ACSM
john is 5'10" and 210lbs. according to BMI he would be categorized as which of the following: A) underweight B) normal weight C) over weight D) obese
d
lengthening of muscle fiber is what type of action? A) isometric B) concentric C) flexibility D) eccentric
d
name a beneficial cardiac adaption from long term cardio exercise? A) decreases resting HR B) slight decrease in resting BP C)increase in stroke volume D) all of the above
d
spondylolisthesis may present as which of the following? A) shoulder pain B) neck pain C) knee pain D) low back pain
d
spotters should be used for all EXCEPT which of the following exercise? A) dumbbell chest press B) incline barbell bench press C) front squat D) power jerk
d
when elbow flexion is taking place, the bicep will contract while the triceps relax. which is the prime mover and antagonist?
prime mover: bicep antagonist: tricep
what are 3 types of insulin used in diabetes management?
rapid intermediate and long acting
true/false: state anxiety, train anxiety, and burn-out are 3 psychological considerations to keep in mind when encouraging routine exercise for children
true
true/false: strenuous exercise can cause sudden death in non-athletes
true
true/false: the cool down should produce the opposite effect of the warm up when done properly
true
true/false: the diaphragm muscle is a respiratory muscle
true
true/false: the pros outweigh the cons during the final stages of change in the trans-theoretical model of change
true
true/false: valves prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles
true
true/false: HIPPA protects a client or client's confidentiality
true
true/false: behaviorism takes into account an individual's past exeriences
false
true/false: clients with osteoporosis should avoid weight training
false
true/false: hyperglycemia can be defined as low blood sugar
false
true/false: if a client goes into shock, give them something to drink
false
true/false: it is normal for a person's heart to pump at 100 bpm or faster
false
____ represents an individual's resting metabolism or oxygen uptake, and is a way for you to measure the intensity of your workouts
METs
true/false: it is probably safe for clients with diabetes to work at high altitudes
false
true/false: muscular endurance is the same as muscular strength?
false
true/false: personal, behavioral, and environmental influences have little or no effect on each other
false
true/false: sarcoidosis is an example of a restrictive lung disease extrinsic in origin
false
true/false: stress echocardiography involves the use of radioactive tracer to assess blood flow to the myocardium at rest and after peak exercise
false
true/false: taking an antihistamine prior to exercise is recommended to boost energy levels
false
true/false: the appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum
false
true/false: type I diabetes occurs when the body is insulin resistant
false
true/false: in terms of chronological age, adolescence ranges from the ages of mid 20s to late 40s
false
true/false: chronic adaptions occur during an exercise session
false
true/false: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have a high side effect profile and reduced toxicity after overdose
false
true/false: informed consent is a legal form that protects health fitness professionals from liability lawsuit
false -waiver
true/false: CVD is an abnormal function of the heart or blood vessels and lungs
false CVD is abnormal function of heart or blood vessels NOT lungs
true/false: exercising in a high altitude affects breathing rate, which increases the amount of oxygen into and out of the lungs
false exercising in a high altitude affects breathing rate, which can decrease the amount of oxygen into and out of the lungs. An increase in altitude decreases the partial pressure of oxygen and reduces the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin (protein in blood that carries oxygen)
true/false: ballistic stretching is a popular technique. why/why not?
false has possible risk of injury and soreness
true/false: the american heart association describes insulin resistance as when the body cannot properly use insuline or glucose with a fasting blood glucose level greater than or equal to 120 mg/dL
false 110mg/dL
true/false: a warm up should be 2-3 min
false (5-10 min)
the ACSM suggest what amount of time of continuous PA for general heath requirements
20-60 min
which of the following is not a chronic disease? A) cardiovascular disease B) pulmonary disease C) diabetes D) obesity
d
true/false: people sometimes fluctuate between the action and maintenance stages of change
true
true/false: proper instruction and supervision can help prevent injuries
true
covert 30 cm to in
* 0.39 = 11. 7
covert 150 pounds into kilograms
*0.45 = 67.5
name and define the 3 major types of macronutrients
*carbs-* bodys main source of energy *proteins-* amino acid chains and building blocks of life, repair and maintain structures and function *fats-* not water soluble
list 4 characteristics of transmural ischemia with myocardial infarction
-changes in both QRS and ST complexes -ST elevation or tall, upright T waves -Q waves in few hours after onset -ST elevation may return to baseline and T wave invert -Q waves may persist for years, T wave inversion may indefinitely
name 4 physiological considerations when designing exercise prescriptions for children
-higher max and submax oxygen uptake -higher resting?exercise HR -lower resting/exercise BP -hormonal changes -thermoregulatory differences -muscle and bone formation -body comp
list 5 signs/symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease
-pain/discomfort in chest, neck, jaw, or back -resting dypnea or dizziness -nocturnal dyspnea -orthopnea -ankle edema -palpitations -claudications -heart murmurs -unusual fatigue
determine a 30 year old clients target heart rate zone with a resting heart rate of 64
144-168 BPM
how many calories are in 1 pound?
3500
how often should children between 5-12 participate in exercise? A) 1 day/week B) every other day for 3 hours C) ever day for 60 min D) only when requested
C
the level of demand that an activity place on the body is: A) resistance B) weight C) intensity D) frequency
C
which of the following is NOT a benefit of an exercise program? A) decreased body fat B) decrease blood pressure C) increase risk of type II diabetes D) increase metabolism
C
which of the following is not an absolute indication in exercise testing? A) suspicion of myocardial infarction or acute myocardial infarction B) severe or unusual shortness of breath C) any chest pain that is increasing
C
training programs implementing short exercises requiring little or no oxygen would be classified as which of the following? A) anaerobic B) aerobic C) cardiovascular D) range of motion
a
using a workout video when your friend cant meet you at the gym is an example of: A) counterconditioning B) self reevaluation C) stimulus conrol D) delusional balance
a
what curvature causes a hunching of the back due to excessive outward curving of the spinal column? A) kyphosis B) scoliosis C) lordosis D) hyperlordosis
a
"Your back is perfectly straight, now lets see if you can bring your hands closer to shoulder width apart" is an example of what type of feedback? A) evaluative B) supportive C) descriptive D) corrective
a
RICES for acute injury treatment stands for? A) rest, ice, compression, elevation, stabilization B), rest, ice, compression, elevation, splint C) rest, injury, compression, elevation, splint D) rest, injury, compression, elevation, stabilization
a
a client wants to increase muscular hypertrophy for a body building comp. how many reps and exercises should be assigned to optimize success in the stated goal? A) 6-12 reps per set; 3 exercises per muscle group B) 2-4 reps per set; 3 exercises per muscle group C) 15 reps per set; 3 exercises per muscle group D) 6-12 reps per set; 1 exercises per muscle group
a
a client would like to improve strength and power for a weightlifting competition. in which order should she complete the following exercises? i: Olympic lifts ii: back extensions iii: bicep curls A) i, ii, iii B) ii, i, iii C) iii, ii, i D) ii, iii, i
a
as a clients fitness level improves, what may become less important? A) sources of external motivation B) sources of internal motivation C) setting SMART goals D) feedback
a
balance is facilitated by ____ the base of support and ___ the center of mass A) widening, lowering B), widening, raising C) lowering, widening D) raising, raising
a
benefits of the valsalve maneuver include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) increases BP B) increases torso rigidity C) decreases compressive forces on the intervertebral disks D) supports the normal lordotic lumbar spine
a
correct spotting position includes all BUT which of the following? A) knees locked B) feet flat on the floor C) hands up in ready position D) erect, neutral sine
a
during short duration and high intensity exercises, which type of muscle fibers are primarily recruited? (ex-sprinting) A) type IIB B) type I C) type IIA D) type III
a
effective methods of monitoring exercise intensity include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) valsalva maneuver (VM) B) rater perceived exertion (RPE) C) max oxygen consumption (VO2 max) D) metabolic equivalents (METs)
a
ensuring the client has a good social support system, such as an exercise buddy, a gym in a convenient location to work/home, or a local sports league membership are methods to improve adherence based on which behavioral change model? A) socio-ecological model B) theory of planned behavior C) social cognitive theory D) health belief model
a
for muscle mass gain, clients should perform 3-6 sets of which of the following? A) 6-12 reps B) 15-25 reps C) 50+ reps D) 1-2 reps 1RM
a
free weights have all the following benefits over resistance machines EXCEPT which of the following? A) they should be completed with a spotter B) they can improve core stability C) they can provide a more sports specific strength training method D) each exercise can be performed in a variety of ways, rather than strictly dictated in one certain way
a
healthy clients should have an initial basic training load of? A) 55-85% or 1RM B) 10-25% of 1RM C) 90-100% 1RM D) 15% of 1RM
a
in what plane does shoulder flexion occur? A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) coronal
a
musculoskeletal injuries include: A) joint dislocation B) bruises C) nose bleeds D) headaches
a
regarding athletic performance enhancement, which of the following statements is true? A) sports specific activities should be included in training B) only major muscle groups involved in the specific sport should be the focus C) diet doesn't need to be considered D) sessions don't require warm up or cool down periods
a
stretches should be held for a minimum of: A) 30 seconds B) 1 min C) 2 min D) as long as wanted
a
the 6 motor skills related to physical fitness include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) creativity B) agility C) power D) balance
a
the arms and shoulder include all muscles except which of the following? A) hamstrings B) biceps C) triceps D) forearms
a
the cabbage soup diet is an example of which of the following? A) fad diet B) effective way to shed 10 lbs C) a weekend cleanse D) carbo loading
a
the chest and back include all muscles EXCEPT which of the following? A) hamstrings B) deltoids C) trapezius D) pectoralis major
a
tome is a new client. he is 42, non smoker, and enjoys golfing. he is healthy except for mild lateral epicondylitis and take a beta blocker. he has done his initial interview, clearance, and assessment,s which of the following guidelines would you give him for target effort range for his cardio workout for gains in aerobic fitness? A) 12-15 RPE B) 15-18 RPE C) HR of 106-142 bpm D) HR of 150-180 bpm
a
training clients at higher altitudes can result in which of the following? A) dehydration B) improved performance C) increased leg strength D) elation
a
what is an example of accident prevention? A) removing faulty or broken equipment B) encouraging clients to warm up and cool down C) providing towels to clients free of charge D) keep an AED in fitness facility
a
what is considered a tort law? A) negligence tort B) bad tort C) free will tort D) duty tory
a
what is the criteria of obesity that counts as a positive risk factor for CAD A) waist circumference of >100cm B) BMI < or equal to 29 C) waist circumference of <100cm D) BMI > or equal to 29
a
when a CPT fails to perform what is typically considered to be a standard practice of care, may be deemed to be which of the following? A) negligence B) malpractice C) liability D) scope of practice
a
when muscles are contracting concentrically and individual should: A) inhale B) exhale C) hold breath D) none of above
a
which bioenergetic pathway is called aerobic pathway? A) oxidative B) nonoxidative C) anaerobic D) phosphagen
a
which is an example of a relative contraindication to exercise testing? A) mental impairment leading to inability to cooperate B) severe hypertension C) inability to speak english D) being def
a
which is the most likely stage in the trans theoretical model for a client to say "I exercises once last week, and ill try to exercise twice this week"? A) preparation B) pre contemplation C) contemplation D) action
a
which of the following are contraindicated exercises? A) straight leg sit ups, double leg raises, standing toe touches, deep squats B) straight leg sit ups, side planks, standing toe touches, deep squats C) ab crunches, double leg raises, standing toe touches, deep squats D) ab crunches, side planks, standing toe touches, deep squats
a
which of the following defines individually identifiable health info such as demographics, prior and current health history, social security number, etc. A) health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) B) health insurance portability and privacy act (HIPAA) C) family exercise rights an privacy act (FERPA) D) family education rights and privacy act (FERPA)
a
which of the following includes all of the appropriate methods of communication with clients? A) email, phone, test, in person B) phone, in person C), email, in person, phone D) in person, text, phone
a
which of the following is NOT an appropriate progression method for promoting physiological adaptions in a client during the training phase? A) increasing training load intensities to improve speed B) increasing training density C) increasing training volume D) changing the duration of rest between sets
a
which of the following is not a good way to prevent relapses in exercise behavior? A) making goals easily achievable B) assuring clients that short lapses are inevitable and not failures C) ensuring a client's social support system is positive D) making a list of possible causes of relapses and brainstorming solutions
a
which of the following is not a reason that relapses in exercise behavior occur? A) too much intrinsic motivation B) lack of social support C) illness or injury D) perceived sense of failure
a
which of the following is not an instrisic risk factor for musculoskeletal injury? A) training program too advanced B) obesity C) abnormal bony alignment D) strength or flexibility imbalances
a
which of the following is not considered one of the 5 main components of health related physical fitness? A) muscular power B) flexibility C) muscular endurance B) body composition
a
which of the following is the correct orer of behavioral change stages according to transtheoretical model? A pre contemplation, contemplation, prep, action, maintenence B) preparation, pre contremplation, contemplation, maintenance, action C) prep, contemplation, pre contemplation, action, maintenance d) pre contemplation, preperation, contemplation, action, maintenance
a
which of the following is true about delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)? A) it typically peaks 24-72 hours post workout, especially after eccentric exercises B) it typically peaks 24-72 hours post workout, especially after concentric exercises C) it typically peaks 12-24 hours post workout, especially after eccentric exercises D) it typically peaks 12-24 hours post workout, especially after concentric exercises
a
which of the following is true for clients with arthritis and osteoporosis? A) they benefit from low impact cardio exercises B) they should adhere to major dietary restrictions C) they frequently miss training sessions D) they should not perform outdoor cardio exercise
a
which of the following list of joint types is in the correct order for increasing amounts of permitted motion (least-most mobile)? A) hinge, condyloind, saddle B) saddle, hinge, condyloid C) saddle, condyloid, hinge D) hinge, saddle, condyloid
a
which of the following statements is true about cardio exercises? A) they include swimming, running, and cycling B) they include stretching specific joints C) they are contradicted for children and adolescnets D) they should only be performed outdoors
a
which of the following statements is true about strength training exercises? A) they can be performed with body weight or external resistance modalities B) they include swimming, running, and cycling C) they are contraindicated for pregnant women D) they should only include exercises using machines
a
which of the following terms means a stretch or tear to ligaments at a joint? A) sprain B) strain C) fracture D) dislocation
a
which of the following terms means: movement away from the body's midline? A) abduction C) adduction C) pronation D) supination
a
which type of diabetes results from inadequate insulin production? A) type I B) type II C) both types D) neither type
a
women tend to have what type of body fat distribution? A) gynoid B) android C) abdominal D) visceral
a
fluid in the lungs
a client has auscultating lung sounds, similar to a crackle. What could this mean?
describe a duty
a legal obligation, something that someone else is supposed to do under contract
how is maximal oxygen uptake measured?
a measure of cardio fitness. It is a product of maximal cardiac output and arterial-venous oxygen difference. It is measured through an open circuit spirometer
3 types of stretches are: A) passive B) aggressive C) active D) ballistic
a, c, d
what are the 3 most common types of eating disorders?
anorexia nervosa bulimia nervosa binge eating disorder (BED)
name 5 kinds of anti-platelet meds
aspring plavix persantine aggrenox ticlid
"I know its challenging, but if you can push through 3 more reps, you will break your record!" is an example of what type of feedback A) evaluative B) supportive C) descriptive D) corrective
b
Paul is 38 recreational runner training for 10k. runs 5 days/week and feeling good but wants to train with you to prevent injury. he is 72 inches tall and weighs 225 lbs. he take lipitor and a multivitamin. his BP is 112/70 mmHg. his total cholesterol is 210 mg/dL. his father and mother are both alive, but uncle died at age 50 from stroke. Paul doesn't smoke or drink. has medical clearance from physical last week to begin strength training program. which of the following do you recommend for his cardio assessment? A) astrand-rhyming cycle ergometer test B) 1.5 mile run test with physician present C) rockport walk test D) astrand rhyming cycle ergometer with physician present
b
a waiver should include the following info: A) client's date of birth B) name of personal training business C) client's workout goal D) trainer's phone number
b
an exercise sessions should be stopped immediately: A) if the client thinks its too hard B) if client experiences chest pain C) to make a phone call D) to check the client's pulse E) none of above
b
benefits of bodyweight exercises include all BUT which of the following? A) they increase relative strength B) they increase absolute strength C) they can be performed on the field or away from the gym D) clients can often complete many reps, improving muscular endurance
b
benefits of spotting a client during exercise include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) ensuring the client is using correct form B) demonstrating good spotting form so the client can help you C) making sure the client and surrounding clients are safe D) staying more actively engaged as a trainer
b
components of physical fitness include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) endurance B) hygiene C) flexibility D) body comp
b
emergency preparedness includes taking the following steps: A) purchase a fire extinguisher B) maintain current CPR, AED, and basic life support certification C) make sure client drinks water during workout D) have the client sign a waiver
b
for endurance clients should perform 2-3 sets of which of the following? A) 50+ reps B) 15+ reps C) 2-3 reps D) 1RM
b
for most strength exercises, which of the following breathing patterns is optimal? A) inhale through mouth during concentric, exhale through nose during eccentric B) exhale mouth concentric, inhale nose eccentric C) inhale nose concentric, exhale mouth eccentric D) exhale nose concentric, inhale mouth eccentric
b
for weight loos, recommendations include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) frequent cardio activity B) increased caloric intake C) higher number of resistance training sets D) reduced frequency of flexibility training
b
golgi tendon organs are stimulated in PNF stretching and cause relaxation of which of the following? A) antagonist muscle by its own contraction B) stretched muscle by its own contractin C) antagonist muscle by contracting the stretched muscle D) the stretched muscle by contracting the antagonist muscle
b
if a client reports new onset discomfort in chest and arms, the appropriate action of the trainer would be to? A) continue exercise for the full session B) seek medical assistance C) call client's physician D) send client home
b
if a persona vows to quit smoking on their 30th birthday, which stage are they in A) pre-contemplation B) preparation C) action D) maintenance
b
intervertebral disks are composed of ____ tissue. A) epithelial B) fibrocartilaginous C) muscle D) heart
b
janice is 58 year old sedentary female coming to get in shape, and hasnt worked out since college. she is 180 lbs and 5'4". no personal history of heart disease and quit smoking 3 years ago, but her mother had a myocardial infarction (MI) at the age 66. Janice's BP is consistently 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL, with HDL level of 30 mg/dL, and fasting blood glucose is 100 mg/dL. how many risk factors for CAD? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
b
kathleen is a 23 year old who lives with both parents. she is 64 in tall and weiht 128 lbs. her BP is 116/75 mmHg and total cholesterol is 170 mg/dL with LDL at 120 and blood glucose at 82 mg/dL. she dances or plays volleyball most days of the week and smokes, but only on weekends. how many risk factors for CAD does kathleen have? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
b
ligaments connect what? A) muscle to muscle B) bone to bone C) bone to muscle D) muscle to tendon
b
match the behavioral change model with the best descriptive choice: A) *social cognitive theory:* addresses relationships; behaviors such as a clients motivation to exercise are shaped by interpersonal relations, the surrounding environment, community, policy, and law B) *health belief model:* the perceived seriousness of a potential health problem is the main predictors of behavioral change C) *socio-ecological model:* clients actively shape their lives and learn by thinking, feeling, reflecting, and observing themselves in a social context D) *theory of planned behavior:* the client's level of motivation for behavioral change is shaped by his or her attitudes and behaviors that will most likely occur in the allotted timeframe
b
sarah is 23, lives with both parents. 64 in tall and weighs 128lbs. BP is 116/75 mmHg, total cholesterols is 170 mg/dL. LDL is 120, blood glucose is 82 mg/d:. she dances or plays volleyball most days of week, smokes on weekends. how many risk factrs for CAD? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
b
self-regulatory strategies such as self monitoring physical activity and setting personal goals and rewards, planning activity in adherence, and having a reasonable expectations are methods to improve adherence based on which behavioral change model? A) theory of planned behavior B) social cognitive theory C) health belief model D) socio-ecological model
b
shakiness, weakness, abnormal sweating, mouth or finger tingling, visual disturbances, confusion, and seizures can be signs of what? A) hyperglycemia B) hypoglycemia C) overtraining D) sudden cardiac arest
b
the FIIT-VP includes all EXCEPT which of the following? A) frequency B) teachability C) time D) type
b
the number of required spotters is dependent on all EXCEPT which of the following? A) the load being lifted B) the number of strength coaches available C) the experience and skill of the client and spotters D) the physical strength of the spotters
b
the proper flow of activites in a training session looks most like which of the following? A) stretching, strength training, cool down, cardio B) warm up, training, cool down, stretching C) warm up, stretching, cool down, strength training D) cardio, stretching, warm up, cool down
b
tina if 58 sedentary and wants to get in shape and hasn't worked out since college. 180 lbs and 5'4", BMI 30.9, no personal history of heart disease and quit smoking 3 years ago, but her mother had a myocardial infarction at the 66. tina's BP is consistently 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol is 180 mg/dL with HDL level of 30 mg/dL, fasting blood glucose is 100 mg/dL. how many risk factors for CAD? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
b
training programs implementing endurance activities requiring oxygen would be classified as which of the following? A) anaerobic B) aerobic C) power lifting D) 1RM
b
what does program progression refer to? A) clients overall progress B) modifications to ensure a client progresses C) clients perception of progress D) progression of clients age
b
what explains how the muscles contract, relax, and/or produce force? A) myosin B) sliding filament theory C) sarcomeres D) actin
b
what is another name for the windpipe? A) larynx B) trachea C) pharynx D) bronchioles
b
what is the bench press an example of? A) cardio exercise B) chest exercise C) range of motion exercise D) advanced exercise contraindicated for healthy seniors
b
what is the max amount of water as measured by % body weight that can be lost before significant decline in performance and health occur? A) 1-3% B) 3-5% C) 5-8% D) 8-10%
b
what is the term used for when blood is being pulled away from all the visceral organs of the body to the exercising muscles? A) vasodialation B) shunting C) vasoconstriction D) systole
b
what muscle is the primary antagonist in knee flexion? A) hamstrings B) quads C) gastrocnemius D) tibialis anterior
b
what term refers to the volume of blood that is ejected out of every ventricle per contraction? A) cardiac output B) stroke volume C) heart rate D) end sysolic volume
b
what would be best for a kinesthetic learner A) reading about proper squatting techniques B) trying to squat back into a chair before a full body squat C) watching video tutorials of squatting form D) listening to you explain the major form tips for the perfect squat
b
when can private, personal identifying info from a clients file be accessed without permission? A) when a new trainer fills in B) when the client is having a medical emergency C) when the spouse needs to access info D) when sending in taxes so the IRS can get a copy
b
which of the following approaches should be used to help a client recover from previous training sessions and improve neural patterns while promoting supercompensation? A) linear periodization B) unloading/deloading week C) undulating/nonlinear periodization D) rehabilitation
b
which of the following categories of barriers to a healthy lifestyle can trainers likely have the greatest impact for their clients? A) environmentals B) programmatic C) social D) personal
b
which of the following could breach the safety of privacy for paper client files? A) locking up paper files B) scanning and making digital copies for the facility computer C) carrying the paper file on your clipboard during session and keeping on your person at all times D) making sure keys are only given to authorized individuals
b
which of the following if true regarding a clients medical history? A) it shouldn't be considered B) it should be discussed thoroughly C) it doesn't indicate illness or injury D) it's not necessary for program planning
b
which of the following is considered a saddle joint? A) hip B) thumb C) elbow D) wrist
b
which of the following is false regarding the female athlete triad? A) it can put an athlete at greater risk for fracture B) although it's called the female athlete triad, males can have it C) females with this triad typically have infertility issues D) it can increase risk of musculoskeletal injuries
b
which of the following is non-modifiable risk factor for CVD? A) smoking B) gender C) hypertension D) dylipidemia E) type II diabetes
b
which of the following is not a component of the female athlete triad? A) amenorrhea B) overtraining C) loss of bone density D) disordered eating
b
which of the following is not a way to foster a positive experience? A) using SMART goals B) using infrequent reinforcement and feedback C) identifying barriers to adherence and strategizing solutions D) building a support
b
which of the following is not an example of active listening? A) using open body language B) forming a response while someone is speaking C) allowing a pause after a speaker is finished D) paraphrasing what a speaker has said
b
which of the following is possibly a marker seen in someone with a risk of metabolic disease? A) female waist circumference >85cm B) triglyceride levels of 160 mg/dL C) HDL cholesterol of 50 mg/dL D) fasting glucose levels of 105 mg/dL
b
which of the following is synonymous with self-efficacy? A) self-reevaluation B) self confidence C) self-liberation D) self-control
b
which of the following is true regarding muscle balance? A) the strength in opposing muscle groups must be equalized B) the strength ratios in antagonist muscle groups must be improved C) muscle balance is not an integral part of a strength training program D) even if a client has improper muscle balance, the body will maintain its normal movement patterns during exercise
b
which of the following lists of correct kilocalories per gram of macronutrients? A) carbs 4, protein 4, alcohol 9, fats 9 B) carbs 4, protein 4, alcohol 7, fats 9 C) carbs 4, protein 9, alcohol 7, fats 9 D) carbs 4, protein 4, alcohol 4, fats 9
b
which of the following skinfold sits should use diagonal pinch? A) thign B) sub scapula C) triceps D) abdomen
b
which of the following statements is true about plyometric training? A) it uses machines primarily B) it includes box jumps and bounding drills C) it is contraindicated for pregnant women D) it should be used only in programs for advanced clients
b
which of the following types of joints are correctly matched with the anatomic joint example given? i. cartilaginous: pubic symphysis ii. saddle: thumb carpal metacarpal iii. plane: sutures in skull iv. pivot: radial head on ulna A) choices i, ii, iii B) choices i, ii, iv C) choices i, iii, iv D) all are correct
b
which physiological adaption is excepted after a client has participated in an aerobic training program? A) HRR decreases and RHR increases B) HRR increases and RHR decreases C) HRR increases and RHR increases D) HRR decreases and RHR decreases
b
you have been training sarah for 2 years. initially she was 120lbs at 5'4" and now is 101 lbs. she often gets weak and dizzy during workout, and you notice she does the elliptical on her own over 2 hours per day. she has become more withdrawn and never partakes in any of the meet and greet snack buffets at the fitness center anymore. while you cant be sure, you suspect she may be battling which of the following? A) type I diabetes B) anorexia C) bulimia D) type II diabetes
b
the effects of exercise on coronary artery disease risk factors are: A) decreased resting/exercise BP B) decreased total cholesterol, LDL, and triglcerides C) increase in HDL D) improved glucose tolerance and insulin sensitivity E) all of above
b all of the above?
name 3 types of antianginals
beta blockers nitrates calcium channel antagonists
RICE is best administered: A) 48 hours after injury B) in morning C) at onset of injury D) when there is bruising
c
a client has limited time to train. She wants to improve mental focus and lose body fat. which type of training would benefit her most? A) split routine training B) 1RM C) circuit training D) percentage based training
c
a clients confidence in his/her ability to make behavioral change is known as what? A)self-determination B) self esteem C) self efficacy D) determination
c
a pregnant client is found unconscious and not breathing. you send someone to call 911 and the scene is safe. how would you proceed with CPR/AED? A) wait for EMS, you cannot perform of pregnant women B) begin CPR and rescue breathing but do not used AED C) begin CPR, rescue breathing, and normal adult AED intervention D) give 2 rescue breaths and use AED as normal but do not do CPR chest compressions
c
a visual learner would probably prefer which of the following? A) reading about proper squatting technique B) trying to squat back into a chair before full squat C) watching video tutorials of squatting form D) listening to you explain the major form tips for a perfect squat
c
define the purpose of the cool down: A) to get body ready for exercise B) to mimic exercises done during the workout C) transition body from activity back to resting state D) non of above
c
during a heavy front loaded squat there should be how many spotters who should be positioned in which location? A) 1, in the middle of the bar in front of lifter B) 1, in middle of bar behind lifter C) 2 on either end of the bar D) 2 one in front and one behind
c
how many reps and sets should be used when training a client for muscular endurance? A) 6-12 reps for 3 sets B) 6-12 reps for 5 sets C) 12-15 reps for 3 sets D) 2-6 reps for 5 sets
c
how often should emergency procedures be reviewed and rehearsed? A) every month B) every week C) every 3 months D) twice per year
c
how would you treat a minor open wound? A) employ universal precautions (latex gloves), and wash hands immediately after. use soap and water to clean would, then leave open to air dry B) employ universal precautions, wash hands immediately after use. use germicide cream and cover with sterile bandage C) employ universal precautions, wash hands immediately after use. use soap and water to clean wound, then cover with germicide cream and a sterile bandage D) employ universal precautions and wash hands immediately after use. use a flat hand and fingers to apply pressure and control bleeding in minor wounds and elevate it above the clients heart as long as no fracture is suspected
c
if a piece of movable equipment is broke, what should you do? A) attach an out of order sign B) let it be but avoid using it in a workout C) remove it from the floor D) unplug it
c
in what region of the spine is the lordosis often exaggerated as an irregular spinal curve? cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral
c
in which of the three learning phases would people rely completely on muscle memory to perform an activity? A) cognitive B) associative C) automatic D) non of the above
c
in which stages of change is it imperative for personal trainers to be the most proactive? A) contemplation B) preparation C) action D) maintenance
c
interval training for aerobic clients and anaerobic clients is similar in which ways? A) intervals last the same amount of time for aerobic and anaerobic clients B) rest periods last the same amount of time for aerobic and anaerobic clients C) both types of clients are training at higher levels of intensity compared with their VO2 max D) both types of clients use a 2:1 work to rest ratio
c
karen wants to lose 20 lbs, which would put her BMI at 23. she wants you recommendation for how much of a calorie deficit she should aim for with healthy weight loss. what do you recommend for overall health improvement and weight loss? A) eat 500-1000 kcals fewer per day B) eat 1000-1500 kcal per day C) eat 250-500 fewer kcal per day and expend 250-500 more kcal per day D) eat 500-1000 kcal per day and expend 500-1000 more kacal perday
c
optimal hydration is ideal, but what is the minimum recommended replacement rate for fluid lost during exercise? A) 8oz for every pound lost B) 1 cup for every pound lost C 1 pint for every pound lost D 1 quart for every pound lost
c
pectoralis major is doing what type of contraction during a pushup? A) isokinetic B) isometric C) isotonic D) eccentric
c
recomended body fat levels for men age 35+ is best described as which of the following ranges? A) 5-13% B) 3-5% C) 10-25% D) 20-25%
c
the following are steps to assist in behavior adherence: A) assess individuals medical needs B) identify specific medication goals C) plan teaching-learning and behavioral change process D) establish support E) all of above
c
the karvonen method considers which aspects of a client? A) weight and height B) 1RM and age C) age and pulse D) pulse rate and 1RM
c
training with focus on specific muscles and skills associated with specific sports would be an example of which of the following? A) interval training B) periodized training C) sports specific training D) resistance training
c
what does circuit training refer to? A) engaging in indoor or outdoor activities only B) allotting one specific exercise focus per session C) using a combo of cardio and strength training exercises D) working all major muscle groups in one session
c
what does continuous training refer to? A) performing the same workout for the entire duration of session B) engaging in same workout every session throughout the training session C) maintaining a steady speed throughout cardio D) continuing from one exercise to the next without rest
c
what does periodization refer to? A) a client's schedule of sessions B) the frequency of range of motion exercises C) the intensity levels of exercises per period or cycle of training D) a rest period schedule per session
c
what does specificity refer to? A) the flow of a training programs specific sessions B) the specific goals of the client C) exercises for muscle groups related to a clients specific goals D) a client's specific statistics (age, weight, etc)
c
what is a PAR-Q for used for? A) it is a legal form B) budget assessment C) self-screening tool D) policies and procedures
c
what is the plank exercise an example of? A) an exclusively outdoor exercise B) swimming exercise C) abdominal core exercise D) an advanced exercise not recommended for children and adolescents
c
what is the primary energy pathway for ATP production for an intense 2 min bout of activity? A) aerobic metabolism B) krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) ATP-PC system
c
what is the respiratory muscle that allows the human body to breath? A) femoris B) triceps C) diaphragm D) pectoralis
c
what pieces of equipment should be evaluated prior to every single use? i: medicine balls II: exercise bands III: cables on weight machines iv: emergency stop buttons on cardio equipment A) all of above B) i, iii, iv C) ii, iii, iv D) iii, iv
c
what type of test measures how well the lungs are oxygenating blood in clients being assessed for COPD A) chest x-ray B) pulmonary function test C) arterial blood gas analysis D) CT scan
c
when should pregnant women consider modifying the exercise? A) if the trainer feels its necessary B) after eating C) after the first trimester D) only in exercises focused on abdominal and legs
c
when spotting over the face barbell exercises, the spotter should use what type of grip on the bar? A) hook grip B) pronated grip C) alternated grip D) supinated grip
c
which is a short term effect of exercise? A) weight loss B) mobility C) increased metabolism D) all of above
c
which is a side effect of diuretics? A) tachycardia B) headaches C) postural hypotension D) blurred vision
c
which is an example of active listening to a client who says "I would like to lose a little weight and get in shape"? A) okay, good. why dont you tell me what a typical day looks like for you B) ok, dont worry. thats certainly understandable C) ok, so it sounds like you are interested in improving your fitness and losing a little weight, can you tell me more about that D) okay, according to your BMI, I think we should aim for 40lbs
c
which large protein (thick filament) is involved with muscle contraction? A) acting B) sarcomere C) myosin D) nuclei
c
which of he following statements are true about medical clearance prior to participating in an exercise training program? A) all clients need medical clearance from a physician prior to participation in an exercise training program B) only clients with diagnosed cardio, respiratory, or metabolic diseases need clearance prior to participation C) children, adolescents, and mes < 45 years and women < 55 years who do not have CAD risk factors/symptoms or a known disease and who did not answer "yes" to any questions on the PAR-Q do not need clearance
c
which of the following is a positive risk factor for CAD? A) blood pressure reading of 130/90 mmHg B) fasting blood glucose of > or equal to 100 mg/dL confirmed by at least 2 separate measures C) current use of lipid lowering meds D) death of father at age 66 from myocardial infarction
c
which of the following is an example of a perceived threat according to the health belief model A) I cant afford a gym membership B) I don't have time to exercise C) I already have pain in my knees D) fitness machines are boring
c
which of the following is not an aerobic exercise? A) cross country skiing B) swimming C) strength training D) walking
c
which of the following is not defines as resistance exercise? A) lunges B) push ups C) swimming D) bench press
c
which of the following is not within the scope of practice of a CPT? A) stretching a client after a session B) listening to the clients concerns abut his stressful job C) prescribing a home exercise program D) making dietary recommendations for post workout snack
c
which of the following rest periods is NOT true? A) longer rest periods promote nervous system recovery B) longer rest periods promote muscular system recovery C) longer rest periods promote cardio conditioning D) shorter rest periods promote cardio conditioning
c
which of the following statements best describe non-capital budgets: A) they are not necessary with exercise programs B) they are included in standard of care form C) they include costs of supplies, minor equipment, forms and stationary (day-to-day operational expenses) D) the principle of specificity
c
which of the following statements concerning needs assessments is true? A) they are no help with the evaluation of a program B) they are useful for marketing purposes C) a planning process that involves gathering and implementing a feasible and applicable solution D) they are used to make management happy
c
which of the following statements is true about advance resistance training exercises? A) they should only be recommended for weighlifters B) they shouldn't be performed by seniors C) they require clients to have progressed to a certain level of fitness first D) they include swimming, cycling, and running
c
which of the following statements is true about medical clearance prior to participating in an exercise training program? A) all clients need medical clearance from a physician prior to participation in an exercise training program B) only clients with diagnosed cardio, respirator, or metabolic diseases need clearance prior to participation C) children, adolescents, males <45 and women <55 who have no CAD risk factors or symptoms, known disase, and who did not answer "yes" to any questions of PAR-Q do no need clearance D) children, adolescents, males <55 and women <55 who have no CAD risk factors or symptoms, known disase, and who did not answer "yes" to any questions of PAR-Q do no need clearance
c
which of the following statements is true about range of motion exercises? A) they are only necessary for seniors B) they should never be performed by cardiac patients C) they should be included in all training programs D) they should be performed twice weekly
c
why are intrinsic rewards more important than extrinsic rewards? A) they provide instant motivation for novice fitness participants B) they provide negative feedback to promote correction C) they are internal rewards that ensure permanent adherence to fitness participation D) they eliminate initial barriers to change
c
negative resistance training is best described as which of the following? A) reducing training volume prior to competition to taper and improve performance B) a detraining effect that occurs when clients fail to train with high enough frequncy C) lifting heavier weights on the lowering, eccentric and getting assistance during the lifting, concentric D) lifting heavier weights on the lifting, concentric and getting assistance during the lowering, eccentric
c (advanced lifting technique)
"feedback should be timely" is best described by which of the following statements? A) it should be given after every session B) is should be given after assessments only to explain results C) it should be given sporadically so it doesn't lose its meaning D) it should be given during or soon after a movement or assessment
d
ADA guidelines include which of the following: A) doors should be 36 inches wide B) if public parking is provided, designated disabled spaces should be provided C) adequate space for wheelchairs to maneuver inside the facility D) all of above
d
according to USDA recommendations, which of the following is not true? A) eat at least half your grains as whole grains B) focus on low fat and fat free dairy over full fat C) consume a variety of whole food (unprocessed/unrefined) veggies and fruits D) limit seafood intake
d
concerning the health dangers of extreme fad diets, which of the following is true? A) they are a waste of money B) they can make the client feel like a failure C) they can decrease exercise performance D) they can cause severe dehyrdation
d
during a diabetic emergency: A) perform CPR B) keep the person warm C) call 911 before doing anything else D) none of above
d
effective methods of monitoring exercise intensity include all EXCEPT which of the following? A) the valsalva maneuver (VM) B) rated perceived exertion (RPE) C) maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) D) metabolic equivalents (METS)
d
ethan is 21 college student who plays baseball on a team. he is coming to you for strengthening. he is 70 in tall and wight 160lbs. he doesn't smoke and both parents are healthy. he was diagnosed with type I diabetes at 8, but blood glucose is normal with insulin injections. his BP is 105/68 mmHg and total cholesterol is 170 mg/dL. He reports no symptoms and can train after practice on weekend. what is his risk category? A) no risk B) low risk C) moderate risk D) high risk
d
how much space should be maintained between exercise equipment in a fitness center? A) few inches B) 200 feet C) 50 feet D) 100 feet
d
how often is reassessment of fitness testing recommended? A) every 2-3 weeks B) annually C) every 3-4 months D) every 4-12 weeks
d
if a client has a seizure, the trainer should: A) lay them on their back B) go outside and wait for the ambulance C) restrain the client D) protect the clients head from injury and place a cushion underneath it E) all of above
d
in order to be stratified as low risk, a client must meet which of the following conditions? i. male less than 45 years and women less tan 55 years ii. asymptomatic iii. have no risk factors for CVD or pulmonary disease iv. have 1 risk factor for CVD or pulmonary disease A) i and iii only B) ii and iii only C) i, ii, and iii D) i, ii, and iv
d
in which order would a strength coach recommend administering the following assessments? A) skinfold, pushup test, step test, 1RM bench, sit and reach B) skinfold, step test, push up test, 1 RM bench, sit and reach C) skinfold, sit and reach, step test, 1RM bench, push up test D) skinfold, sit and reach, 1RM bench, push up test, step test
d
the FITT-VP framework for developing a comprehensive fitness plan stands for which of the following? A) flexibility, intensity, time, type, variety, purpose B) fervency, integrity, time, type, volume, purpose C) follow up, intensity, time, type, validity, progress D) frequency, intensity, time, type, volume, progression
d
the appropriate response to a diabetic emergency is to: A) call 911 B) give person fruit juice C) address any life threatening injuries D) all of above
d
the client trainer agreement for should include all of the following EXCEPT: A) cost structure for sessions B) cancellation policy C) expectations of both parties D) risk stratification info
d
the reduce liability risk, trainers should do all EXCEPT which of the following? A) adhere to ACSM risk stratification and guidelines for clearance and medical supervision B) rehearse emergency action plans and maintain CPR certification C) abide by the ACSM scope of practice for certified personal trainers and ahere to cod of ethics D) model healthy lifestyle and behavior choices
d
this movement increases the joints angle and occurs in the sagittal plane around a mediolateral axis: A) rotation B) flexion C) circumduction D) extension
d
time is 21 who plays baseball. wants strength. 70 in tall and weights 160lbs. doesn't smoke, both parents are healthy. diagnosed with type I diabetes at 8, but blood glucose is normal with insulin. his blood pressure is 105/68 mmHg. total cholesterol is 170 mg/dL. he reports no symptoms and can train after practice and on weekends. what risk category is time? A) no risk B) low risk C) moderate risk D) high risk
d
tina is a new client who had a previously sedentary life. which might be the best choice of a technique to facilitate motivation? A) reducing session fees after she completes 20 sessions B) reminding her of the benefits of exercise and risk of inactivity C) making SMART goals after assessment D) establishing a points system to win prizes after completing sessions each week
d
to be stratified as low risk, a client must meet which of the following conditions? i: males <45 and femals <55 years ii: asymptomatic III: have no risk factors for CVD or pulmonary disease IV: have 1 risk factor for CVD or pulmonary disease A) i and iii B) ii and iii C) i, ii, iii D) i, ii, IV
d
trainers should follow which of the following guidelines for clients with chronic conditions? A) they should not engage in any cardio activities B) they should avoid range of motion exercises C) they should follow a low calorie diet D) they should incorporate low-moderate impact activities
d
what does interval training refer to? A) sessions performed indoors or outdoors B) discontinuing workouts after the warm up and cardio component C) maintaining steady speed throughout the workout D) changing speed and intensity of workouts during a sessions
d
what does the borg RPE scale determine? A) a client's weight classification on a scale of 6-20 B) clients performance of cardio activity C) clients HR on scale of 1-100 D) a clients exertion on scale of 6-20
d
what is a benefit of exercise in older age groups (65+)? A) improved psychological and cognitive well being B) an increase in chronic disease states C) reduction in physical injures/impairments D) both a and c E all of above
d
what is motivational interviewing? A) an important part of the initial interview, it helps determine what motivates the client in his/her life B) an important part of the initial interview when clients ask the trainer how he/she maintains an active lifestyle in attempt to motivate clients C) a helpful method of trainers to establish a points system to earn points for activity as a source of external motivation for a client D) acknowledging and working through a clients challenges concerning regular activity, stressing the fact that it is his/her choice to be active while encouraging the change
d
what is the term used to describe the amount of blood ejected every minute from the left ventricle? A) heart rate B) stroke volume C) ejection fraction D) cardiac output
d
what tissue holds bones together? A) tendon B) joint capsule C) articular cartilage D) ligament
d
where does gas exchange take place inside the lungs? A) bronchioles B) pharynx C) trachea D) alveoli
d
which is an example of an antianginal med? A) troprol B) nitroquick C) lasix D) a and be E) none of above
d
which medication is used in the treatment of mild hypertension? A) calcium channel blockers B) nitrates C) beta blockers D) diuretics
d
which of the following are side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) A) bradycardia B) hypertension C) left and/or right bundle branch blocks on ECG D) both b and c E) all of above
d
which of the following exercises would help a client restore neuromuscular control after an injury? A) doing body weight squats on a flat surface B) jumping on a flat surface C) doing push ups on a flat surface D) jumping on a trampoline
d
which of the following factors would NOT affect a client's ability to increase his/her training load? A) lack of sleep B) poor diet C) training too often D) focusing on core exercises
d
which of the following guidelines is true regarding obese clients? A) they shouldn't perform range of motion exercises B) they shouldn't perform strength training exercises for the legs C) they should avoid planking and abdominal crunches D) they should perform cardio activity 5-7 days/week
d
which of the following is NOT an absolute indication to terminate an exercise test? A) new chest pain B) cyanosis C) clients request to stop D) increasing chest discomfort
d
which of the following is NOT an adaption to chronic cardio conditioning? A) increased heart chamber size B) increased stroke volume C) increased cardiac output D) increased submax HR
d
which of the following is NOT an adaption to chronic cardiovascular exercise? A) increased heart chambers size B) increased stroke volume C) increased cardiac output D) increased submaximal HR
d
which of the following is the best definition for intermittent claudication? A) tissue swelling as a result of an imbalance between fluid coming out of circulation in blood vessels into tissues or back into circulation from tissues B) dizziness upon standing that resolves with sitting/lying down C) microscopic tissue damage from eccentric exercise that usually appears 24-48 hours post exercise D) achy, cramping feeling typically of lower legs that may come and go with exercise due to occlusion of blood vessels
d
which of the following is true for healthy populations? A) they require medical clearance for exercise B) they don't require monitoring of exertion during exercise C) they don't require rest or hydration during sessions D) they should incorporate cardio, resistance, and flexibility in their programs
d
which of the following is true regarding activities of daily living? A) they are not important for program design B) they should be performed outdoors C) they should be practiced in sessions D) they should be considered when designing a training plan for client
d
which of the following is within the scope of practice of a CPT? A) diagnosing a menisclal tear B) making a customize nutrition plan for a client C) giving a cross friction massage for scar tissue D) teaching the client exercises to do during work travel assignments
d
which of the following may indicate trainer client incompatibility? A) the client has never exercised before, and the trainer is a competitive athlete B) the client is male and the trainer is female C) the client prefers to text and email, but the trainer likes talking on the phone/in person D) the client is available to train weekdays, but the trainer only has weekends available
d
which of the following neurotransmitters helps strengthen the synaptic pathways involved in learning a behavior through reinforcement? A) epinephrine B) serotonin C) norepinephrine D) dopamine
d
which of the following reflects the correct blood flow pathway A) right atrium, left atrium, right ventricle, mitral valve, left ventricle, aorta B) right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta C) right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle, aorta D) right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary circulation, left arium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aorta
d
which of the following statements is true about pyramid training? A) it focuses on clients skills in gymnastics B) it requires a client to be in the supine position throughout the training session C) it uses only leg muscles D) it includes high reps of low weight progressing to low reps of high weight
d
which of the following statements is true about recovery time and training frequency for endurance clients? A) clients training at a low intensity need the same number of training sessions but more recovery time than those training at a high intensity B) clients training at a high intensity need the same number of training sessions but more recovery time than those training at a low intensity C) both clients participating in high intensity training and those doing low intensity training need the same amount of recovery time D) clients who are doing high intensity training sessions should get more time to recover and should train less frequently than low intensity clients
d
which type of exercises give muscle tissues the most stimulation and are beneficial for limited training time and which type of exercises involve the core muscles and should be the basis of training programs? A) multi-joint; assistance B) structural; primary C) primary; assistance D) multi-joint; structural
d
list 4 reasons why alcohol consumption and exercise is contraindicted
decreased recovery time increase in body fat percentage disrupted sleep depletion of water nutrients
what should your focus be in the 1st 6 months of training and conditioning?
developing basic strength and endurance, flexibility, efficient connective and supportive systems, stabilization, proper movement patterns, and cardiovascular fitness
how can 2 people that weigh the same and same height look different?
different body compositions fat and muscle ratio
list 2 absolute contradictions to exercise test
do not perform exercise test! -acute myocardial infarction, unstable angina, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias, symptomatic severe aortic stenosis, symptomatic heart failure, acute pulmonary embolus, pulmonary infarction, acute myocarditis or pericarditis, acute dissection, dissection aneruysm, or acute system infection with fever body aches or swollen lymph glands
true/false: a trainer cannot be sued for negligence is the client signed an informed consent form
false
what is the new myplate initiative?
easier way to visually represent the food pyramid showing how much of each nutrient type you should eat per meal
true/false: aerobic exercise is usually short in duration, but high in intensity
false
true/false: an absolute contradiction to exercise means it is ok to work out under doctor's supervision
false
give 3 examples of signs and/or symptoms in individuals with a metabolic disease
high blood sugar levels (diabetes and obesity) shakiness and disorientation (hypoglycemia) weight gain, sluggish behavior, and hair loss (hypothyrodism)
signs and symptoms prompted by exercise in individuals with neuromuscular disease
high sensitivity to hot/cold temps, lower extremity muscle weakness, foot drop, loss of sensation and/or balance/coordination, and tremour of varying degrees
obesity, diabetes, thyroid disease, renal disease, and liver disease
identify 3 types of metabolic disease
what are the 4 basic duties of a health fitness professional?
inform instruct monitor supervise
what is another name for the bicuspid valve?
mitral valve
list the 5 essential exercise components affecting the attainment of physical fitness
mode frequency intensity duration progression
exemplify the difference between moderate intensity exercise and vigorous intensity exercise
moderate intensity exercise puts enough demand on the body during aerobic exercise to increase heart rate and respiratory rates EX) walking, climbing, mowing yard
what is a vitamin? importance?
organic compounds essential to normal growth and nutrition. They are important because they cannot be synthesized by the body and are essential to survival
people may be in denial about the need for behavior modification during the ____ stage of the trans-theoretical model
pre-contemplation
what are 2 common ways to measure body fat?
skinfold measurements bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
list 4 relative contradictions to exercise test
test may still be performed, sometimes with modifications -left main coronary stenosis, moderate stenotic valvular heart disease, electrolyte abnormalities, severe arterial hypertension, tachyarrhythmias or bradyarrhythmias, hypertropic cardiomyopathy, outflow tract obstruction, neuromuscular, musculoskeletal or rheumatoid disordors, ventricular aneurysm, uncontrolled metabolic disease, chronic infectious disease, mental or physical impairment, high degree atrioventricular block
define progression principle
there is a desired level of overload that should be achieved in an optimal amount of time
explain a graded exercise test (GXT)
this test measures functional capacity. The test will use an estimated VO2 max, unless achieved VO2 max. Also test exceeding 7 minutes indicates prognostic cardio fitness value, due to the increased work capacity. Most basic and common is the Bruce protocol treadmill test.
list 3 characteristics of amiodarone
treat ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and atrial fibrillation shows beta blocker like potassium channel blocker like actions on SA and AV node increases refractory period via sodium and potassium channel effects which slow intracardiac conduction
true/false an individual can improve their VO2 max by increasing their training volume and intensity
true
true/false: a person with tachycardia may never show symptoms
true
true/false: blurred vision is a symptom of hyperglycemia
true
true/false: calcium channel antagonists are used to treat high BP, angina, atrial fibrillation, and supraventricular tachycardia
true
true/false: during maximal intensity exercise, min ventilation may be 20-25 times higher than typical 6L/min that is observed under resting conditions.
true
true/false: elevating a person's legs when they go into shock helps to keep their blood circulating
true
true/false: exercise testing elicits the body's reaction to measured increases in acute exercise
true
true/false: getting a free shirt with a paid gym membership is an example of an extrinsic reward
true
true/false: health fitness professionals should have their clients sign waivers
true
true/false: if a client shows symptom of hypoglycemia, they can resume activity once their blood glucose level reaches 100 mg/dL
true
true/false: malpractice is a type of negligence
true
true/false: many people with type II diabetes are relatively inactive and overweight/obese
true
true/false: observational learning involves mimicking behavior that appears to be rewarding
true
what is the difference between type I and type II fibers
type II fibers are for high intensity and short duration exercises; fast twitch type I fibers are for low intensity and long duraion exercises; slow twitch
define waist to hip ratio
waist circumference by hip circumference to determine body composition
what is the most abundant compound of the human body besides fat?
water
informed consent
what form must be obtained by the client prior to a test?
low-impact machine (cycle ergometer)
what is an appropriate exercise testing method for an individual with a neuromuscular disease?
who should have higher normal body fat %? why?
women because of child bearing and other hormonal functions
