Acquired Conditions and Congenital Abnormalities in the Newborn

Omphalocele

Omphalocele is a congenital anomaly of the abdominal wall, in which the abdominal contents contained within the peritoneal sac protrude through the external abdominal surface at the base of the umbilical cord

A severe eye infection contracted in the birth canal of a woman with gonorrhea or chlamydia is called?

Ophthalmia neonatorum

Breastfeeding should not be recommended for women who take selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors T/F

Flase

Hydrocephalus

Hydrocephalus is an anomaly with infants having an abnormally large head.

Talipes equinovarus

Talipes equinovarus is a congenital skeletal deformity with the foot in a downward and inward flexed position.

Hip dysplasia that is not corrected in childhood may result in...

...pain, osteoarthritis, and functional disability later on.

A nurse is providing preoperative care to a female newborn client with the congenital abnormality myelomeningocele. Which intervention is the priority? 1 preventing infection 2 promoting newborn nutrition 3 preserving newborn GI function 4 maximizing newborn motor function

1 A congenital condition of the newborn with a spinal deformity puts the newborn at risk for infection. A myelomeningocele is a fluid-filled sac on the spine that includes part of the spinal cord defect and the meninges. This cyst on the outside of the newborn requires surgical intervention. NOT 2.3.4. Although nutrition, GI function, and motor function are all important to the health of the newborn, the spinal and meninges defect puts the newborn at high risk for infection

The nurse is providing care to a newborn with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS). The nurse is reviewing the newborn's diagnostic test results. Which finding would the nurse expect? 1 patchy, fluffy infiltrates on chest X-ray 2 vocal cords negative for meconium 3 elevated blood pH 4 increased PaO2

1 Chest X-rays show patchy, fluffy infiltrates unevenly distributed throughout the lungs and marked hyperaeration mixed with areas of atelectasis. NOT 3.4. Arterial blood gases analysis will indicate metabolic acidosis with a low blood pH, decreased PaO2, and increased PaCO2. 2 Direct visualization of the vocal cords for meconium staining using an appropriate size laryngoscope is needed.

The nurse is caring for a baby with esophageal atresia. On review of the mother's pregnancy history, which situation would the nurse identify as associated with the development of this condition? 1 hydramnios 2 oligohydramnios 3 a difficult second stage of labor 4 bleeding at 32 weeks of pregnancy

1 Esophageal atresia must be ruled out in any infant born to a woman with hydramnios or excessive amniotic fluid. Normally, a fetus swallows amniotic fluid during intrauterine life. With esophageal atresia, the fetus cannot swallow, so the amount of amniotic fluid grows abnormally large, leading to hydramnios. NOT 2.3.4. Oligohydramnios, a difficult second stage of labor, or bleeding at 32 weeks of pregnancy does not indicate that esophageal atresia was developing during fetal development

Which intervention is helpful for the neonate experiencing drug withdrawal? 1 Place the isolette in a quiet area of the nursery. 2 Withhold all medication to help the liver metabolize drugs. 3 Dress the neonate in loose clothing so the infant will not feel restricted. 4 Place the isolette near the nurses' station for frequent contact with health care workers.

1 Neonates experiencing drug withdrawal commonly have sleep disturbance. The neonate should be moved to a quiet area of the nursery to minimize environmental stimuli. Medications such as phenobarbital and paregoric should be given as needed. The neonate should be swaddled to prevent him from flailing and stimulating himself

The nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn whose mother was diagnosed with cytomegalovirus during the first trimester. On which health care provider prescription should the nurse place the priority? 1 Perform a hearing screen test. 2 Obtain a urine specimen. 3 Monitor growth and development. 4 Assess pulse rate.

1 Symptoms of CMV in the fetus and newborn, known as CMV inclusion disease, include hepatomegaly, thrombocytopenia, IUGR, jaundice, microcephaly, hearing loss, chorioretinitis (inflammation of the choroid and retina of the eye), and intellectual disability. NOT 3. A hearing screen would be priority over monitoring growth and development because that will have to be done over an extended period of time. 2.4. Urine and pulse are not important with this diagnosis

The parents of a newborn are upset that their newborn needs treatment for ophthalmia neonatorum. The nurse should explain this is related to which maternal infection? Select all that apply. 1 Chlamydia 2 Gonorrhea 3 Trichomonas 4 Syphilis 5 Candidiasis

1.2. Colonization of chlamydia and gonorrhea in the vaginal tract can lead to ophthalmia neonatorum in the newborn, which infants contract at birth. The treatment is the use of an antibiotic ophthalmic ointment that is usually applied within the first hour. NOT 3.4.5. Trichomonas, syphilis, and candidiasis do not cause ophthalmia neonatorum

The nurse is caring for a client in the early stages of labor. What maternal history factors will alert the nurse to plan for the possibility of a small-for-gestational-age (SGA) newborn? Select all that apply. 1 smoking during pregnancy 2 hypotension upon admission 3 asthma exacerbations during pregnancy 4 drug use 5 pregnancy weight gain of 25 lb (11 kg)

1.3.4. The nurse should be alert to the possibility of an SGA newborn if the history of the mother reveals smoking, chronic medical conditions (such as asthma), and a substance use disorder. Additional maternal factors that increase the risk for an SGA newborn include hypertension, genetic disorders, and multiple gestations

A nurse is caring for an infant born with an elevated bilirubin level. When planning the infant's care, what interventions will assist in reducing the bilirubin level? Select all that apply. 1 Increase the infant's hydration. 2 Stop breastfeeding until jaundice resolves. 3 Offer early feedings. 4 Administer vitamin supplements. 5 Initiate phototherapy.

1.3.5. Hydration, early feedings, and phototherapy are measures that the nurse should take to reduce bilirubin levels in the newborn. (bilirubin is excreted in stool and urine) NOT 2.4. Stopping breastfeeding or administering vitamin supplements will not help reduce bilirubin levels in the infant.

A newborn was diagnosed with a congenital heart defect and will undergo surgery at a later time. The nurse is teaching the parents about signs and symptoms that need to be reported. The nurse determines that the parents have understood the instructions when they state that they will report which signs? Select all that apply. 1 weight loss 2 pale skin 3 fever 4 absence of edema 5 increased respiratory rate

1.5.3. Signs and symptoms that need to be reported include weight loss, poor feeding, cyanosis, breathing difficulties, irritability, increased respiratory rate, and fever

A nurse in the newborn nursery has noticed that an infant is frothing and appears to have excessive drooling. Further assessment reveals that the baby has episodes of respiratory distress with choking and cyanosis. What disorder should the nurse suspect based on these findings? 1 cleft palate 2 esophageal atresia 3 cleft lip 4 coarctation of the aorta

2 Any swallowed mucus or fluid enters the blind pouch of the esophagus when a newborn suffers from esophageal atresia. The newborn with this disorder will have frothing, excessive drooling, and periods of respiratory distress with choking and cyanosis. If this happens, no feedings should be given until the newborn has been examined

The pregnant woman with diabetes asks the nurse why her last baby weighed 11 pounds. What is the best response by the nurse? 1 "Your baby weighed so much because of how you were eating. You must eat less with this child." 2 "The fetus increases insulin production in response to elevated glucose levels of the mother, which acts as a fetal growth hormone." 3"The fetus maintains elevated levels of glucose in response to the mother's eating patterns and gains too much weight." 4 "There is no way to control the amount of glucose the mother is producing, because she can't take insulin while she is pregnant and the baby gains too much weight."

2 Consistently elevated fetal insulin levels cause the distinctive growth pattern. Because maternal glucose levels are elevated and glucose readily crosses the placenta, the fetus responds by increasing insulin production. Because insulin acts as a fetal growth hormone, consistently high levels cause fetal macrosomia, birth weight of greater than 4,500 g. Insulin also causes disproportionate fat buildup to the shoulders and upper body, increasing the risk for shoulder dystocia and birth trauma

A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn born at 29 weeks' gestation. Which nursing diagnosis would have the highest priority? 1 Grieving related to the loss of "a healthy full-term newborn" 2 Ineffective thermoregulation related to decreased amount of subcutaneous fat 3 Risk for injury related to the very thin epidermis layer of skin 4 Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to the premature digestive system

2 In the condition of hypothermia, newborns typically metabolize brown fat. This requires the newborn to use glucose and oxygen. A premature infant is at risk for respiratory distress and hypoglycemia. The hypoglycemia can increase the infant's need for glucose and oxygen, which, in turn, could cause more severe disease or further complications. NOT 1.3.4. The other diagnoses are appropriate but not the highest priority

A neonate undergoing phototherapy treatment must be monitored for which adverse effect? 1 hyperglycemia 2 increased insensible water loss 3 severe decrease in platelet count 4 increased GI transit time

2 Increased insensible water loss is due to absorbed photon energy from the lights. NOT 1 Hyperglycemia isn't a characteristic effect of phototherapy treatment. 3 Phototherapy may cause a mild decrease in platelet count. 4 GI transit time may decrease with the use of phototherapy

A woman's baby is HIV positive at birth. She asks the nurse if this means the baby will develop AIDS. Which statement would be the nurse's best answer? 1 "She already has AIDS. That's what being HIV positive means." 2 "The antibodies may be those transferred across the placenta; the baby may not develop AIDS." 3 "HIV is transmitted at birth; having a cesarean birth prevented transmission." 4 "HIV antibodies do not cross the placenta; this means the baby will develop AIDS."

2 Infants born of HIV-positive women test positive for HIV antibodies at birth because these have crossed the placenta. An accurate disease status cannot be determined until the antibodies fade at about 18 months. NOT 1 Testing positive for HIV antibodies does not mean the infant has AIDS. 3 Having a cesarean birth does decrease the risk of transmitting the virus to the infant at birth; it does not prevent the transmission of the disease. 4 HIV antibodies do cross the placenta, which is why babies born of HIV positive mothers are HIV positive.

A nurse is assigned to care for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. The newborn is relatively large in size and shows signs of listlessness. What most likely occurred? 1 The infant's mother must have had a long labor. 2 The infant's mother probably had diabetes. 3 The infant may have experienced birth trauma. 4 The infant may have been exposed to alcohol during pregnancy

2 The nurse should know that the infant's mother more than likely had/has diabetes. The large size of the infant born to a mother with diabetes is secondary to exposure to high levels of maternal glucose crossing the placenta into the fetal circulation. Common problems among infants of mothers with diabetes include macrosomia, RDS, birth trauma, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia, polycythemia, hyperbilirubinemia, and congenital anomalies. Listlessness is also a common symptom noted in these infants. NOT 1.3.4. Infants born to clients who use alcohol during pregnancy, infants who have experienced birth traumas, or infants whose mothers have had long labors are not known to exhibit these particular characteristics, although these conditions do not produce very positive pregnancy outcomes. Infants with fetal alcohol spectrum disorder or alcohol exposure during pregnancy do not usually have hypoglycemia problems

A newborn is admitted to the nursery. Maternal history reveals the use of opioids. When assessing this newborn for symptoms of opioid withdrawal, which of the following does the nurse expect the newborn to exhibit first? 1 poor feeding 2 tremors 3 diarrhea 4 weight loss

2 With opioid withdrawal, CNS symptoms appear first, followed by gastrointestinal disturbances. The most common symptom of neonatal abstinence syndrome is tremors

A newborn with esophageal atresia has just returned from surgery to place a gastrostomy tube. Which client outcome will the nurse use when planning postoperative nursing care? 1 The client will have balanced nutrition within 4 weeks. 2 The client will reverse fluid volume excess within 2 days. 3 The client will remain free from infection at the gastrostomy tube site. 4 The client will cough and deep breathe following surgical procedure.

3 An outcome of nursing care is important to identify early. For this newborn, the priority is skin integrity and the outcome is that the client will remain free from infection. Acidic gastric secretions can leak onto the skin from the gastrostomy site, leading to skin irritation. The nurse should plan interventions to protect the skin by using a cream or commercial skin protection system or consult with a wound, ostomy, and continence therapy nurse to reduce the possibility of skin irritation and infection. NOT 1.2. With the placement of the gastrostomy tube, the newborn is at less risk for imbalanced nutrition and excess fluid volume. 4 The gastrostomy tube will not affect the newborn's gas exchange; however, a newborn is unable to complete coughing and deep breathing exercises

A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of neonatal nurses on clubfoot (congenital talipes equinovarus). The nurse determines that the presentation was successful when the group makes which statement? 1 Clubfoot is a common genetic disorder. 2 The condition affects girls more often than boys. 3 The exact cause of clubfoot is not known. 4 The intrinsic form can be manually reduced

3 Clubfoot (congenital talipes equinovarus) is a complex, multifactorial deformity with genetic and intrauterine factors. Heredity and race seem to factor into the incidence, but the means of transmission and the etiology are unknown. NOT 1 Most newborns with clubfoot have no identifiable genetic, syndromal, or extrinsic cause. 2 Clubfoot affects boys twice as often as girls. 4 With the intrinsic type, manual reduction is not possible

The parents of an 8-month-old tell the nurse that they have a fear that the infant will develop sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What is the best response by the nurse? 1 "There is no need to worry about it, because it is unexpected and cannot be prevented." 2 "I don't blame you. I worried about it when I had my children." 3 "Infants who die from SIDS are usually 2 to 4 months old, but I understand your concern." 4 "Be sure you place the infant on the abdomen while sleeping."

3 Infants who die from SIDS are usually 2 to 4 months old, although some deaths have occurred during the first and second week of life. Few infants older than 6 months die from SIDS

The nurse is performing a cardiac assessment on a newborn and hears a loud, harsh murmur associated with a systolic thrill. What congenital heart defect does the nurse suspect? 1 atrial septal defect 2 patent ductus arteriosus 3 ventricular septal defect 4 coarctation of the aorta

3 Small, isolated defects are usually asymptomatic and often are discovered during a routine physical examination. A characteristic loud, harsh murmur associated with a systolic thrill occasionally is heard on examination

The nurse should carefully monitor which neonate for hyperbilirubinemia? 1 neonate of African descent 2 neonate of an Rh-positive mother 3 neonate with ABO incompatibility 4 neonate with Apgar scores 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes

3 The mother's blood type, which is different from the neonate's, has an impact on the neonate's bilirubin level due to the antigen antibody reaction. NOT 1 Neonates of African descent tend to have lower mean levels of bilirubin. Chinese, Japanese, Korean, and Greek neonates tend to have higher incidences of hyperbilirubinemia. 2 Neonates of Rh-negative, not Rh-positive, mothers tend to have hyperbilirubinemia. 4 Low Apgar scores may indicate a risk for hyperbilirubinemia; 9 and 10 associate with normal adjustment to extrauterine life.

Assessment of a pregnant client reveals that she has tested positive for a sexually transmitted infection (STI). The nurse understands that the client's newborn is at risk for which of the following? 1 diabetes 2 hypertension 3 neurologic damage 4 low birth weight

3 The nurse should inform the client that children born of mothers with STIs are often born with neurologic damage, congenital abnormalities, and meningitis. NOT 1.2. Children born of STI mothers are not known to be born with diabetes or hypertension. 4 Low birth weight is associated with smoking during pregnancy

Which respiratory disorder in a neonate is usually mild and runs a self-limited course? 1 pneumonia 2 meconium aspiration syndrome 3 transient tachypnea of the newborn 4 Persistent pulmonary hypertension

3 Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) has an invariably favorable outcome after several hours to several days. NOT 1 The outcome of pneumonia depends on the causative agent involved and may have complications. 2 Meconium aspiration, depending on severity, may have long-term adverse effects. 4 In persistent pulmonary hypertension, mortality is more than 50%.

The nursery nurse notes that one of the newborn infants has white patches on his tongue that look like milk curds. What action would be appropriate for the nurse to take? 1 Wipe the tongue off vigorously to remove the white patches. 2 Rinse the tongue off with sterile water and a cotton swab. 3 Since it looks like a milk curd, no action is needed. 4 Report the finding to the pediatrician

4 Although the finding looks like a milk curd, if the white patch remains after feeding, the pediatrician needs to be notified. The likely cause of the white patch on the tongue is a fungal infection called Candida albicans, which the newborn probably contracted while passing through the birth canal. The nurse should not try to remove the patches

A client at 34 weeks' gestation has recently been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The client asks how HIV would be transmitted to the newborn. Which statement would be the nurse's best response? 1 "It is not transmitted to your newborn as it is protected in the uterus." 2 "The risk of your newborn being infected with HIV infection is about 1%." 3 "It is only transmitted through the birth canal so a cesarean birth will be scheduled." 4 "It is recommended to formula-feed your newborn as it is transmitted through your breast milk."

4 An infected mother can transmit HIV infection to her newborn before or during birth and through breastfeeding. The risk of perinatal transmission of HIV from an infected mother to her newborn is about 25%. This risk falls to less than 1% if the mother receives antiretroviral therapy during pregnancy. HIV can be spread to the infant through breastfeeding. HIV-infected mothers should be counseled to avoid breastfeeding and use formula instead.

Which symptom would most accurately indicate that a newborn has experienced meconium aspiration during the birth process? 1 bluish skin discoloration 2 listlessness or lethargy 3 stained umbilical cord and skin 4 meconium stained fluids followed by tachypnea

4 Meconium stained cord and skin indicates a potential of meconium aspiration, and the nurse should inform the primary care provider. But if the infant actually experiences respiratory distress following a birth with meconium stained fluids, the likelihood of meconium aspiration is greatly increased. NOT 2 Listlessness or lethargy by themselves does not indicate meconium aspiration. 1 Bluish skin discoloration is normal in infants shortly after birth until the infant's respiratory system clears out all the amniotic fluid

When caring for a neonate receiving phototherapy, the nurse should remember to: 1 decrease the amount of formula. 2 dress the neonate warmly. 3 massage the neonate's skin with lotion. 4 reposition the neonate frequently.

4 Phototherapy works by the chemical interaction between a light source and the bilirubin in the neonate's skin. Therefore, the larger the skin area exposed to light, the more effective the treatment. Changing the neonate's position frequently ensures maximum exposure. NOT 1 Because the neonate will lose water through the skin as a result of evaporation, the amount of formula or water may need to be increased. 2 The neonate is typically undressed to ensure maximum skin exposure. The eyes are covered to protect them from light, and an abbreviated diaper is used to prevent soiling. 3 The skin should be clean and patted dry. Use of lotions would interfere with phototherapy.

A pregnant woman asks the nurse, "I'm a big coffee drinker. Will the caffeine in my coffee hurt my baby?" Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1 "The caffeine in coffee has been linked to birth defects." 2 "Caffeine has been shown to restrict growth in the fetus." 3 "Caffeine is a stimulant and needs to be avoided completely." 4 "If you keep your intake to less than 200 mg/day, you should be okay."

4 The effect of caffeine intake during pregnancy on fetal growth and development is still unclear. A recent study found that caffeine intake of no more than 200 mg/day during pregnancy does not affect pregnancy duration and the condition of the newborn. NOT 1 Birth defects have not been linked to caffeine consumption, but maternal coffee consumption decreases iron absorption and may increase the risk of anemia during pregnancy. 2.3. It is not known if there is a correlation between high caffeine intake and miscarriage due to lack of sufficient studies

Which assessment findings are most prominent in the infant with tetralogy of Fallot and significant pulmonary stenosis? 1 irregular heart rate, fatigue, pink-tinged skin 2 dry mucous membranes, poor urine output 3 poor weight gain, nausea, decreased muscle tone 4 dyspnea on limited exertion, fatigue, cyanosis

4 The infant with tetralogy of Fallot and significant pulmonary stenosis exhibits prominent signs of dyspnea, fatigue, and cyanosis. Other symptoms include feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, retarded growth and development, and breathlessness. NOT 1.2.3. Irregular heart rate, dry mucous membranes, nausea, and decreased muscle tone may be present in some form but are not the prominent signs

A nurse is caring for a child with complex esophageal atresia who will be undergoing surgery for repair. What comment by the parents indicates further teaching is required? 1 "They will be placing a tube in the stomach during surgery." 2 "The baby will have tubes in the chest to drain chest fluids." 3 "Intravenous fluids are going to be needed so that the baby won't get dehydrated." 4 "After this surgery is done tomorrow, my baby will be able to eat and drink."

4 The newborn will need IV fluids to maintain optimal hydration. The first stage of surgery may involve a gastrostomy and a method of draining the proximal esophageal pouch. A chest tube is inserted to drain chest fluids. If the repair is complex, surgery may need to be done in stages

A nurse is providing postoperative care to an infant who had a ventriculoarterial shunt placed. Approximately 8 hours after surgery, the nurse notes on assessment shrill crying and projective vomiting. Which response should the nurse prioritize at this time? 1 Assess surgical site for signs of infection. 2 Increase the flow of IV fluids and maintain NPO status. 3 Assess and administer pain medication. 4 Notify the primary care provider immediately.

4 The projectile vomiting should raise suspicions of increasing ICP and requires emergent intervention, so the nurse should notify the primary care provider immediately. Symptoms of increased ICP may also include irritability, restlessness, personality change, high-pitched cry, ataxia, failure to thrive, seizures, severe headache, changes in level of consciousness, and papilledema. At least every 2 to 4 hours, the nurse should monitor the newborn's level of consciousness, check the pupils for equality and reaction, monitor the neurologic status, and observe for a shrill cry, lethargy, or irritability. NOT 1 Edema and localized redness at the surgical site are potential indications of an infection. 3 Assessing for pain and administering pain medication in this situation can result in the symptoms being masked and the infant could die. 2 Increasing the fluid rate could contribute to the increased volume of fluids in the brain and would exacerbate the situation.

A pregnant single mom living alone tells the nurse she is considering getting a cat for her 2-year-old daughter. Which is the best response by the nurse? 1 "The exposure to the cat litter may cause you to need a C-section." 2 "This will cut down on the jealousy for your two-year-old when the baby comes." 3 "If you don't think caring for a cat is too much work, that would be great." 4 "You should wait until after you give birth to obtain the cat for your daughter."

4 Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan that can be transmitted via undercooked meat and through cat litter. Having a cat is not an issue, but cleaning the litter box may expose the mother to the infection and result in fetal anomalies. NOT 1.2. Exposure to the cat litter will not necessitate a cesarean section, and having a cat will not cut down on any jealousy the 2-year-old might feel when the new baby is born. The nurse would discourage the mother from getting cat until after the baby is born

The nurse is assessing a toddler at a well-child visit and notes the following: small in stature, appears mildly developmentally delayed; short eyelid folds; and the nose is flat. Which advice should the nurse prioritize to the mother in response to her questions about having another baby? 1 "It's a good idea to stop drinking alcohol 3 months before trying to get pregnant." 2 "It's important to add iron and vitamin B supplements to your diet." 3 "It would be good to stop smoking before getting pregnant." 4 "It's important to keep insulin levels controlled during pregnancy."

Alcohol is one of the many teratogenic substances that cross the placenta to the fetus. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is often apparent in newborns of mothers with chronic alcoholism and sometimes appears in newborns whose mothers consume low-to-moderate amounts of alcohol. 1 No amount of alcohol is believed to be safe, and women should stop drinking at least 3 months before they plan to become pregnant. The ability of the mother's liver to detoxify the alcohol is apparently of greater importance than the actual amount consumed. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder is characterized by low birth weight, smaller height and head circumference, short palpebral fissures (eyelid folds), reduced ocular growth, and a flattened nasal bridge. NOT 3 Smoking is related to respiratory issues. 2.4. Proper nutrition and glucose control are also important but do not result in fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

Epispadias and Hypospadias

In epispadias, the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis. In hypospadias, the urethra opens on the ventral aspect of the penis.

Organisms that cause neonatorum ophthalmia

N. gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis are the organisms that cause neonatorum ophthalmia.

The nurse is assessing a newborn of a woman who is suspected of abusing alcohol. Which newborn finding would provide additional evidence to support this suspicion? 1 wide, large eyes 2 thin upper lip 3 protruding jaw 4 elongated nose

Newborn characteristics suggesting fetal alcohol spectrum disorder include 2 Thin upper lip 1 Small eyes NOT wide, large eyes 3 Receding jaw NOT protruding jaw 4 Short nose with a low nasal bridge NOT elongated nose + Small head circumference Flat midface Minor ear abnormalities Short palpebral fissures (opening for the eyes between the eyelids) Epicanthal folds (a skin fold of the upper eyelid covering the inner corner of the eye)

The most common method of treatment for clubfoot, the ________________ method, utilizes casting and bracing.

Ponseti - a casting method using serial stretching and manipulation. It is changed 'every few weeks' until max correction

EFFECTS OF ALCOHOL ON NEWBORN: Respiratory Glucose Calcium Bilirubin Growth / Development RBCs Mannerism

These newborns are prone to: respiratory difficulties Hypoglycemia Hypocalcemia Hyperbilirubinemia Growth continues to be slow, and their mental development is delayed despite expert care and nutrition. Polycythemia Listlessness/ Latheragic

Treatment for a clubfoot deformity begins at approximately 6 months of life T/F

True

Esophageal atresia

congenital absence of part of the esophagus. Food cannot pass from the baby's mouth to the stomach

The most common type of spina bifida is ________________

myelomeningocele