Ace quiz answers

What are the stages of an exercise program

1. Stability and Mobility 2. Movement Training 3 and 4. Progression Load and performance training

A male client who weighs 190 pounds has a one-repetition maximum of 225 pounds on the bench press exercise. His relative strength for this exercise is __________.

1.18 Relative strength is the maximum force a person is able to exert in relation to his or her body weight and is calculated using the formula: Relative strength = Absolute strength/Body weight, where Absolute strength is defined as the one-repetition maximum. In this case, Relative strength = 225 pounds/190 pounds = 1.18

How much protein should an athlete consume? Is it the same as general population?

1.2-1.7 g/kg of body weight (.5-.8 g/lb) this is consistent with requirements by the general population as well.

How many carbs should someone eat post workout?

1/1.5 g/kg body weight within 30 minutes of the workout. then for every two hours for the next 4-6 hours

What is the minimum recommended amount of carbohydrates per day?

100 g

If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?

21 mL/kg/min 1 MET is equal to 3.5 mL/kg/min, so 6 METs = 6 x 3.5 mL/kg/min = 21 mL/kg/min

How many carbs should an exerciser consume per hour of exercising?

30-60 grams

More than ____% of people who start a new program will drop out within the first six months.

50

How many carbs should an athlete consume?

6-10 g/kg of body weight (3-5 g/lbs)

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk?

>0.86

Which of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to adhere to a supervised physical-activity program?

A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health

At what stage of an exercise bout are phosphagen stores being replenished, remaining lactate being removed from the blood, and metabolic rate decreasing?

After the cessation of exercise

Golgi tendons cause _______________ when the muscle contraction ceases.

Autogenic inhibition

_______________ provides an objective ratio describing the relationship between body weight and height.

BMI

Which of these medications causes a dose-related decrease in a person's resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates?

Beta blockers

A client has gained 65 pounds and is prediabetic - what needs to be improved

Body composition

Your client has just signed up for her first half marathon. Which fitness component would most likely need to be improved to help this client

Cardiovascular endurance

Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary categories of potential determinants for physical activity? A. Personal attributes B. Environmental factors C. Physical-activity factors D. Physical Attributes

D

_______________ represents the pressure that is exerted on the artery walls as blood remains in the arteries during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle.

Diastolic blood pressure

Which medication has no primary affect on heart rate, but can cause dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to water and electrolyte imbalances?

Diuretics

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic cardiorespiratory exercise

Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles

Measuring VO2max in a laboratory involves the collection and analysis of _______________ during maximal exercise.

Exhaled air

T/F The four quadriceps muscles each have their own insertion point.

FALSE; Although they originate from different areas, all four quadriceps muscles converge and share one tendon of insertion, the patellar tendon.

T/F Neurons can transmit impulses because they are connected.

FALSE; For an electrical impulse to travel through the nervous system, it must be passed from one neuron to the next. Neurons remain separated from each other by a small space called a synapse.

T/F In order for an impulse to move from one neuron to another, myelin must be released.

FALSE; In order for an impulse to move from one neuron to another, the first neuron must release a chemical transmitter substance that attaches to receptors located on the membrane of the second neuron. Myelin is a fatty substance that insulates the axon and keeps the electrical current from outside the nerve.

TRUE OR FALSE The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to gather information on the client's goals and objectives.

FALSE; The first objective when meeting a prospective client is to first build a foundation for a personal relationship with the individual; gathering information on the client's goals and objectives is secondary.

T/F Stabilization of the deltoid muscles helps prevent subluxation of the humeral head from the glenoid fossa.

FALSE; The rotator-cuff muscles surround the head of the humerus, with the primary stabilizing function of holding the humeral head in the glenoid fossa. The lack of bone supporting the shoulder joint requires that these muscles and their associated tendons work as stabilizers to prevent subluxation or dislocation of the humeral head from the glenoid fossa.

T/F The hamstring muscle group assists with knee extension.

FALSE; They help with flexion

T/F Type I muscle fibers are used during anaerobic metabolism.

FALSE; Type I muscle fibers are more resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism, while type IIx muscle fibers possess a high number of glycolytic enzymes, which provide them with a considerable anaerobic capacity.

T/F Type I muscle fibers have a small amount of mitochondria as compared to type II muscle fibers.

FALSE; Type I muscle fibers contain relatively large amounts of mitochondria and are surrounded by more capillaries than fast-twitch fibers.

T/F Type IIa muscle fibers can only sustain activity for less than 30 seconds.

FALSE; Type IIa muscle fibers possess speed, fatigue resistance, and force-production capabilities somewhere between type I and type IIx muscle fibers. They can sustain an effort for longer than type IIx fibers—up to three minutes in highly trained athletes.

T OR F The end-point of the VT2 threshold test is determined by the client's ability to recite the Pledge of Allegiance, or another memorized group of phrases.

False

If there is a decrease in parasympathetic activity, the heart rate will decrease

False, at a resting rate the body is under parasympathetic control, as activity increases sympathetic stimulation increases and increases heart rate

During exercise there is an increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure

False, during exercise systolic blood pressures increases

Minute ventilation decreases after an exercise crosses the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)

False, during sub maximal exercise, ventilation increases linearly with oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. This occurs primarily through an increase in tidal volume (amount of air inhaled and exhaled per breath). At high or near maximal intensities (above VT2) the amount of breathing becomes more pronounced and minute ventilation rises disproportionately to the increases in oxygen consumption

After completing 3 weeks of physical therapy, your client needs to continue improving the range of motion in his shoulder joint. Which fitness component would most likely need to be improved to help this client

Flexibility

You are performing the YMCA submaximal Step Test on a 40 year old, apparently healthy, female client who you have been working with for the past 4 weeks. After completing the 3-minute assessment you immediately have the client sit down and measure her heart rate for 1 minute. Her post exercise heart rate is recorded as 96 beats per minute. How would you classify this client's cardiorespiratory endurance?

Good

Which of the following must be included as part of every client's pre-participation screening?

Health-risk appraisal

Which of the following is NOT a cause to immediately stop a cardiorespiratory exercise test?

Heavy breathing due to intense exercise

For which of the following clients would a medical exam and graded exercise test be recommended before training begins?

High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise

What is anterior pelvic tilt

Hips are tilted anteriorly (forward) and up causing lordosis in the lumbar spine (arch). This is usually caused by tight hip flexors and erector spinae muscles and is common in those with sedentary lifestyle and sit most of the day. Commonly seen with foot pronation (flat feet)

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary purposes of a pre-participation screening?

Identifying the individual's stage of behavioral change

The purposes of the pre-participation screening include the following:

Identifying the presence or absence of known cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease, or signs or symptoms suggestive of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and/or metabolic disease Identifying individuals with medical contraindications (health conditions and risk factors) who should be excluded from exercise or physical activity until those conditions have been corrected or are under control Detecting at-risk individuals who should first undergo medical evaluation and clinical exercise testing before initiating an exercise program Identifying those individuals with medical conditions who should participate in medically supervised programs

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of regular physical activity

Increase diastolic blood pressure

Which of the following is and adaptation specifically seen with regular weight-bearing exercise?

Increase in bone density

Which of the following is NOT a method the body uses to preserve blood volume during steady state exercise

Increasing stroke volume

Which of the following is NOT a reason that the average resting heart rate for women is higher than that of men?

Lower sympathetic drive REASONS THEY DO: Smaller heart chamber size Lower blood volume circulating less oxygen throughout the body Lower hemoglobin levels in women

Joseph has a tough time managing stress, which component would most likely need to be improved to help this client

Mind/body vitality

Muscle spindles respond to muscle fibers being overstretched by causing a _______________, known as the _______________.

Muscular contraction; stretch reflex

Your client needs to be able to transfer themselves out of their wheel chair post surgery, which component would most likely need to be improved upon

Muscular strength

After performing skinfold measurements with a male client, his body-fat percentage is calculated to be 26%. How would you rank this client in terms of body-fat percentage?

Obese

________________ is the most common excuse for not exercising and for dropping out of an exercise program.

Perceived lack of time

A client's blood-pressure reading is 124/78 mmHg. How should the personal trainer classify this client?

Prehypertension

A competitive soccer player, whose sport requires an ability to accelerate, decelerate, change direction, and then accelerate again, is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills?

Pro agility test

Which of these assessments measures a client's muscular endurance?

Push-up test

When the muscle spindle's reflex contraction occurs, it causes the antagonist muscle group to relax. This is known as _______________.

Reciprocal inhibition

Golgi tendon organs respond to muscle tension by causing the muscle to _______________.

Relax

Which of the following documents represents a client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file a lawsuit against the personal trainer?

Release of liability waiver

Where is the sinoatrial node (SA) ,the pacemaker of the heart, located?

Right atrium

Which of the following terms is defined as the belief in one's own capabilities to successfully engage in a behavior?

Self-efficacy

What types of muscles are typically hold proper (or improper) posture position

Slow twitch muscle fibers (aka type 1 fibers) because those are endurance muscles meaning they can typically be used for longer periods of time

During a treadmill test, a client complains of leg cramping but feels that she will be able to finish the test. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

Stop the test immediately and possibly refer the client to her primary healthcare professional

Which of the following is considered a positive risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease?

Systolic blood pressure of 143 mmHg

T OR F A personal trainer can accurately estimate VO2max from a client's heart-rate response to exercise.

TRUE

T/F Dendrites conduct electrical impulses toward the cell body.

TRUE

T/F Endurance athletes, such as those who participate in cross-country running, generally possess a large percentage of type I muscle fibers.

TRUE

T/F Flexion and external rotation at the knee are performed by the biceps femoris.

TRUE

T/F Neurotransmitters are released to carry impulses from one neuron to another.

TRUE

T/F The muscles of the rotator cuff originate on the scapula.

TRUE

T/F The posterior fibers of the deltoid extend and laterally rotate the humerus.

TRUE

T/F The sartorius functions at both the hip and knee joints.

TRUE

T/F There is only one axon in a neuron, but there can be hundreds of dendrites.

TRUE

T/F Type I muscle fibers are considered slow-twitch.

TRUE

T/F Type I muscle fibers are fatigue-resistant.

TRUE

T/F Type IIa muscle fibers are fast-twitch fibers.

TRUE

T/F Type IIa muscle fibers can be trained to become more oxidative or glycolytic.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers are considered fast-twitch.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers are known as fast-glycolytic fibers.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers are less resistant to fatigue than type I fibers.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers are the largest and fastest muscle fibers in the body.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers have a small amount of mitochondria.

TRUE

T/F Type IIx muscle fibers have limited capacity for aerobic metabolism.

TRUE

T/F When the rhomboids stabilize the scapula, the teres major can internally rotate the humerus.

TRUE

Which of these follow-up actions would be most appropriate for an individual who answers "yes" to the following questions on the PAR-Q? Is your doctor currently prescribing drugs (for example, water pills) for your blood pressure or heart condition? In the past month, have you had chest pain when you were not doing physical activity?

Talk with a doctor before beginning to exercise or undergoing a fitness appraisal

Which of the following is NOT one of three sites used when performing skinfold measurements on a male client?

Triceps Men have skin hold measured on thigh, abdomen, and chest (pectoral)

VT1 is also known as the lactate threshold and coincided with the first time that lactate brings to accumulate in the blood

True, VT1 occurs at the first time that lactate brings to accumulate in the blood

During exercise measles can take higher levels of glucose at a faster rate. As a result less insulin is needed to bring about the same effect on glucose If blood accumulates in the ventricles of the heart, the cardiac fibers will stretch, which will lead to an increased amount of blood being ejected during contraction

True, an increase in ventricular volume at the end of the cardiac cycle stretches the cardiac muscle fibers, which improves the force of contraction. Increase in cardiac contractility results in increased amount of blood pumper per heart beat

T OR F Exercise can decrease a diabetics need for medications because it improves insulin sensitivity

True, diabetes is a condition that results from abnormal regulation of blood glucose.

Receptors in the brain are the first to initiate changes in breathing

True, the respiratory control center is located in the brain. Immediately before exercise begins, breathing rate increases.

After how long a period of inactivity following an injury does disuse atrophy in the muscles surrounding the injury begin?

Two days

Which of the following types of physiological assessment is contraindicated for a client with asthma?

Ventilatory threshold test

Which of the following statements about the ratings of perceived exertion scale is CORRECT?

When using ratings of perceived exertion, men tend to underestimate exertion, while women tend to overestimate exertion.

What is arguably the most important and influential personal attribute variable when predicting adherence to physical activity?

activity history

Golgi tendon organs are sensory receptors located in the _______________.

between the muscle belly and its tendon

Which protein foods have the highest PDCAAS score?

caesin, egg, milk, whey, soy (1.0) Beef (.92) Black Beans (.75)

What is posterior pelvic tilt

hips are tilted posteriorly (backwards) and down causing a flattened lumbar region. This is common when the hip extensor muscles are tight (tight hamstrings and rectus abdominus aka abs) Commonly seen with foot supination (arched feet)

General trends reveal that members of which of the following populations are MOST LIKELY to be performing higher levels of physical activity in unsupervised settings?

men

Muscle spindles are located _______________.

parallel muscle fibers

Posture is addressed with exercise in what stage of the program?

stage 1

During _______________ stretching, the activation of the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) cause the muscle spindles to relax and, therefore, an increase in the stretch.

static