) 6 B) 16 C) 8 D) 4 E) 2
c
Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic monomeric structural building blocks by the following biochemical mechanism: A) addition of a water molecule between each two units B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units C) removal of a water molecule between each two units D) removal of a carbon atom between each two units E) addition of an electron atom between each two units
c
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________ for future use. A) glucose B) triglycerides C) glycogen D) cholesterol E) proteins
c
Crenation is most likely to occur in red blood cells immersed in ________. A) an isotonic solution B) a hypotonic solution C) a hypertonic solution D) blood plasma E) hypermeric solution
c
Globular structures that act as biological catalysts, that regulate and increase speed of chemical reactions. This definition best describes: A) Carbohydrates B) Lipids C) Proteins D) Nucleic acids E) monosaccharides
c
How many bones comprise the tarsal region A) 5 B) 14 C) 7 D)8 E)6
c
In ______reactions, there is a net release of energy where products have less potential energy than reactants. Examples would include catabolic and oxidative reactions. A) kinetic B) endergonic C) exergonic D) nuclear E) catalytic
c
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue? A) simple squamous B) pseudostratified C) simple columnar D) stratified squamous E) stratified columnar
c
It's function is to protect the area between the nail and epidermis from exposure to bacteria. The cuticle is the semi-circular layer of non-living, almost invisible dead skin cells that cover the back of the visible nail plate and the ______ is the fold of skin cells that protects the cuticle. A) onychostroma B) hyponychium C) eponychium D) paronychium E)free margin
c
Microfilaments that are found inside cells and are composed of thin, filamentous strands of a protein are called______: A) myosin B) albumin C) actin D) myoglobin E) tubulin
c
Organic chemical that provides energy to drive many processes in living cells. Often referred to as the "molecular unit of currency" of intracellular energy transfer. A) bicarbonate B) glucose C) ATP D) DNA E) carbonic acid
c
Regarding embryogenesis, the skull arises from what layer? A) endoderm B) mesoderm C) ectoderm D) neural crest E) fontanelle layer
c
The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome to assist in protein synthesis is ________. A) rRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) mtDNA E) dDNA
c
The atomic number is equal to the number of _______ in the nucleus A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons D) cations E) anions
c
The correct order of events that occur in the Mitotic phase of the cell cycle is: A) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis, Telophase B) Cytokinesis, Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase C) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis D) Prophase, Anaphase, Interphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis E) Anaphase, Prophase, Cytokinesis, Telophase, Prophase
c
The endocrine system is chiefly responsible for regulating: A) immune function B) excretion of metabolic wastes C) release of hormones D) release neurotransmittersE) synthesis of vitamin D
c
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for continued cell division and replacement? A) stratum corneum B) stratum granulosum C) stratum basale D) stratum lucidum E) stratum spinosum
c
The following bone is not part of the carpal bone structure: A) scaphoid B) hamate C) navicular D)trapezoid E)triquetrum
c
The following is a bone marking not found on the humerus A) olecranon fossa B) capitulum C) coronoid process D) trochlea E) radial fossa
c
The following is not a bone of the cranium: A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) lacrimal D) occipital E) parietal
c
The following is true of the rough ER A) It is the site of cholesterol and steroid-based hormone synthesis B) It is the organelle that provides energy to the cell through cell respiration (phosphorylation) C) It is responsible for the synthesis of membrane integral proteins D) Detoxification of chemical substances E) Provides the genetic blueprints necessary for protein synthesis
c
The main function of the mitochondria is to______ A) provide the cell a bench-work for ribosome synthesis in order to create proteins B) provide the cell with the creation of lipids and cholesterol C) provide energy to the cell through cell respiration D) provide the genetic blueprints for protein synthesis E) to assist in the translation of DNA to RNA via mtDNA
c
The organelle that is responsible for post-translational peptide modification and ultimately the packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids: A) Smooth ER B) Rough ER C) Golgi Apparatus D) nucleoli E) ribosome
c
The reticular layer is comprised of what type of connective tissue: A) stratified squamous epithelium B) loose areolar connective tissue C) dense irregular connective tissue D) elastic tissue E) dentrtic connective tissue
c
The structure of bone tissue dictates its function. Which of the following bone tissues is best adapted to support weight and withstand tension stress? A) spongy bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) trabecular bone E)Diploë bone
c
The transport of glucose from the lumen of the intestine to the interior of the epithelial cells of the small intestine that occurs through the SGLT1 receptors, best describes what transport mechanism: A) facilitated diffusion B) primary active transport C) secondary active transport D) simple diffusion E) osmosis
c
Two revolutions of DNA around this protein results in a structure that is called a nucleosome. What is the name of this protein structure? A) holoenzyme B) histidine protein C) histone protein D) Promoter proteinE) DNA polymerase
c
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left (sinister) and right (dexter), called? A) frontal B) regional C) sagittal D) transverseE) superior
c
What is the subtype of RNA that is being passed through the ribosome as it is being read and proteins are being synthesized? A) rRNA B) mtDNA C) mRNA D) tRNA E) cDNA
c
When atoms of two different elements bind together, they form a(n) __________. A) molecule B) mixture C) compound D) solution E) element
c
Which bone of the carpals is not found in the proximal row: A) triquetrum B) lunate C) capitate D) Pisiform E) scaphoid
c
Which condition is due to a buildup of bilirubin pigment within the skin, which can sometimes be seen in newborns and can be treated with UVB light? a) cyanosis b) pallor c) jaundice d) purpura e) erythema
c
Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched? A) Keratinocytes — provide sense of touch and pressure B) Melanocytes — protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays C) Dendritic cells — phagocytic cell of the immune system D) Tactile cells — protection in the dermal layer of the skin E) Adipocytes- retains moisture and keeps the skin properly hydrated
c
Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes? A) digesting particles taken in by endocytosis B) destroying worn-out or nonfunctional organelles C) forming acid hydrolases which are necessary to help form cell membranes D) breaking down larger structures into simpler ones E) fusing with a phagosome within phagocytic cells
c
Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of the alveolar membranes? A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple columnar C) simple squamous D) simple cuboidal E) stratified squamous
c
Which of the following is least true regarding the function of proteins? A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity. B) They have both functional and structural roles in the body. C) They are the most energy dense organic substance in the body. D) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape. E) They play a role in the formation of enzymes.
c
Which of the following is true of epithelia? A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion. B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration. C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs. D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized. E) Three principal shapes of cells exist; squamous, cylindrical, and cuboidal.
c
Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers. B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back. C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength. D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures. E) Ground substance speeds the spread of pathogens.
c
Which vertebra does not have a body? A) 12th thoracic B) axis C) atlas D) last cervical E) First lumbar
c
________ is another name for Anterior. A) Posterior B) Dorsal C) Ventral D) CaudalE) Superior
c
A many-layered epithelium with flat-like square cells at its surface would be classified as: A) simple cuboidal B) simple squamous C) stratified cuboidal D) stratified squamous E) stratified columnar
d
Marked genu varum (bowing of the femurs) and decreased bone opacity, suggesting poor bone mineralization that occurs in adults and is generally due to a deficiency of vitamin D, is best defined as: A) osteoporosis B) rickets C) osteochondritis D) osteomalacia E)osteogenesis imperfecta
d
On what bone is the trochlea found in: A) scapula B) radius C) ulna D) humerus E) femur
d
Regarding the biochemical mechanism of filtration; what organ best exemplifies its use: A) lungs B) small intestine C) brain D) kidney E) heart
d
The Meibomian gland is a specialized type of: A) sudiferous gland B) ceruminous gland C) endocrine gland D) sebaceous gland E) Eccrine gland
d
The clavicle attaches to the scapula via: A) coracoid process B) glenoid fossa C) olecranon D) acromion E) coronoid process
d
The distal part of the fibula terminates as? A) calcaneus B) navicular C) medial malleolus D) lateral malleolus E) cuneiform
d
The following subatomic particle is found in the valence shell of the atom: A) protons B) neutrons C) positrons D) electrons E) ions
d
The mastoid process and styloid process are found in the following bone: A) sphenoid B) occipital C) ethmoid D) temporal E) frontal
d
The most important steroid in the body, which plays a vital role in maintaining the integrity of the cell membrane, assisting in vitamin D synthesis, as well as the synthesis of steroid hormones and bile salts is: A) triglycerides B) essential fatty acids C) eicosanoids D) cholesterol E) phospholipids
d
The organelle that is chiefly responsible for the neutralization of free radicals within the cell are the: A) lysosomes B) ribosomes C) golgi apparatus D) peroxisomes E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d
The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength, which allows them to absorb shock, is because they are primarily composed of what tissue type: A) hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) reticular cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) dense irregular connective tissue
d
The replication of DNA and centrosomes occurs in what phase of the cell cycle? A) G1 phase B) G2 phase C) G0 phase D) S phase E) G3 phase
d
The simple columnar epithelium that forms absorptive cells of the digestive tract has which characteristic? A) micro-flagella B) cyto-cillia C) fibroblasts D) microvilli E) cilia
d
This is the visible part of the nail matrix, the whitish crescent-shaped base: A) eponychium B) onychostroma C) hyponychium D) lunula E) nail root
d
What is the most numerous epidermal cell: A) elastin B) lamellar cell C) dendritic cell D) keratinocyte E) melanocyte
d
Deep wound healing occurs when an injury extends to the dermis and subcutaneous layer, where healing occurs in 4 general phases. Which of the choices below is not one of 4 phases:? A) migratory phase B) proliferative phase C) inflammatory phase D) maturation phase E) fibrosis phase
e
Which definition best describes oxidation-reduction (redox) reactions: A) oxidation is a gain of hydrogen; reduction is a loss of hydrogen B) oxidation is a gain of acid; reduction is a gain of alkaline C) oxidation is a gain of electrons; reduction is a loss of electrons D) oxidation is a loss of electrons; reduction is a gain of electrons E) oxidation is a loss of oxygen; reduction is a gain of oxygen
d
Which feedback system structure receives output from the control center? A) receptor B) stimulus C) response D) effector E) efferent pathway
d
Which of the following best describes/defines the plasma membrane? A) a double-layer of cholesterol that surrounds the nucleus of the cell B) a double layer of protein enclosing the cell C) a triglyceride bilayer surrounding the cell D) a phospholipid bilayer surrounding the cell E) a double layer of triglycerides enclosing the cell
d
Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? A) Storage and release of calcium B) steroid-based hormone synthesis C) breakdown of stored glycogen to form free glucose D) protein synthesis in conjunction with ribosomes E) detoxification of medications and toxins
d
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of the inflammatory process? A) pain B) heat C) edema D) clot formation E) loss of function
d
Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life processes? A) movement B) responsiveness C) metabolism D) decay E) differentiation
d
Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane? A) Transport B) Cell-cell recognition C) Intercellular joining D) Protein synthesis E) Receptors for signal transduction
d
Which term means towards the back of the body or behind? A) anterior B) lateral C) distal D) dorsalE) ventral
d
rRNA synthesis and the 60S ribosome subunit assembly occur in what organelle ______ A) ribosome B) nucleus C) cytoplasm D) nucleoli E) rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
d
the ______ articulates with the femur A) glenoid cavity B) ischial tuberosity C) pubic symphysis D) acetabulum E)coccyx
d
A condition not regulated by the negative feedback mechanism would be: A) blood sugar (glucose) levels B) body temperature C) blood pressure D) heart rate E) blood clotting
e
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the palm in what order from the most superficial to most deep? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale E) corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
e
Attractive force between this ion creates an attachment to an electronegative atom of one molecule and an electropositive atom of a different molecule. The new bond now demonstrates a partial negative charge and a partial positive charge. This is the definition of what type of bond: A) nonpolar ionic bond B) nonpolar covalent bond C) polar ionic bond D) triple covalent bond E) polar covalent bond
e
Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do health care providers estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss if dealing with second degree burns when considering them as critical burns (meaning, they are considered critical if greater than what percentage)? A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% E) 25%
e
Globular proteins that act as biological catalysts that regulate and increase speed of chemical reactions. This best defines what term below: A) solutes B) cations C) amino acids D) compounds E) enzymes
e
The clavicle articulates with which of the following structures to form the sternoclavicular joint? A) acromion B) coracoid process C) coracoid tubercle D) glenoid cavity E) manubrium
e
The coronoid process, olecranon process, and trochlear notch are all found on the _______. A) humerus B) femur C) radius D) fibula E) ulna
e
The first step in tissue repair involves ________. A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue C) fibrinolysis D) formation of scar tissue E) inflammation
e
The following are examples of the vesicular transport system with the exception of: A) Exocytosis B) Endocytosis C) Phagocytosis D) Pinocytosis E) Filtration
e
The following bone does not form part of the eye orbit: A) sphenoid B) lacrimal C) maxilla D) ethmoid E) temporal
e
The following bone does not make up part of the nasal cavity: A) maxilla B) vomer C) frontal D) nasal E) zygomatic
e
The following equitation is an example of what type of chemical reaction: AB ® A + B. This would also involve the breaking of bonds. A) exchange B) synthesis C) anabolic D) reversible E) decomposition
e
The following is not a subclass of connective tissue proper: A) areolar B) dense regular C) elastic D) reticular E) hyaline
e
The following structure/bone marking is found on the ethmoid bone: A) foramen spinosum B) sella turcica C) mastoid process D) styloid process E) crista galli
e
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter, which are also known as the "major elements" are ________. A) Carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium B) Nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium C) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, helium D) Sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
e
This type of energy is best described as being stored in the body and awaiting future use: A) Chemical energy B) Electrical energy C) Mechanical energy D) Kinetic energyE) Potential energy
e
What is the name given to a positively charged atom? A) positron B) isotope C) anion D) ion E) cation
e
Where would you most likely find the highest concentration of elastic connective tissue: A) at the ends of joints in order to reduce friction B) within muscle to enhance contraction C) within the liver, specifically the hepatocyte to assist in metabolism and detoxification D) in fat cells which give them the ability to expand and increase in size E) in arteries to assist in pressure compensation
e
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. A) Stratified cuboidal B) Stratified columnar C) Transitional D) simple cuboidal E) Pseudostratified columnar
e
jagged bone between petrous bone and sphenoid bone. Completely closed off by cartilage in the living, open in the dead. A) foramen ovale B) mastoid process C) foramen rotundum D) foramen magnum E) foramen lacerum
e
