ADN 301 - Exam 3

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What are the characteristics of neutrophils? (Select all that apply). a. Known as "segs" b. Band is immature cell c. First WBC at injury site d. Arises from megakaryocyte e. Increased in individuals with allergies f. 50-70% of WBCs

ANS: A, B, C, F a. Known as "segs" b. Band is immature cell c. First WBC at injury site f. 50-70% of WBCs These characteristics are evident with neutrophils. Platelets arise from megakaryocytes and are stored in the spleen. Eosinophils are increased in individuals with allergies and make up 0% to 4% of WBCs.

A pt with a bone marrow disorder has an overproduction of myeloblasts. The nurse would expect the results of a CBC to include an increase in which cell types? (Select all that apply). a. Basophils b. Eosinophils c. Monocytes d. Neutorphils e. Lymphocytes

ANS: A, B, D a. Basophils b. Eosinophils d. Neutorphils The myeloblast is a committed hematopoietic cell found in the bone marrow from which granulocyes develop. A disorder in which myeloblast are overproduced would result in increased basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils.

A patient with Parkinson's disease is admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Which nursing interventions will be included in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Use an elevated toilet seat. b. Cut patient's food into small pieces. c. Provide high-protein foods at each meal. d. Place an armchair at the patient's bedside. e. Observe for sudden exacerbation of symptoms.

ANS: A, B, D Because the patient with Parkinson's has difficulty chewing, food should be cut into small pieces. An armchair should be used when the patient is seated so that the patient can use the arms to assist with getting up from the chair. An elevated toilet seat will facilitate getting on and off the toilet. High-protein foods will decrease the effectiveness of L-dopa. Parkinson's is a steadily progressive disease without acute exacerbations. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1436-1437 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When conducting a health history assessment, the nurse would want to know what important information about the patient's elimination status? (Select all that apply.) a. Recent changes in elimination patterns b. Changes in color, consistency, or odor of stool or urine c. Time of day patient defecates d. Discomfort or pain with elimination e. List of medications taken by patient f. Patient's preferences for toileting

ANS: A, B, D, E Recent changes in elimination patterns, color, consistency, or odor are important for the nurse to know concerning elimination. Discomfort or pain during elimination is important for the nurse to know. A nurse should also know which medications the patient is on as this may affect elimination. Time of day is not important, nor is the patient's preferences for toileting. They are personal preferences and do not affect elimination.

1. Which of the following would be included in the assessment of a patient with diabetes mellitus who is experiencing a hypoglycemic reaction? (Select all that apply.) a. Tremors b. Nervousness c. Extreme thirst d. Flushed skin e. Profuse perspiration f. Constricted pupils

ANS: A, B, E When hypoglycemia occurs, blood glucose levels fall, resulting in sympathetic nervous system responses such as tremors, nervousness, and profuse perspiration. Dilated pupils would also occur, not constricted pupils. Extreme thirst, flushed skin, and constricted pupils are consistent with hyperglycemia.

Which nutrients are essential for RBC production? (Select all that apply). a. Iron b. Folic acid c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin b12 f. Carbohydrates

ANS: A, B, E a. Iron b. Folic acid e. Vitamin b12 Although all the listed nutrients are helpful, iron, folic acid, and cobalamin (Vitamin B12) are essential for erythropoiesis.

A patient who was in a car accident had abdominal trauma. Which organs may be damaged and contribute to altered function of the hematologic system? (Select all that apply). a. Liver b. Spleen c. Stomach d. Gallbladder e. Lymph nodes

ANS: A, B, E a. Liver b. Spleen e. Lymph nodes The abdominal organs that are primarily involved in hematoligic function are the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. The liver filters the blood, produces procoagulants, and stores iron. The spleen's functions are hematopoietic (RBCs produced during fetal development); filtration (removes old and defective erythroctes, iron for reuse, and bacteria); immunologic (supplies lymphocytes, monocytes, and stored immunoglobulins); and storage (RBCs and platelets). The lymph nodes filter pathogens and foreign particles from lymphatic circulation.

Nursing care of a pt immediately after a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration includes (Select all that apply). a. Administering analgesics as neccessary b. Preparing to administer blood transfusion c. Instructing on the need to lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact d. Monitoring VS and assessing the site for excess drainage or bleeding e. Instructing on the need for preprocedure and postprocedure antibiotic medications

ANS: A, C, D a. Administering analgesics as neccessary c. Instructing on the need to lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact d. Monitoring VS and assessing the site for excess drainage or bleeding

Which cells are classified as granulocytes? (Select all that apply). a. Basophil b. Monocyte c. Eosinophil d. Neutrophil e. Lymphocyte f. Thrombocyte

ANS: A, C, D a. Basophil c. Eosinophil d. Neutrophil Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils are the granulocytic leukocytes. Lymphocytes are the agranular leukocytes that form the basis of the cellular and humoral immune responses. Monocytes are agranulocytes that are potent phagocytic cells. Thrombocytes are not granulocytes or agranulocytes, and they initiate the clotting process.

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-yr-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 lb (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine two or three times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use tobacco or excessive alcohol, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 235 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Assessment of pain

-Location -Onset/duration: when did it start? What precipitated it? Constant or intermittent? -Quality: burning, shooting, etc. -Intensity: numeric scale, faces pain scale, Wong Baker faces, verbal descriptor scale -Aggravating factors: What makes it worse? -Relieving factors: what makes it better?

Physiological Consequences of pain

-Stress= increased cortisol catecholamines, glucagon -Unrelieved pain = respiratory effect = low tidal volumes = atelectasis et mechanical ventilation -Non-use of affected limb = atrophy of muscles and contracture of joint = further pain

Name 4 types of neuropathic pain

1. Central pain (post stroke, multiple sclerosis0 2. Peripheral Neuropathies (diabetic neuropathy, trigeminal neuralgia, posttherpetic neuralgia) 3. Deafferentation pain (phantom limb pain, postmastectomy pain, spinal cord injury) 4. Sympathetical maintained pain (complex regional pain syndrome)

What are the 5 dimensions of pain? describe

1. Physiological-the genetic, anatomic and physical determinants of pain. 2. Affective- the emotional response to pain. 3. Cognitive-the beliefs, attitudes, memories and meaning attributed to pain 4. Behavioral-observable actions that express or control pain, or changed behavior 5. Sociocultural-age and gender influences, family and caregiver influence, and culture that influences the pain experience

Name 4 examples of sources of Neuropathic pain?

1. Poststroke pain 2. Phantom limb pain 3. Trigeminal neuralgia 4. Postmastectomy pain

Name 3 examples of sources of Nociceptive pain?

1. Sunburn 2. Osteoarthritic 3. Pancreatitis

What is the 3 types of nociceptive pain?

1. Superficial Somatic pain (Sunburn) 2. Deep Somatic pain (arthritis, tendonitis, myofascial pain) 3. Visceral pain (appendicitis, pancreatitis, cancer affecting internal organs, irritable bowel, bladder)

Order the nociceptive processes that occur to communicate tissue damage to the CNS from the first process to the last.

1. Transduction 2. Transmission 3. Perception 4. Modulation

Number the components of normal hemostasis in the order of occurrence, beginning with 1 for first component and ending with 6 for last. Adhesion (2nd) Activation (3rd) Aggregation (4th) Platelet plug formation(5th) Clot retraction and dissolution (6th) Vascular injury and subendothelial exposure (1st)

1. Vascular injury and subendothelial exposure 2. Adhesion 3. Activation 4. Aggregation 5. Platelet plug formation 6. Clot retraction and dissolution

17. During the diagnosis and long-term management of a seizure disorder, what should the nurse recognize as one of the major needs of the patient? a. Managing the complicated drug regimen of seizure control b. Coping with the effects of negative social attitudes toward epilepsy c. Adjusting to the very restricted lifestyle required by a diagnosis of epilepsy d. Learning to minimize the effect of the condition in order to obtain employment

17. b. One of the most common complications of a seizure disorder is the effect it has on the patient's lifestyle. This is because of the social stigma attached to seizures, which causes patients to hide their diagnosis and to prefer not to be identified as having epilepsy. Medication regimens usually require only once- or twice-daily dosing and the major restrictions of lifestyle usually involve driving and high-risk environments. Job discrimination against the handicapped is prevented by federal and state laws and patients only need to identify their disease in case of medical emergencies.

18. A patient at the clinic for a routine health examination mentions that she is exhausted because her legs bother her so much at night that she cannot sleep. The nurse questions the patient further about her leg symptoms with what knowledge about restless legs syndrome? a. The condition can be readily diagnosed with EMG. b. Other more serious nervous system dysfunctions may be present. c. Dopaminergic agents are often effective in managing the symptoms. d. Symptoms can be controlled by vigorous exercise of the legs during the day.

18. c. Restless legs syndrome that is not related to other pathologic processes, such as diabetes mellitus or rheumatic disorders, may be caused by a dysfunction in the basal ganglia circuits that use the neurotransmitter dopamine, which controls movements. Dopamine precursors and dopamine agonists, such as those used for parkinsonism, are effective in managing sensory and motor symptoms. Polysomnography studies during sleep are the only tests that have diagnostic value and although exercise should be encouraged, excessive leg exercise does not have an effect on the symptoms.

A patient who is having an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis has a prescription for methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 160 mg IV. The label on the vial reads: methylprednisolone 125 mg in 2 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer?

2.56. With a concentration of 125 mg/2 mL, the nurse will need to administer 2.56 mL to obtain 160 mg of methylprednisolone.

20. A 38-year-old woman has newly diagnosed multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks the nurse what is going to happen to her. What is the best response by the nurse? a. "You will have either periods of attacks and remissions or progression of nerve damage over time." b. "You need to plan for a continuous loss of movement, sensory functions, and mental capabilities." c. "You will most likely have a steady course of chronic progressive nerve damage that will change your personality." d. "It is common for people with MS to have an acute attack of weakness and then not to have any other symptoms for years."

20. a. Most patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) have remissions and exacerbations of neurologic dysfunction or a relapsing-remitting initial course followed by progression with or without occasional relapses, minor remissions, and plateaus that progressively cause loss of motor, sensory, and cerebellar functions. Intellectual function generally remains intact but patients may experience anger, depression, or euphoria. A few people have chronic progressive deterioration and some may experience only occasional and mild symptoms for several years after onset.

The nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient during a physical assessment. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse? a. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node b. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node c. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes d. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot

ANS: A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node Enlarged and nontender nodes are suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Firm nodes are an expected finding in an area of infection. The superficial lymph nodes are usually not palpable in adults, but if they are palpable, they are normally 0.5 to 1 cm and nontender.

21. During assessment of a patient admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of MS, what should the nurse expect to find? a. Tremors, dysphasia, and ptosis b. Bowel and bladder incontinence and loss of memory c. Motor impairment, visual disturbances, and paresthesias d. Excessive involuntary movements, hearing loss, and ataxia

21. c. Specific neurologic dysfunction of MS is caused by destruction of myelin and replacement with glial scar tissue at specific areas in the nervous system. Motor, sensory, cerebellar, and emotional dysfunctions, including paresthesias as well as patchy blindness, blurred vision, pain radiating along the dermatome of the nerve, ataxia, and severe fatigue, are the most common manifestations of MS. Constipation and bladder dysfunctions, short-term memory loss, sexual dysfunction, anger, and depression or euphoria may also occur. Excessive involuntary movements and tremors are not seen in MS.

Priority Decision: A patient with MS has a nursing diagnosis of self-care deficit related to muscle spasticity and neuromuscular deficits. In providing care for the patient, what is most important for the nurse to do? a. Teach the family members how to care adequately for the patient's needs. b. Encourage the patient to maintain social interactions to prevent social isolation. c. Promote the use of assistive devices so the patient can participate in self-care activities. d. Perform all activities of daily living (ADLs) for the patient to conserve the patient's energy.

24. c. The main goal in care of the patient with MS is to keep the patient active and maximally functional and promote self-care as much as possible to maintain independence. Assistive devices encourage independence while preserving the patient's energy. No care activity that the patient can do for himself or herself should be performed by others. Involvement of the family in the patient's care and maintenance of social interactions are also important but are not the priority in care.

25. A patient with newly diagnosed MS has been hospitalized for evaluation and initial treatment of the disease. Following discharge teaching, the nurse realizes that additional instruction is needed when the patient says what? a. "It is important for me to avoid exposure to people with upper respiratory infections." b. "When I begin to feel better, I should stop taking the prednisone to prevent side effects." c. "I plan to use vitamin supplements and a high-protein diet to help manage my condition." d. "I must plan with my family how we are going to manage my care if I become more incapacitated."

25. b. Corticosteroids used in treating acute exacerbations of MS should not be abruptly stopped by the patient because adrenal insufficiency may result and prescribed tapering doses should be followed. Infections may exacerbate symptoms and should be avoided and high-protein diets with vitamin supplements are advocated. Long-term planning for increasing disability is also important.

26. The classic triad of manifestations associated with Parkinson's disease is tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. What is a consequence related to rigidity? a. Shuffling gait b. Impaired handwriting c. Lack of postural stability d. Muscle soreness and pain

26. d. The degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra of midbrain and basal ganglia lead to this triad of signs. Muscle soreness, pain, and slowness of movement are patient function consequences related to rigidity. Shuffling gait, lack of postural stability, absent arm swing while walking, absent blinking, masked facial expression, and difficulty initiating movement are all related to bradykinesia. Impaired handwriting and hand activities are related to the tremor of Parkinson's disease (PD).

27. A patient with a tremor is being evaluated for Parkinson's disease. The nurse explains to the patient that Parkinson's disease can be confirmed by a. CT and MRI scans. b. relief of symptoms with administration of dopaminergic agents. c. the presence of tremors that increase during voluntary movement. d. cerebral angiogram that reveals the presence of cerebral atherosclerosis.

27. b. Although clinical manifestations are characteristic in PD, no laboratory or diagnostic tests are specific for the condition. A diagnosis is made when at least two of the three signs of the classic triad are present and it is confirmed with a positive response to antiparkinsonian medication. Research regarding the role of genetic testing and MRI to diagnose PD is ongoing. Essential tremors increase during voluntary movement whereas the tremors of PD are more prominent at rest.

28. Which observation of the patient made by the nurse is most indicative of Parkinson's disease? a. Large, embellished handwriting b. Weakness of one leg resulting in a limping walk c. Difficulty rising from a chair and beginning to walk d. Onset of muscle spasms occurring with voluntary movement

28. c. The bradykinesia of PD prevents automatic movements and activities such as beginning to walk, rising from a chair, or even swallowing saliva cannot be executed unless they are consciously willed. Handwriting is affected by the tremor and results in the writing trailing off at the end of words. Specific limb weakness and muscle spasms are not characteristic of PD.

29. A patient with Parkinson's disease is started on levodopa. What should the nurse explain about this drug? a. It stimulates dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia. b. It promotes the release of dopamine from brain neurons. c. It is a precursor of dopamine that is converted to dopamine in the brain. d. It prevents the excessive breakdown of dopamine in the peripheral tissues.

29. c. Peripheral dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier but its precursor, levodopa, is able to enter the brain, where it is converted to dopamine, increasing the supply that is deficient in PD. Other drugs used to treat PD include bromocriptine, which stimulates dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia, and amantadine, which blocks the reuptake of dopamine into presynaptic neurons. Carbidopa is an agent that is usually administered with levodopa to prevent the levodopa from being metabolized in peripheral tissues before it can reach the brain.

The complete blood count (CBC) indicates that a patient is thrombocytopenic. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Avoid intramuscular injections. b. Encourage increased oral fluids. c. Check temperature every 4 hours. d. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.

ANS: A. Avoid intramuscular injections. Thrombocytopenia is a decreased number of platelets, which places the patient at high risk for bleeding. Neutropenic patients are at high risk for infection and sepsis and should be monitored frequently for signs of infection. Encouraging fluid intake and iron-rich food intake is not indicated in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

31. A patient with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory insufficiency and severe weakness. When is a diagnosis of cholinergic crisis made? a. The patient's respiration is impaired because of muscle weakness. b. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) increases muscle weakness. c. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) results in improved muscle contractility. d. EMG reveals decreased response to repeated stimulation of muscles.

31. b. The reduction of the acetylcholine (ACh) effect in myasthenia gravis (MG) is treated with anticholinesterase drugs, which prolong the action of ACh at the neuromuscular synapse, but too much of these drugs will cause a cholinergic crisis with symptoms very similar to those of MG. To determine whether the patient's manifestations are due to a deficiency of ACh or to too much anticholinesterase drug, the anticholinesterase drug edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is administered. If the patient is in cholinergic crisis, the patient's symptoms will worsen; if the patient is in a myasthenic crisis, the patient will improve.

Priority Decision: During care of a patient in myasthenic crisis, maintenance of what is the nurse's first priority for the patient? a. Mobility b. Nutrition c. Respiratory function d. Verbal communication

32. c. The patient in myasthenic crisis has severe weakness and fatigability of all skeletal muscles, affecting the patient's ability to breathe, swallow, talk, and move. However, the priority of nursing care is monitoring and maintaining adequate ventilation.

33. When providing care for a patient with ALS, the nurse recognizes what as one of the most distressing problems experienced by the patient? a. Painful spasticity of the face and extremities b. Retention of cognitive function with total degeneration of motor function c. Uncontrollable writhing and twisting movements of the face, limbs, and body d. Knowledge that there is a 50% chance the disease has been passed to any offspring

33. b. In ALS there is gradual degeneration of motor neurons with extreme muscle wasting from lack of stimulation and use. However, cognitive function is not impaired and patients feel trapped in a dying body. Chorea manifested by writhing, involuntary movements is characteristic of HD. As an autosomal dominant genetic disease, HD also has a 50% chance of being passed to each offspring.

34. In providing care for patients with chronic, progressive neurologic disease, what is the major goal of treatment that the nurse works toward? a. Meet the patient's personal care needs. b. Return the patient to normal neurologic function. c. Maximize neurologic functioning for as long as possible. d. Prevent the development of additional chronic diseases.

34. c. Many chronic neurologic diseases involve progressive deterioration in physical or mental capabilities and have no cure, with devastating results for patients and families. Health care providers can only attempt to alleviate physical symptoms, prevent complications, and assist patients in maximizing function and self-care abilities for as long as possible.

A patient with pancytopenia of unknown origin is scheduled for the following diagnostic tests. The nurse will provide a consent form to sign for which test? a. Bone marrow biopsy b. Abdominal ultrasound c. Complete blood count (CBC) d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

ANS: A. Bone marrow biopsy A bone marrow biopsy is a minor surgical procedure that requires the patient or guardian to sign a surgical consent form. The other procedures do not require a signed consent.

A complication of the hyperviscosity of polycythemia is: A. thrombosis B. cardiomyopathy C. pulmonary edema D. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

When providing care for a patient with thrombocytopenia, the nurse instructs the patient to: A. dab his or her nose instead of blowing B. be careful when shaving with a safety razor C. continue with physical activities to stimulate thrombopoiesis D. avoid t aspirin because it may mask the fever that occurs with thrombocytopenia

As the nurse admits a patient in end-stage kidney disease to the hospital, the patient tells the nurse, "If my heart or breathing stop, I do not want to be resuscitated." Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Ask if these wishes have been discussed with the health care provider. b. Place a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) notation in the patient's care plan. c. Inform the patient that a notarized advance directive must be included in the record or resuscitation must be performed. d. Advise the patient to designate a person to make health care decisions when the patient is not able to make them independently.

A A health care provider's order should be written describing the actions that the nurses should take if the patient requires CPR, but the primary right to decide belongs to the patient or family. The nurse should document the patient's request but does not have the authority to place the DNR order in the care plan. A notarized advance directive is not needed to establish the patient's wishes. The patient may need a durable power of attorney for health care (or the equivalent), but this does not address the patient's current concern with possible resuscitation.

Which action is best for the nurse to take to ensure culturally competent care for an alert, terminally ill Filipino patient? a. Ask the patient and family about their preferences for care during this time. b. Let the family decide whether to tell the patient about the terminal diagnosis. c. Obtain information from Filipino staff members about possible cultural needs. d. Remind family members that dying patients prefer to have someone at the bedside.

A Because cultural beliefs may vary among people of the same ethnicity, the nurse's best action is to assess the expectations of both the patient and family. The other actions may be appropriate, but the nurse can only plan for individualized culturally competent care after assessment of this patient and family.

The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications? a. Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. b. Provide PRN doses of medication whenever the patient requests. c. Offer enough pain medication to keep the patient sedated and unaware of stimuli. d. Suggest analgesic doses that provide pain control without decreasing respiratory rate.

A The principles of beneficence and nonmaleficence indicate that the goal of pain management in a terminally ill patient is adequate pain relief even if the effect of pain medications could hasten death. Administration of analgesics on a PRN basis will not provide the consistent level of analgesia the patient needs. Patients usually do not require so much pain medication that they are oversedated and unaware of stimuli. Adequate pain relief may require a dosage that will result in a decrease in respiratory rate.

The spouse of a patient with terminal cancer visits daily and cheerfully talks with the patient about wedding anniversary plans for the next year. When the nurse asks about any concerns, the spouse says, "I'm busy at work, but otherwise things are fine." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Ineffective coping related to lack of grieving b. Anxiety related to complicated grieving process c. Caregiver role strain related to feeling overwhelmed d. Hopelessness related to knowledge deficit about cancer

A The spouse's behavior and statements indicate the absence of anticipatory grieving, which may lead to impaired adjustment as the patient progresses toward death. The spouse does not appear to feel overwhelmed, hopeless, or anxious.

The nurse admits a terminally ill patient to the hospital. What is the first action that the nurse should complete when planning this patient's care? a. Determine the patient's wishes regarding end-of-life care. b. Emphasize the importance of addressing any family issues. c. Discuss the normal grief process with the patient and family. d. Encourage the patient to talk about any fears or unresolved issues.

A The nurse's initial action should be to assess the patient's wishes at this time. The other actions may be implemented if the patient or the family express a desire to discuss fears, understand the grief process, or address family issues, but they should not be implemented until the assessment indicates that they are appropriate.

The earliest and most sensitive assessment finding that would indicate an alteration in intracranial regulation would be a. change in level of consciousness. b. inability to focus visually. c. loss of primitive reflexes. d. unequal pupil size.

A (A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indication of a change in intracranial processing. This is assessed with the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which assesses eye opening and verbal and motor response. The inability to focus may indicate a change, but it is not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS. Primitive reflexes refers to those reflexes found in a normal infant that disappear with maturation. These reflexes may reappear with frontal lobe dysfunction and may be tested for with a suspected brain injury, so it would be the reappearance of primitive reflexes. A change in pupil size or unequal pupils may indicate a change, but they are not one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS.)

The nurse preparing to care for a patient after a suspected stroke would question an order for a(n) a. antihypertensive. b. antipyretic. c. osmotic diuretic. d. sedative.

A (Anti-hypertensive medications may be detrimental because the mean arterial pressure must be adequate to maintain cerebral blood flow and limit secondary injury. Fever can worsen the outcome after a stroke, and antipyretics can promote normothermia. Osmotic diuretics such as mannitol can decrease interstitial volume and decrease intracranial pressure. Short-acting sedatives can decrease intracranial pressure by reducing metabolic demand. Long-acting sedatives would be avoided to provide times for periodic neurologic assessments.)

When caring for the patient after a head injury, the nurse would be most concerned with assessment findings which included respiratory changes, a. hypertension, and bradycardia. b. hypertension, and tachycardia. c. hypotension, and bradycardia. d. hypotension, and tachycardia.

A (Hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes are the ominous late signs of increased intracranial pressure and indications of impending herniation (Cushing's triad). It is bradycardia, not tachycardia, which is the component of this ominous triad. It is hypertension, not hypotension, which is the component of this ominous triad.)

A patient is undergoing a contrast CT scan of the spleen. What is MOST important for the nurse to ask the patient about before the test? a. Iodine sensitivity b. Prior blood transfusions c. Phobia of confined spaces d. Internal metal implants or appliances

ANS: A. Iodine sensitivity A contrast CT scan involves the use of an iodine-based dye that could cause a reaction if the patient is sensitive to iodine. Metal implants or internal appliances and claustrophobia should be determined before MRI. Prior blood transfusions are not a factor in this diagnostic test.

Significant information obtained from the patients H&H that r/t the hematologic system includes a. Jaundice b. Bladder surgery c. Early menopause d. Multiple pregnancies

ANS: A. Jaundice

After a woman had a right breast mastectomy, her right arm became very swollen. What hematologic problem caused this? a. Lymphedema b. Right sided heart failure c. Wound on her right hand d. Refusal to use her right arm

ANS: A. Lymphedema Lymphedema is the obstruction of lymph flow that results in accumulation of lymph fluid for the patient in the right arm following a right-sided breast mastectomy. The other options are not hematologic problems that would cause extreme swelling.

Using light pressure with the index and middle fingers, the RN cannot palpate any of the pts superficial lymph nodes. How should the RN respond to this assessment? a. Record finding as normal b. Reassess lymph nodes using deeper pressure c. Ask the pt about any hx of radiation therapy d. Notify HCP that xrays will be neccessary

ANS: A. Record finding as normal Superficial lymph nodes are evaluated by light palpation, but they are not normally palpable. It may be normal to find small (<1cm), mobile, firm, non-tender nodes. Deep lymph nodes are detected radiographically.

During the assessment of a pt with anemia, what specific information should the RN ask the pt about? a. Stomach surgery b. Recurring infections c. Corticosteroid therapy d. Oral contraceptive use

ANS: A. Stomach surgery The parietal cells of the stomach secrete intrinsic factor, a substance necessary for the absorption of cobalamin (Vitamin B12), and if all or part of the stomach is removed, the lack of intrinsic factor can lead to imparied RBC production and pernicious anemia. Recurring infections indicate decreased WBCs and immune response, and corticosteriod therapy may cause a neutrophilia and lymphopenia. Oral contraceptive use is strongly associated with changes in blood coagulation.

1 (Limbs hyperextended and arms hyperpronated ( extension posturing, decerebrate posturing ) indicate upper brainstem damage; this is a grave sign. Spastic paralysis of both the upper and lower extremities is associated with an upper motor neuron disease or lesion. Hyperflexion of the upper extremities and hyperextension of the lower extremities is associated with flexion posturing (decorticate posturing), which indicates damage to the pyramidal motor tract above the brainstem. Flaccid paralysis of the upper extremities and spastic paralysis of the lower extremities is associated with a lower motor neuron disease or lesion)

A client arrives in the emergency department unconscious and exhibiting decerebrate posturing. When assessing the client, what does the nurse expect to observe? 1 Hyperextension of both the upper and lower extremities 2 Spastic paralysis of both the upper and lower extremities 3 Hyperflexion of the upper extremities and hyperextension of the lower extremities 4 Flaccid paralysis of the upper extremities and spastic paralysis of the lower extremities

2 (Kernig sign, which is an inability to completely extend the legs, is the classic sign of meningeal irritation. "Sunset eyes" is associated with hydrocephalus; it occurs when the eyelid falls above the iris, allowing the sclera to show. It occurs only in infants whose cranial bones have not yet fused. Plantar reflex, a spinal cord reflex, is unrelated to meningeal irritation. Homans sign indicates the presence of thrombophlebitis; pain is experienced when the foot is dorsiflexed because of vascular irritability.)

A client has surgery, Which early clinical manifestation of meningeal irritation does the nurse assess in the client? 1 Sunset eyes 2 Kernig sign 3 Plantar reflex 4 Homans sign

4 (Cerebral angiography is a form of angiography that provides images of blood vessels in and around the brain. Lack of cerebral circulation is an important confirmatory test for cerebral death (brain death). A myelogram is an x-ray of the spinal cord and vertebral column performed after an injection of contrast medium into the subarachnoid space. Reflex tests help to assess the integrity of the nerve circuits and are performed to quickly confirm the integrity of the spinal cord or specific nerve root function. Lumbar puncture is done to aspirate cerebrospinal fluid.)

A nurse is caring for a patient for whom the health care team suspects cerebral death. Which diagnostic procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for that will confirm this suspicion? 1 Reflex test 2 Myelogram 3 Lumbar puncture 4 Cerebral angiography

2.4.5 (Prior brain trauma or surgery can result in a brain abscess. A distant spread from a pulmonary infection and direct extension from an ear or sinus infection are primary causes of a brain abscess. Acne or skin abscess and a prior leg fracture or ligament tears do not cause brain abscess.)

A patient is diagnosed with a brain abscess. When performing an assessment on this patient, what causes does the nurse determine for the development of this problem? Select all that apply. 1 Acne or skin abscess 2 Prior brain trauma or surgery 3 Prior leg fracture or ligament tears 4 Distant spread from a pulmonary infection 5 Direct extension from an ear or sinus infection

2. When a diabetic patient asks about maintaining adequate blood glucose levels, which of the following statements by the nurse relates most directly to the necessity of maintaining blood glucose levels no lower than about 74 mg/dl? a. "Glucose is the only type of fuel used by body cells to produce the energy needed for physiologic activity." b. "The central nervous system cannot store glucose and needs a continuous supply of glucose for fuel." c. "Without a minimum level of glucose circulating in the blood, erythrocytes cannot produce ATP." d. "The presence of glucose in the blood counteracts the formation of lactic acid and prevents acidosis."

ANS: B The brain cannot synthesize or store significant amounts of glucose; thus a continuous supply from the body's circulation is needed to meet the fuel demands of the central nervous system. REF: 117 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

135 (Patients on corticosteroid treatment should be regularly monitored for fluid intake and sodium levels. Blood glucose monitoring should be performed at least every six hours until hyperglycemia is ruled out. Starting concurrent treatment with antacids or proton pump inhibitors is important to prevent gastrointestinal ulcers and bleeding, because complications associated with the use of corticosteroids include hyperglycemia, increased incidence of infections, and gastrointestinal bleeding. Regularly monitoring the patient's sleep and diet routine does not contribute to avoiding complications related to corticosteroid therapy. Antacids should be given along with corticosteroids to prevent gastrointestinal complications.)

A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being treated with corticosteroids. What actions should the nurse perform to avoid complications due to corticosteroid treatment? Select all that apply. 1 Monitor fluid intake and sodium levels regularly. 2 Monitor patient's sleep and diet routine regularly. 3 Perform blood glucose monitoring at least every six hours. 4 Avoid taking any antacids along with corticosteroid treatment. 5 Start concurrent treatment with antacids or proton pump inhibitors.

4 (Intracranial bleeding may occur in the subdural, subarachnoid, or intraventricular spaces of the brain, causing pressure on vital centers; clinical signs are related to the area and degree of cerebral involvement. Tetany is caused by hypocalcemia; it is manifested by exaggerated muscle twitching. Spina bifida is a defect of the spinal column that is observed at birth. An increased potassium level causes cardiac irregularities, not the irritable behavior observable with central nervous system involvement.)

A preterm neonate admitted to the neonatal intensive care nursery exhibits muscle twitching; seizures; cyanosis; abnormal respirations; and a short, shrill cry. Which complication does the nurse suspect? 1 Tetany 2 Spina bifida 3 Hyperkalemia 4 Intracranial hemorrhage

Fibromyalgia

A type of mixed pain disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain, sleep disturbances, fatigue, cognitive et mood changes More common in women

32. Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F c. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours d. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing after having a tooth extracted

ANS: B A neutropenic patient with a fever is assumed to have an infection and is at risk for rapidly developing sepsis. Rapid assessment, cultures, and initiation of antibiotic therapy are needed. The other patients also require rapid assessment and care but not as urgently as the neutropenic patient.

Nursing interventions for a patient with severe anemia related to peptic ulcer disease would include (select all that apply): A. monitoring stools for guaiac B. instruction for a high iron diet C. taking vital signs every 8 hours D. teaching self injection of erythropoietin E. administration of cobalamin (vit B12) injections

A, B

Priority nursing actions when caring for a hospitalized patient with a new onset temperature of 102.2*F and severe neutropenia include: (check all that apply): A. administering the prescribed antibiotic STAT B. drawing peripheral and ventral line blood cultures C. ongoing monitoring of the patient's vitals for signs of septic shock D. taking a full set of vital signs and notifying the physician immediately E. administering infusions of WBCs treated to decrease immunogenicity

A, B, C, D

The nursing management of a patient in sickle cell crisis includes (select all that apply): A. monitoring CBC B. blood transfusion if required and iron chelation C. optimal pain management and oxygen therapy D. rest as needed and DVT prophylaxis E. administration of IV iron and diet high in iron content

A, B, C, D

A, B, D Because the patient with Parkinson's has difficulty chewing, food should be cut into small pieces. An armchair should be used when the patient is seated so that the patient can use the arms to assist with getting up from the chair. An elevated toilet seat will facilitate getting on and off the toilet. High-protein foods will decrease the effectiveness of L-dopa. Parkinson's is a steadily progressive disease without acute exacerbations.

Which nursing actions for the care of a dying patient can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)? a. Provide postmortem care to the patient. b. Encourage the family members to talk with and reassure the patient. c. Determine how frequently physical assessments are needed for the patient. d. Teach family members about commonly occurring signs of approaching death. e. Administer the prescribed morphine sulfate sublingual as necessary for pain control.

A,B,E Medication administration, psychosocial care, and postmortem care are included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Patient and family teaching and assessment and planning of frequency for assessments are skills that require registered nurse level education and scope of practice.

A 64-year-old patient who has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Assist with active range of motion (ROM). b. Observe for agitation and paranoia. c. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms. d. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

A. ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform active ROM will help maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic manifestations such as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the patient's ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations.

A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects." d. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy."

A. During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for exacerbation of symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born of mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Onset of labor is not affected by MS.

Which measure should the nurse prioritize when providing care for a patient with a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)? A. Vigilant infection control and adherence to standard precautions B. Careful monitoring of neurologic assessment and frequent reorientation C. Maintenance of a calorie count and hourly assessment of intake and output D. Assessment of blood pressure and monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension

A. Infection control is a priority in the care of patients with MS, since infection is the most common cause of an exacerbation of the disease. Decreases in cognitive function are less likely, and MS does not typically result in malnutrition, hypotension, or fluid volume excess or deficit.

The nurse advises a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) to a. perform physically demanding activities early in the day. b. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments. c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy. d. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.

A. Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving muscle activity should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled, but is used for myasthenia crisis or for situations in which corticosteroid therapy must be avoided. There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur because although there is muscle weakness, they are still used.

Which patient requires the most rapid assessment and care by the emergency department nurse? a. The patient with hemochromatosis who reports abdominal pain b. The patient with neutropenia who has a temperature of 101.8° F c. The patient with sickle cell anemia who has had nausea and diarrhea for 24 hours d. The patient with thrombocytopenia who has oozing after having a tooth extracted

In which patient would it be the most important for the nurse to assess the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves? A. A 50-year-old woman with lethargy from a drug overdose B. A 40-year-old man with a complete lumbar spinal cord injury C. A 60-year-old man with severe pain from trigeminal neuralgia D. A 30-year-old woman with a high fever and bacterial meningitis

A. A 50-year-old woman with lethargy from a drug overdose The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves innervate the pharynx and are tested by the gag reflex. It is important to assess the gag reflex in patients who have a decreased level of consciousness, a brainstem lesion, or a disease involving the throat musculature. If the reflex is weak or absent, the patient is in danger of aspirating food or secretions.

The nurse is completing a health assessment for an obese 62-year-old man who wants to begin a diet and exercise program. Which assessment should the nurse perform to determine the cognitive function of the patient during the physical examination? A. Ask the patient a question such as, "Who were the last three presidents?" B. Determine the level of consciousness, body posture, and facial expressions. C. Observe for signs of agitation, anger, or depression during the health check. D. Request that the patient mimic rapid, alternating movements with both hands.

A. Ask the patient a question such as, "Who were the last three presidents?" Cognition is one component of the mental status examination to determine cerebral functioning. Cognition is assessed by determining orientation, memory, general knowledge, insight, judgment, problem solving, and calculation. A question often used to determine cognition for adults living in the United States is, "Who were the last three presidents?" General appearance and behavior is another component and includes level of consciousness, body posture, and facial expressions. Mood and affect are assessed by observing for agitation, anger, or depression. Cerebellar function is determined by assessing balance and coordination and may include testing rapid alternating movements of the upper and lower extremities.

The nurse cares for a 34-year-old woman after a lumbar puncture. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Assess for drainage or bleeding from the puncture site. B. Monitor for bladder dysfunction and bowel incontinence. C. Maintain bed rest until lower extremities move normally. D. Check for loss of muscle strength in the upper extremities.

A. Assess for drainage or bleeding from the puncture site. After a lumbar puncture the nurse should monitor the puncture site for drainage or bleeding. Other assessments include headache intensity, meningeal irritation (nuchal rigidity), signs and symptoms of local trauma (e.g., hematoma, pain), neurologic signs, and vital signs. A lumbar puncture does not affect bowel or bladder function or upper extremity muscle strength. Bed rest until lower extremity movement returns is indicated for the patient after spinal anesthesia.

When assessing a patient with a traumatic brain injury, the nurse notes uncoordinated movement of the extremities. How should the nurse document this assessment? A. Ataxia B. Apraxia C. Anisocoria D. Anosognosia

A. Ataxia Ataxia is a lack of coordination of movement, possibly caused by lesions of sensory or motor pathways, cerebellum disorders, or certain medications. Apraxia is the inability to perform learned movements despite having the desire and physical ability to perform them related to a cerebral cortex lesion. Anisocoria is inequality of pupil size from an optic nerve injury. Anosognosia is the inability to recognize a bodily defect or disease related to lesions in the right parietal cortex.

Alan is a 30-year-old male admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. He is in acute pain described as a 10/10, which is localized to the abdomen, periumbilical area, and some radiation to his back. The abdomen is grossly distended so it is difficult to assess. He is restless and agitated, with elevated pulse and blood pressure. An appropriate pain management plan of care may include A. IV Dilaudid q 4 hours PRN, hydrocodone 5/500 PO q 6 hours PRN, and acetaminophen. B. Norco 5/500 q 4 hours PO and Benadryl 25 mg PO q 6 hours. C. Phenergan 25 mg IM q 6 hours. D. Tylenol 325 mg q 6 hours.

A. IV Dilaudid q4h PRN, Norco 5/500mg q6h PRN, and acetaminophen Oral route whenever feasible, long standing pain = long acting analgesic for baseline pain and fast-onset medication for breakthrough pain

A patient who has a neurologic disease that affects the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest what sign? A. Impaired muscle movement. B. Decreased deep tendon reflexes. C. Decreased level of consciousness D. Impaired sensation of touch, pain, and temperature.

A. Impaired muscle movement. Among the most important descending tracts are the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts, collectively termed the pyramidal tract. These tracts carry volitional (voluntary) impulses from the cortex to the cranial and peripheral nerves. Dysfunction of the pyramidal tract is likely to manifest as impaired movement because of hypertonicity. Diseases affecting the pyramidal tract do not result in changes in LOC, impaired reflexes, or decreased sensation.

A 19-year old male has sustained a transaction of C-7 in an MVA reddening his quadriplegic. He describes his pain as burning, sharp, and shooting. This is characteristic of A. Neuropathic pain B. Ghost pain C. Mixed pain syndrome D. Nociceptive pain

A. Neuropathic pain Damage to the brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves resulting in burning or shooting sensation

Controlling pain is important to promoting wellness. Unrelieved pain has been associated with a. Prolonged stress response and a cascade of harmful effects system wide. b. Large tidal volumes and decreased lung capacity c. Decreased tumor growth and longevity d. Decreased carbohydrate, protein, and fat destruction

A. Prolonged stress response and a cascade of harmful effects system-wide

Which action will the emergency department nurse anticipate for a patient diagnosed with a concussion who did not lose consciousness? a. Coordinate the transfer of the patient to the operating room. b. Provide discharge instructions about monitoring neurologic status. c. Transport the patient to radiology for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. Arrange to admit the patient to the neurologic unit for 24 hours of observation.

ANS: B A patient with a minor head trauma is usually discharged with instructions about neurologic monitoring and the need to return if neurologic status deteriorates. MRI, hospital admission, and surgery are not usually indicated in a patient with a concussion. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient with heart failure and type 1 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for a positron emission tomography (PET) of the brain. Which medication prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse expect to administer before the diagnostic study? A. Regular insulin 6 units (SQ) B. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg (IV) C. Alprazolam (Xanax) 0.5 mg (PO) D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 500 mg (PO)

A. Regular insulin 6 units (SQ) Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus must have insulin administered the day of the PET study if glucose metabolism is the focus of the PET. Diuretics should not be administered before the PET scan unless a urinary catheter is inserted. The patient must remain still during the procedure (1 to 2 hours). Sedatives and tranquilizers (e.g., alprazolam) should not be administered before a PET study of the brain because the patient may need to perform mental activities and these medications may affect glucose metabolism. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. Patients are NPO before a PET study of the brain and should not receive oral medications (alprazolam and ciprofloxacin).

A result of stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system is (select all that apply): A. constriction of the bronchi. B. dilation of skin blood vessels. C. increased secretion of insulin. D. increased blood glucose levels. E. relaxation of the urinary sphincters.

A. constriction of the bronchi. B. dilation of skin blood vessels. C. increased secretion of insulin. E. relaxation of the urinary sphincters. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system results in constriction of the bronchi, dilation of blood vessels to the skin, increased secretion of insulin, and relaxation of the urinary sphincter. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in increased blood glucose levels.

In severely anemic patients, the nurse would expect to find: A. dyspnea and tachycardia B. cyanosis and pulmonary edema C. cardiomegaly and pulmonary fibrosis D. ventricular dysrhythmia and wheezing

A. dyspnea and tachycardia

Data regarding mobility, strength, coordination, and activity tolerance are important for the nurse to obtain because: A. many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas. B. patients are less able to identify other neurologic impairments. C. these are the first functions to be affected by neurologic diseases. D. aspects of movement are the most important function of the nervous system.

A. many neurologic diseases affect one or more of these areas. Many neurologic disorders affect the patient's mobility, strength, and coordination. These problems can alter the patient's usual activity and exercise patterns.

A patient's eyes jerk while the patient looks to the left. You will record this finding as: A. nystagmus. B. CN VI palsy. C. oculocephalia. D. opthalmic dyskinesia.

A. nystagmus. Nystagmus is defined as fine, rapid jerking movements of the eyes.

1. A patient is to receive methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 100 mg. The label on the medication states: methylprednisolone 125 mg in 2 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer?

ANS: 1.6 A concentration of 125 mg in 2 mL will result in 100 mg in 1.6 mL.

1. A patient is to receive an infusion of 250 mL of platelets over 2 hours through tubing that is labeled: 1 mL equals 10 drops. How many drops per minute will the nurse infuse?

ANS: 21 To infuse 250 mL over 2 hours, the calculated drip rate is 20.8 drops/minute or 21 drops/minute.

An unconscious patient with a traumatic head injury has a blood pressure of 130/76 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. The nurse will calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) as ____ mm Hg.

ANS: 74 Calculate the CPP: (CPP = Mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure [SBP] - Diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). The MAP is 94. The CPP is 74. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

4. What is the nurse's best response about developing diabetes to the patient whose father has type 1 diabetes mellitus? a. "You have a greater susceptibility for development of the disease because of your family history." b. "Your risk is the same as the general population, because there is no genetic risk for development of type 1 diabetes." c. "Type 1 diabetes is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Therefore the risk for becoming diabetic is 50%." d. "Because you are a woman and your father is the parent with diabetes, your risk is not increased for eventual development of the disease. However, your brothers will become diabetic."

ANS: A Even though type 1 diabetes does not follow a specific genetic pattern of inheritance, those with one parent with type 1 diabetes are at an increased risk for development of the disease. REF: 114-115 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

The nurse instructs a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus to avoid which of the following drugs while taking insulin? a. Furosemide (Lasix) b. Dicumarol (Bishydroxycoumarin) c. Reserpine (Serpasil) d. Cimetidine (Tagamet)

ANS: A Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can increase serum glucose levels; its use is contraindicated with insulin. Dicumarol, an anticoagulant; reserpine, an anti-hypertensive; and cimetidine, an H2 receptor antagonist, do not affect blood glucose levels. REF: 115 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to support the patient's self-esteem? a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins. b. Suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. c. Teach the patient to wash hair gently with mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: A The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicles and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 256 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

The nurse should report which assessment finding immediately to the health care provider? a. The tympanum is blue-tinged. b. There is a cone of light visible. c. Cerumen is present in the auditory canal. d. The skin in the ear canal is dry and scaly.

ANS: A A bluish-tinged tympanum can occur with acute otitis media, which requires immediate care to prevent perforation of the tympanum. Cerumen in the ear canal may need to be removed before proceeding with the examination but is not unusual or pathologic. The presence of a cone of light on the eardrum is normal. Dry and scaly skin in the ear canal may need further assessment but does not require urgent care

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 72-year-old woman admitted with multiple myeloma? a. Monitor fluid intake and output. b. Administer calcium supplements. c. Assess lymph nodes for enlargement. d. Limit weight bearing and ambulation.

ANS: A A high fluid intake and urine output helps prevent the complications of kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia and renal failure caused by deposition of Bence-Jones protein in the renal tubules. Weight bearing and ambulation are encouraged to help bone retain calcium. Lymph nodes are not enlarged with multiple myeloma. Calcium supplements will further increase the patient's calcium level and are not used

24. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 72-year-old woman admitted with multiple myeloma? a. Monitor fluid intake and output. b. Administer calcium supplements. c. Assess lymph nodes for enlargement. d. Limit weight bearing and ambulation.

ANS: A ALS causes progressive muscle weakness, but assisting the patient to perform active ROM will help maintain strength as long as possible. Psychotic manifestations such as agitation and paranoia are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the patient's ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further increase muscle weakness and depress respirations. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1439 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 68-yr-old male patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after being found unconscious on the bathroom floor by his spouse. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Check oxygen saturation. b. Assess pupil reaction to light. c. Palpate the head for injuries d. Verify Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score.

ANS: A Airway patency and breathing are the most vital functions and should be assessed first. The neurologic assessments should be accomplished next and additional assessment after that. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

Which patient is most appropriate for the intensive care unit (ICU) charge nurse to assign to a registered nurse (RN) who has floated from the medical unit? a. A 45-yr-old patient receiving IV antibiotics for meningococcal meningitis b. A 35-yr-old patient with intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring after a head injury c. A 25-yr-old patient admitted with a skull fracture and craniotomy the previous day d. A 55-yr-old patient who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is receiving hyperventilation therapy

ANS: A An RN who works on a medical unit will be familiar with administration of IV antibiotics and with meningitis. The patient recovering from a craniotomy, the patient with an ICP monitor, and the patient on a ventilator should be assigned to an RN familiar with the care of critically ill patients. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

20. Which finding for a patient who has hypothyroidism and hypertension indicates that the nurse should contact the health care provider before administering levothyroxine (Synthroid)? a. Increased thyroxine (T4) level b. Blood pressure 112/62 mm Hg c. Distant and difficult to hear heart sounds d. Elevated thyroid stimulating hormone level

ANS: A An increased thyroxine level indicates the levothyroxine dose needs to be decreased. The other data are consistent with hypothyroidism and the nurse should administer the levothyroxine.

The nurse is listening for bowel sounds in a postoperative patient. The bowel sounds are slow, as they are heard only every 3 to 4 minutes. The patient asks the nurse why this is happening. The best response from the nurse would be which of the following? a. "Anesthesia during surgery and pain medication after surgery may slow peristalsis in the bowel." b. "Some people have a slower bowel than others, and this is nothing to be concerned about." c. "The foods you eat contribute to peristalsis, so you should eat more fiber in your diet." d. "Bowel peristalsis is slow because you are not walking. Get more exercise during the day."

ANS: A Anesthesia and pain medication used in conjunction with the surgery are affecting the peristalsis of the bowel. Having a slower bowel, eating certain food, or lack of exercise will not have a direct effect on the bowel.

25. Which question during the assessment of a diabetic patient will help the nurse identify autonomic neuropathy? a. "Do you feel bloated after eating?" b. "Have you seen any skin changes?" c. "Do you need to increase your insulin dosage when you are stressed?" d. "Have you noticed any painful new ulcerations or sores on your feet?"

ANS: A Autonomic neuropathy can cause delayed gastric emptying, which results in a bloated feeling for the patient. The other questions are also appropriate to ask but would not help in identifying autonomic neuropathy.

9. In order to assist an older diabetic patient to engage in moderate daily exercise, which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Determine what type of activities the patient enjoys. b. Remind the patient that exercise will improve self-esteem. c. Teach the patient about the effects of exercise on glucose level. d. Give the patient a list of activities that are moderate in intensity.

ANS: A Because consistency with exercise is important, assessment for the types of exercise that the patient finds enjoyable is the most important action by the nurse in ensuring adherence to an exercise program. The other actions will also be implemented but are not the most important in improving compliance.

25. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to a. check all stools for occult blood. b. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. check the temperature every 4 hours.

ANS: A Because the patient is at risk for spontaneous bleeding, the nurse should check stools for occult blood. A low platelet count does not require an increased fluid intake. Oral hygiene is important, but it is not necessary to provide oral care every 2 hours. The low platelet count does not increase risk for infection, so frequent temperature monitoring is not indicated.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma whose platelet count drops to 18,000/µL during chemotherapy is to a. check all stools for occult blood. b. encourage fluids to 3000 mL/day. c. provide oral hygiene every 2 hours. d. check the temperature every 4 hours.

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 241 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

45. Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are working in the diabetic clinic? a. Measure the ankle-brachial index. b. Check for changes in skin pigmentation. c. Assess for unilateral or bilateral foot drop. d. Ask the patient about symptoms of depression.

ANS: A Checking systolic pressure at the ankle and brachial areas and calculating the ankle-brachial index is a procedure that can be done by UAP who have been trained in the procedure. The other assessments require more education and critical thinking and should be done by the registered nurse (RN).

23. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the current therapies are effective for a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency? a. Increasing serum sodium levels b. Decreasing blood glucose levels c. Decreasing serum chloride levels d. Increasing serum potassium levels

ANS: A Clinical manifestations of Addison's disease include hyponatremia and an increase in sodium level indicates improvement. The other values indicate that treatment has not been effective.

A college athlete is seen in the clinic 6 weeks after a concussion. Which assessment information will the nurse collect to determine whether the patient is developing postconcussion syndrome? a. Short-term memory b. Muscle coordination c. Glasgow Coma Scale d. Pupil reaction to light

ANS: A Decreased short-term memory is one indication of postconcussion syndrome. The other data may be assessed but are not indications of postconcussion syndrome. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

8. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy." b. "Women with MS frequently have premature labor." c. "MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects." d. "Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy."

ANS: A During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for exacerbation of symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born of mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Onset of labor is not affected by MS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1429 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

2. Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about best dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia? a. Omelet and whole wheat toast b. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese c. Strawberry and banana fruit plate d. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice

ANS: A Eggs and whole grain breads are high in iron. The other choices are appropriate for other nutritional deficiencies but are not the best choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia.

Which menu choice indicates that the patient understands the nurse's teaching about best dietary choices for iron-deficiency anemia? a. Omelet and whole wheat toast b. Cantaloupe and cottage cheese c. Strawberry and banana fruit plate d. Cornmeal muffin and orange juice

ANS: A Eggs and whole grain breads are high in iron. The other choices are appropriate for other nutritional deficiencies but are not the best choice for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia.

The nurse is providing health promotion teaching to a group of older adults. Which information will the nurse include when teaching about routine glaucoma testing? a. A Tono-pen will be applied to the surface of the eye. b. The test involves reading a Snellen chart from 20 feet. c. Medications will be used to dilate the pupils for the test. d. The examination involves checking the pupil's reaction to light.

ANS: A Glaucoma is caused by an increase in intraocular pressure, which would be measured using the Tono-pen. The other techniques are used in testing for other eye disorders

Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. b. Patient reports no stool for 5 days. c. Urine sample has Bence-Jones protein. d. Patient is complaining of severe back pain.

ANS: A Hypercalcemia may lead to complications such as dysrhythmias or seizures, and should be addressed quickly. The other patient findings will also be discussed with the health care provider, but are not life threatening

45. Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Serum calcium level is 15 mg/dL. b. Patient reports no stool for 5 days. c. Urine sample has Bence-Jones protein. d. Patient is complaining of severe back pain.

26. The nurse providing care for a patient who has an adrenocortical adenoma causing hyperaldosteronism should: a. monitor the blood pressure every 4 hours. b. elevate the patient's legs to relieve edema. c. monitor blood glucose level every 4 hours. d. order the patient a potassium-restricted diet.

ANS: A Hypertension caused by sodium retention is a common complication of hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism does not cause an elevation in blood glucose. The patient will be hypokalemic and require potassium supplementation before surgery. Edema does not usually occur with hyperaldosteronism.

1. A 40-yr-old patient with suspected acromegaly is seen at the clinic. To assist in making the diagnosis, which question should the nurse ask? a. "Have you had a recent head injury?" b. "Do you have to wear larger shoes now?" c. "Is there a family history of acromegaly?" d. "Are you experiencing tremors or anxiety?"

ANS: B Acromegaly causes an enlargement of the hands and feet. Head injury and family history are not risk factors for acromegaly. Tremors and anxiety are not clinical manifestations of acromegaly. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment REF: 1157 MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

34. A 27-year-old patient admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has a serum glucose level of 732 mg/dL and serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse take first? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Administer IV potassium supplements. c. Obtain urine glucose and ketone levels. d. Start an insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.

ANS: A Hypokalemia can lead to potentially fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which would be detected with electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring. Because potassium must be infused over at least 1 hour, the nurse should initiate cardiac monitoring before infusion of potassium. Insulin should not be administered without cardiac monitoring because insulin infusion will further decrease potassium levels. Urine glucose and ketone levels are not urgently needed to manage the patient's care.

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the body's immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 prevents bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. c. IL-2 protects normal cells from harmful effects of chemotherapy. d. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 258 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. Which patient action indicates a good understanding of the nurse's teaching about the use of an insulin pump? a. The patient programs the pump for an insulin bolus after eating. b. The patient changes the location of the insertion site every week. c. The patient takes the pump off at bedtime and starts it again each morning. d. The patient plans for a diet that is less flexible when using the insulin pump.

ANS: A In addition to the basal rate of insulin infusion, the patient will adjust the pump to administer a bolus after each meal, with the dosage depending on the oral intake. The insertion site should be changed every 2 or 3 days. There is more flexibility in diet and exercise when an insulin pump is used. The pump will deliver a basal insulin rate 24 hours a day.

The nurse working in the vision and hearing clinic receives telephone calls from several patients who want appointments in the clinic as soon as possible. Which patient should be seen first? a. 71-year-old who has noticed increasing loss of peripheral vision b. 74-year-old who has difficulty seeing well enough to drive at night c. 60-year-old who has difficulty hearing clearly in a noisy environment d. 64-year-old who has decreased hearing and ear "stuffiness" without pain

ANS: A Increasing loss of peripheral vision is characteristic of glaucoma and the patient should be scheduled for an examination as soon as possible. The other patients have symptoms commonly associated with aging: presbycusis, possible cerumen impaction, and impaired night vision

6. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate? a. "I will call my health care provider if my stools turn black." b. "I will take a stool softener if I feel constipated occasionally." c. "I should take the iron with orange juice about an hour before eating." d. "I should increase my fluid and fiber intake while I am taking iron tablets."

ANS: A It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the doctor about this. The other patient statements are correct.

Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a need for additional instruction about taking oral ferrous sulfate? a. "I will call my health care provider if my stools turn black." b. "I will take a stool softener if I feel constipated occasionally." c. "I should take the iron with orange juice about an hour before eating." d. "I should increase my fluid and fiber intake while I am taking iron tablets."

ANS: A It is normal for the stools to appear black when a patient is taking iron, and the patient should not call the doctor about this. The other patient statements are correct.

he nurse advises a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG) to a. perform physically demanding activities early in the day. b. anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments. c. do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy. d. protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.

ANS: A Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving muscle activity should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled, but is used for myasthenia crisis or for situations in which corticosteroid therapy must be avoided. There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur because although there is muscle weakness, they are still used. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1437 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

37. A female patient is scheduled for an oral glucose tolerance test. Which information from the patient's health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient uses oral contraceptives. b. The patient runs several days a week. c. The patient has been pregnant three times. d. The patient has a family history of diabetes.

ANS: A Oral contraceptive use may falsely elevate oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) values. Exercise and a family history of diabetes both can affect blood glucose but will not lead to misleading information from the OGTT. History of previous pregnancies may provide informational about gestational glucose tolerance, but will not lead to misleading information from the OGTT.

7. The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed for a patient with chronic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) when the patient makes which statement? a. "I need to shop for foods low in sodium and avoid adding salt to food." b. "I should weigh myself daily and report any sudden weight loss or gain." c. "I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 1 quart of liquids a day." d. "I should eat foods high in potassium because diuretics cause potassium loss."

ANS: A Patients with SIADH are at risk for hyponatremia, and a sodium supplement may be prescribed. The other patient statements are correct and indicate successful teaching has occurred.

31. Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia? a. A patient with chronic heart failure b. A patient who has viral pneumonia c. A patient who has right leg cellulitis d. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

ANS: A Patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection because of the low white blood cell production associated with this type of anemia, so the nurse should avoid assigning a roommate with any possible infectious process.

Which patient should the nurse assign as the roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia? a. A patient with chronic heart failure b. A patient who has viral pneumonia c. A patient who has right leg cellulitis d. A patient with multiple abdominal drains

A patient who has bacterial meningitis is disoriented and anxious. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage family members to remain at the bedside. b. Apply soft restraints to protect the patient from injury. c. Keep the room well-lighted to improve patient orientation. d. Minimize contact with the patient to decrease sensory input.

ANS: A Patients with meningitis and disorientation will be calmed by the presence of someone familiar at the bedside. Restraints should be avoided because they increase agitation and anxiety. The patient requires frequent assessment for complications. The use of touch and a soothing voice will decrease anxiety for most patients. The patient will have photophobia, so the light should be dim. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

33. A 19-year-old woman with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before obtaining and administering platelets? a. The platelet count is 42,000/L. b. Petechiae are present on the chest. c. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg. d. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site.

ANS: A Platelet transfusions are not usually indicated until the platelet count is below 10,000 to 20,000/L unless the patient is actively bleeding. Therefore the nurse should clarify the order with the health care provider before giving the transfusion. The other data all indicate that bleeding caused by ITP may be occurring and that the platelet transfusion is appropriate.

A 19-year-old woman with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) has an order for a platelet transfusion. Which information indicates that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before obtaining and administering platelets? a. The platelet count is 42,000/L. b. Petechiae are present on the chest. c. Blood pressure (BP) is 94/56 mm Hg. d. Blood is oozing from the venipuncture site.

14. A 32-year-old patient with diabetes is starting on intensive insulin therapy. Which type of insulin will the nurse discuss using for mealtime coverage? a. Lispro (Humalog) b. Glargine (Lantus) c. Detemir (Levemir) d. NPH (Humulin N)

ANS: A Rapid- or short-acting insulin is used for mealtime coverage for patients receiving intensive insulin therapy. NPH, glargine, or detemir will be used as the basal insulin.

25. A 29-yr-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus has been prescribed 2 weeks of high-dose prednisone therapy. Which information about the prednisone is most important for the nurse to include? a. "Weigh yourself daily to monitor for weight gain." b. "The prednisone dose should be decreased gradually." c. "A weight-bearing exercise program will help minimize risk for osteoporosis." d. "Call the health care provider if you have mood changes with the prednisone."

ANS: B Acute adrenal insufficiency may occur if exogenous corticosteroids are suddenly stopped. Mood alterations and weight gain are possible adverse effects of corticosteroid use, but these are not life-threatening effects. Osteoporosis occurs when patients take corticosteroids for longer periods.

37. A patient is admitted with diabetes insipidus. Which action will be appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Titrate the infusion of 5% dextrose in water. b. Administer prescribed subcutaneous DDAVP. c. Assess the patient's overall hydration status every 8 hours. d. Teach the patient how to use desmopressin (DDAVP) nasal spray.

ANS: B Administration of medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Assessments, patient teaching, and titrating fluid infusions are more complex skills and should be done by the RN.

Which statement by patient who is being discharged from the emergency department (ED) after a concussion indicates a need for intervention by the nurse? a. "I will return if I feel dizzy or nauseated." b. "I am going to drive home and go to bed." c. "I do not even remember being in an accident." d. "I can take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for my headache."

ANS: B After a head injury, the patient should avoid driving and operating heavy machinery. Retrograde amnesia is common after a concussion. The patient can take acetaminophen for headache and should return if symptoms of increased intracranial pressure such as dizziness or nausea occur. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient who was diagnosed with senile dementia has become incontinent of urine. The patient's daughter asks the nurse why this is happening. The best response by the nurse is: a. "The patient is angry about the dementia diagnosis." b. "The patient is losing sphincter control due to the dementia." c. "The patient forgets where the bathroom is located due to the dementia." d. "The patient wants to leave the hospital."

ANS: B Anger, wanting to leave the hospital, and forgetting where the bathroom is really have no bearing on the urinary incontinence. The patient is incontinent due to the mental ability to voluntarily control the sphincter. This is happening because of the dementia.

39. After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 56-year-old with frequent explosive diarrhea b. 33-year-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) c. 66-year-old who has white pharyngeal lesions d. 23-year old who is complaining of severe fatigue

ANS: B Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not exhibit symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems.

After receiving change-of-shift report for several patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 56-year-old with frequent explosive diarrhea b. 33-year-old with a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) c. 66-year-old who has white pharyngeal lesions d. 23-year old who is complaining of severe fatigue

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Shivering and chills c. Muscle aches and pains d. Temperature of 100.2° F (37.9° C)

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 258 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction in administering insulin? a. "I need to rotate injection sites among my arms, legs, and abdomen each day." b. "I can buy the 0.5 mL syringes because the line markings will be easier to see." c. "I should draw up the regular insulin first after injecting air into the NPH bottle." d. "I do not need to aspirate the plunger to check for blood before injecting insulin."

ANS: A Rotating sites is no longer recommended because there is more consistent insulin absorption when the same site is used consistently. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no additional instruction is needed.

41. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam a. every 2 years. b. as soon as possible. c. when the patient is 39 years old. d. within the first year after diagnosis.

ANS: B Because many patients have some diabetic retinopathy when they are first diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, a dilated eye exam is recommended at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter. Patients with type 1 diabetes should have dilated eye exams starting 5 years after they are diagnosed and then annually.

Admission vital signs for a brain-injured patient are blood pressure of 128/68 mm Hg, pulse of 110 beats/min, and of respirations 26 breaths/min. Which set of vital signs, if taken 1 hour later, will be of most concern to the nurse? a. Blood pressure of 154/68 mm Hg, pulse of 56 beats/min, respirations of 12 breaths/min b. Blood pressure of 134/72 mm Hg, pulse of 90 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min c. Blood pressure of 148/78 mm Hg, pulse of 112 beats/min, respirations of 28 breaths/min d. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 120 beats/min, respirations of 30 breaths/min

ANS: A Systolic hypertension with widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and respiratory changes represent Cushing's triad. These findings indicate that the intracranial pressure (ICP) has increased, and brain herniation may be imminent unless immediate action is taken to reduce ICP. The other vital signs may indicate the need for changes in treatment, but they are not indicative of an immediately life-threatening process. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

44. The nurse has administered 4 oz of orange juice to an alert patient whose blood glucose was 62 mg/dL. Fifteen minutes later, the blood glucose is 67 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Give the patient 4 to 6 oz more orange juice. b. Administer the PRN glucagon (Glucagon) 1 mg IM. c. Have the patient eat some peanut butter with crackers. d. Notify the health care provider about the hypoglycemia.

ANS: A The "rule of 15" indicates that administration of quickly acting carbohydrates should be done 2 to 3 times for a conscious patient whose glucose remains less than 70 mg/dL before notifying the health care provider. More complex carbohydrates and fats may be used once the glucose has stabilized. Glucagon should be used if the patient's level of consciousness decreases so that oral carbohydrates can no longer be given.

The nurse is assessing a 65-year-old patient for presbyopia. Which instruction will the nurse give the patient before the test? a. "Hold this card and read the print out loud." b. "Cover one eye at a time while reading the wall chart." c. "You'll feel a short burst of air directed at your eyeball." d. "A light will be used to look for a change in your pupils."

ANS: A The Jaeger card is used to assess near vision problems and presbyopia in persons over 40 years of age. The card should be held 14 inches away from eyes while the patient reads words in various print sizes. Using a penlight to determine pupil change is testing pupil response. A short burst of air may be used to test intraocular pressure but is not used for testing presbyopia. Covering one eye at a time while reading a wall chart at 20 feet describes the Snellen test

7. A 38-year-old patient who has type 1 diabetes plans to swim laps daily at 1:00 PM. The clinic nurse will plan to teach the patient to a. check glucose level before, during, and after swimming. b. delay eating the noon meal until after the swimming class. c. increase the morning dose of neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. d. time the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming.

ANS: A The change in exercise will affect blood glucose, and the patient will need to monitor glucose carefully to determine the need for changes in diet and insulin administration. Because exercise tends to decrease blood glucose, patients are advised to eat before exercising. Increasing the morning NPH or timing the insulin to peak during exercise may lead to hypoglycemia, especially with the increased exercise.

6. A 55-year-old female patient with type 2 diabetes has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements. Which goal is most important for this patient? a. The patient will reach a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. b. The patient will follow a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss. c. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day. d. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet.

ANS: A The complications of diabetes are related to elevated blood glucose, and the most important patient outcome is the reduction of glucose to near-normal levels. The other outcomes also are appropriate but are not as high in priority.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury. Which finding, when reported to the health care provider, should the nurse expect will result in new prescribed interventions? a. Pale yellow urine output of 1200 mL over the past 2 hours. b. Ventriculostomy drained 40 mL of fluid in the past 2 hours. c. Intracranial pressure spikes to 16 mm Hg when patient is turned. d. LICOX brain tissue oxygenation catheter shows PbtO2 of 38 mm Hg.

ANS: A The high urine output indicates that diabetes insipidus may be developing, and interventions to prevent dehydration need to be rapidly implemented. The other data do not indicate a need for any change in therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

16. The nurse caring for a patient with type A hemophilia being admitted to the hospital with severe pain and swelling in the right knee will a. immobilize the joint. b. apply heat to the knee. c. assist the patient with light weight bearing. d. perform passive range of motion to the knee.

ANS: A The initial action should be total rest of the knee to minimize bleeding. Ice packs are used to decrease bleeding. Range of motion (ROM) and weight-bearing exercise are contraindicated initially, but after the bleeding stops, ROM and physical therapy are started.

The nurse caring for a patient with type A hemophilia being admitted to the hospital with severe pain and swelling in the right knee will a. immobilize the joint. b. apply heat to the knee. c. assist the patient with light weight bearing. d. perform passive range of motion to the knee.

47. The nurse has obtained the health history, physical assessment data, and laboratory results shown in the accompanying figure for a patient admitted with aplastic anemia. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Neutropenia b. Increasing fatigue c. Thrombocytopenia d. Frequent constipation

ANS: A The low white blood cell count indicates that the patient is at high risk for infection and needs immediate actions to diagnose and treat the cause of the leucopenia. The other information may require further assessment or treatment, but does not place the patient at immediate risk for complications.

35. A 54-year-old patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which admission order should the nurse implement first? a. Infuse 1 liter of normal saline per hour. b. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push. c. Administer regular insulin 10 U by IV push. d. Start a regular insulin infusion at 0.1 units/kg/hr.

ANS: A The most urgent patient problem is the hypovolemia associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and the priority is to infuse IV fluids. The other actions can be done after the infusion of normal saline is initiated.

26. Which information will the nurse include in teaching a female patient who has peripheral arterial disease, type 2 diabetes, and sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs? a. Choose flat-soled leather shoes. b. Set heating pads on a low temperature. c. Use callus remover for corns or calluses. d. Soak feet in warm water for an hour each day.

ANS: A The patient is taught to avoid high heels and that leather shoes are preferred. The feet should be washed, but not soaked, in warm water daily. Heating pad use should be avoided. Commercial callus and corn removers should be avoided. The patient should see a specialist to treat these problems

During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Obtain more information about the family history. b. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data. c. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. d. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood.

ANS: A The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 241 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient with possible viral meningitis is admitted to the nursing unit after lumbar puncture was performed in the emergency department. Which action prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse question? a. Restrict oral fluids to 1000 mL/day. b. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees. c. Administer ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 1 g IV every 12 hours. d. Give ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for headache.

ANS: A The patient with meningitis has increased fluid needs, so oral fluids should be encouraged. The other actions are appropriate. Slight elevation of the head of the bed will decrease headache without causing leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the lumbar puncture site. Antibiotics should be administered until bacterial meningitis is ruled out by the cerebrospinal fluid analysis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A male patient who has possible cerebral edema has a serum sodium level of 116 mEq/L (116 mmol/L) and a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). He is now complaining of a headache. Which prescribed interventions should the nurse implement first? a. Administer IV 5% hypertonic saline. b. Draw blood for arterial blood gases (ABGs). c. Send patient for computed tomography (CT). d. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.

ANS: A The patient's low sodium indicates that hyponatremia may be causing the cerebral edema. The nurse's first action should be to correct the low sodium level. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will have minimal effect on the headache because it is caused by cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Drawing ABGs and obtaining a CT scan may provide some useful information, but the low sodium level may lead to seizures unless it is addressed quickly. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

Which information will the nurse provide to the patient scheduled for refractometry? a. "You will need to wear sunglasses for a few hours after the exam." b. "The surface of your eye will be numb while the doctor does the exam." c. "You should not take any of your eye medicines before the examination." d. "The doctor will shine a bright light into your eye during the examination."

ANS: A The pupils are dilated using cycloplegic medications during refractometry. This effect will last several hours and cause photophobia. The other teaching would not be appropriate for a patient who was having refractometry.

12. A patient receives aspart (NovoLog) insulin at 8:00 AM. Which time will it be most important for the nurse to monitor for symptoms of hypoglycemia? a. 10:00 AM b. 12:00 AM c. 2:00 PM d. 4:00 PM

ANS: A The rapid-acting insulins peak in 1 to 3 hours. The patient is not at a high risk for hypoglycemia at the other listed times, although hypoglycemia may occur.

While admitting a 42-yr-old patient with a possible brain injury after a car accident to the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following information. Which finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient takes warfarin (Coumadin) daily. b. The patient's blood pressure is 162/94 mm Hg. c. The patient is unable to remember the accident. d. The patient complains of a severe dull headache.

ANS: A The use of anticoagulants increases the risk for intracranial hemorrhage and should be immediately reported. The other information would not be unusual in a patient with a head injury who had just arrived in the ED. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 261 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Assessment of a patient's visual acuity reveals that the left eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet and the right eye can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet. The nurse records which finding? a. OS 20/50; OD 20/40 b. OU 20/40; OS 50/20 c. OD 20/40; OS 20/50 d. OU 40/20; OD 50/20

ANS: A When documenting visual acuity, the first number indicates the standard (for normal vision) of 20 feet and the second number indicates the line that the patient is able to read when standing 20 feet from the Snellen chart. OS is the abbreviation for left eye and OD is the abbreviation for right eye. The remaining three answers do not correctly describe the patient's visual acuity

The nurse is testing the visual acuity of a patient in the outpatient clinic. The nurse's instructions for this test include asking the patient to a. stand 20 feet from the wall chart. b. follow the examiner's finger with the eyes only. c. look at an object far away and then near to the eyes. d. look straight ahead while a light is shone into the eyes.

ANS: A When the Snellen chart is used to check visual acuity, the patient should stand 20 feet away. Accommodation is tested by looking at an object at both near and far distances. Shining a pen light into the eyes tests for pupil response. Following the examiner's fingers with the eyes tests extraocular movements.

During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns that a patient with a head injury has decorticate posturing to noxious stimulation. Which positioning shown in the accompanying figure will the nurse expect to observe? a. (1) hands curled up to chest. b.(2) hands flexed and externally rotated to side of torso. c.(3) one hand on chest and one hand on the side of the torso. d.(4)Torso prosturing

ANS: A With decorticate posturing, the patient exhibits internal rotation and adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows, wrists, and fingers. The other illustrations are of decerebrate, mixed decorticate and decerebrate posturing, and opisthotonic posturing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

During an assessment, the patient states that his bowel movements cause discomfort because the stool is hard and difficult to pass. As the nurse, you make which of the following suggestions to assist the patient with improving the quality of his bowel movement? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase fiber intake. b. Increase water consumption. c. Decrease physical exercise. d. Refrain from alcohol. e. Refrain from smoking.

ANS: A, B Increasing fiber assists in adding bulk to the stool. Increasing water assists in softening the stool and moving it through the large intestine. Decreasing exercise will have the opposite effect of slowing bowel movements. Refraining from alcohol and smoking have no direct effect on bowel movements.

What is the most overlooked but important step in pain management?

Assessment

Chronic pain

Associated with disease process or persists after healing, lasts months, years, or even lifetime

When obtaining assessment data from a patient with a microcytic, hypochromic anemia, the nurse would question the patient about: A. folic acid intake B. dietary intake of iron C. a history of gastric surgery D. a history of sickle cell anemia

A hospice nurse who has become close to a terminally ill patient is present in the home when the patient dies and feels saddened and tearful as the family members begin to cry. Which action should the nurse take at this time? a. Contact a grief counselor as soon as possible. b. Cry along with the patient's family members. c. Leave the home as soon as possible to allow the family to grieve privately. d. Consider whether working in hospice is desirable because patient losses are common.

B It is appropriate for the nurse to cry and express sadness in other ways when a patient dies, and the family is likely to feel that this is therapeutic. Contacting a grief counselor, leaving the family to grieve privately, and considering whether hospice continues to be a satisfying place to work are all appropriate actions as well, but the nurse's initial action at this time should be to share the grieving process with the family.

A young adult patient with metastatic cancer, who is very close to death, appears restless. The patient keeps repeating, "I am not ready to die." Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Remind the patient that no one feels ready for death. b. Sit at the bedside and ask if there is anything the patient needs. c. Insist that family members remain at the bedside with the patient. d. Tell the patient that everything possible is being done to delay death.

B Staying at the bedside and listening allows the patient to discuss any unresolved issues or physical discomforts that should be addressed. Stating that no one feels ready for death fails to address the individual patient's concerns. Telling the patient that everything is being done does not address the patient's fears about dying, especially since the patient is likely to die soon. Family members may not feel comfortable staying at the bedside of a dying patient, and the nurse should not insist that they remain there.

The nurse cares for a patient with lung cancer in a home hospice program. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss cancer risk factors and appropriate lifestyle modifications. b. Encourage the patient to discuss past life events and their meaning. c. Teach the patient about the purpose of chemotherapy and radiation. d. Accomplish a thorough head-to-toe assessment several times a week.

B The role of the hospice nurse includes assisting the patient with the important end-of-life task of finding meaning in the patient's life. Frequent head-to-toe assessments are not needed for hospice patients and may tire the patient unnecessarily. Patients admitted to hospice forego curative treatments such as chemotherapy and radiation for lung cancer. Discussion of cancer risk factors and therapies is not appropriate.

The son of a dying patient tells the nurse, "Mother doesn't really respond any more when I visit. I don't think she knows that I am here." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "You may need to cut back your visits for now to avoid overtiring your mother." b. "Withdrawal may sometimes be a normal response when preparing to leave life." c. "It will be important for you to stimulate your mother as she gets closer to dying." d. "Many patients don't really know what is going on around them at the end of life."

B Withdrawal is a normal psychosocial response to approaching death. Dying patients may maintain the ability to hear while not being able to respond. Stimulation will tire the patient and is not an appropriate response to withdrawal in this circumstance. Visitors are encouraged to be "present" with the patient, talking softly and making physical contact in a way that does not demand a response from the patient.

A hospice patient is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and a respiratory rate of 28. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient's family member, is most appropriate? a. "These symptoms will continue to increase until death finally occurs." b. "These symptoms are a normal response before these functions decrease." c. "These symptoms indicate a reflex response to the slowing of other body systems." d. "These symptoms may be associated with an improvement in the patient's condition."

B An increase in heart and respiratory rate may occur before the slowing of these functions in the dying patient. Heart and respiratory rate typically slow as the patient progresses further toward death. In a dying patient, high respiratory and pulse rates do not indicate improvement, and it would be inappropriate for the nurse to indicate this to the family. The changes in pulse and respirations are not reflex responses.

The nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure. Which action is considered unsafe? a. Aligning the neck with the body b. Clustering many nursing activities c. Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees d. Providing stool softeners or laxatives as ordered

B (It is important to minimize stress and activities that could increase intracranial pressure. Combining many nursing activities could increase oxygen demand and intracranial pressure. This would not be safe. Interventions which can promote venous outflow can help decrease intracranial pressure. The stress of constipation or bowel movements can increase intracranial pressure; stool softeners or laxatives can minimize this.)

After shunt procedure, the nurse would monitor the patient's neurologic status by using the a. electroencephalogram. b. GCS. c. National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale. d. Monro-Kellie doctrine.

B (The GCS gives a standardized numeric score of the neurologic patient assessment. An electroencephalogram is used in diagnosing and localizing the area of seizure origin. This scale is an example of one type of specific tool for nurses to use when assessing a patient following stroke. The Monroe-Kellie doctrine is not an assessment or monitoring strategy; it describes the interrelationship of volume and compliance of the three cranial components, brain tissue, cerebral spinal fluid, and blood.)

When establishing a diagnosis of MS, the nurse should teach the patient about what diagnostic studies (select all that apply)? A. EEG B. CT scan C. Carotid duplex scan D. Evoked response testing E. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis

B, D, E There is no definitive diagnostic test for MS. CT scan, evoked response testing, cerebrospinal fluid analysis, and MRI along with history and physical examination are used to establish a diagnosis for MS. EEG and carotid duplex scan are not used for diagnosing MS.

A patient has been receiving scheduled doses of phenytoin (Dilantin) and begins to experience diplopia. The nurse immediately assesses the patient for A. an aura or focal seizure. B. nystagmus or confusion. C. abdominal pain or cramping. D. irregular pulse or palpitations.

B. Diplopia is a sign of phenytoin toxicity. The nurse should assess for other signs of toxicity, which include neurologic changes, such as nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, dizziness, or slurred speech. An aura, focal seizure, abdominal pain or cramping, irregular pulse, or palpitations are not associated with phenytoin toxicity.

The nurse observes a 74-year-old man with Parkinson's disease rocking side to side while sitting in the chair. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A. Provide the patient with diversional activities. B. Document the activity in the patient's health record. C. Take the patient's blood pressure sitting and standing. D. Ask if the patient is feeling either anxious or depressed.

B. Patients with Parkinson's disease are instructed to rock from side to side to stimulate balance mechanisms and decrease akinesia.

A 50-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What nursing intervention is most important to help prevent a common cause of death for patients with ALS? A. Reduce fat intake. B. Reduce the risk of aspiration. C. Decrease injury related to falls. D. Decrease pain secondary to muscle weakness.

B. Reducing the risk of aspiration can help prevent respiratory infections that are a common cause of death from deteriorating muscle function. Reducing fat intake may reduce cardiovascular disease, but this is not a common cause of death for patients with ALS. Decreasing injury related to falls and decreasing pain secondary to muscle weakness are important nursing interventions for patients with ALS but are unrelated to causes of death for these patients.

A 73-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to bradykinesia. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Instruct the patient in activities that can be done while lying or sitting. b. Suggest that the patient rock from side to side to initiate leg movement. c. Have the patient take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet. d. Teach the patient to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.

B. Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The patient will be encouraged to continue exercising because this will maintain functional abilities. Maintaining a wide base of support will help with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait.

Which action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder? a. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake. b. Teach the patient how to use the Credé method. c. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only. d. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

B. The Credé method can be used to improve bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and may increase risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and dehydration. The use of incontinence briefs and frequent toileting will not improve bladder emptying.

When a 74-year-old patient is seen in the health clinic with new development of a stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor, the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about a. oral corticosteroids. b. antiparkinsonian drugs. c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). d. electroencephalogram (EEG) testing.

B. The diagnosis of Parkinson's is made when two of the three characteristic manifestations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. This patient has symptoms of tremor and bradykinesia. The next anticipated step will be treatment with medications. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson's disease, and corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it.

Following a thymectomy, a 62-year-old male patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug. d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone).

B. The patient's history and symptoms indicate a possible cholinergic crisis. The health care provider should be notified immediately, and it is likely that atropine will be prescribed. The other actions will be appropriate if the patient is not experiencing a cholinergic crisis.

When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should a. assess for the presence of chest pain. b. inquire about urinary tract problems. c. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration. d. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

B. Urinary tract problems with incontinence or retention are common symptoms of MS. Chest pain and skin rashes are not symptoms of MS. A decrease in libido is common with MS.

When assessing the accessory nerve, what should the nurse do? A. Assess the gag reflex by stroking the posterior pharynx. B. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance. C. Ask the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance. D. Have the patient say "ah" while visualizing elevation of soft palate.

B. Ask the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The spinal accessory nerve is tested by asking the patient to shrug the shoulders against resistance and to turn the head to either side against resistance while observing the sternocleidomastoid muscles and the trapezius muscles. Assessing the gag reflex and saying "ah" are used to assess the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. Asking the patient to push the tongue to either side against resistance and to stick out the tongue are used to assess the hypoglossal nerve.

How should the nurse most accurately assess the position sense of a patient with a recent traumatic brain injury? A. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and slowly bring the tips of the index fingers together. B. Ask the patient to stand with the feet together and eyes closed and observe for balance maintenance. C. Ask the patient to close his or her eyes and identify the presence of a common object on the forearm. D. Place the two points of a calibrated compass on the tips of the fingers and toes and ask the patient to discriminate the points.

B. Ask the patient to stand with the feet together and eyes closed and observe for balance maintenance. The Romberg test is an assessment of position sense in which the patient stands with the feet together and then closes his or her eyes while attempting to maintain balance. The other cited tests of neurologic function do not directly assess position sense.

Jan is a 70-year-old retired nurse who is interested in nondrug, mind-body therapies, self-management, and alternative strategies to deal with joint discomfort from rheumatoid arthritis. What options should you consider in her plan of care considering her expressed wishes? a. Stationary exercise bicycle, free weights, and spinning class b. Mind-body therapies such as music therapy, distraction techniques, meditation, prayer, hypnosis, guided imagery, relaxation techniques, and pet therapy c. Chamomile tea and IcyHot gel d. Acupuncture and attending church services

B. Mind-body therapies such as music therapy, distraction techniques, meditation, prayer, hypnosis, guided imagery, relaxation techniques, and pet therapy Enhancing the mind's capacity to affect body functions

Understanding classifications of pain helps nurses develop a plan of care. A 62-year old male has fallen while trimming tree branches sustaining tissue injury. He describes his condition as an aching, throbbing back. This is characteristic of A. Neuropathic pain B. Nociceptive pain C. Chronic pain D. Mixed pain syndrome

B. Nociceptive pain Normal function of the somatosensory system: eudynic= throbbing, aching, cramping

Which normal nervous system changes of aging put the geriatric person at higher risk of falls (select all that apply)? A. Memory deficit B. Sensory deficit C. Motor function deficit D. Cranial and spinal nerves E. Reticular activation system F. Central nervous system changes

B. Sensory deficit C. Motor function deficit F. Central nervous system changes An older person is at a higher risk for falls because the changes in the nervous system decrease the sensory function that leads to poor ability to maintain balance and a widened gait. The motor function deficit decreases muscle strength and agility. The central nervous system changes in the brain lead to a diminished kinesthetic sense or position sense. Memory deficits, normal changes of cranial and spinal nerves, and the reticular activation system do not contribute to the increased risk of falls.

The nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral neuropathy who is going to have EMG studies tomorrow morning. The nurse should: A. ensure the patient has an empty bladder. B. instruct the patient that there is no risk of electric shock. C. ensure the patient has no metallic jewelry or metal fragments. D. instruct the patient that she or he may experience pain during the study.

B. instruct the patient that there is no risk of electric shock. Electromyography (EMG) is used to assess electrical activity associated with nerves and skeletal muscles. Activity is recorded by insertion of needle electrodes to detect muscle and peripheral nerve disease. The nurse should inform the patient that pain and discomfort are associated with insertion of needles. There is no risk of electric shock with this procedure.

Nonpharmacologic Pain Management

Body-based modalities: massage, heat/cold, acupuncture, imagery, relaxation, breathing, & meditation *Compliments other strategies, but do not replace Proper body alignment- achieved through positioning Thermal measures- application of localized heat/cold Mind-body therapies- music therapy, distraction techniques, meditation, prayer, hypnosis, guided imagery, relaxation, and pet therapy Biologically based- herbs, vitamins, reiki, et tai chi

A patient with multiple myeloma becomes confused and lethargic. The nurse would expect that these clinical manifestations may be explained by diagnostic results that indicate: A. hyperkalemia B. hyperuricemia C. hypercalcemia D. CNS myeloma

DIC is a disorder in which: A. the coagulation pathway is generally altered, leading to thrombus formation in all major blood vessels B. an underlying disease depletes hemolytic factors in the blood, leading to diffuse thrombotic episodes and infarcts C. a disease process stimulates coagulation process with resultant thrombosis, as well as depletion of clotting factors, leading to diffuse clotting and hemorrhage D. an inherited predisposition causes a deficiency of clotting factors that leads to overstimulation of coagulation processes in the vasculature

The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is: A. Hodgkin's lymphoma only occurs in young adults B. Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable C. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in multiple organs D. non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is treated only with radiation therapy

A middle-aged patient tells the nurse, "My mother died 4 months ago, and I just can't seem to get over it. I'm not sure it is normal to still think about her every day." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate? a. Hopelessness related to inability to resolve grief b. Complicated grieving related to unresolved issues c. Anxiety related to lack of knowledge about normal grieving d. Chronic sorrow related to ongoing distress about loss of mother

C The patient should be reassured that grieving activities such as frequent thoughts about the deceased are considered normal for months or years after a death. The other nursing diagnoses imply that the patient's grief is unusual or pathologic, which is not the case.

Which patient should the nurse refer for hospice care? a. 60-year-old with lymphoma whose children are unable to discuss issues related to dying b. 72-year-old with chronic severe pain as a result of spinal arthritis and vertebral collapse c. 28-year-old with AIDS-related dementia who needs palliative care and pain management d. 56-year-old with advanced liver failure whose family members can no longer provide care in the home

C Hospice is designed to provide palliative care such as symptom management and pain control for patients at the end of life. Patients who require more care than the family can provide, whose families are unable to discuss important issues related to dying, or who have severe pain are candidates for other nursing services but are not appropriate hospice patients.

The nurse cares for an adolescent patient who is dying. The patient's parents are interested in organ donation and ask the nurse how the decision about brain death is made. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Brain death occurs if a person is flaccid and unresponsive." b. "If CPR is ineffective in restoring a heartbeat, the brain cannot function." c. "Brain death has occurred if there is no breathing and certain reflexes are absent." d. "If respiratory efforts cease and no apical pulse is audible, brain death is present."

C The diagnosis of brain death is based on irreversible loss of all brain functions, including brainstem functions that control respirations and brainstem reflexes. The other descriptions describe other clinical manifestations associated with death but are insufficient to declare a patient brain dead.

A patient who has been diagnosed with inoperable lung cancer and has a poor prognosis plans a trip across the country "to settle some issues with sisters and brothers." The nurse recognizes that the patient is manifesting which psychosocial response to death? a. Restlessness b. Yearning and protest c. Anxiety about unfinished business d. Fear of the meaninglessness of one's life

C The patient's statement indicates that there is some unfinished family business that the patient would like to address before dying. Restlessness is frequently a behavior associated with an inability to express emotional or physical distress, but this patient does not express distress and is able to communicate clearly. There is no indication that the patient is protesting the prognosis, or that there is any fear that the patient's life has been meaningless.

A male patient with a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease (PD) has been admitted recently to a long-term care facility. Which action should the health care team take in order to promote adequate nutrition for this patient? A. Provide multivitamins with each meal. B. Provide a diet that is low in complex carbohydrates and high in protein. C. Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day that are easy to chew and swallow. D. Provide the patient with a minced or pureed diet that is high in potassium and low in sodium.

C. Nutritional support is a priority in the care of individuals with PD. Such patients may benefit from meals that are smaller and more frequent than normal and that are easy to chew and swallow. Multivitamins are not necessary at each meal, and vitamin intake, along with protein intake, must be monitored to prevent contraindications with medications. It is likely premature to introduce a minced or pureed diet, and a low carbohydrate diet is not indicated.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients on a medical unit. After receiving report, which patient should the nurse see first? A. A 42-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis who was admitted with sepsis B. A 72-year-old patient with Parkinson's disease who has aspiration pneumonia C. A 38-year-old patient with myasthenia gravis who declined prescribed medications D. A 45-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis who refuses enteral feedings

C. Patients with myasthenia gravis who discontinue pyridostigmine (Mestinon) will develop a myasthenic crisis. Myasthenia crisis results in severe muscle weakness and can lead to a respiratory arrest.

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make regarding a patient with myasthenia gravis? a. Pupil size b. Grip strength c. Respiratory effort d. Level of consciousness

C. Because respiratory insufficiency may be life threatening, it will be most important to monitor respiratory function. The other data also will be assessed but are not as critical.

Which nursing diagnosis is likely to be a priority in the care of a patient with myasthenia gravis (MG)? A. Acute confusion B. Bowel incontinence C. Activity intolerance D. Disturbed sleep pattern

C. The primary feature of MG is fluctuating weakness of skeletal muscle. Bowel incontinence and confusion are unlikely signs of MG, and although sleep disturbance is likely, activity intolerance is usually of primary concern.

A patient's sudden onset of hemiplegia has necessitated a computed tomography (CT) of her head. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to this diagnostic study? A. Assess the patient's immunization history. B. Screen the patient for any metal parts or pacemaker. C. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes. D. Assess the patient's need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications.

C. Assess the patient for allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes. Allergies to shellfish, iodine, or dyes contraindicate the use of contrast media in CT. The patient's immunization history is not a central consideration, and the presence of metal in the body does not preclude the use of CT as a diagnostic tool. The need to assess for allergies supersedes the need for tranquilizers or antiseizure medications in the majority of patients.

An elderly Chinese woman is interested in biologically based therapies to relieve osteoarthritis pain (OA). You are preparing a plan of care for her OA. Options most conducive to her expressed wishes may include a. Pilates, breathing exercises, and aloe vera. b. Guided imagery, relaxation breathing, and meditation. c. Herbs, vitamins, and tai chi. d. Alternating ice and heat to relieve pain and inflammation.

C. Herbs, vitamins, and tai chi Biological based measures

The new patient has a diagnosis of frontal lobe dementia. What functional difficulties should the nurse expect in this patient? A. A lack of reflexes. B. Endocrine problems. C. Higher cognitive function abnormalities. D. Respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac dysfunction.

C. Higher cognitive function abnormalities. Because the frontal lobe is responsible for higher cognitive function, this patient may have difficulty with memory retention, voluntary eye movements, voluntary motor movement, and expressive speech. The lack of reflexes would occur if the patient had problems with the reflex arcs in the spinal cord. Endocrine problems would be evident if the hypothalamus or pituitary gland were affected. Respiratory, vasomotor, and cardiac dysfunction would occur if there were a problem in the medulla.

The nurse is caring for a group of well older people at a community day center. Which neurologic finding associated with aging would the nurse expect to find in older adults? A. Longer reaction time. B. Improved sense of taste C. Orthostatic hypotension D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

C. Orthostatic hypotension Older adults are more likely to experience orthostatic hypotension related to altered coordination of neuromuscular activity. Other neurologic changes in the older adult include atrophy of taste buds with decreased sense of taste, below average reflex score (and diminished deep tendon reflexes), and slowed reaction times.

The nurse is preparing the patient for an electromyography (EMG). What should the nurse include in teaching the patient before the test? A. The patient will be tilted on a table during the test. B. It is noninvasive, and there is no risk of electric shock. C. The pain that occurs is from the insertion of the needles. D. The passive sensor does not make contact with the patient.

C. The pain that occurs is from the insertion of the needles. With an EMG, pain may occur when needles are inserted to record the electrical activity of nerve and skeletal muscle. The patient is tilted on a table during a myelogram. The electroencephalography (EEG) is noninvasive without a danger of electric shock. The magnetoencephalography (MEG) is done with a passive sensor that does not make contact with the patient.

An obstruction of the anterior cerebral arteries will affect functions of A. visual imaging. B. balance and coordination. C. judgement, insight, and reasoning. D. visual and auditory integration for language comprehension.

C. judgement, insight, and reasoning. The anterior cerebral artery feeds the medial and anterior portions of the frontal lobes. The anterior portion of the frontal lobe controls higher order processes such as judgment and reasoning.

During neurologic testing, the patient is able to perceive pain elicited by pinprick. Based on this finding, the nurse may omit testing for: A. position sense. B patellar reflexes. C. temperature perception. D. heel-to-shin movements.

C. temperature perception. If pain sensation is intact, assessment of temperature sensation may be omitted because both sensations are transmitted by the same ascending pathways.

Somatosensory

Cells, fibers, organs Receive, transmits, and interprets information related to pain

Individual risk factors

Communication barrier, cognitive impairment, developmental disability, mental health condition, injury associated with pain

Because myelodysplastic syndrome arises from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow, laboratory results the nurse would expect to find include: A. an excess of T cells B. an excess of platelets C. a deficiency of granulocytes D. a deficiency of all cellular blood components

Complications of transfusions that can be decreased by the use of leukocyte depletion or reduction of RBC transfusion are A. chills and hemolysis B. leukostasis and neutrophilia C. fluid overload and pulmonary edema D. transmission of cytomegalovirus and fever

Multiple drugs are often used in combination to treat leukemia and lymphoma because: A. there are fewer toxic side effects B. the chance that one drug will be effective is increased C. the drugs work more effectively without causing side effects D. the drugs work by different mechanisms to maximize killing of malignant cells

The nurse would anticipate that a patient with Von Willebrand disease undergoing surgery would be treated with administration of vWF and: A. thrombin B. factor VI C. factor VII D. factor VIII

When reviewing the patient's hematologic laboratory values after a splenectomy, the nurse would expect to find: A. leukopenia B. RBC abnormalities C. decreased hemoglobin D. increased platelet count

1. The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Suction the patient. b. Administer oxygen via face mask. c. Place the patient in high Fowler's position. d. Document the respirations as Cheyne-Stokes.

D Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of apnea alternating with deep and rapid breaths. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are expected in the last days of life. There is also no need for supplemental oxygen by face mask or suctioning the patient. Raising the head of the bed slightly and/or turning the patient on the side may promote comfort. There is no need to place the patient in high Fowler's position.

Components of the GCS the nurse would use to assess a patient after a head injury include a. blood pressure. b. cranial nerve function. c. head circumference. d. verbal responsiveness.

D (Components of the GCS include eye opening, motor responsiveness, and verbal responsiveness. The nurse would want to assess the blood pressure, but this is not a component of the coma scale. Assessment of cranial nerve function is appropriate as alterations such as cranial nerve VI palsies may occur, but this is not part of the coma scale. Increases in head circumference are associated with alterations in intracranial pressure in infants, but this is not part of the coma scale.)

Primary prevention strategies to reduce the occurrence of head injuries would include a. blood pressure control. b. smoking cessation. c. maintaining a healthy weight. d. violence prevention.

D (Injury prevention measures such as wearing a seat belt, helmet use, firearm safety, and violence prevention programs reduce the risk of traumatic brain injuries. Blood pressure control and exercising can decrease the risk of vascular disease, impacting the cerebral arteries, rather than head injuries. Smoking cessation is one primary prevention strategy which can decrease the risk of vascular disease. Maintaining a healthy weight can decrease the risk of vascular disease.)

A 76-year-old patient is being treated with carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet) for Parkinson's disease. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Shuffling gait b. Tremor at rest c. Cogwheel rigidity of limbs d. Uncontrolled head movement

D. Dyskinesia is an adverse effect of the Sinemet, indicating a need for a change in medication or decrease in dose. The other findings are typical with Parkinson's disease.

Which nursing diagnosis is of highest priority for a patient with Parkinson's disease who is unable to move the facial muscles? a. Activity intolerance b. Self-care deficit: toileting c. Ineffective self-health management d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

D. The data about the patient indicate that poor nutrition will be a concern because of decreased swallowing. The other diagnoses may also be appropriate for a patient with Parkinson's disease, but the data do not indicate that they are current problems for this patient.

A patient is having a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The nurse should provide preoperative patient teaching about what potential deficit as a result of the surgery? A. Increased heart rate B. Loss of coordination C. Impaired swallowing D. Altered sense of smell

D. Altered sense of smell Using a transsphenoidal approach to remove the pituitary gland includes a risk of damage to the olfactory cranial nerve because the cell bodies of the olfactory nerve are located in the nasal epithelium. With damage to this nerve, the sense of smell would be altered. Increased heart rate, loss of coordination, and impaired swallowing will not be potential deficits from this surgery.

When assessing motor function of a patient admitted with a stroke, the nurse notes mild weakness of the arm demonstrated by downward drifting of the arm. How should the nurse most accurately document this finding? A. Athetosis B. Hypotonia C. Hemiparesis D. Pronator drift

D. Pronator drift Downward drifting of the arm or pronation of the palm is identified as a pronator drift. Athetosis is a slow, writhing, involuntary movement of the extremities. Hypotonia is flaccid muscle tone, and hemiparesis is weakness of one side of the body.

Paralysis of lateral gaze indicates a lesion of cranial nerve: A. II. B. III. C. IV. D. VI.

D. VI. Cranial nerves III (oculomotor), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens) are responsible for eye movement. The lateral rectus eye muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VI, and it is the primary muscle that is responsible for lateral eye movement.

Assessment of muscle strength of older adults cannot be compared with that of younger adults because: A. stroke is more common in older adults. B. nutritional status is better in young adults. C. most young people exercise more than older people. D. aging leads to a decrease in muscle bulk and strength.

D. aging leads to a decrease in muscle bulk and strength. Changes associated with aging include decreases in muscle strength and agility in relation to decreased muscle bulk.

Drugs or diseases that impair the function of the extrapyramidal system may cause loss of: A. sensations of pain and temperature B. regulation of the autonomic nervous system. C. integration of somatic and special sensory inputs. D. automatic movements associated with skeletal muscle activity.

D. automatic movements associated with skeletal muscle activity. A group of descending motor tracts carries impulses from the extrapyramidal system, which includes all motor systems (except the pyramidal system) concerned with voluntary movement. It includes descending pathways originating in the brainstem, basal ganglia, and cerebellum. The motor output exits the spinal cord by way of the ventral roots of the spinal nerves.

The most common type of leukemia in older adults is: A. acute myelocytic leukemia B. acute lymphocytic leukemia C. chronic myelocytic leukemia D. chronic lymphocytic leukemia

D. chronic lymphocytic leukemia

In a patient with a disease that affects the myelin sheath of nerves, such as multiple sclerosis, the glial cells affected are the: A. microglia B. astrocytes C. ependymal cells D. oligodendrocytes

D. oligodendrocytes Glial cell types include oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia, and each has specific functions. Oligodendrocytes are specialized cells that produce the myelin sheath of nerve fibers in the central nervous system (CNS), and they are located primarily in the white matter of the CNS.

Transduction

Damage releases chemical mediators that activate nociceptors; membrane attachment --> Na channels open --> action potential initiated

Malignant disorders that arise from granulocytic cells in the bone marrow will have the primary effect of causing

Decreased phagocytosis of bacteria

Gait Control Theory

Dorsal horn of spinal cord act as gates in which pain signals compete with signals of other stimuli for passage through gate and transmission to brain. -small fibers open, lg. close -high sensory input can close gate (distractions) -"pieces of pain", the more pieces the more pain

True or False: Pain is objective

False----subjective

Psychosocial Consequences of pain

Fear, anger, depression, anxiety, decreased ability to maintain relationships, work, and keep up with normal activities

If a lymph node is palpated, what is a normal finding?

Firm, mobile nodes

Nociceptors

Free nerve endings in skin, muscle, joints, arteries, and the viscera that respond to chemical, mechanical, and thermal stimuli and transmit pain information

An individual who lives at a high altitude may normally have an increased Hgb and RBC because

Hypoxia caused by decreased atmospheric oxygen stimulates erythropoiesis

Unstable angina is the result of

Increased cardiac output in response to acute pain

Osteoarthritis

Joint, cartilage becomes stiff and inelastic- tendon and ligament stretch et bone-on-bone causes pain *nociceptive, somatic pain

While assessing the lymph nodes, the RN should

Lightly palpate superficial lymph nodes with the pads of fingers

When reviewing lab results of an older patient with an infection, the nurse would expect to find

Minimal leukocytosis

Pharmacological Strategies

Multimodal regimen: combine drugs with different underlying indications Analgesics: non-opioid, opioids, adjunct analgesics Anticonvulsants et antidepressants Routes: oral whenever possible; IV, PCA, intrathecal, transdermal patch Placebo = NEVER!!! PCA: patient must be cognitive et physically able to self administer

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)

Neuralgia that affects one of the limbs following injury/trauma to that limb Prolonged, excessive pain, mild to dramatic changes in skin temp, color, or edema. More common in women

Pain caused by dysfunction in the CNS

Neuropathic pain

Pain felt along the distribution of peripheral nerves from nerve damage

Neuropathic pain

Pain from loss of afferent input

Neuropathic pain

Pain persisting from sympathetic nervous system activity

Neuropathic pain

Trigeminal Neuralgia

Neuropathic pain resulting from cranial nerve V damage- burning, shock-like pain to the face seconds to minutes and severely debilitating

Pain arising from muscles and bones; localized or diffuse and radiating

Nociceptive pain

Pain arising from skin and subcutaneous tissue; well localized

Nociceptive pain

Pain arising from visceral organs; well or poorly localized; referred cutaneously

Nociceptive pain

Post-stroke pain

Occurs immediately after a CVA or weeks to months to affected area Pins and needles

Post-herpetic neuralgia

Pain after resolution of the seeable varicella zoster virus reoccurrence. Increased incidences with advanced age

phantom pain

Pain felt in a body part that is no longer there

Margo McCaffery

Pain is highly subjective. Pain is whatever the patient says it is, existing whenever the patient says it does.

mixed pain syndromes

Painful conditions and syndromes that are not easily categorized and thought to be unique with multiple underlying and poorly understood mechanisms Fibromyalgia, low back pain, myofascial pain

Infants/children

Painful illness or procedures combined with lack of cognition to report/describe pain

neuropathic pain

Pathology to somatosensory system Postherpetic neuralgia, diabetic neuropathy, phantom pain, trigeminal neuralgia, complex regional pain syndrome Shooting, burning, sharp

What is the difference between peripheral sensitization and central sensitization?

Peripheral sensitization involves tissue damage and amplification of noxious process and Central sensitization involves sustained neuronal firing with increased sensitivity to pain.

Laboratory Findings and their possible Etiology 1. Serum iron 40 mcg/dl (7umol/L) - Iron-deficiency anemia 2. ESR 30mm/hr - Inflammatory conditions of any kind 3. Increased band neutrophils - Infection 4. Activated PTT 60 sec - Heparin therapy 5. Indirect bilirubin 2.0mg/dl (34 umol/dL) - Hemolysis of RBCs 6. Bence Jones protein in urine - Multiple myeloma

Possible Etiology 1. Iron-deficiency anemia 2. Inflammatory conditions of any kind 3. Infection 4. Heparin therapy 5. Hemolysis of RBCs 6. Multiple myeloma

Surgical Strategies

Regional anesthetic strategies: epidural steroid injections, joint injections, nerve blocks, implant of intrathecal analgesic delivery system Spinal cord stimulator Rhizotomy or neurectomy Joint replacement *ALL performed after all other pain control methods failed

For each of the following body systems, identify three physical manifestations that the nurse would expect to see in a patient approaching death. Respiratory a. b. c. Skin a. b. c. Gastrointestinal a. b. c. Musculoskeletal a. b. c.

Respiratory a. Cheyne-Stokes respiration b. Death rattle (inability to cough and clear secretions) c. Increased, then slowing, respiratory rate (Also: irregular breathing, terminal gasping) Skin a. Mottling on hands, feet, and legs that progresses to the torso b. Cold, clammy skin c. Cyanosis on nose, nail beds, and knees (Also: waxlike skin when very near death) Gastrointestinal a. Slowing of the gastrointestinal tract with accumulation of gas and abdominal distention b. Loss of sphincter control with incontinence c. Bowel movement before imminent death or at time of death Musculoskeletal a. Loss of muscle tone with sagging jaw b. Difficulty speaking c. Difficulty swallowing (Also: loss of ability to move or maintain body position, loss of gag reflex)

Functional Health Pattern 1. Health perception - health management 2. Nutritional-metabolic 3. Elimination 4. Activity - exercise 5. Sleep - rest 6. Cognitive - perceptual 7. Self-perception - self-concept 8. Role - relationship 9. Sexuality - reproductive 10. Coping - stress tolerance 11. Value - belief

Risk Factor / Response to Hematologic Problem 1. Ethic background, family hx of hematologic disorders. Use of alcohol, illicit drugs, and cigs. 2. Weight. Hx of anorexia, N/V, or oral discomfort. Deficiencies of iron, vit B12, and folic acid. GI bleeding, petechiae or bruising of the skin, fever, lymph node swelling. 3. Frankly bloody or dark, tarry stools, dark or bloody urine. 4. Fatigue, weakness, change in ability to perform normal exercise or ADLs. 5. Fatigue unrelieved by sleep. 6.Pain, esp in joints or bones. Paresthesias, numbness/tingling, Changes in hearing, vision, taste, or mental status. 7. Altered due to lymph node enlargement or skin changes. 8. Home or work exposure to radiation or chemical. Military hx; change in role or responsibility. 9. Menstrual hx and characteristics of bleeding. Intrapartum or postpartum bleeding problems. Impotence. 10. Lack of support to meet daily needs. Methods of coping with stress. 11. Values conflict with treatment, esp. blood product or bone marrow transplants.

Other risk factors of pain

Sex, race, ethnicity Women have higher chronic pain and lower thresholds of pain Income/education, geographic locale Culture/religion are barriers to reporting pain

Acute pain

Short-term, self-limiting, often predictable trajectory; stops after injury heals

Perception

Thalamus sends message to somatosensory cortex, frontal, parietal, et limbic to be interpreted based on past experiences, attitudes, beliefs, and meaning

1.2.5 (The American Academy of Neurology developed diagnostic criteria to determine brain death. The criteria for brain death include absence of brainstem reflexes, apnea, and comatose or unresponsive state. The criteria must be validated with specified accepted testing and results. Irreversible cognitive damage does not meet the criteria for brain death. A poor quality of life prognosis does not reflect brain death reflex, breathing, response to stimuli)

The nurse is caring for a comatose patient admitted following cardiopulmonary arrest. The patient is intubated, mechanically ventilated, and receiving vasopressors to maintain the pulse and blood pressure. The nurse knows a clinical diagnosis of brain death requires what? Select all that apply. 1 Apnea 2 Comatose or unresponsive 3 Poor quality of life prognosis 4 Irreversible cognitive damage 5 Absence of brainstem reflexes The American Academy of Neurology developed diagnostic criteria to determine brain death. The criteria for brain death include absence of brainstem reflexes, apnea, and comatose or unresponsive state. The criteria must be validated with specified accepted testing and results. Irreversible cognitive damage does not meet the criteria for brain death. A poor quality of life prognosis does not reflect brain death.

1 (A penlight is used to test the papillary reaction. Fixed pupils that are unresponsive to light indicate ICP. An increase in the ICP causes suppression of nerves, which leads to fixed unresponsive pupils. Sluggish reaction of the pupil indicates an early pressure. Brisk constriction of the pupils is a normal reaction. Slight constriction in the opposite pupil is a consensual response, which is a normal finding.)

The nurse is caring for a patient in the neurologic intensive care unit with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates a worsening of the patient's condition? 1 Presence of fixed unresponsive pupils 2 Sluggish reaction of pupil in response to light 3 Brisk constriction of pupil in response to light 4 Slight constriction in the opposite pupil in response to light

1.3.6 (Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees, ICP monitoring, and maintaining a systolic arterial pressure of 100-160 mm Hg are components of the expected management for a patient with increased ICP. Cerebral angiography, history, and a physical are diagnostic assessment tools rather than interventions. The PaO2 should be maintained at 100 mm Hg or greater.)

The nurse is caring for a patient in the neurologic intensive care unit with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What nursing actions will promote the most positive outcome for the patient? Select all that apply. 1 ICP monitoring 2 Cerebral angiography 3 Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees 4 Maintaining PaO2 of 90 mm Hg or greater 5 Taking a patient history and physical examination 6 Maintaining a systolic arterial pressure of 100-160 mm Hg

2 (Client A Correct 2 Client B 3 Client C Incorrect 4 Client D The brown color of the CSF indicates the client has had a meningeal hemorrhage. A yellow color of the CSF is due to the hemolysis of the red blood cells (RBC) that leads to increased production of bilirubin. An unclear or hazy appearance of the CSF indicates an elevated white blood cell count. A pink-red to orange color indicates the presence of RBCs. Test-Taking Tip: Chart/exhibit items present a situation and ask a question. A variety of objective and subjective information is presented about the client in formats such as the medical record (e.g., laboratory test results, results of diagnostic procedures, progress notes, healthcare provider orders, medication administration record, health history), physical assessment data, and nursing assistant/client interactions. After analyzing the information presented, the test taker answers the question. These questions usually reflect the analyzing level of cognitive thinking.

The nurse is reviewing the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory findings of four neurologically compromised clients. Which client does the nurse suspect to have had a previous meningeal hemorrhage? 1 yellow 2 brown 3 unclear or hazy 4 pink red- orange

True or False: Pain is multidimensional

True

3 4 (good pa02 = > 100 good paco2 = 35-45 The goal of maintaining adequate ventilation through tracheostomy is to maintain PaO2 of the patient greater than or equal to 100 mm Hg with PaCO2 in the range of 35 to 45 mm Hg. Therefore the PaO2 and PaCO2 values of 110 and 40 mm Hg indicate effective treatment. A PaO2 of less than 100 and PaCO2 of less than 35 mm Hg indicate ineffective treatment.)

Which outcomes indicate effective treatment in a patient with increased intracranial pressure who underwent a tracheostomy to help maintain adequate ventilation? Select all that apply. 1 PaO2 of the patient is 80 mm Hg 2 PaO2 of the patient is 90 mm Hg 3 PaO2 of the patient is 110 mm Hg 4 PaCO2 of the patient is 40 mm Hg 5 PaCO2 of the patient is 30 mm Hg

Decerebrate posturing includes rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs; it is associated with dysfunction at the level of the midbrain.

While playing on a jungle gym in the school playground, a school-aged child falls and sustains head trauma. The nurse suspects dysfunction of the brainstem at a low level when the child assumes the posturing depicted in the illustration. How should the nurse document this posturing in the child's hospital record? 1 Orthotonos 2 Decorticate 3 Decerebrate 4 Opisthotonos

You are taking care of a male patient who has the following lab values from his CBC: WBC 6.5x10^6/uL, Hgb 13.4 g/dL, Hct 40%, platelets 50 x 10^3/uL. What are you concerned about?

Your patient is at risk for bleeding

Social effects of a chronic neurologic disease include (select all that apply) a. divorce. b. job loss. c. depression. d. role changes. e. loss of self-esteem.

a, b, c, d, e Rationale: Social problems related to chronic neurologic disease may include changes in roles and relationships (e.g., divorce, job loss, role changes); other psychologic problems (e.g., depression, loss of self-esteem) also may have social effects.

The dying patient and family have many interrelated psychosocial and physical care needs. Which ones can the nurse begin to manage with the patient and family (select all that apply)? a. Anxiety b. Fear of pain c. The dying process d. Care being provided e. Anger toward the nurse f. Feeling powerless and hopeless

a, b, c, d, e, f. Teaching, along with support and encouragement, can decrease some of the anxiety. Teaching about pain relief, the dying process, and the care provided will help the patient and family know what to expect. Allowing the patient to make decisions will help to decrease feelings of powerlessness and hopelessness. The nurse who is the target of anger needs to not react to this anger on a personal level.

According to the World Health Organization, palliative care is an approach that improves quality of life for patients and their families who face problems associated with life-threatening illnesses. From the list below, identify the specific goals of palliative care (select all that apply). a. Regard dying as a normal process. b. Minimize the financial burden on the family. c. Provide relief from symptoms, including pain. d. Affirm life and neither hasten nor postpone death. e. Prolong the patient's life with aggressive new therapies. f. Support holistic patient care and enhance quality of life. g. Offer support to patients to live as actively as possible until death. h. Assist the patient and family to identify and access pastoral care services. i. Offer support to the family during the patient's illness and their own bereavement.

a, c, d, f, g, i. Table 10-1 lists the goals of palliative care. Overall, goals of palliative care are to prevent and relieve suffering and to improve the quality of life for the patient.

Which of the following aspects of anticipatory grief are associated with positive outcomes for the caregiver of a palliative patient (select all that apply)? A.Strong spiritual beliefs B.Medical diagnosis of the patient C.Advanced age of the palliative patient D.Acceptance of the expected death of the patient E.Adequate time for the caregiver to prepare for the death

a, d, e. Acceptance of an impending loss, spiritual beliefs, and adequate preparation time are all associated with positive outcomes regarding anticipatory grief. The age and diagnosis of the patient are not key factors in influencing the quality of caregivers; anticipatory grief.

List the two criteria for admission to a hospice program. a. b.

a. Patient must desire services and agree in writing that only hospice care can be used to treat the terminal illness (palliative care) b. Patient must meet eligibility, which is less than 6 months to live, certified initially by two physicians

While collecting a health history on a patient admitted for colon cancer, which of the following questions would be a priority to ask this patient? a. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?" b. "Have you been experiencing nausea?" c. "Do you have back pain?" d. "Have you noticed any swelling in your abdomen?"

a. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?"

A patient is not certain whether she and her family should participate in a genetic screening plan. She asks the nurse why the X-linked recessive disorder that has been noted in some of her family members is expressed in males more frequently than in females. What is the nurse's best response? a. "The disease tends to show up in males because they do not have a second X chromosome to balance the expression of the gene." b. "One X chromosome of a pair is always inactive in females. This inactivity effectively negates the effects of the gene." c. "Females are known to have more effective DNA repair mechanisms than males, thus negating the damage caused by the recessive gene." d. "Expression of genes from the male's Y chromosome does not occur in females, so they are essentially immune to the effects of the gene."

a. "The disease tends to show up in males because they do not have a second X chromosome to balance the expression of the gene."

A patient who has been taking ibuprofen and imipramine (Tofranil) for control of cancer pain is having increased pain. What would nurse recommend to the HCP as an appropriate change in the medication plan? a. Add PO oxycodone to the other medications b. Substitute PO ketorolac, an NSAID, for imipramine c. Add transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) to the use of the other medications d. Substitute PO hydrocodone with acetaminophen for the other medications

a. Add PO oxycodone to the other medications

A 20-year-old patient with a massive head injury is on life support, including a ventilator to maintain respirations. What three criteria for brain death are necessary to discontinue life support? a. b. c.

a. Coma b. Absent brainstem reflexes c. Apnea

A female patient complains of a "scab that just won't heal" under her left breast. During your conversation, she also mentions chronic fatigue, loss of appetite, and slight cough, attributed to allergies. What is the nurse's best action? a. Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns. b. End the appointment and tell the patient to use skin protection during sun exposure. c. Suggest further testing with a cancer specialist and provide the appropriate literature. d. Tell her to put a bandage on the scab and set a follow-up appointment in one week.

a. Continue to conduct a symptom analysis to better understand the patient's symptoms and concerns.

The patient has chronic pain that is no longer relieved with oral morphine. Which medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to provide better pain relief for this patient? a. Fentanyl b. Hydrocodone c. Intranasal butorphanol d. Morphine sustained-release

a. Fentanyl

A patient with trigeminal neuralgia has moderate to severe burning and shooting pain. In helping the patient to manage the pain, the nurse recognizes what about this type of pain? a. Includes treatment with adjuvant analgesics b. Will be chronic and require long-term treatment c. Responds to small to moderate around the clock doses of oral opioids d. Can be well controlled with salicylates or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

a. Includes treatment with adjuvant analgesics

In most states, directives to physicians, durable power of attorney for health care, and medical power of attorney are included in which legal documents? a. Natural death acts c. Advance care planning b. Allow natural death d. Do Not Resuscitate order

a. Natural death acts in each state have their own requirements. Allow natural death is the new term being used for the Do Not Resuscitate order. Advance care planning is the process of having patients and their families think through their values and goals for treatment and document those wishes as advance directives.

The nurse is examining the eyes of a newborn infant. If the nurse notes the absence of the red reflex, what is the next best action? a. Notify the physician. b. Document the finding in the records. c. Recheck the reflex after several hours. d. Monitor the eye movements and pupil reactions closely.

a. Notify the physician.

A patient with advanced colorectal cancer has continuous, poorly localized abdominal pain at an intensity of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10. How does the nurse teach the patient to use pain medication? a. On an around the clock schedule b. As often as necessary to keep the pain controlled c. By alternating two different types of drugs to prevent tolerance d. When the pain cannot be controlled with distraction or relaxation

a. On an around the clock schedule

A patient comes to the clinic with a complaint of a dull pain in the anterior and posterior neck. On examination the nurse notes that the patient has full range of motion of the neck and no throat redness or enlarged head or neck lymph nodes. What will be the nurse's NEXT appropriate assessment indicated by these findings? a. Palpation of the liver b. Auscultation of bowel sounds Inspection of the patient's ears Palpation for the presence of hip pain

a. Palpation of the liver

While planning care for a patient experiencing fatigue due to chemotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day b. Completing all nursing care in the morning so the patient can rest the remainder of the day c. Completing all nursing care in the evening when the patient is more rested d. Limiting visitors, thus promoting the maximal amount of hours for sleep

a. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day

A terminally ill man tells the nurse, "I have never believed there is a God or an afterlife, but now it is too terrible to imagine that I will not exist. Why was I here in the first place?" What does this comment help the nurse recognize about the patient's needs? a. He is experiencing spiritual distress. b. This man most likely will not have a peaceful death. c. He needs to be reassured that his feelings are normal. d. This patient should be referred to a clergyman for a discussion of his beliefs.

a. Spiritual distress may surface when an individual is faced with a terminal illness and it is characterized by verbalization of inner conflicts about beliefs and questioning the meaning of one's own existence. Individuals in spiritual distress may be able to resolve the problem and die peacefully with effective grief work but referral to spiritual leaders should be the patient's choice.

Priority Decision: The husband and daughter of a Hispanic woman dying from pancreatic cancer refuse to consider using hospice care. What is the first thing the nurse should do? a. Assess their understanding of what hospice care services are. b. Ask them how they will care for the patient without hospice care. c. Talk directly to the patient and family to see if she can change their minds. d. Accept their decision since they are Hispanic and prefer to care for their own.

a. The family may not understand what hospice care is and may need information. Some cultures and ethnic groups may underuse hospice care because of a lack of awareness of the services offered, a desire to continue with potentially curative therapies, and concerns about a lack of minority hospice workers.

A patient with terminal cancer tells the nurse, "I know I am going to die pretty soon, perhaps in the next month." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the nurse? A. "What are your feelings about being so sick and thinking you may die soon?" B. "None of us know when we are going to die. Is this a particularly difficult day?" C. "Would you like for me to call your spiritual advisor so you can talk about your feelings?" D. "Perhaps you are depressed about your illness; I will speak to the doctor about getting some medications for you."

a. The most appropriate response to psychosocial questions is to acknowledge the patient's feelings and explore his or her concerns. This option does both and is a helpful response that encourages further communication between patient and nurse.

The children caregivers of an elderly patient whose death is imminent have not left the bedside for the past 36 hours. In the nurse's assessment of the family, what findings indicate the potential for an abnormal grief reaction to occur (select all that apply)? a. family cannot express their feelings to one another b. dying patient is becoming more restless and agitated c. a family member is going through a difficult divorce d. family talks with and reassures the patient at frequent intervals e. siblings who were estranged form each other have now reunited.

a. family cannot express their feelings to one another c. a family member is going through a difficult divorce

An 80 year old female patient is receiving palliative care for heart failure. Primary purpose (s) of her receiving palliative care is (are) *select all that apply a. improve her quality of life b. assess her coping ability with disease c. have time to teach patient and family about disease d. focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms e. provide care that the family is unwilling to give

a. improve her quality of life d. focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms

Describe symptoms of deep pain

aching or throbbing

What is the treatment for Neuropathic pain

adjuvant analgesics

Pain

an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

What are the associated symptoms of pain?

anxiety, fatigue, and depression. Also patients complain of poor sleep.

When providing care for a patient with ALS, the nurse recognizes what as one of the most distressing problems experienced by the patient? a. Painful spasticity of the face and extremities b. Retention of cognitive function with total degeneration of motor function c. Uncontrollable writhing and twisting movements of the face, limbs, and body d. Knowledge that there is a 50% chance the disease has been passed to any offspring

b. In ALS there is gradual degeneration of motor neurons with extreme muscle wasting from lack of stimulation and use. However, cognitive function is not impaired and patients feel trapped in a dying body. Chorea manifested by writhing, involuntary movements is characteristic of HD. As an autosomal dominant genetic disease, HD also has a 50% chance of being passed to each offspring.

A patient with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory insufficiency and severe weakness. When is a diagnosis of cholinergic crisis made? a. The patient's respiration is impaired because of muscle weakness. b. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) increases muscle weakness. c. Administration of edrophonium (Tensilon) results in improved muscle contractility. d. EMG reveals decreased response to repeated stimulation of muscles.

b. The reduction of the acetylcholine (ACh) effect in myasthenia gravis (MG) is treated with anticholinesterase drugs, which prolong the action of ACh at the neuromuscular synapse, but too much of these drugs will cause a cholinergic crisis with symptoms very similar to those of MG. To determine whether the patient's manifestations are due to a deficiency of ACh or to too much anticholinesterase drug, the anticholinesterase drug edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is administered. If the patient is in cholinergic crisis, the patient's symptoms will worsen; if the patient is in a myasthenic crisis, the patient will improve.

The nurse is providing health teaching to a group of mothers of school-aged children. Which statement by a mother indicates the need for additional instruction? a. "I will take my child to the audiologist because he doesn't seem to hear me except when I look directly at him." b. "Both of my children have the same eye medication, which is a real bonus, because I only need to buy one bottle." c. "Making my child wear ear plugs when she goes to a rock concert may save her hearing!" d. "I see now why when my child has a cold, he complains about everything tasting blah!"

b. "Both of my children have the same eye medication, which is a real bonus, because I only need to buy one bottle."

After the family members of a postoperative patient leave, the patient tells the nurse that his family gave him a headache by fussing over him so much. What is an appropriate intervention by the nurse? a. Administer the PRN analgesic prescribed for his postoperative pain b. Ask the patient's permission to use acupressure to ease his headache c. Reassure the patient that his headache will subside now that his family has gone d. Teach the patient biofeedback methods to relieve his headaches by controlling cerebral blood flow

b. Ask the patient's permission to use acupressure to ease his headache

A patient with end-stage liver failure tells the nurse, "If I can just live to see my first grandchild who is expected in 5 months, then I can die happy." The nurse recognizes that the patient is demonstrating which of the following stages of grieving? a. Prolonged grief disorder b. Kübler-Ross's stage of bargaining c. Kübler-Ross's stage of depression d. The new normal stage of the Grief Wheel

b. Bargaining is demonstrated by "if-then" grief behavior that is described by Kübler-Ross. Kübler-Ross's stage of depression is seen when the person says "yes me, and I am sad." Prolonged grief disorder is seen when there is a dysfunctional reaction to loss and the individual is unable to move forward after the death of a loved one. In the Grief Wheel model, the new normal stage is when the grief is resolved but the normal state, because of the loss, is not the same as before.

Which measures or drugs may be effective in controlling pain in the physiologic pain process stage of transduction? Select all the apply!!! a. Distraction b. Corticosteroids c. Epidural opioids d. Local anesthetics e. Antiseizure medications f. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

b. Corticosteroids d. Local anesthetics e. Antiseizure medications f. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient experiencing chemotherapy-induced anemia? a. Risk for injury related to poor blood clotting b. Fatigue related to decreased cellular oxygenation c. Disturbed body image related to skin color changes d. Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia

b. Fatigue related to decreased cellular oxygenation

Priority Decision: A terminally ill patient is unresponsive and has cold, clammy skin with mottling on the extremities. The patient's husband and two grown children are arguing at the bedside about where the patient's funeral should be held. What should the nurse do first? a. Ask the family members to leave the room if they are going to argue. b. Take the family members aside and explain that the patient may be able to hear them. c. Tell the family members that this decision is premature because the patient has not yet died. d. Remind the family that this should be the patient's decision and to ask her if she regains consciousness.

b. Hearing is often the last sense to disappear with declining consciousness and conversations can distress patients even when they appear unresponsive. Conversation around unresponsive patients should never be other than that which one would maintain if the patients were alert.

During the examination of the ear, a dark yellow substance is noted in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is not visible. The patient's wife complains that he never hears what she says lately. These findings would suggest that the nurse prepare the patient for which procedure? a. Tympanoplasty b. Irrigation of the ear c. Pure tone test d. Otoscopic exam by a specialist

b. Irrigation of the ear

A patient with prostate cancer is taking estrogen daily to control tumor growth. He reports that his left calf is swollen and painful. Which of the following would be the nurse's best action? a. Instruct the client to keep the leg elevated. b. Measure the calf circumference and compare the measurement with the right calf circumference measurement. c. Apply ice to the calf after a 10-minute massage of the area. d. Document assessment findings as an expected response with estrogen therapy.

b. Measure the calf circumference and compare the measurement with the right calf circumference measurement.

Which statement about men is not true? a. Men are less likely to report pain than women b. Men report less control over pain c. Men are less likely than women to use alternative treatments for pain

b. Men report MORE control over pain

A patient is receiving care to manage symptoms of a terminal illness when the disease no longer responds to treatment. What is this type of care known as? a. Terminal care c. Supportive care b. Palliative care d. Maintenance care

b. Palliative care is aimed at symptom management rather than curative treatment for diseases that no longer respond to treatment and is focused on caring interventions rather than curative treatments. "Palliative care" and "hospice" are frequently used interchangeably.

A cancer patient's susceptibility to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) can be suspected with which of the following laboratory results? a. Serum potassium of 5.2 mmol/L b. Serum sodium of 120 mmol/L c. Hematocrit of 40% d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 10 mg/dL

b. Serum sodium of 120 mmol/L

While caring for an unconscious patient, the nurse discovers a stage 2 pressure ulcer on the patient's heel. During the care of the ulcer, what is the nurse's understanding of the patient's perception of pain? a. The patient will have a behavioral response if pain is perceived b. The area should be treated as a painful lesion, using gentle cleansing and dressing c. The area can be thoroughly scrubbed because the patient is not able to perceive pain d. All nociceptive stimuli that are transmitted to the brain result in the perception of pain

b. The area should be treated as a painful lesion, using gentle cleansing and dressing

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital while receiving home hospice care. The nurse interprets that the patient has a general prognosis of which of the following? A. 3 Months or less to live B. 6 Months or less to live C. 12 Months or less to live D. 18 Months or less to live

b. There are two criteria to be eligible for hospice care. The first is that the patient wishes to receive it, and the second is that the physician certifies that the patient has a prognosis of 6 months or less to live.

A patient with multiple injuries resulting from an automobile accident tells the nurse that he has "bad" pain but that he can "tough it out" and does not require pain medication. To gain the patient's participation in pain management, what is the most important for the nurse to explain to the patient? a. Patients have a responsibility to keep the nurse informed about their pain b. Unrelieved pain has many harmful effects on the body and can impair recovery c. Using pain medications rarely leads to addiction when they are used for actual pain d. Nonpharmacologic therapies can be used to relieve his pain if he is afraid to use pain medications

b. Unrelieved pain has many harmful effects on the body and can impair recovery

The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer? a. Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older b. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach c. Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up d. Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over

b. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach

Which statement about women is not true? a. Women more frequently experience migraine headaches, back pain, arthritis, fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, neuropathic pain, abdominal pain, and foot ache b. Women are less likely to be diagnosed with a non-specific somatic disorder and more likely to receive analgesics for symptoms of chest and abdominal pain

b. Women are more likely to be diagnosed with a non-specific somatic disorder and less likely to receive analgesics for symptoms of chest and abdominal pain

The home health nurse visits a 40 year old patient with metastatic breast cancer who is receiving palliative care. The patient is experiencing pain at a level of 7 on a 10 point scale. In prioritizing activities for the visit, the nurse would do which first? a. auscultate for breath sounds b. administer PRN pain medication c. Check pressure points for skin breadkdown d. ask family about patient's food and fluid intake

b. administer PRN pain medication

A 67 year old woman was recently diagnosed with inoperable pancreatic cancer. Before the diagnosis she was very active in her neighborhood association. her husband is concerned because his wife is staying at home and missing her usual community activities. Which common EOL psychologic manifestation is she most likely demonstrating? a. peacefulness b. decreased socialization c. decreased decision making d. anxiety about unfinished business

b. decreased socialization

While caring for his dying wife, the husband states that his wife is a devout Roman Catholic but he is a Baptist. Who is considered the most reliable source for spiritual preferences concerning EOL care for the dying wife? a. a priest b. dying wife c. hospice staff d. husband of dying wife

b. dying wife

A 65-year-old woman was just diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. The priority nursing intervention is a. searching the Internet for educational videos. b. evaluating the home for environmental safety. c. promoting physical exercise and a well-balanced diet. d. designing an exercise program to strengthen and stretch specific muscles.

c Rationale: Promotion of physical exercise and a well-balanced diet are major concerns of nursing care for patients with Parkinson's disease.

In providing care for patients with chronic, progressive neurologic disease, what is the major goal of treatment that the nurse works toward? a. Meet the patient's personal care needs. b. Return the patient to normal neurologic function. c. Maximize neurologic functioning for as long as possible. d. Prevent the development of additional chronic diseases.

c. Many chronic neurologic diseases involve progressive deterioration in physical or mental capabilities and have no cure, with devastating results for patients and families. Health care providers can only attempt to alleviate physical symptoms, prevent complications, and assist patients in maximizing function and self-care abilities for as long as possible.

During care of a patient in myasthenic crisis, maintenance of what is the nurse's first priority for the patient? a. Mobility b. Nutrition c. Respiratory function d. Verbal communication

c. The patient in myasthenic crisis has severe weakness and fatigability of all skeletal muscles, affecting the patient's ability to breathe, swallow, talk, and move. However, the priority of nursing care is monitoring and maintaining adequate ventilation.

An 80-year-old patient is being discharged after he was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and retinopathy. His daughter has been part of the discharge instruction process. Understanding of the instructions is evident when the daughter says which of the following? a. "I will make sure that Dad always wears warm socks." b. "Dad needs to wear his glasses so he can delay the onset of macular degeneration." c. "I will ask the home health aide to carefully inspect Dad's feet every day when she helps him bathe." d. "We will give him only warm foods, so that he doesn't burn his mouth."

c. "I will ask the home health aide to carefully inspect Dad's feet every day when she helps him bathe."

Pain has been defined as "whatever the person experiencing the pain says it is, existing whenever the patient says it does." This definition is problematic for the nurse when caring for which type of patient? a. A patient placed on a ventilator b. A patient with a history of opioid addiction c. A patient with decreased cognitive function d. A patient with pain resulting from severe trauma

c. A patient with decreased cognitive function

A patient with chronic cancer related pain has started using MS Contin for pain control and has developed common side effects of the drug. The nurse reassures the patient that tolerance will develop to most of these side effects but that continued treatment will most be likely required for what? a. Pruritus b. Dizziness c. Constipation D. Nausea and vomiting

c. Constipation

On the first post operative day following a bowel resection, the patient complains of abdominal and incisional pain rated 9 on a scale of 0 to 10. Post operative orders include morphine (4mg IV q4hr) for pain and may repeat morphine (4mg IV) for breakthrough pain. The nurse determines that it has been only 1 3/4 hours since the last dose of morphine and wants to wait a little longer. What effect does the nurse's action have on the patient? a. Protects the patient from addiction and toxic effects of the drug b. Prevents hastening or causing a patient's death from respiratory dysfunction c. Contributes to unnecessary suffering and physical and psychological dysfunction d. Indicates that the nurse understands the adage of "start low and go slow" in administering analgesics

c. Contributes to unnecessary suffering and physical and psychological dysfunction

Mr. Johansen died at the age of 71 following a myocardial infarction that he experienced while performing yard work. Mrs. Johansen would be experiencing prolonged grief disorder if she A. Initially denied that Mr. Johansen died. B. Talked about her husband extensively in the years following his death. C. Stated that she expects him home soon on the anniversary of his death. D. Cried uncontrollably and unpredictably in the weeks following her husband's death.

c. Denial of an individual's death that persists beyond 6 months is indicative of prolonged grief disorder. Strong emotions or denial immediately following the death are considered to be expected responses and talking about the deceased loved one is not considered to be evidence of the disorder.

During admission of a patient diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer, the nurse would assess for which of the following as a key indicator of clinical depression related to terminal illness? A. Frustration with pain B. Anorexia and nausea C. Feelings of hopelessness D. Inability to carry out activities of daily living

c. Feelings of hopelessness are likely to be present in a patient with a terminal illness who has clinical depression. This can be attributed to lack of control over the disease process or outcome. The nurse should assess for depression routinely when working with patients with a terminal illness.

Amitriptyline is prescribed for a patient with chronic pain from fibromyalgia. When the nurse explains that this drug is an antidepressant, the patient states that she is in pain, not depressed. What is the nurse's best response to the patient? a. Antidepressants will improve the patient's attitude and prevent a negative emotional response to the pain b. Chronic pain almost always leads to depression, and the use of this drug will prevent depression from occurring c. Some antidepressant drugs relieve pain by releasing neurotransmitters that prevent pain impulses from reaching the brain d. Certain antidepressant drugs are metabolized in the liver to substances that numb the ends of nerve fibers, preventing the onset of pain

c. Some antidepressants drugs relieve pain by releasing neurotransmitters that prevent pain impulses from reaching the brain

The patient who had a hip replacement yesterday has a visual acuity of 20/200 after correction. What is the nurse's best action to provide recreational activities during the rehabilitation phase? a. Place the television to the left or right of patient's visual field. b. Encourage the patient to learn braille. c. Suggest use of talking books. d. Provide headphones for listening to music.

c. Suggest use of talking books.

30. To reduce the risk for falls in the patient with Parkinson's disease, what should the nurse teach the patient to do? a. Use an elevated toilet seat. b. Use a walker or cane for support. c. Consciously lift the toes when stepping. d. Rock side to side to initiate leg movements.

c. The shuffling gait of PD causes the patient to be off balance and at risk for falling. Teaching the patient to use a wide stance with the feet apart, to lift the toes when walking, and to look ahead helps to promote a more balanced gait. Use of an elevated toilet seat and rocking from side to side will enable a patient to initiate movement. Canes and walkers are difficult for patients with PD to maneuver and may make the patient more prone to injury.

Once generated, what may block the transmission of an action potential along a peripheral nerve fiber to the dorsal root of the spinal cord? a. Nothing can stop the action potential along an intact nerve until it reaches the spinal cord b. The action potential must cross several synapses, points at which the impulse may be blocked by drugs c. The transmission may be interrupted by drugs that act on peripheral sodium channels (local anesthetics) d. The nerve fiber produces neurotransmitters that may activate nearby nerve fibers to transmit pain impulses

c. The transmission may be interrupted by drugs that act on peripheral sodium channels (local anesthetics)

A nurse has been working full time with terminally ill patients for 3 years. He has been experiencing irritability and mixed emotions when expressing sadness since four of his patients died on the same day. To optimize the quality of his nursing care, he should examine his own a. full-time work schedule b. past feelings toward death c. patterns of dealing with grief d. demands for involvement in patient care

c. patterns of dealing with grief

The family attorney informed a patient's adult children and wife that the patient did not have an advance directive after he suffered a serious stroke. Who is responsible for making the decision about EOL measures when the patient cannot communicate his or her specific wishes? a. Notary and attorney b. physician and family c. wife and adult children d. physician and nursing staff

c. wife and adult children

Describe visceral pain

cramping

The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly diagnosed patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Which statement would be appropriate to include in the teaching? a. "ALS results from an excess chemical in the brain, and the symptoms can be controlled with medication." b. "Even though the symptoms you are experiencing are severe, most people recover with treatment." c. "You need to consider advance directives now, since you will lose cognitive function as the disease progresses." d. "This is a progressing disease that eventually results in permanent paralysis, though you will not lose any cognitive function."

d Rationale: The disease results in destruction of the motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord, causing gradual paralysis. Cognitive function is maintained. Because there is no cure for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), collaborative care is palliative and based on symptom relief. Death usually occurs within 3-6 years after diagnosis.

The nurse requests that a mother give permission for a hearing test in a newborn infant. The mother questions the importance of such a test. The nurse correctly responds with which of the following statements? a. "This will help us to identify your baby's risk for ear infections the first year of life." b. "Hearing is important so your baby hears and responds to your voice, which makes you feel like a mother." c. "Socialization skills include the need to hear in order to interpret the emotional aspect of the words that are spoken to your child." d. "Imitation of sounds is the first step in language development, and it is important to identify alterations early."

d. "Imitation of sounds is the first step in language development, and it is important to identify alterations early."

An adult male patient is complaining of decreased appetite. He states he just finished taking his antibiotics for an episode of pneumonia. What is the nurse's best response? a. "Your wife should increase the spices in your food, as the pneumonia changes your sense of smell." b. "Notify your doctor immediately, because this is a concerning reaction to the medication." c. "You need to take an appetite stimulant, as your body will need good nutrition to recover from the infection." d. "You should see an improvement in the next week or so. Call if this continues."

d. "You should see an improvement in the next week or so. Call if this continues."

While the nurse is obtaining the health history of a 75-year-old female patient, which of the following has the greatest implication for the development of cancer? a. Being a woman b. Family history of hypertension c. Cigarette smoking as a teenager d. Advancing age

d. Advancing age

A postoperative 68 year old opioid-naïve patient is receiving morphine by patient controlled analgesia (PCA) for postoperative pain. What is the rationale for not initiating the PCA analgesic with a basal dose of analgesic as well? a. Opioid overdose b. Nausea and itching c. Lack of pain control d. Adverse respiratory outcomes

d. Adverse respiratory outcomes

A patient has been receiving palliative care for the past several weeks in light of her worsening condition following a series of strokes. The caregiver has rung the call bell, stating that the patient now "stops breathing for a while, then breathes fast and hard, and then stops again." The nurse would recognize that the patient is experiencing A. Apnea. B. Bradypnea. C. Death rattle. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

d. Cheyne-Stokes respiration is a pattern of breathing characterized by alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing. This type of breathing is usually seen as a person nears death.

End-of-life palliative nursing care involves a. constant assessment for changes in physiologic functioning. b. administering large doses of analgesics to keep the patient sedated. c. providing as little physical care as possible to prevent disturbing the patient. d. encouraging the patient and family members to verbalize their feelings of sadness, loss, and forgiveness.

d. In assisting patients with dying, end-of-life care promotes the grieving process, which involves saying goodbye. Physical care is very important for physical comfort but assessment should be limited to essential data related to the patient's symptoms. Analgesics should be administered for pain but patients who are sedated cannot participate in the grieving process.

In caring for a patient following lobectomy for lung cancer, which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Position the patient on the operative side only. b. Avoid administering narcotic pain medications. c. Keep the patient on strict bed rest. d. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe.

d. Instruct the patient to cough and deep breathe.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received a bone marrow transplant 10 days ago. The nurse would monitor for which of the following clinical manifestations that could indicate a potentially life-threatening situation? a. Mucositis b. Confusion c. Depression d. Mild temperature elevation

d. Mild temperature elevation

A 75-year-old woman walks into the emergency department with complaints of "not feeling well." Her blood pressure is 145/95, pulse 85 beats/min, respirations 24 breaths/min, and blood sugar 300. Upon inspection, the nurse notices that the woman has an open wound on the bottom of her foot, but the patient states she is not aware of this. How should the nurse interpret these findings? a. Normal in the older adult b. A need for the patient to be evaluated for cognitive impairment c. A side effect of anti-hypertensive medication d. Pathologic impairment of sensory responses

d. Pathologic impairment of sensory responses

Priority Decision: A patient in the last stages of life is experiencing shortness of breath and air hunger. Based on practice guidelines, what is the most appropriate action by the nurse? a. Administer oxygen. b. Administer bronchodilators. c. Administer antianxiety agents. d. Use any methods that make the patient more comfortable.

d. There currently are no clinical practice guidelines to relieve the shortness of breath and air hunger that often occur at the end of life. The principle of beneficence would encourage any of the options to be tried, based on knowing that whatever gives the patient the most relief should be used.

22. The nurse explains to a patient newly diagnosed with MS that the diagnosis is made primarily by a. spinal x-ray findings. b. T-cell analysis of the blood. c. analysis of cerebrospinal fluid. d. history and clinical manifestations.

d. There is no specific diagnostic test for MS. A diagnosis is made primarily by history and clinical manifestations. Certain diagnostic tests may be used to help establish a diagnosis of MS. Positive findings on MRI include evidence of at least two inflammatory demyelinating lesions in at least two different locations within the central nervous system (CNS). Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may have increased immunoglobulin G and the presence of oligoclonal banding. Evoked potential responses are often delayed in persons with MS.

A deathly ill patient from a culture different than the nurse's is admitted. Which question is appropriate to help the nurse provide culturally competent care? a. "If you die, will you want an autopsy?" b. "Are you interested in learning about palliative or hospice care?" c. "Do you have any preferences for what happens if you are dying?" d. "Tell me about your expectations of care during this hospitalization."

d. Using the open-ended statement to seek information related to the patient's and family's perspective and expectations will best guide the plan of care for this patient. This will open the discussion about palliative or hospice care and preferences for end-of-life care.

For the past 5 years Tom has repeatedly asked his mother to donate his deceased father's belongings to charity, but his mother has refused. She sits in the bedroom closet, crying and talking to her long-dead husband. What type of grief is Tom's mother experiencing? a. adaptive grief b. disruptive grief c. anticipatory grief d. prolonged grief disorder

d. prolonged grief disorder

The primary purpose of hospice is to a. allow patients to die at home b. provide better quality of care than the family can c. coordinate care for dying patients and their families d. provide comfort and support for dying patients and their families

d. provide comfort and support for dying patients and their families

Define referred pain

distant from the pain location reported by the patient (usually involves visceral organs)

Older adults

increased pain with age r/t musculoskeletal disorders, surgical, falls/trauma, misconception regarding med administration is confusion and respiratory suppression

What is peripheral sensitization

increased susceptibility to nociceptor activation (light touch) (note this is part of transduction)

What is the ONLY hormone that decreases as the result of unrelieved acute pain

insulin

What is the treatment for nociceptive pain

nonopioid and/or opioid drugs

Describe symptoms of neuropathic pain

numbing, hot, burning, shooting, stabbing, sharp or electric shock like. Can be sudden, intense, short lived or lingering

somatic pain

originating from muscle, bone, joints, tendons, or blood vessels Sharp, localized

visceral pain

pain originating in the internal organs in the thorax, cranium, or abdomen Stretching, swelling, oxygen deprivation

Describe symptoms of Superficial somatic pain

sharp, burning, or prickly

Define Transduction

the conversion of a noxious (tissue damaging) mechanical (surgical incision), thermal (sunburn), or chemical stimulus (toxic substance) into an electrical signal called an action potential

Define Nociception

the physiologic process by which information about tissue damage is communicated to the CNS

Define Transmission

the process by which pain signals are relayed from the periphery to the spinal cord and then to the brain.

Define Suffering

the state of distress associated with loss

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine and feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 250 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

After endotracheal suctioning, the nurse notes that the intracranial pressure (ICP) for a patient with a traumatic head injury has increased from 14 to 17 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the increase in intracranial pressure. b. Ensure that the patient's neck is in neutral position. c. Notify the health care provider about the change in pressure. d. Increase the rate of the prescribed propofol (Diprivan) infusion.

ANS: B Because suctioning will cause a transient increase in ICP, the nurse should initially check for other factors that might be contributing to the increase and observe the patient for a few minutes. Documentation is needed, but this is not the first action. There is no need to notify the health care provider about this expected reaction to suctioning. Propofol is used to control patient anxiety or agitation. There is no indication that anxiety has contributed to the increase in ICP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

47. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a hemoglobin A1C of 12% b. 23-year-old with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL c. 40-year-old who is pregnant and whose oral glucose tolerance test is 202 mg/dL d. 50-year-old who uses exenatide (Byetta) and is complaining of acute abdominal pain

ANS: B Because the brain requires glucose to function, untreated hypoglycemia can cause unconsciousness, seizures, and death. The nurse will rapidly assess and treat the patient with low blood glucose. The other patients also have symptoms that require assessments and/or interventions, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications.

Which question will the nurse ask a patient who has been admitted with a benign occipital lobe tumor to assess for functional deficits? a. "Do you have difficulty in hearing?" b. "Are you experiencing visual problems?" c. "Are you having any trouble with your balance?" d. "Have you developed any weakness on one side?"

ANS: B Because the occipital lobe is responsible for visual reception, the patient with a tumor in this area is likely to have problems with vision. The other questions will be better for assessing function of the temporal lobe, cerebellum, and frontal lobe. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia? a. Potential complication: seizures b. Potential complication: infection c. Potential complication: neurogenic shock d. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

ANS: B Because the patient with aplastic anemia has pancytopenia, the patient is at risk for infection and bleeding. There is no increased risk for seizures, neurogenic shock, or pulmonary edema

7. Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia? a. Potential complication: seizures b. Potential complication: infection c. Potential complication: neurogenic shock d. Potential complication: pulmonary edema

ANS: B Because the patient with aplastic anemia has pancytopenia, the patient is at risk for infection and bleeding. There is no increased risk for seizures, neurogenic shock, or pulmonary edema.

20. The nurse is preparing to teach a 43-year-old man who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about home management of the disease. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Ask the patient's family to participate in the diabetes education program. b. Assess the patient's perception of what it means to have diabetes mellitus. c. Demonstrate how to check glucose using capillary blood glucose monitoring. d. Discuss the need for the patient to actively participate in diabetes management.

ANS: B Before planning teaching, the nurse should assess the patient's interest in and ability to self-manage the diabetes. After assessing the patient, the other nursing actions may be appropriate, but planning needs to be individualized to each patient.

18. A routine complete blood count indicates that an active 80-year-old man may have myelodysplastic syndrome. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. blood transfusion b. bone marrow biopsy. c. filgrastim (Neupogen) administration. d. erythropoietin (Epogen) administration.

ANS: B Bone marrow biopsy is needed to make the diagnosis and determine the specific type of myelodysplastic syndrome. The other treatments may be necessary if there is progression of the myelodysplastic syndrome, but the initial action for this asymptomatic patient will be a bone marrow biopsy.

A routine complete blood count indicates that an active 80-year-old man may have myelodysplastic syndrome. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. blood transfusion b. bone marrow biopsy. c. filgrastim (Neupogen) administration. d. erythropoietin (Epogen) administration.

A patient admitted with a diffuse axonal injury has a systemic blood pressure (BP) of 106/52 mm Hg and an intracranial pressure (ICP) of 14 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Document the BP and ICP in the patient's record. b. Report the BP and ICP to the health care provider. c. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to 60 degrees. d. Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs and ICP.

ANS: B Calculate the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP): (CPP = Mean arterial pressure [MAP] - ICP). MAP = DBP + 1/3 (Systolic blood pressure [SBP] - Diastolic blood pressure [DBP]). Therefore the MAP is 70, and the CPP is 56 mm Hg, which are below the normal values of 60 to 100 mm Hg and are approaching the level of ischemia and neuronal death. Immediate changes in the patient's therapy such as fluid infusion or vasopressor administration are needed to improve the CPP. Adjustments in the head elevation should only be done after consulting with the health care provider. Continued monitoring and documentation will also be done, but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Crackles heard at the lung bases c. Complaints of nausea and anorexia d. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C)

ANS: B Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 257 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. The nurse is assessing a male patient diagnosed with a pituitary tumor causing panhypopituitarism. Assessment findings consistent with panhypopituitarism include: a. high blood pressure. b. decreased facial hair. c. elevated blood glucose. d. tachycardia and palpitations.

ANS: B Changes in male secondary sex characteristics such as decreased facial hair, testicular atrophy, diminished spermatogenesis, loss of libido, impotence, and decreased muscle mass are associated with decreases in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Fasting hypoglycemia and hypotension occur in panhypopituitarism as a result of decreases in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol. Bradycardia is likely due to the decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroid hormones associated with panhypopituitarism.

11. Which patient action indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about administration of aspart (NovoLog) insulin? a. The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area. b. The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration. c. The patient stores the insulin in the freezer after administering the prescribed dose. d. The patient pushes the plunger down while removing the syringe from the injection site.

ANS: B Cleaning the skin with soap and water or with alcohol is acceptable. Insulin should not be frozen. The patient should leave the syringe in place for about 5 seconds after injection to be sure that all the insulin has been injected. The upper abdominal area is one of the preferred areas for insulin injection.

A 20-yr-old male patient is admitted with a head injury after a collision while playing football. After noting that the patient has developed clear nasal drainage, which action should the nurse take? a. Have the patient gently blow the nose. b. Check the drainage for glucose content. c. Teach the patient that rhinorrhea is expected after a head injury. d. Obtain a specimen of the fluid to send for culture and sensitivity.

ANS: B Clear nasal drainage in a patient with a head injury suggests a dural tear and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. If the drainage is CSF, it will test positive for glucose. Fluid leaking from the nose will have normal nasal flora, so culture and sensitivity will not be useful. Blowing the nose is avoided to prevent CSF leakage. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

6. The nurse determines that demeclocycline is effective for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) based on finding that the patient's a. weight has increased. b. urinary output is increased. c. peripheral edema is increased. d. urine specific gravity is increased.

ANS: B Demeclocycline blocks the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the renal tubules and increases urine output. An increase in weight or an increase in urine specific gravity indicates that the SIADH is not corrected. Peripheral edema does not occur with SIADH. A sudden weight gain without edema is a common clinical manifestation of this disorder.

27. Which information obtained by the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 52,000/µL. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. There are purpura on the oral mucosa. d. There are large bruises on the patient's back.

ANS: B Difficulty in arousing the patient may indicate a cerebral hemorrhage, which is life threatening and requires immediate action. The other information should be documented and reported but would not be unusual in a patient with thrombocytopenia.

Which information obtained by the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 52,000/µL. b. The patient is difficult to arouse. c. There are purpura on the oral mucosa. d. There are large bruises on the patient's back.

44. The cardiac telemetry unit charge nurse receives status reports from other nursing units about four patients who need cardiac monitoring. Which patient should be transferred to the cardiac unit first? a. Patient with Hashimoto's thyroiditis and a heart rate of 102 b. Patient with tetany who has a new order for IV calcium chloride c. Patient with Cushing syndrome and a blood glucose of 140 mg/dL d. Patient with Addison's disease who takes hydrocortisone twice daily

ANS: B Emergency treatment of tetany requires IV administration of calcium; electrocardiographic monitoring will be required because cardiac arrest may occur if high calcium levels result from too-rapid administration. The information about the other patients indicates that they are more stable than the patient with tetany.

Which action will the public health nurse take to reduce the incidence of epidemic encephalitis in a community? a. Teach about prophylactic antibiotics after exposure to encephalitis. b. Encourage the use of effective insect repellent during mosquito season. c. Remind patients that most cases of viral encephalitis can be cared for at home. d. Arrange to screen school-age children for West Nile virus during the school year.

ANS: B Epidemic encephalitis is usually spread by mosquitoes and ticks. Use of insect repellent is effective in reducing risk. Encephalitis frequently requires that the patient be hospitalized in an intensive care unit during the initial stages. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not used to prevent encephalitis because most encephalitis is viral. West Nile virus is most common in adults over age 50 during the summer and early fall. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

You are caring for a patient who has suffered a spinal cord injury. You are concerned about the patient's elimination status. As the nurse, your primary concern is to a. speak with the patient's family about food choices. b. establish a bowel and bladder program for the patient. c. speak with the patient about past elimination habits. d. establish a bedtime ritual for the patient.

ANS: B Establishing a bowel and bladder program for the patient is a priority to be sure that adequate elimination is happening for the patient with a spinal cord injury. Speaking with the family to determine food choices is okay, but it is not the primary concern. Speaking with the patient to know past elimination habits does not apply, because the spinal cord injury changes elimination habits. Establishing a bedtime ritual does not apply to elimination.

The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of immunotherapy. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 258 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient arrives in the emergency department complaining of eye itching and pain after sleeping with contact lenses in place. To facilitate further examination of the eye, fluorescein angiography is ordered. The nurse will teach the patient to a. hold a card and fixate on the center dot. b. report any burning or pain at the IV site. c. remain still while the cornea is anesthetized. d. let the examiner know when images shown appear clear.

ANS: B Fluorescein angiography involves injecting IV dye. If extravasation occurs, fluorescein is toxic to the tissues. The patient should be instructed to report any signs of extravasation such as pain or burning. The nurse should closely monitor the IV site as well. The cornea is anesthetized during ultrasonography. Refractometry involves measuring visual acuity and asking the patient to choose lenses that are the sharpest; it is a painless test. The Amsler grid test involves using a hand held card with grid lines. The patient fixates on the center dot and records any abnormalities of the grid lines

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates around the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. An unresponsive patient with type 2 diabetes is brought to the emergency department and diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). The nurse will anticipate the need to a. give a bolus of 50% dextrose. b. insert a large-bore IV catheter. c. initiate oxygen by nasal cannula. d. administer glargine (Lantus) insulin.

ANS: B HHS is initially treated with large volumes of IV fluids to correct hypovolemia. Regular insulin is administered, not a long-acting insulin. There is no indication that the patient requires oxygen. Dextrose solutions will increase the patient's blood glucose and would be contraindicated.

14. Which intervention will be included in the nursing care plan for a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? a. Assign the patient to a private room. b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. c. Use rinses rather than a soft toothbrush for oral care. d. Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.

ANS: B IM or subcutaneous injections should be avoided because of the risk for bleeding. A soft toothbrush can be used for oral care. There is no need to restrict activity or place the patient in a private room.

Which intervention will be included in the nursing care plan for a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? a. Assign the patient to a private room. b. Avoid intramuscular (IM) injections. c. Use rinses rather than a soft toothbrush for oral care. d. Restrict activity to passive and active range of motion.

14. Which nursing assessment of a 70-yr-old patient is most important to make during initiation of thyroid replacement with levothyroxine (Synthroid)? a. Fluid balance b. Apical pulse rate c. Nutritional intake d. Orientation and alertness

ANS: B In older patients, initiation of levothyroxine therapy can increase myocardial oxygen demand and cause angina or dysrhythmias. The medication also is expected to improve mental status and fluid balance and will increase metabolic rate and nutritional needs, but these changes will not result in potentially life-threatening complications.

After evacuation of an epidural hematoma, a patient's intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored with an intraventricular catheter. Which information obtained by the nurse requires urgent communication with the health care provider? a. Pulse of 102 beats/min b. Temperature of 101.6° F c. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg d. Mean arterial pressure of 90 mm Hg

ANS: B Infection is a serious consideration with ICP monitoring, especially with intraventricular catheters. The temperature indicates the need for antibiotics or removal of the monitor. The ICP, arterial pressure, and apical pulse only require ongoing monitoring at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

39. After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 31-yr-old female patient with Cushing syndrome and a blood glucose level of 244 mg/dL b. A 70-yr-old female patient taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) who has an irregular pulse of 134 c. A 53-yr-old male patient who has Addison's disease and is due for a prescribed dose of hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef). d. A 22-yr-old male patient admitted with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) who has a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L

ANS: B Initiation of thyroid replacement in older adults may cause angina and cardiac dysrhythmias. The patient's high pulse rate needs rapid investigation by the nurse to assess for and intervene with any cardiac problems. The other patients also require nursing assessment and/or actions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications.

11. The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the a. Schilling test. b. bilirubin level. c. stool occult blood test. d. gastric analysis testing.

ANS: B Jaundice is caused by the elevation of bilirubin level associated with red blood cell (RBC) hemolysis. The other tests would not be helpful in monitoring or treating a hemolytic anemia.

The nurse notes scleral jaundice in a patient being admitted with hemolytic anemia. The nurse will plan to check the laboratory results for the a. Schilling test. b. bilirubin level. c. stool occult blood test. d. gastric analysis testing.

ANS: B Jaundice is caused by the elevation of bilirubin level associated with red blood cell (RBC) hemolysis. The other tests would not be helpful in monitoring or treating a hemolytic anemia.

40. Which question will the nurse in the endocrine clinic ask to help determine a patient's risk factors for goiter? a. "How much milk do you drink?" b. "What medications are you taking?" c. "Are your immunizations up to date?" d. "Have you had any recent neck injuries?"

ANS: B Medications that contain thyroid- inhibiting substances can cause goiter. Milk intake, neck injury, and immunization history are not risk factors for goiter.

34. Which problem reported by a patient with hemophilia is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Leg bruises b. Tarry stools c. Skin abrasions d. Bleeding gums

ANS: B Melena is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and requires collaborative actions such as checking hemoglobin and hematocrit and administration of coagulation factors. The other problems indicate a need for patient teaching about how to avoid injury, but are not indicators of possible serious blood loss

Which problem reported by a patient with hemophilia is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Leg bruises b. Tarry stools c. Skin abrasions d. Bleeding gums

3. A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of a. iron. b. folic acid. c. cobalamin (vitamin B12). d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

ANS: B Methotrexate use can lead to folic acid deficiency. Supplementation with oral folic acid supplements is the usual treatment. The other nutrients would not correct folic acid deficiency, although they would be used to treat other types of anemia.

A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of a. iron. b. folic acid. c. cobalamin (vitamin B12). d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).

5. An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to a. provide a diet high in vitamin K. b. alternate periods of rest and activity. c. teach the patient how to avoid injury. d. place the patient on protective isolation.

ANS: B Nursing care for patients with anemia should alternate periods of rest and activity to encourage activity without causing undue fatigue. There is no indication that the patient has a bleeding disorder, so a diet high in vitamin K or teaching about how to avoid injury is not needed. Protective isolation might be used for a patient with aplastic anemia, but it is not indicated for hemolytic anemia.

An appropriate nursing intervention for a hospitalized patient with severe hemolytic anemia is to a. provide a diet high in vitamin K. b. alternate periods of rest and activity. c. teach the patient how to avoid injury. d. place the patient on protective isolation.

8. It is important for the nurse providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis to a. limit the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids. b. evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. c. encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated. d. teach the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods.

ANS: B Pain is the most common clinical manifestation of a crisis and usually requires large doses of continuous opioids for control. Fluid intake should be increased to reduce blood viscosity and improve perfusion. Rest is usually ordered to decrease metabolic requirements. Patients are instructed about the need for dietary folic acid, but high-protein, high-calorie diets are not emphasized.

It is important for the nurse providing care for a patient with sickle cell crisis to a. limit the patient's intake of oral and IV fluids. b. evaluate the effectiveness of opioid analgesics. c. encourage the patient to ambulate as much as tolerated. d. teach the patient about high-protein, high-calorie foods.

33. The nurse is taking a health history from a 29-year-old pregnant patient at the first prenatal visit. The patient reports no personal history of diabetes but has a parent who is diabetic. Which action will the nurse plan to take first? a. Teach the patient about administering regular insulin. b. Schedule the patient for a fasting blood glucose level. c. Discuss an oral glucose tolerance test for the twenty-fourth week of pregnancy. d. Provide teaching about an increased risk for fetal problems with gestational diabetes.

ANS: B Patients at high risk for gestational diabetes should be screened for diabetes on the initial prenatal visit. An oral glucose tolerance test may also be used to check for diabetes, but it would be done before the twenty-fourth week. The other actions may also be needed (depending on whether the patient develops gestational diabetes), but they are not the first actions that the nurse should take.

The nurse is performing an eye examination on a 76-year-old patient. The nurse should refer the patient for a more extensive assessment based on which finding? a. The patient's sclerae are light yellow. b. The patient reports persistent photophobia. c. The pupil recovers slowly after responding to a bright light. d. There is a whitish gray ring encircling the periphery of the iris.

ANS: B Photophobia is not a normally occurring change with aging, and would require further assessment. The other assessment data are common gerontologic differences and would not be unusual in a 76-year-old patient

When the patient turns his head quickly during the admission assessment, the nurse observes nystagmus. What is the indicated nursing action? a. Assess the patient with a Rinne test. b. Place a fall-risk bracelet on the patient. c. Ask the patient to watch the mouths of staff when they are speaking. d. Remind unlicensed assistive personnel to speak loudly to the patient.

ANS: B Problems with balance related to vestibular function may present as nystagmus or vertigo and indicate an increased risk for falls. The Rinne test is used to check hearing. Reading lips and louder speech are compensatory behaviors for decreased hearing

The nurse should suggest which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external-beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fruit salad c. Creamed broccoli b. Baked chicken d. Toasted wheat bread

ANS: B Protein is needed for wound healing. To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 254 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. Which action should the nurse take after a 36-year-old patient treated with intramuscular glucagon for hypoglycemia regains consciousness? a. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia. b. Give the patient a snack of peanut butter and crackers. c. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. d. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours.

ANS: B Rebound hypoglycemia can occur after glucagon administration, but having a meal containing complex carbohydrates plus protein and fat will help prevent hypoglycemia. Orange juice and nonfat milk will elevate blood glucose rapidly, but the cheese and crackers will stabilize blood glucose. Administration of IV glucose might be used in patients who were unable to take in nutrition orally. The patient should be assessed for symptoms of hypoglycemia after glucagon administration.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a basal skull fracture. The nurse notes ecchymoses around both eyes and clear drainage from the patient's nose. Which admission order should the nurse question? a. Keep the head of bed elevated. b. Insert nasogastric tube to low suction. c. Turn patient side to side every 2 hours. d. Apply cold packs intermittently to face.

ANS: B Rhinorrhea may indicate a dural tear with cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Insertion of a nasogastric tube will increase the risk for infections such as meningitis. Turning the patient, elevating the head, and applying cold packs are appropriate orders. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

Which equipment will the nurse obtain to perform a Rinne test? a. Otoscope b. Tuning fork c. Audiometer d. Ticking watch

ANS: B Rinne testing is done using a tuning fork. The other equipment is used for other types of ear examinations

ANS: B Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The patient will be encouraged to continue exercising because this will maintain functional abilities. Maintaining a wide base of support will help with balance. The patient should lift the feet and avoid a shuffling gait. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1437 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Family members of a patient who has a traumatic brain injury ask the nurse about the purpose of the ventriculostomy system being used for intracranial pressure monitoring. Which response by the nurse is best for this situation? a. "This type of monitoring system is complex and it is managed by skilled staff." b. "The monitoring system helps show whether blood flow to the brain is adequate." c. "The ventriculostomy monitoring system helps check for alterations in cerebral perfusion pressure." d. "This monitoring system has multiple benefits including facilitation of cerebrospinal fluid drainage."

ANS: B Short and simple explanations should be given initially to patients and family members. The other explanations are either too complicated to be easily understood or may increase the family members' anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

5. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-yr-old male patient about somatropin (Genotropin)? a.The medication will be needed for 3 to 6 months. b. Inject the medication subcutaneously every day. c. Blood glucose levels may decrease when taking the medication. d. Stop taking the medication if swelling of the hands or feet occurs.

ANS: B Somatropin is injected subcutaneously on a daily basis, preferably in the evening. The patient will need to continue on somatropin for life. If swelling or other common adverse effects occur, the health care provider should be notified. Growth hormone will increase blood glucose levels.

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or the use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 264 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices are preferred. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 246 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. A patient with a history of a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action by the nurse will decrease the risk for TRALI for this patient? a. Infuse the PRBCs slowly over 4 hours. b. Transfuse only leukocyte-reduced PRBCs. c. Administer the scheduled diuretic before the transfusion. d. Give the PRN dose of antihistamine before the transfusion.

ANS: B TRALI is caused by a reaction between the donor and the patient leukocytes that causes pulmonary inflammation and capillary leaking. The other actions may help prevent respiratory problems caused by circulatory overload or by allergic reactions, but they will not prevent TRALI.

A patient with a history of a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is to receive a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which action by the nurse will decrease the risk for TRALI for this patient? a. Infuse the PRBCs slowly over 4 hours. b. Transfuse only leukocyte-reduced PRBCs. c. Administer the scheduled diuretic before the transfusion. d. Give the PRN dose of antihistamine before the transfusion.

ANS: B The Credé method can be used to improve bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and may increase risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and dehydration. The use of incontinence briefs and frequent toileting will not improve bladder emptying. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: eNCP 59-3 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The public health nurse is planning a program to decrease the incidence of meningitis in teenagers and young adults. Which action is most likely to be effective? a. Emphasize the importance of hand washing. b. Immunize adolescents and college freshman. c. Support serving healthy nutritional options in the college cafeteria. d. Encourage adolescents and young adults to avoid crowds in the winter.

ANS: B The Neisseria meningitides vaccination is recommended for children ages 11 and 12 years, unvaccinated teens entering high school, and college freshmen. Hand washing may help decrease the spread of bacteria, and good nutrition may increase resistance to infection. but those are not as effective as immunization. Because adolescents and young adults are in school or the workplace, avoiding crowds is not realistic. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

Which action can the nurse working in the emergency department delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Ask a patient with decreased visual acuity about medications taken at home. b. Perform Snellen testing of visual acuity for a patient with a history of cataracts. c. Obtain information from a patient about any history of childhood ear infections. d. Inspect a patient's external ear for redness, swelling, or presence of skin lesions.

ANS: B The Snellen test does not require nursing judgment and is appropriate to delegate to UAP who have been trained to perform it. History taking about infection or medications and assessment are actions that require critical thinking and should be done by the RN.

17. A 28-year-old man with von Willebrand disease is admitted to the hospital for minor knee surgery. The nurse will review the coagulation survey to check the a. platelet count. b. bleeding time. c. thrombin time. d. prothrombin time.

ANS: B The bleeding time is affected by von Willebrand disease. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and thrombin time are normal in von Willebrand disease.

A 28-year-old man with von Willebrand disease is admitted to the hospital for minor knee surgery. The nurse will review the coagulation survey to check the a. platelet count. b. bleeding time. c. thrombin time. d. prothrombin time.

ANS: B The bleeding time is affected by von Willebrand disease. Platelet count, prothrombin time, and thrombin time are normal in von Willebrand disease.

27. The nurse will plan to monitor a patient diagnosed with a pheochromocytoma for a. flushing. b. headache. c. bradycardia. d. hypoglycemia.

ANS: B The classic clinical manifestations of pheochromocytoma are hypertension, tachycardia, severe headache, diaphoresis, and abdominal or chest pain. Elevated blood glucose may also occur because of sympathetic nervous system stimulation. Bradycardia and flushing would not be expected.

19. Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a 30-year old woman who is neutropenic? a. Avoid any injections. b. Check temperature every 4 hours. c. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet. d. Place a "No Visitors" sign on the door.

ANS: B The earliest sign of infection in a neutropenic patient is an elevation in temperature. Although unpeeled fresh fruits and vegetables should be avoided, fruits and vegetables that are peeled or cooked are acceptable. Injections may be required for administration of medications such as filgrastim (Neupogen). The number of visitors may be limited and visitors with communicable diseases should be avoided, but a "no visitors" policy is not needed.

Which action will the admitting nurse include in the care plan for a 30-year old woman who is neutropenic? a. Avoid any injections. b. Check temperature every 4 hours. c. Omit fruits or vegetables from the diet. d. Place a "No Visitors" sign on the door.

The nurse admitting a patient who has a right frontal lobe tumor would expect the patient may have a. expressive aphasia. b. impaired judgment. c. right-sided weakness d. difficulty swallowing.

ANS: B The frontal lobe controls intellectual activities such as judgment. Speech is controlled in the parietal lobe. Weakness and hemiplegia occur on the contralateral side from the tumor. Swallowing is controlled by the brainstem. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A patient who underwent eye surgery is required to wear an eye patch until the scheduled postoperative clinic visit. Which nursing diagnosis will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Disturbed body image related to eye trauma and eye patch b. Risk for falls related to temporary decrease in stereoscopic vision c. Ineffective health maintenance related to inability to see surroundings d. Ineffective denial related to inability to admit the impact of the eye injury

ANS: B The loss of stereoscopic vision created by the eye patch impairs the patient's ability to see in three dimensions and to judge distances. It also increases the risk for falls. There is no evidence in the assessment data for ineffective health maintenance, disturbed body image, or ineffective denial

35. A 37-yr-old patient has just arrived in the postanesthesia recovery unit (PACU) after a thyroidectomy. Which information about the patient is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Difficult to awaken. b. Increasing neck swelling. c. Reports 7/10 incisional pain. d. Cardiac rate 112 beats/minute.

ANS: B The neck swelling may lead to respiratory difficulty, and rapid intervention is needed to prevent airway obstruction. The incisional pain should be treated but is not unusual after surgery. A heart rate of 112 beats/min is not unusual in a patient who has been hyperthyroid and has just arrived in the PACU from surgery. Sleepiness in the immediate postoperative period is expected.

The nurse admits a patient to the hospital in Addisonian crisis. Which patient statement supports the need to plan additional teaching? a. "I frequently eat at restaurants, and my food has a lot of added salt." b. "I had the flu earlier this week, so I couldn't take the hydrocortisone." c. "I always double my dose of hydrocortisone on the days that I go for a long run." d. "I take twice as much hydrocortisone in the morning dose as I do in the afternoon."

ANS: B The need for hydrocortisone replacement is increased with stressors such as illness, and the patient needs to be taught to call the health care provider because medication and IV fluids and electrolytes may need to be given. The other patient statements indicate appropriate management of the Addison's disease.

38. Which laboratory value reported to the nurse by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates the most urgent need for the nurse's assessment of the patient? a. Bedtime glucose of 140 mg/dL b. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dL c. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dL d. 2-hr postprandial glucose of 220 mg/dL

ANS: B The nurse should assess the patient with a blood glucose level of 52 mg/dL for symptoms of hypoglycemia and give the patient a carbohydrate-containing beverage such as orange juice. The other values are within an acceptable range or not immediately dangerous for a diabetic patient.

A patient with a head injury opens his eyes to verbal stimulation, curses when stimulated, and does not respond to a verbal command to move but attempts to push away a painful stimulus. The nurse records the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale score as a. 9. b. 11. c. 13. d. 15.

ANS: B The patient has scores of 3 for eye opening, 3 for best verbal response, and 5 for best motor response. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient has a history of dental caries. b. The patient swims several days each week. c. The patient snacks frequently during the day. d. The patient showers each day with mild soap.

ANS: B The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 255 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. The nurse identifies a need for additional teaching when the patient who is self-monitoring blood glucose a. washes the puncture site using warm water and soap. b. chooses a puncture site in the center of the finger pad. c. hangs the arm down for a minute before puncturing the site. d. says the result of 120 mg indicates good blood sugar control.

ANS: B The patient is taught to choose a puncture site at the side of the finger pad because there are fewer nerve endings along the side of the finger pad. The other patient actions indicate that teaching has been effective.

26. A 30-year-old man with acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home.

ANS: B The patient may be taught to self-administer filgrastim injections. Although chemotherapy may be stopped with severe neutropenia (neutrophil count less than 500/µL), administration of filgrastim usually allows the chemotherapy to continue. Patients with neutropenia are at higher risk for infection when exposed to other patients in the hospital. HEPA filters are expensive and are used in the hospital, where the number of pathogens is much higher than in the patient's home environment.

A 30-year-old man with acute myelogenous leukemia develops an absolute neutrophil count of 850/µL while receiving outpatient chemotherapy. Which action by the outpatient clinic nurse is most appropriate? a. Discuss the need for hospital admission to treat the neutropenia. b. Teach the patient to administer filgrastim (Neupogen) injections. c. Plan to discontinue the chemotherapy until the neutropenia resolves. d. Order a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter for the patient's home.

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Donor bone marrow is transplanted through a sternal or hip incision. b. Hospitalization is required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Transplant of the donated cells can be very painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone.

ANS: B The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 261 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care for a patient with Graves' disease who has exophthalmos? a. Place cold packs on the eyes to relieve pain and swelling. b. Elevate the head of the patient's bed to reduce periorbital fluid. c. Apply alternating eye patches to protect the corneas from irritation. d. Teach the patient to blink every few seconds to lubricate the corneas.

ANS: B The patient should sit upright as much as possible to promote fluid drainage from the periorbital area. With exophthalmos, the patient is unable to close the eyes completely to blink. Lubrication of the eyes, rather than eye patches, will protect the eyes from developing corneal scarring. The swelling of the eye is not caused by excessive blood flow to the eye, so cold packs will not be helpful.

17. A patient with primary hyperparathyroidism has a serum phosphorus level of 1.7 mg/dL (0.55 mmol/L) and calcium of 14 mg/dL (3.5 mmol/L). Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care? a. Restrict the patient to bed rest. b. Encourage 4000 mL of fluids daily. c. Institute routine seizure precautions. d. Assess for positive Chvostek's sign.

ANS: B The patient with hypercalcemia is at risk for kidney stones, which may be prevented by a high fluid intake. Seizure precautions and monitoring for Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign are appropriate for hypocalcemic patients. The patient should engage in weight-bearing exercise to decrease calcium loss from bone.

Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first? a. 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says "my eyes always look sort of yellow" b. 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla c. 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue d. 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

ANS: B The patient's age and presence of a nontender axillary lump suggest possible lymphoma, which needs rapid diagnosis and treatment. The other patients have questions about treatment or symptoms that are consistent with their diagnosis but do not need to be seen urgently

38. Several patients call the outpatient clinic and ask to make an appointment as soon as possible. Which patient should the nurse schedule to be seen first? a. 44-year-old with sickle cell anemia who says "my eyes always look sort of yellow" b. 23-year-old with no previous health problems who has a nontender lump in the axilla c. 50-year-old with early-stage chronic lymphocytic leukemia who reports chronic fatigue d. 19-year-old with hemophilia who wants to learn to self-administer factor VII replacement

A patient complains of dizziness when bending over and of nausea and dizziness associated with physical activities. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. tympanometry. b. rotary chair testing. c. pure-tone audiometry. d. bone-conduction testing.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations of dizziness and nausea suggest a disorder of the labyrinth, which controls balance and contains three semicircular canals and the vestibule. Rotary chair testing is used to test vestibular function. The other tests are used to test for problems with hearing

11. A patient who had a subtotal thyroidectomy earlier today develops laryngeal stridor and a cramp in the right hand upon returning to the surgical nursing unit. Which collaborative action will the nurse anticipate next? a. Suction the patient's airway. b. Administer IV calcium gluconate. c. Plan for emergency tracheostomy. d. Prepare for endotracheal intubation.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations of stridor and cramping are consistent with tetany caused by hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery. Endotracheal intubation or tracheostomy may be needed if the calcium does not resolve the stridor. Suctioning will not correct the stridor.

ollowing a thymectomy, a 62-year-old male patient with myasthenia gravis receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine (Mestinon). An hour later, the patient complains of nausea and severe abdominal cramps. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds. b. Notify the patient's health care provider. c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug. d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone (Deltasone).

ANS: B The patient's history and symptoms indicate a possible cholinergic crisis. The health care provider should be notified immediately, and it is likely that atropine will be prescribed. The other actions will be appropriate if the patient is not experiencing a cholinergic crisis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1438-1439 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid venipunctures. b. Notify the patient's physician. c. Apply sterile dressings to the sites. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.

ANS: B The patient's new onset of bleeding and diagnosis of sepsis suggest that disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may have developed, which will require collaborative actions such as diagnostic testing, blood product administration, and heparin administration. The other actions also are appropriate, but the most important action should be to notify the physician so that DIC treatment can be initiated rapidly.

A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Avoid venipunctures. b. Notify the patient's physician. c. Apply sterile dressings to the sites. d. Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.

18. A patient develops carpopedal spasms and tingling of the lips following a parathyroidectomy. Which action will provide the patient with rapid relief from the symptoms? a. Administer the prescribed muscle relaxant. b. Have the patient rebreathe from a paper bag. c. Start the PRN O2 at 2 L/min per cannula. d. Stretch the muscles with passive range of motion.

ANS: B The patient's symptoms suggest mild hypocalcemia. The symptoms of hypocalcemia will be temporarily reduced by having the patient breathe into a paper bag, which will raise the PaCO2 and create a more acidic pH. Applying as-needed O2 or range of motion will have no impact on the ionized calcium level. Calcium supplements will be given to normalize calcium levels quickly, but oral supplements will take time to be absorbed.

A patient who is suspected of having an epidural hematoma is admitted to the emergency department. Which action will the nurse expect to take? a. Administer IV furosemide (Lasix). b. Prepare the patient for craniotomy. c. Initiate high-dose barbiturate therapy. d. Type and crossmatch for blood transfusion.

ANS: B The principal treatment for epidural hematoma is rapid surgery to remove the hematoma and prevent herniation. If intracranial pressure is elevated after surgery, furosemide or high-dose barbiturate therapy may be needed, but these will not be of benefit unless the hematoma is removed. Minimal blood loss occurs with head injuries, and transfusion is usually not necessary. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

The nurse is observing a student who is preparing to perform an ear examination for a 30-year-old patient. The nurse will need to intervene if the student a. pulls the auricle of the ear up and posterior. b. chooses a speculum larger than the ear canal. c. stabilizes the hand holding the otoscope on the patient's head. d. stops inserting the otoscope after observing impacted cerumen.

ANS: B The speculum should be smaller than the ear canal so it can be inserted without damage to the external ear canal. The other actions are appropriate when performing an ear examination

15. Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 50-year-old patient who has type 2 diabetes about glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase)? a. Glyburide decreases glucagon secretion from the pancreas. b. Glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. c. Glyburide should be taken even if the morning blood glucose level is low. d. Glyburide should not be used for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media.

ANS: B The sulfonylureas stimulate the production and release of insulin from the pancreas. If the glucose level is low, the patient should contact the health care provider before taking the glyburide, because hypoglycemia can occur with this class of medication. Metformin should be held for 48 hours after administration of IV contrast media, but this is not necessary for glyburide. Glucagon secretion is not affected by glyburide.

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Don't you have any friends that will raise the children for you?" b. "Would you like to talk about options for the care of your children?" c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children."

ANS: B This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will raise the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

A 68-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not want to have chemotherapy, other treatment options include stem cell transplantation." b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission with chemotherapy." c. "The decision about treatment is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do." d. "You don't need to make a decision about treatment right now because leukemias in adults tend to progress quite slowly."

ANS: B This response uses therapeutic communication by addressing the patient's question and giving accurate information. The other responses either give inaccurate information or fail to address the patient's question, which will discourage the patient from asking the nurse for information

21. A 68-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "If you do not want to have chemotherapy, other treatment options include stem cell transplantation." b. "The side effects of chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently goes into remission with chemotherapy." c. "The decision about treatment is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do." d. "You don't need to make a decision about treatment right now because leukemias in adults tend to progress quite slowly."

40. An active 28-year-old male with type 1 diabetes is being seen in the endocrine clinic. Which finding may indicate the need for a change in therapy? a. Hemoglobin A1C level 6.2% b. Blood pressure 146/88 mmHg c. Heart rate at rest 58 beats/minute d. High density lipoprotein (HDL) level 65 mg/dL

ANS: B To decrease the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular problems in patients with diabetes, the goal blood pressure is usually 130/80. An A1C less than 6.5%, a low resting heart rate (consistent with regular aerobic exercise in a young adult), and an HDL level of 65 mg/dL all indicate that the patient's diabetes and risk factors for vascular disease are well controlled.

28. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)? a. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain. b. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain. c. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain. d. Amitriptyline improves sleep and makes you less aware of nighttime pain.

ANS: B Tricyclic antidepressants decrease the transmission of pain impulses to the spinal cord and brain. Tricyclic antidepressants also improve sleep quality and are used for depression, but that is not the major purpose for their use in diabetic neuropathy. The blood vessel changes that contribute to neuropathy are not affected by tricyclic antidepressants.

The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.

ANS: B UAP education includes measurement of vital signs. UAP would report the vital signs to the registered nurse (RN). The other actions require more education and a larger scope of practice and should be done by licensed nursing staff members

28. The nurse is planning to administer a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a patient with blood loss from gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Verify the patient identification (ID) according to hospital policy. b. Obtain the temperature, blood pressure, and pulse before the transfusion. c. Double-check the product numbers on the PRBCs with the patient ID band. d. Monitor the patient for shortness of breath or chest pain during the transfusion.

7. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should a. assess for the presence of chest pain. b. inquire about urinary tract problems. c. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration. d. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

ANS: B Urinary tract problems with incontinence or retention are common symptoms of MS. Chest pain and skin rashes are not symptoms of MS. A decrease in libido is common with MS. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1429 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A 56-yr-old patient who is disoriented and reports a headache and muscle cramps is hospitalized with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include a(n) a. elevated hematocrit. b. decreased serum sodium. c. increased serum chloride. d. low urine specific gravity.

ANS: B When water is retained, the serum sodium level will drop below normal, causing the clinical manifestations reported by the patient. The hematocrit will decrease because of the dilution caused by water retention. Urine will be more concentrated with a higher specific gravity. The serum chloride level will usually decrease along with the sodium level.

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet c. Fresh strawberries b. Blueberry yogurt d. Cream cheese bagel

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 261 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. The nurse is planning postoperative care for a patient who is being admitted to the surgical unit from the recovery room after transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary tumor. Which nursing action should be included? a. Palpate extremities for edema. b. Measure urine volume every hour. c. Check hematocrit every 2 hours for 8 hours. d. Monitor continuous pulse oximetry for 24 hours.

ANS: B After pituitary surgery, the patient is at risk for diabetes insipidus caused by cerebral edema. Monitoring of urine output and urine specific gravity is essential. Hemorrhage is not a common problem. There is no need to check the hematocrit hourly. The patient is at risk for dehydration, not volume overload. The patient is not at high risk for problems with oxygenation, and continuous pulse oximetry is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) TOP: Nursing Process: Planning REF: 1159 MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. A patient who had radical neck surgery to remove a malignant tumor developed hypoparathyroidism. The nurse should plan to teach the patient about a. bisphosphonates to reduce bone demineralization. b. calcium supplements to normalize serum calcium levels. c. increasing fluid intake to decrease risk for nephrolithiasis. d. including whole grains in the diet to prevent constipation.

ANS: B Oral calcium supplements are used to maintain the serum calcium in normal range and prevent the complications of hypocalcemia. Whole grain foods decrease calcium absorption and will not be recommended. Bisphosphonates will lower serum calcium levels further by preventing calcium from being reabsorbed from bone. Kidney stones are not a complication of hypoparathyroidism and low calcium levels.

16. A patient who was admitted with myxedema coma and diagnosed with hypothyroidism is improving. Discharge is expected to occur in 2 days. Which teaching strategy is likely to result in effective patient self-management at home? a. Delay teaching until closer to discharge date. b. Provide written reminders of information taught. c. Offer multiple options for management of therapies. d. Ensure privacy for teaching by asking the family to leave.

ANS: B Written instructions will be helpful to the patient because initially the hypothyroid patient may be unable to remember to take medications and other aspects of self-care. Because the treatment regimen is somewhat complex, teaching should be initiated well before discharge. Family members or friends should be included in teaching because the hypothyroid patient is likely to forget some aspects of the treatment plan. A simpler regimen will be easier to understand until the patient is euthyroid.

Molecular cytogenis and gene analysis may be done to diagnose, stage, and help to determine tx options for various hematologic disorders. Which sites are preferred to obtain the sample for this testing? (Select all that apply). a. Skin sample b. Lymph node c. Bone marrow d. Arterial blood e. Inner cheek mucosa

ANS: B, C b. Lymph node c. Bone marrow Bone marrow and lymph node biopsies are preferred methods to obtain the sample for gene analysis. If a large number of abnormal cells are circulating in the blood, peripheral blood may be used. The other options will not provide the desired information.

1. To monitor for complications in a patient with type 2 diabetes, which tests will the nurse in the diabetic clinic schedule at least annually (select all that apply)? a. Chest x-ray b. Blood pressure c. Serum creatinine d. Urine for microalbuminuria e. Complete blood count (CBC) f. Monofilament testing of the foot

ANS: B, C, D, F Blood pressure, serum creatinine, urine testing for microalbuminuria, and monofilament testing of the foot are recommended at least annually to screen for possible microvascular and macrovascular complications of diabetes. Chest x-ray and CBC might be ordered if the diabetic patient presents with symptoms of respiratory or infectious problems but are not routinely included in screening.

A patient's complete blood count (CBC) shows a hemoglobin of 19 g/dL and a hematocrit of 54%. Which question should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding? a. "Have you had a recent weight loss?" b. "Do you have any history of lung disease?" c. "Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?" d. "What is your dietary intake of meats and protein?"

ANS: B. "Do you have any history of lung disease?" The hemoglobin and hematocrit results indicate polycythemia, which can be associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The other questions would be appropriate for patients who are anemic.

Laboratory test results indicated increased fibrin split products. An appropriate nursing action is to monitor the patient for: a. Fever b. Bleeding c. Faintness d. Thrombotic episodes

ANS: B. Bleeding During fibrinolysis by plasmin, the fibrin clot is split into smaller molecules known as FSPs or FDPs. Increased FSPs impair platelet aggregation, reduce prothrombin, prevent fibrin stabilization, and lead to bleeding.

A patient with pancytopenia has a bone marrow aspiration from the left posterior iliac crest. Which action would be important for the nurse to take after the procedure? a. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. b. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour. c. Apply a sterile 2-inch gauze dressing to the site. d. Use a half-inch sterile gauze to pack the wound.

ANS: B. Have the patient lie on the left side for 1 hour. To decrease the risk for bleeding, the patient should lie on the left side for 30 to 60 minutes. After a bone marrow biopsy, the wound is small and will not be packed with gauze. A pressure dressing is used to cover the aspiration site. There is no indication to elevate the patient's head.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes a patient's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level of 28 seconds. The nurse should notify the health care provider in anticipation of adjusting which medication? a. Aspirin b. Heparin c. Warfarin d. Erythropoietin

ANS: B. Heparin aPTT assesses intrinsic coagulation by measuring factors I, II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII. aPTT is increased (prolonged) in heparin administration. aPTT is used to monitor whether heparin is at a therapeutic level (needs to be greater than the normal range of 25 to 35 sec). Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are most commonly used to test for therapeutic levels of warfarin (Coumadin). Aspirin affects platelet function. Erythropoietin is used to stimulate red blood cell production.

A pt with a hematologic disorder has a smooth, shiny, red tongue. Which lab result would the nurse expect to see? a. Neutrophils 45% b. Hgb 9.6 g/dL c. WBC count 13,500/uL d. RBC count 6.4 x 10^6/uL

ANS: B. Hgb 9.6 g/dL A smooth, shiny, reddened tongue is an indication of iron-deficiency anemia or pernicious anemia that would be reflected by a decreased hemoglobin level. The decreased neutrophils would be indicative of neutropenia. The increased WBC count could be indicative of an infection and the increased RBC count of polycythemia.

During physical assessment of a pt with thrombocytopenia, what would the RN expect to find? a. Sternal tenderness b. Petechiae and purpura c. Jaundiced sclera and skin d. Tender, enlarged lymph nodes

ANS: B. Petechiae and purpura Petechiae are small, flat, red, or reddish-brown pinpoint microhemorrhages that occur on the skin when platelet levels are low. When petechiae are numerous, they group, cause reddish bruises known as purpura. Sternal tenderness is associated with leukemias. Jaundice occurs when anemia are of a hemolytic origin, resulting in accumulation of bile pigments from RBCs. Enlarged, tender lymph nodes are associated with infection or cancer.

Which information shown in the table below about a patient who has just arrived in the emergency department is most urgent for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? Assessment • BP 110/68 • Pulse 98 beats/min • Brisk capillary refill • Multiple ecchymoses on arms Complete Blood Count • Hgb 10.6 g/dL • Hct 30% • WBC 5100/µL • Platelets 19,500/µL Patient History • Occasional aspirin use • Abdominal pain x 1 week • Large, dark stool this morning a. Heart rate b. Platelet count c. Abdominal pain d. White blood cell count

ANS: B. Platelet count The platelet count is severely decreased and places the patient at risk for spontaneous bleeding. The other information is also pertinent but not as indicative of the need for rapid treatment as the platelet count.

If a patient with type O Rh+ is given AB Rh- blood, what would the nurse expect to happen? a. The patient's Rh factor will react with the RBCs of the donor blood. b. The anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the patient's blood will hemolyze the donor blood. c. The patient will experience a brief, very sharp pain during aspiration of the bone marrow. d. There will be no pain during the procedure, but an ache will be present several days afterwards.

ANS: B. The anti-A and anti-B antibodies in pts blood will hemolyze the donor blood A patient with type O Rh+ blood has no A or B antigens on the RBC, but does have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the blood and has an Rh antigen. Type AB Rh- blood has both A and B antigens on the RBC, but no Rh antigen and no anti-A or anti-B antibodies. If the type AB Rh- blood is given to the patient with type O Rh+ blood, the antibodies in the patient's blood will react with the antigens in the donor blood, causing hemolysis of the donor cells. There will be no Rh reaction because the donor blood has no Rh antigen.

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 238 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A diabetic patient is brought into the emergency department unresponsive. The arterial pH is 7.28. Besides the blood pH, which clinical manifestation is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and ketoacidosis? a. Oral temperature of 38.9° Celsius b. Severe orthostatic hypotension c. Increased rate and depth of respiration d. Extremity tremors followed by seizure activity

ANS: C Ketoacidosis decreases the pH of the blood, stimulating the respiratory control area of the brain to buffer the effects of the increasing acidosis. The rate and depth of respirations are increased (Kussmaul's respirations) to excrete more acids by exhalation. REF: 114 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium of 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and requires rapid treatment to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 263 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. The nurse associates which assessment finding in the diabetic patient with decreasing renal function? a. Ketone bodies in the urine during acidosis b. Glucose in the urine during hyperglycemia c. Protein in the urine during a random urinalysis d. White blood cells in the urine during a random urinalysis

ANS: C Urine should not contain protein. Proteinuria in a diabetic heralds the beginning of renal insufficiency or diabetic nephropathy with subsequent progression to end stage renal disease. Chronic elevated blood glucose levels can cause renal hypertension and excess kidney perfusion with leakage from the renal vasculature. This leaking allows protein to be filtered into the urine. REF: 116-117 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

A patient with a large stomach tumor attached to the liver is scheduled for a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Decreasing the tumor size will improve the effects of other therapy. d. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue.

ANS: C A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 245 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

ANS: C Administration of subcutaneous medications is included in LPN/LVN education and scope of practice. Patient education, assessment, and developing the plan of care require RN level education and scope of practice

37. Which action for a patient with neutropenia is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection b. Teaching the patient the purpose of neutropenic precautions c. Administering subcutaneous filgrastim (Neupogen) injection d. Developing a discharge teaching plan for the patient and family

31. The nurse is caring for a patient following an adrenalectomy. The highest priority in the immediate postoperative period is to: a. protect the patient's skin. b. monitor for signs of infection. c. balance fluids and electrolytes. d. prevent emotional disturbances.

ANS: C After adrenalectomy, the patient is at risk for circulatory instability caused by fluctuating hormone levels, and the focus of care is to assess and maintain fluid and electrolyte status through the use of IV fluids and corticosteroids. The other goals are also important for the patient but are not as immediately life threatening as the circulatory collapse that can occur with fluid and electrolyte disturbances.

30. A patient has just arrived on the unit after a thyroidectomy. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Observe the dressing for bleeding. b. Check the blood pressure and pulse. c. Assess the patient's respiratory effort. d. Support the patient's head with pillows.

ANS: C Airway obstruction is a possible complication after thyroidectomy because of swelling or bleeding at the site or tetany. The priority nursing action is to assess the airway. The other actions are also part of the standard nursing care postthyroidectomy but are not as high of a priority.

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about the management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching." b. "I will scrub the area with warm water." c. "I can buy aloe vera gel to use on my skin." d. "I will expose my skin to a sun lamp each day."

ANS: C Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 255 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. After a patient with a pituitary adenoma has had a hypophysectomy, the nurse will teach about the need for a. sodium restriction to prevent fluid retention. b. insulin to maintain normal blood glucose levels. c. oral corticosteroids to replace endogenous cortisol. d. chemotherapy to prevent malignant tumor recurrence.

ANS: C Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), cortisol, and thyroid hormone replacement will be needed for life after hypophysectomy. Without the effects of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cortisol, the blood glucose and serum sodium will be low unless cortisol is replaced. An adenoma is a benign tumor, and chemotherapy will not be needed.

46. When a patient with splenomegaly is scheduled for splenectomy, which action will the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care? a. Discourage deep breathing to reduce risk for splenic rupture. b. Teach the patient to use ibuprofen (Advil) for left upper quadrant pain. c. Schedule immunization with the pneumococcal vaccine (Pneumovax). d. Avoid the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for 2 weeks prior to surgery.

ANS: C Asplenic patients are at high risk for infection with Pneumococcus and immunization reduces this risk. There is no need to avoid acetaminophen use before surgery, but nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may increase bleeding risk and should be avoided. The enlarged spleen may decrease respiratory depth and the patient should be encouraged to take deep breaths

When a patient with splenomegaly is scheduled for splenectomy, which action will the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care? a. Discourage deep breathing to reduce risk for splenic rupture. b. Teach the patient to use ibuprofen (Advil) for left upper quadrant pain. c. Schedule immunization with the pneumococcal vaccine (Pneumovax). d. Avoid the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for 2 weeks prior to surgery.

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 35-yr-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. A 42-yr-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. A 24-yr-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. A 56-yr-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 263 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

4. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states, "I a. need to start eating more red meat and liver." b. will stop having a glass of wine with dinner." c. could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." d. will need to take a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole (Prilosec)."

ANS: C Because pernicious anemia prevents the absorption of vitamin B12, this patient requires injections or intranasal administration of cobalamin. Alcohol use does not cause cobalamin deficiency. Proton pump inhibitors decrease the absorption of vitamin B12. Eating more foods rich in vitamin B12 is not helpful because the lack of intrinsic factor prevents absorption of the vitamin.

A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states, "I a. need to start eating more red meat and liver." b. will stop having a glass of wine with dinner." c. could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12." d. will need to take a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole (Prilosec)."

Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make regarding a patient with myasthenia gravis? a. Pupil size b. Grip strength c. Respiratory effort d. Level of consciousness

ANS: C Because respiratory insufficiency may be life threatening, it will be most important to monitor respiratory function. The other data also will be assessed but are not as critical. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1438-1439 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which assessment finding alerts the nurse to provide patient teaching about cataract development? a. History of hyperthyroidism b. Unequal pupil size and shape c. Blurred vision and light sensitivity d. Loss of peripheral vision in both eyes

ANS: C Classic signs of cataracts include blurred vision and light sensitivity. Thyroid problems are a major cause of exophthalmos. Unequal pupil is indicative of anisocoria, not cataracts. Loss of peripheral vision is a sign of glaucoma

A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily b. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery c. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication d. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

ANS: C Copaxone is administered by self-injection. Oral contraceptives are an appropriate choice for birth control. There is no need to avoid driving or drink large fluid volumes when taking glatiramer. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1430 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with increased intracranial pressure after a head injury has a ventriculostomy in place. Which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who regularly work in the intensive care unit? a. Document intracranial pressure every hour. b. Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours. c. Check capillary blood glucose level every 6 hours. d. Monitor cerebrospinal fluid color and volume hourly.

ANS: C Experienced UAP can obtain capillary blood glucose levels when they have been trained and evaluated in the skill. Monitoring and documentation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) color and intracranial pressure (ICP) require registered nurse (RN)-level education and scope of practice. Although repositioning patients is frequently delegated to UAP, repositioning a patient with a ventriculostomy is complex and should be supervised by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

10. Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for the patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis? a. Take a daily multivitamin with iron. b. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day. c. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. d. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily.

ANS: C Exposure to crowds increases the patient's risk for infection, the most common cause of sickle cell crisis. There is no restriction on caffeine use. Iron supplementation is generally not recommended. A high-fluid intake is recommended

Which instruction will the nurse plan to include in discharge teaching for the patient admitted with a sickle cell crisis? a. Take a daily multivitamin with iron. b. Limit fluids to 2 to 3 quarts per day. c. Avoid exposure to crowds when possible. d. Drink only two caffeinated beverages daily.

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics may also be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 264 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. Which statement by a nurse to a patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is correct? a. Insulin is not used to control blood glucose in patients with type 2 diabetes. b. Complications of type 2 diabetes are less serious than those of type 1 diabetes. c. Changes in diet and exercise may control blood glucose levels in type 2 diabetes. d. Type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed when the patient is admitted with a hyperglycemic coma.

ANS: C For some patients with type 2 diabetes, changes in lifestyle are sufficient to achieve blood glucose control. Insulin is frequently used for type 2 diabetes, complications are equally severe as for type 1 diabetes, and type 2 diabetes is usually diagnosed with routine laboratory testing or after a patient develops complications such as frequent yeast infections.

17. When a patient who takes metformin (Glucophage) to manage type 2 diabetes develops an allergic rash from an unknown cause, the health care provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone). The nurse will anticipate that the patient may a. need a diet higher in calories while receiving prednisone. b. develop acute hypoglycemia while taking the prednisone. c. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. d. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions.

ANS: C Glucose levels increase when patients are taking corticosteroids, and insulin may be required to control blood glucose. Hypoglycemia is not a side effect of prednisone. Rashes are not an adverse effect caused by taking metformin and prednisone simultaneously. The patient may have an increased appetite when taking prednisone, but will not need a diet that is higher in calories.

23. The health care provider suspects the Somogyi effect in a 50-year-old patient whose 6:00 AM blood glucose is 230 mg/dL. Which action will the nurse teach the patient to take? a. Avoid snacking at bedtime. b. Increase the rapid-acting insulin dose. c. Check the blood glucose during the night d. Administer a larger dose of long-acting insulin.

ANS: C If the Somogyi effect is causing the patient's increased morning glucose level, the patient will experience hypoglycemia between 2:00 and 4:00 AM. The dose of insulin will be reduced, rather than increased. A bedtime snack is used to prevent hypoglycemic episodes during the night.

22. A 26-year-old female with type 1 diabetes develops a sore throat and runny nose after caring for her sick toddler. The patient calls the clinic for advice about her symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL despite taking her usual glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin. The nurse advises the patient to a. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms are resolved. b. limit intake of calories until the glucose is less than 120 mg/dL. c. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. d. decrease intake of carbohydrates until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%.

ANS: C Infection and other stressors increase blood glucose levels and the patient will need to test blood glucose frequently, treat elevations appropriately with lispro insulin, and call the health care provider if glucose levels continue to be elevated. Discontinuing the glargine will contribute to hyperglycemia and may lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Decreasing carbohydrate or caloric intake is not appropriate because the patient will need more calories when ill. Glycosylated hemoglobin testing is not used to evaluate short-term alterations in blood glucose.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with stage I colon cancer. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

When a brain-injured patient responds to nail bed pressure with internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms, the nurse reports the response as a. flexion withdrawal. c. decorticate posturing. b. localization of pain. d. decerebrate posturing.

ANS: C Internal rotation, adduction, and flexion of the arms in an unconscious patient is documented as decorticate posturing. Extension of the arms and legs is decerebrate posturing. Because the flexion is generalized, it does not indicate localization of pain or flexion withdrawal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

A 65-year-old patient is being evaluated for glaucoma. Which information given by the patient has implications for the patient's treatment? a. "I use aspirin when I have a sinus headache." b. "I have had frequent episodes of conjunctivitis." c. "I take metoprolol (Lopressor) daily for angina." d. "I have not had an eye examination for 10 years."

ANS: C It is important to note whether the patient takes any b-adrenergic blockers because this classification of medications is also used to treat glaucoma, and there may be an increase in adverse effects. The use of aspirin does not increase intraocular pressure and is safe for patients with glaucoma. Although older patients should have yearly eye examinations, the treatment for this patient will not be affected by the 10-year gap in eye care. Conjunctivitis does not increase the risk for glaucoma

39. When a patient with type 2 diabetes is admitted for a cholecystectomy, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Communicate the blood glucose level and insulin dose to the circulating nurse in surgery. b. Discuss the reason for the use of insulin therapy during the immediate postoperative period. c. Administer the prescribed lispro (Humalog) insulin before transporting the patient to surgery. d. Plan strategies to minimize the risk for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia during the postoperative period.

ANS: C LPN/LVN education and scope of practice includes administration of insulin. Communication about patient status with other departments, planning, and patient teaching are skills that require RN education and scope of practice.

The nurse has administered prescribed IV mannitol (Osmitrol) to an unconscious patient. Which parameter should the nurse monitor to determine the medication's effectiveness? a. Blood pressure c. Intracranial pressure b. Oxygen saturation d. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

ANS: C Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic and will reduce cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. It may initially reduce hematocrit and increase blood pressure, but these are not the best parameters for evaluation of the effectiveness of the drug. O2 saturation will not directly improve as a result of mannitol administration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

10. Which information will the nurse teach a patient who has been newly diagnosed with Graves' disease? a. Exercise is contraindicated to avoid increasing metabolic rate. b. Restriction of iodine intake is needed to reduce thyroid activity. c. Antithyroid medications may take several months for full effect. d. Surgery will eventually be required to remove the thyroid gland.

ANS: C Medications used to block the synthesis of thyroid hormones may take 2 to 3 months before the full effect is seen. Large doses of iodine are used to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Exercise using large muscle groups is encouraged to decrease the irritability and hyperactivity associated with high levels of thyroid hormones. Radioactive iodine is the most common treatment for Graves' disease, although surgery may be used.

The process of digestion is important for every living organism for the purpose of nourishment. Where does most digestion take place in the body? a. Large intestine b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Pancreas

ANS: C Most digestion takes place in the small intestine. The main function of the large intestine is water absorption. The pancreas contains digestive enzymes; the stomach secrets hydrochloric acid to assist with food breakdown.

8. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction when the patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes says which of the following? a. "I can have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan." b. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin." c. "I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories." d. "I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry."

ANS: C Most patients with type 1 diabetes need to plan diet choices very carefully. Patients who are using intensified insulin therapy have considerable flexibility in diet choices but still should restrict dietary intake of items such as fat, protein, and alcohol. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of the diet instruction.

9. An expected patient problem for a patient admitted to the hospital with symptoms of diabetes insipidus is a. excess fluid volume related to intake greater than output. b. impaired gas exchange related to fluid retention in lungs. c. sleep pattern disturbance related to frequent waking to void. d. risk for impaired skin integrity related to generalized edema.

ANS: C Nocturia occurs as a result of the polyuria caused by diabetes insipidus. Edema, excess fluid volume, and fluid retention are not expected.

The nurse recording health histories in the outpatient clinic would plan a focused hearing assessment for adult patients taking which medication? a. Atenolol (Tenormin) taken to prevent angina b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) taken frequently for headaches c. Ibuprofen (Advil) taken for 20 years to treat osteoarthritis d. Albuterol (Proventil) taken since childhood to treat asthma

ANS: C Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are potentially ototoxic. Acetaminophen, atenolol, and albuterol are not associated with hearing loss

Which action should the nurse take when providing patient teaching to a 76-year-old with mild presbycusis? a. Use patient education handouts rather than discussion. b. Use a higher-pitched tone of voice to provide instructions. c. Ask for permission to turn off the television before teaching d. Wait until family members have left before initiating teaching.

ANS: C Normal changes with aging make it more difficult for older patients to filter out unwanted sounds, so a quiet environment should be used for teaching. Loss of sensitivity for high-pitched tones is lost with presbycusis. Because the patient has mild presbycusis, the nurse should use both discussion and handouts. There is no need to wait until family members have left to provide patient teaching

23. A 54-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with a treatment decision is to a. emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. b. discuss the need for adequate insurance to cover post-HSCT care. c. ask the patient whether there are any questions or concerns about HSCT. d. explain that a cure is not possible with any other treatment except HSCT.

ANS: C Offering the patient an opportunity to ask questions or discuss concerns about HSCT will encourage the patient to voice concerns about this treatment and also will allow the nurse to assess whether the patient needs more information about the procedure. Treatment of AML using chemotherapy is another option for the patient. It is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the patient to consider insurance needs in making this decision.

A 54-year-old woman with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is considering treatment with a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The best approach for the nurse to assist the patient with a treatment decision is to a. emphasize the positive outcomes of a bone marrow transplant. b. discuss the need for adequate insurance to cover post-HSCT care. c. ask the patient whether there are any questions or concerns about HSCT. d. explain that a cure is not possible with any other treatment except HSCT.

31. A 26-year-old patient with diabetes rides a bicycle to and from work every day. Which site should the nurse teach the patient to administer the morning insulin? a. thigh. b. buttock. c. abdomen. d. upper arm.

ANS: C Patients should be taught not to administer insulin into a site that will be exercised because exercise will increase the rate of absorption. The thigh, buttock, and arm are all exercised by riding a bicycle.

When the nurse is taking a health history of a new patient at the ear clinic, the patient states, "I have to sleep with the television on." Which follow-up question is most appropriate to obtain more information about possible hearing problems? a. "Do you grind your teeth at night?" b. "What time do you usually fall asleep?" c. "Have you noticed ringing in your ears?" d. "Are you ever dizzy when you are lying down?"

ANS: C Patients with tinnitus may use masking techniques, such as playing a radio, to block out the ringing in the ears. The responses "Do you grind your teeth at night?" and "Are you ever dizzy when you are lying down?" would be used to obtain information about other ear problems, such as vestibular disorders and referred temporomandibular joint (TMJ) pain. The response "What time do you usually fall asleep?" would not be helpful in assessing problems with the patient's ears

21. A patient is being admitted with a diagnosis of Cushing syndrome. Which findings will the nurse expect during the assessment? a. Chronically low blood pressure b. Bronzed appearance of the skin c. Purplish streaks on the abdomen d. Decreased axillary and pubic hair

ANS: C Purplish-red striae on the abdomen are a common clinical manifestation of Cushing syndrome. Hypotension and bronzed-appearing skin are manifestations of Addison's disease. Decreased axillary and pubic hair occur with androgen deficiency.

42. After the nurse has finished teaching a patient who has a new prescription for exenatide (Byetta), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I may feel hungrier than usual when I take this medicine." b. "I will not need to worry about hypoglycemia with the Byetta." c. "I should take my daily aspirin at least an hour before the Byetta." d. "I will take the pill at the same time I eat breakfast in the morning."

ANS: C Since exenatide slows gastric emptying, oral medications should be taken at least an hour before the exenatide to avoid slowing absorption. Exenatide is injected and increases feelings of satiety. Hypoglycemia can occur with this medication.

29. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? a. Encourage fluids to 2 to 3 L/day. b. Monitor for increasing peripheral edema. c. Offer the patient hard candies to suck on. d. Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees.

ANS: C Sucking on hard candies decreases thirst for a patient on fluid restriction. Patients with SIADH are on fluid restrictions of 800 to 1000 mL/day. Peripheral edema is not seen with SIADH. The head of the bed is elevated no more than 10 degrees to increase left atrial filling pressure and decrease antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release.

The charge nurse observes an inexperienced staff nurse caring for a patient who has had a craniotomy for resection of a brain tumor. Which action by the inexperienced nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. The staff nurse assesses neurologic status every hour. b. The staff nurse elevates the head of the bed to 30 degrees. c. The staff nurse suctions the patient routinely every 2 hours. d. The staff nurse administers an analgesic before turning the patient.

ANS: C Suctioning increases intracranial pressure and should only be done when the patient's respiratory condition indicates it is needed. The other actions by the staff nurse are appropriate. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

43. Which information obtained by the nurse in the endocrine clinic about a patient who has been taking prednisone 40 mg daily for 3 weeks is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient's blood pressure is 148/94 mm Hg. b. Patient has bilateral 2+ pitting ankle edema. c. Patient stopped taking the medication 2 days ago. d. Patient has not been taking the prescribed vitamin D.

ANS: C Sudden cessation of corticosteroids after taking the medication for a week or more can lead to adrenal insufficiency, with problems such as severe hypotension and hypoglycemia. The patient will need immediate evaluation by the health care provider to prevent or treat adrenal insufficiency. The other information will also be reported but does not require rapid treatment.

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/μL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/μL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 253 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Which information about a 30-yr-old patient who is hospitalized after a traumatic brain injury requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Intracranial pressure of 15 mm Hg b. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) drainage of 25 mL/hr c. Pressure of oxygen in brain tissue (PbtO2) is 14 mm Hg d. Cardiac monitor shows sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/minute

ANS: C The PbtO2 should be 20 to 40 mm Hg. Lower levels indicate brain ischemia. An intracranial pressure (ICP) of 15 mm Hg is at the upper limit of normal. CSF is produced at a rate of 20 to 30 mL/hr. The reason for the sinus tachycardia should be investigated, but the elevated heart rate is not as concerning as the decrease in PbtO2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea c. Hematuria b. Alopecia d. Xerostomia

ANS: C The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 252 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

42. Which finding about a patient with polycythemia vera is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 55% b. Presence of plethora c. Calf swelling and pain d. Platelet count 450,000/L

ANS: C The calf swelling and pain suggest that the patient may have developed a deep vein thrombosis, which will require diagnosis and treatment to avoid complications such as pulmonary embolus. The other findings will also be reported to the health care provider but are expected in a patient with this diagnosis.

Which finding about a patient with polycythemia vera is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 55% b. Presence of plethora c. Calf swelling and pain d. Platelet count 450,000/L

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a head injury and fractured right arm after being assaulted. Which assessment information requires rapid action by the nurse? a. The apical pulse is slightly irregular. b. The patient complains of a headache. c. The patient is more difficult to arouse. d. The blood pressure (BP) increases to 140/62 mm Hg.

ANS: C The change in level of consciousness (LOC) is an indicator of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and suggests that action by the nurse is needed to prevent complications. The change in BP should be monitored but is not an indicator of a need for immediate nursing action. Headache and a slightly irregular apical pulse are not unusual in a patient after a head injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

43. A few weeks after an 82-year-old with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been placed on metformin (Glucophage) therapy and taught about appropriate diet and exercise, the home health nurse makes a visit. Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the health care provider? a. Hemoglobin A1C level is 7.9%. b. Last eye exam was 18 months ago. c. Glomerular filtration rate is decreased. d. Patient has questions about the prescribed diet.

ANS: C The decrease in renal function may indicate a need to adjust the dose of metformin or change to a different medication. In older patients, the goal for A1C may be higher in order to avoid complications associated with hypoglycemia. The nurse will plan on scheduling the patient for an eye exam and addressing the questions about diet, but the biggest concern is the patient's decreased renal function.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has thalassemia major? a. Teach the patient to use iron supplements. b. Avoid the use of intramuscular injections. c. Administer iron chelation therapy as needed. d. Notify health care provider of hemoglobin 11g/dL.

ANS: C The frequent transfusions used to treat thalassemia major lead to iron toxicity in patients unless iron chelation therapy is consistently used. Iron supplementation is avoided in patients with thalassemia. There is no need to avoid intramuscular injections. The goal for patients with thalassemia major is to maintain a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL or greater

40. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has thalassemia major? a. Teach the patient to use iron supplements. b. Avoid the use of intramuscular injections. c. Administer iron chelation therapy as needed. d. Notify health care provider of hemoglobin 11g/dL.

A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors do not metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 240 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An unconscious patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) with a head injury. The patient's spouse and teenage children stay at the patient's side and ask many questions about the treatment being given. What action is best for the nurse to take? a. Call the family's pastor or spiritual advisor to take them to the chapel. b. Ask the family to stay in the waiting room until the assessment is completed. c. Allow the family to stay with the patient and briefly explain all procedures to them. d. Refer the family members to the hospital counseling service to deal with their anxiety.

ANS: C The need for information about the diagnosis and care is very high in family members of acutely ill patients. The nurse should allow the family to observe care and explain the procedures unless they interfere with emergent care needs. A pastor or counseling service can offer some support, but research supports information as being more effective. Asking the family to stay in the waiting room will increase their anxiety. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action would address the cause of the patient problem? a. Add protein powder to foods such as casseroles. b. Tell the patient to eat foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add spices to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding protein powder does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 262 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who is unconscious has ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion and cerebral tissue swelling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. b. Position the patient with knees and hips flexed. c. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees. d. Cluster nursing interventions to provide rest periods.

ANS: C The patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) should be maintained in the head-up position to help reduce ICP. Extreme flexion of the hips and knees increases abdominal pressure, which increases ICP. Because the stimulation associated with nursing interventions increases ICP, clustering interventions will progressively elevate ICP. Coughing increases intrathoracic pressure and ICP. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

36. A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which physician order will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.

ANS: C The patient's blood pressure indicates hypovolemia caused by blood loss and should be addressed immediately to improve perfusion to vital organs. The other actions also are appropriate and should be rapidly implemented, but improving perfusion is the priority for this patient.

A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which physician order will the nurse implement first? a. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg. c. Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. d. Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.

29. A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take? a. Draw blood for a new crossmatch. b. Send a urine specimen to the laboratory. c. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Give the PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with a febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped and antipyretics administered for the fever as ordered. A urine specimen is needed if an acute hemolytic reaction is suspected. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used for allergic reactions. This type of reaction does not indicate incorrect crossmatching

A postoperative patient receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells develops chills, fever, headache, and anxiety 35 minutes after the transfusion is started. After stopping the transfusion, what action should the nurse take? a. Draw blood for a new crossmatch. b. Send a urine specimen to the laboratory. c. Administer PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. Give the PRN diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

36. A patient who was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis secondary to a urinary tract infection has been weaned off an insulin drip 30 minutes ago. The patient reports feeling lightheaded and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse dextrose 50% by slow IV push. b. Administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously. c. Obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. d. Have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with hypoglycemia and the initial action should be to check the patient's glucose with a finger stick or order a stat blood glucose. If the glucose is low, the patient should ingest a rapid-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. Glucagon or dextrose 50% might be given if the patient's symptoms become worse or if the patient is unconscious.

46. After change-of-shift report, which patient will the nurse assess first? a. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon b. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL c. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa d. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain

ANS: C The patient's diagnosis of HHS and signs of dehydration indicate that the nurse should rapidly assess for signs of shock and determine whether increased fluid infusion is needed. The other patients also need assessment and intervention but do not have life-threatening complications.

2. A 48-year-old male patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. self-monitoring of blood glucose. b. using low doses of regular insulin. c. lifestyle changes to lower blood glucose. d. effects of oral hypoglycemic medications.

ANS: C The patient's impaired fasting glucose indicates prediabetes, and the patient should be counseled about lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes. The patient with prediabetes does not require insulin or oral hypoglycemics for glucose control and does not need to self-monitor blood glucose.

45. After obtaining the information shown in the accompanying figure regarding a patient with Addison's disease, which prescribed action will the nurse take first? a. Give 4 oz of fruit juice orally. b. Recheck the blood glucose level. c. Infuse 5% dextrose and 0.9% saline. d. Administer O2 therapy as needed.

ANS: C The patient's poor skin turgor, hypotension, and hyponatremia indicate an Addisonian crisis. Immediate correction of the hypovolemia and hyponatremia is needed. The other actions may also be needed but are not the initial action for the patient.

34. Which assessment finding for a 33-yr-old female patient admitted with Graves' disease requires the most rapid intervention by the nurse? a. Heart rate 136 beats/min b. Severe bilateral exophthalmos c. Temperature 103.8° F (40.4° C) d. Blood pressure 166/100 mm Hg

ANS: C The patient's temperature indicates that the patient may have thyrotoxic crisis and that interventions to lower the temperature are needed immediately. The other findings also require intervention but do not indicate potentially life-threatening complications.

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "I will need follow-up examinations for many years after treatment before I can be considered cured." d. "Cancer is never cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation."

ANS: C The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 243 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. A 62-yr-old patient with hyperthyroidism is to be treated with radioactive iodine (RAI). The nurse instructs the patient a. about radioactive precautions to take with all body secretions. b. that symptoms of hyperthyroidism should be relieved in about a week. c. that symptoms of hypothyroidism may occur as the RAI therapy takes effect. d. to discontinue the antithyroid medications taken before the radioactive therapy.

ANS: C There is a high incidence of postradiation hypothyroidism after RAI, and the patient should be monitored for symptoms of hypothyroidism. RAI has a delayed response, with the maximum effect not seen for 2 to 3 months, and the patient will continue to take antithyroid medications during this time. The therapeutic dose of radioactive iodine is low enough that no radiation safety precautions are needed.

2. A patient is scheduled for transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to treat a pituitary adenoma. During preoperative teaching, the nurse instructs the patient about the need to: a. cough and deep breathe every 2 hours postoperatively. b. remain on bed rest for the first 48 hours after the surgery. c. avoid brushing teeth for at least 10 days after the surgery. d. be positioned flat with sandbags at the head postoperatively.

ANS: C To avoid disruption of the suture line, the patient should avoid brushing the teeth for 10 days after surgery. It is not necessary to remain on bed rest after this surgery. Coughing is discouraged because it may cause leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the suture line. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 degrees to reduce pressure on the sella turcica and decrease the risk for headaches. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation REF: 1159

29. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider before a patient with type 2 diabetes is prepared for a coronary angiogram? a. The patient's most recent HbA1C was 6.5%. b. The patient's admission blood glucose is 128 mg/dL. c. The patient took the prescribed metformin (Glucophage) today. d. The patient took the prescribed captopril (Capoten) this morning.

ANS: C To avoid lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued a day or 2 before the coronary arteriogram and should not be used for 48 hours after IV contrast media are administered. The other patient data will also be reported but do not indicate any need to reschedule the procedure.

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting after each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient a glass of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The charge nurse must intervene immediately if observing a nurse who is caring for a patient with vestibular disease a. speaking slowly to the patient. b. facing the patient directly when speaking. c. encouraging the patient to ambulate independently. d. administering Rinne and Weber tests to the patient.

ANS: C Vestibular disease affects balance, so the nurse should monitor the patient during activities that require balance. The other actions might be used for patients with hearing disorders

4. The nurse is assessing a 22-year-old patient experiencing the onset of symptoms of type 1 diabetes. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask? a. "Are you anorexic?" b. "Is your urine dark colored?" c. "Have you lost weight lately?" d. "Do you crave sugary drinks?"

ANS: C Weight loss occurs because the body is no longer able to absorb glucose and starts to break down protein and fat for energy. The patient is thirsty but does not necessarily crave sugar-containing fluids. Increased appetite is a classic symptom of type 1 diabetes. With the classic symptom of polyuria, urine will be very dilute.

15. An 82-yr-old patient in a long-term care facility is newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The nurse will need to consult with the health care provider before administering the prescribed a. docusate (Colace). b. ibuprofen (Motrin). c. diazepam (Valium). d. cefoxitin (Mefoxin).

ANS: C Worsening of mental status and myxedema coma can be precipitated by the use of sedatives, especially in older adults. The nurse should discuss the use of diazepam with the health care provider before administration. The other medications may be given safely to the patient.

The nurse assesses a patient who has numerous petechiae on both arms. Which question should the nurse ask the patient? a. "Are you taking any oral contraceptives?" b. "Have you been prescribed antiseizure drugs?" c. "Do you take medication containing salicylates?" d. "How long have you taken antihypertensive drugs?"

ANS: C. "Do you take medication containing salicylates?" Salicylates interfere with platelet function and can lead to petechiae and ecchymoses. Antiseizure drugs may cause anemia but not clotting disorders or bleeding. Oral contraceptives increase a person's clotting risk. Antihypertensives do not usually cause problems with decreased clotting.

A patient who had a total hip replacement had an intraoperative hemorrhage 14 hours ago. Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect? a. Hematocrit of 46% b. Hemoglobin of 13.8 g/dL c. Elevated reticulocyte count d. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count

ANS: C. Elevated reticulocyte count Hemorrhage causes the release of reticulocytes (immature red blood cells) from the bone marrow into circulation. The hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are normal. The WBC count is not affected by bleeding.

The health care provider's progress note for a patient states that the complete blood count (CBC) shows a "shift to the left." Which assessment finding will the nurse expect? a. Cool extremities b. Pallor and weakness c. Elevated temperature d. Low oxygen saturation

ANS: C. Elevated temperature The term "shift to the left" indicates that the number of immature polymorphonuclear neutrophils (bands) is elevated and that finding is a sign of infection. There is no indication that the patient is at risk for hypoxemia, pallor or weakness, or cool extremities.

The nurse notes pallor of the skin and nail beds in a newly admitted patient. The nurse should ensure that which laboratory test has been ordered? a. Platelet count b. Neutrophil count c. Hemoglobin level d. White blood cell count

ANS: C. Hemoglobin level Pallor of the skin or nail beds is indicative of anemia, which would be indicated by a low Hgb level. Platelet counts indicate a person's clotting ability. A neutrophil is a type of white blood cell that helps to fight infection.

The nurse assesses a patient with pernicious anemia. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Yellow-tinged sclerae b. Shiny, smooth tongue c. Numbness of the extremities d. Gum bleeding and tenderness

ANS: C. Numbness of the extremities Extremity numbness is associated with cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency or pernicious anemia. Loss of the papillae of the tongue occurs with chronic iron deficiency. Yellow-tinged sclera is associated with hemolytic anemia and the resulting jaundice. Gum bleeding and tenderness occur with thrombocytopenia or neutropenia.

The pt's lab results show a marked decrease in RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. What term should the RN use when reporting the results to HCP? a. Hemolysis b. Leukopenia c. Pancytopenia d. Thrombocytosis

ANS: C. Pancytopenia Pancytopenia is decreased RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. Hemolysis is RBC destruction. Leukopenia is WBC <4,000/ul. Thrombocytosis is increased platelets, and thrombocytopenia is decreased platelets.

When reviewing the results of an 83 y/o pt.'s diagnostic studies, which finding would be of the MOST concern to the nurse? a. Platelets 150,000/uL b. Serum iron 50 mcg/dL c. Partial thromboplastin time 60 seconds d. ESR 35 mm in 1 hour

ANS: C. Partial thromboplastin time 60 seconds As a person ages the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is normally decreased, so an abnormally high PTT of 60 seconds is an indication that bleeding could readily occur. Platelets are unaffected by aging and 150,000/ul is a normal count. Serum iron levels are decreased and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is significantly increased with aging, as are reflected in these values.

A patient is being treated with chemotherapy. The nurse revises the pt's care plan based on which result? a. WBC count 4000/uL b. RBC count 4.3x10^6/uL c. Platelets 50,000/uL d. Hematocrit 39%

ANS: C. Platelets 50,000/uL Any platelet count <150,000/ul is considered thrombocytopenia and could place the patient at risk for bleeding, necessitating special consideration in nursing care. Chemotherapy may cause bone marrow suppression and a depletion of all blood cells. The other factors are all within normal range.

An increase in which blood cell indicates an increased rate of erythropoiesis? a. Basophil b. Monocyte c. Reticulocyte d. Lymphocyte

ANS: C. Reticulocyte Increased reticulocytes, or immature RBCs, indicate an increased rate of erythropoiesis or stimulation of erythrocyte (RBC) production by the bone marrow. Basophils are stimulated by granulocyte colony-stimulating factor in response to an antigen or by tissue injury. Monocytes and lymphocytes respond to tissue injury, including infection.

When teaching a pt about bone marrow examination, what should the nurse explain? a. The procedure will be done under general anesthesia because it is so painful. b. The patient will not have any pain after the area at the puncture site is anesthetized. c. The patient will experience a brief, very sharp pain during aspiration of the bone marrow. d. There will be no pain during the procedure, but an ache will be present several days afterwards.

ANS: C. The pt will experience a brief very sharp pain during aspiration of the bone marrow The aspiration of bone marrow content is done with local anesthesia at the site of the puncture, but the aspiration causes a suction pain that is quite painful, but very brief. There generally is only residual soreness following the test.

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition but would not be as helpful for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 254 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. The nurse recognizes which patient as having the greatest risk for undiagnosed diabetes mellitus? a. Young white man b. Middle-aged African-American man c. Young African-American woman d. Middle-aged Native American woman

ANS: D The highest incidence of diabetes in the United States occurs in Native Americans. With age, the incidence of diabetes increases in all races and ethnic groups. REF: 114 OBJ: NCLEX® Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity

The nurse performing an eye examination will document normal findings for accommodation when a. shining a light into the patient's eye causes pupil constriction in the opposite eye. b. a blink reaction follows touching the patient's pupil with a piece of sterile cotton. c. covering one eye for 1 minute and noting pupil constriction as the cover is removed. d. the pupils constrict while fixating on an object being moved closer to the patient's eyes.

ANS: D Accommodation is defined as the ability of the lens to adjust to various distances. The pupils constrict while fixating on an object being moved far away to near the eyes. The other responses may also be elicited as part of the eye examination, but they do not indicate accommodation

A patient who has been receiving a heparin infusion and warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when her platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Use low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) only. b. Administer the warfarin (Coumadin) at the scheduled time. c. Teach the patient about the purpose of platelet transfusions. d. Discontinue heparin and flush intermittent IV lines using normal saline.

ANS: D All heparin is discontinued when the HIT is diagnosed. The patient should be instructed to never receive heparin or LMWH. Warfarin is usually not given until the platelet count has returned to 150,000/µL. The platelet count does not drop low enough in HIT for a platelet transfusion, and platelet transfusions increase the risk for thrombosis

12. A patient who has been receiving a heparin infusion and warfarin (Coumadin) for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) when her platelet level drops to 110,000/µL. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Use low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) only. b. Administer the warfarin (Coumadin) at the scheduled time. c. Teach the patient about the purpose of platelet transfusions. d. Discontinue heparin and flush intermittent IV lines using normal saline.

The nurse in the eye clinic is examining a 67-year-old patient who says "I see small spots that move around in front of my eyes." Which action will the nurse take first? a. Immediately have the ophthalmologist evaluate the patient. b. Explain that spots and "floaters" are a normal part of aging. c. Inform the patient that these spots may indicate retinal damage. d. Use an ophthalmoscope to examine the posterior eye chambers.

ANS: D Although "floaters" are usually caused by vitreous liquefaction and are common in aging patients, they can be caused by hemorrhage into the vitreous humor or by retinal tears, so the nurse's first action will be to examine the retina and posterior chamber. Although the ophthalmologist will examine the patient, the presence of spots or floaters in a 65-year-old is not an emergency. The spots may indicate retinal damage, but the nurse should assess the eye further before discussing this with the patient.

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in cancer therapy with the health care provider? a. Frequent loose stools b. Nausea and vomiting c. Elevated white blood count (WBC) d. Increased carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. Gastrointestinal adverse effects are common with chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy. An elevated WBC may indicate infection but does not reflect the effectiveness of the colorectal cancer therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 236 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient being admitted with bacterial meningitis has a temperature of 102.5° F (39.2° C) and a severe headache. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Administer ceftizoxime (Cefizox) 1 g IV. b. Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg PO. c. Use a cooling blanket to lower temperature. d. Swab the nasopharyngeal mucosa for cultures.

ANS: D Antibiotic therapy should be instituted rapidly in bacterial meningitis, but cultures must be done before antibiotics are started. As soon as the cultures are done, the antibiotic should be started. Hypothermia therapy and acetaminophen administration are appropriate but can be started after the other actions are implemented. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

Which is the correct point on the accompanying figure where the nurse will assess for ecchymosis when admitting a patient with a basilar skull fracture? a. A(eye) b. B(upper lip) c. C(ear) d. D(base of skull)

ANS: D Battle's sign (postauricular ecchymosis) and periorbital ecchymoses are associated with basilar skull fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension)

9. Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis? a. "Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling." b. "There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling." c. "Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis." d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."

ANS: D Because infection is the most common cause of a sickle cell crisis, influenza, Haemophilus influenzae, pneumococcal pneumonia, and hepatitis immunizations should be administered. Although continuous dose opioids and oxygen may be administered during a crisis, patients do not receive these therapies to prevent crisis. Hydroxyurea (Hydrea) is a medication used to decrease the number of sickle cell crises.

Which statement by a patient indicates good understanding of the nurse's teaching about prevention of sickle cell crisis? a. "Home oxygen therapy is frequently used to decrease sickling." b. "There are no effective medications that can help prevent sickling." c. "Routine continuous dosage narcotics are prescribed to prevent a crisis." d. "Risk for a crisis is decreased by having an annual influenza vaccination."

41. Which patient information is most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effectiveness of deferoxamine (Desferal) for a patient with hemochromatosis? a. Skin color b. Hematocrit c. Liver function d. Serum iron level

ANS: D Because iron chelating agents are used to lower serum iron levels, the most useful information will be the patient's iron level. The other parameters will also be monitored, but are not the most important to monitor when determining the effectiveness of deferoxamine.

Which patient information is most important for the nurse to monitor when evaluating the effectiveness of deferoxamine (Desferal) for a patient with hemochromatosis? a. Skin color b. Hematocrit c. Liver function d. Serum iron level

18. A hospitalized diabetic patient received 38 U of NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. At 1:00 PM, the patient has been away from the nursing unit for 2 hours, missing the lunch delivery while awaiting a chest x-ray. To prevent hypoglycemia, the best action by the nurse is to a. save the lunch tray for the patient's later return to the unit. b. ask that diagnostic testing area staff to start a 5% dextrose IV. c. send a glass of milk or orange juice to the patient in the diagnostic testing area. d. request that if testing is further delayed, the patient be returned to the unit to eat.

ANS: D Consistency for mealtimes assists with regulation of blood glucose, so the best option is for the patient to have lunch at the usual time. Waiting to eat until after the procedure is likely to cause hypoglycemia. Administration of an IV solution is unnecessarily invasive for the patient. A glass of milk or juice will keep the patient from becoming hypoglycemic but will cause a rapid rise in blood glucose because of the rapid absorption of the simple carbohydrate in these items.

ANS: D Dyskinesia is an adverse effect of the Sinemet, indicating a need for a change in medication or decrease in dose. The other findings are typical with Parkinson's disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1435 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

ANS: D Filgrastim increases the neutrophil count and function in neutropenic patients. Although total lymphocyte, platelet, and reticulocyte counts also are important to monitor in this patient, the absolute neutrophil count is used to evaluate the effects of filgrastim.

Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether filgrastim (Neupogen) is effective for a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia who is receiving chemotherapy? a. Platelet count b. Reticulocyte count c. Total lymphocyte count d. Absolute neutrophil count

A 62-year-old patient who has Parkinson's disease is taking bromocriptine (Parlodel). Which information obtained by the nurse may indicate a need for a decrease in the dose? a. The patient has a chronic dry cough. b. The patient has four loose stools in a day. c. The patient develops a deep vein thrombosis. d. The patient's blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg.

ANS: D Hypotension is an adverse effect of bromocriptine, and the nurse should check with the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein thrombosis are not associated with bromocriptine use. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1435 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. Which action by a patient indicates that the home health nurse's teaching about glargine and regular insulin has been successful? a. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal. b. The patient's family prefills the syringes with the mix of insulins weekly. c. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe. d. The patient disposes of the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks.

ANS: D Insulin can be stored at room temperature for 4 weeks. Glargine should not be mixed with other insulins or prefilled and stored. Short-acting regular insulin is administered before meals, while glargine is given once daily.

A patient who has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

ANS: D Lip swelling in angioedema may indicate a hypersensitivity reaction to the rituximab. The nurse should stop the infusion and further assess for anaphylaxis. The other findings may occur with chemotherapy, but are not immediately life threatening

44. A patient who has non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is receiving combination treatment with rituximab (Rituxan) and chemotherapy. Which patient assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Anorexia b. Vomiting c. Oral ulcers d. Lip swelling

A patient has been admitted with meningococcal meningitis. Which observation by the nurse requires action? a. The patient receives a regular diet tray. b. The bedrails on both sides of the bed are elevated. c. Staff have turned off the lights in the patient's room. d. Staff have entered the patient's room without a mask.

ANS: D Meningococcal meningitis is spread by respiratory secretions, so it is important to maintain respiratory isolation as well as standard precautions. Because the patient may be confused and weak, bedrails should be elevated at both the foot and head of the bed. Low light levels in the room decrease pain caused by photophobia. Nutrition is an important aspect of care in a patient with meningitis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

A critical action by the nurse caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera is to a. place the patient on bed rest. b. administer iron supplements. c. avoid use of aspirin products. d. monitor fluid intake and output.

ANS: D Monitoring hydration status is important during an acute exacerbation because the patient is at risk for fluid overload or underhydration. Aspirin therapy is used to decrease risk for thrombosis. The patient should be encouraged to ambulate to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Iron is contraindicated in patients with polycythemia vera

13. A critical action by the nurse caring for a patient with an acute exacerbation of polycythemia vera is to a. place the patient on bed rest. b. administer iron supplements. c. avoid use of aspirin products. d. monitor fluid intake and output.

41. Which finding by the nurse when assessing a patient with a large pituitary adenoma is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Changes in visual field b. Milk leaking from breasts c. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL d. Nausea and projectile vomiting

ANS: D Nausea and projectile vomiting may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which will require rapid actions for diagnosis and treatment. Changes in the visual field, elevated blood glucose, and galactorrhea are common with pituitary adenoma, but these do not require rapid action to prevent life-threatening complications.

A primary prevention tool used for colon cancer screening is a. abdominal x-rays. b. blood, urea, and nitrogen (BUN) testing. c. serum electrolytes. d. occult blood testing.

ANS: D Occult blood testing will reveal unseen blood in the stool, and this may signal a potentially serious bowel problem like colon cancer. BUN is used to evaluate kidney function. Serum electrolytes and abdominal x-rays are not related to colon cancer screening.

The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted the previous day with a basilar skull fracture after a motor vehicle crash. Which assessment finding indicates a possible complication that should be reported to the health care provider? a. Complaint of severe headache b. Large contusion behind left ear c. Bilateral periorbital ecchymosis d. Temperature of 101.4° F (38.6° C)

ANS: D Patients who have basilar skull fractures are at risk for meningitis, so the elevated temperature should be reported to the health care provider. The other findings are typical of a patient with a basilar skull fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

15. Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

ANS: D Platelet aggregation in HIT causes neutralization of heparin, so that the activated partial thromboplastin time will be shorter and more heparin will be needed to maintain therapeutic levels. The other data will not be affected by HIT.

Which laboratory result will the nurse expect to show a decreased value if a patient develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? a. Prothrombin time b. Erythrocyte count c. Fibrinogen degradation products d. Activated partial thromboplastin time

After having a craniectomy and left anterior fossae incision, a 64-yr-old patient has impaired physical mobility related to decreased level of consciousness and weakness. An appropriate nursing intervention is to a. cluster nursing activities to allow longer rest periods. b. turn and reposition the patient side to side every 2 hours. c. position the bed flat and log roll to reposition the patient. d. perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises every 4 hours.

ANS: D ROM exercises will help prevent the complications of immobility. Patients with anterior craniotomies are positioned with the head elevated. The patient with a craniectomy should not be turned to the operative side. When the patient is weak, clustering nursing activities may lead to more fatigue and weakness. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application)

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hr in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient voids every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer or are receiving chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 266 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

32. The nurse is interviewing a new patient with diabetes who receives rosiglitazone (Avandia) through a restricted access medication program. What is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient's blood pressure is 154/92. b. The patient has a history of emphysema. c. The patient's blood glucose is 86 mg/dL. d. The patient has chest pressure when walking.

ANS: D Rosiglitazone can cause myocardial ischemia. The nurse should immediately notify the health care provider and expect orders to discontinue the medication. There is no urgent need to discuss the other data with the health care provider.

When assessing a 53-yr-old patient with bacterial meningitis, the nurse obtains the following data. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention? a. The patient exhibits nuchal rigidity. b. The patient has a positive Kernig's sign. c. The patient's temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). d. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mm Hg.

ANS: D Shock is a serious complication of meningitis, and the patient's low blood pressure indicates the need for interventions such as fluids or vasopressors. Nuchal rigidity and a positive Kernig's sign are expected with bacterial meningitis. The nurse should intervene to lower the temperature, but this is not as life threatening as the hypotension. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes two packs/day. Which action by the nurse could help reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Teach the patient about annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening. d. Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter.

ANS: D Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. The other options may detect lung cancer that is already present but do not reduce the risk. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 237 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

27. Which finding indicates a need to contact the health care provider before the nurse administers metformin (Glucophage)? a. The patient's blood glucose level is 174 mg/dL. b. The patient has gained 2 lb (0.9 kg) since yesterday. c. The patient is scheduled for a chest x-ray in an hour. d. The patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 52 mg/dL.

ANS: D The BUN indicates possible renal failure, and metformin should not be used in patients with renal failure. The other findings are not contraindications to the use of metformin.

43. Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-year-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

ANS: D The chemotherapy used in treating Hodgkin's lymphoma results in a high incidence of secondary malignancies; follow-up screening is needed. The fertility of a 55-year-old woman will not be impacted by chemotherapy. Maintenance chemotherapy is not used for Hodgkin's lymphoma. Pruritus is a clinical manifestation of lymphoma, but should not be a concern after treatment.

Following successful treatment of Hodgkin's lymphoma for a 55-year-old woman, which topic will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Potential impact of chemotherapy treatment on fertility b. Application of soothing lotions to treat residual pruritus c. Use of maintenance chemotherapy to maintain remission d. Need for follow-up appointments to screen for malignancy

When assessing a patient's consensual pupil response, the nurse should a. have the patient cover one eye while facing the nurse. b. observe for a light reflection in the center of both corneas. c. instruct the patient to follow a moving object using only the eyes. d. shine a light into one pupil and observe the response of both pupils.

ANS: D The consensual pupil response is tested by shining a light into one pupil and observing for both pupils to constrict. Observe the corneal light reflex to evaluate for weakness or imbalance of the extraocular muscles. In a darkened room, ask the patient to look straight ahead while a penlight is shone directly on the cornea. The light reflection should be located in the center of both corneas as the patient faces the light source. To perform confrontation visual field testing, the patient faces the examiner and covers one eye, then counts the number of fingers that the examiner brings into the visual field. Instructing the patient to follow a moving object only with the eyes is testing for visual fields and extraocular movements

hich nursing diagnosis is of highest priority for a patient with Parkinson's disease who is unable to move the facial muscles? a. Activity intolerance b. Self-care deficit: toileting c. Ineffective self-health management d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

ANS: D The data about the patient indicate that poor nutrition will be a concern because of decreased swallowing. The other diagnoses may also be appropriate for a patient with Parkinson's disease, but the data do not indicate that they are current problems for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1436 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Analysis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he does not know what to say to his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

When obtaining a health history from a 49-year-old patient, which patient statement is most important to communicate to the primary health care provider? a. "My eyes are dry now." b. "It is hard for me to see at night." c. "My vision is blurry when I read." d. "I can't see as far over to the side."

ANS: D The decrease in peripheral vision may indicate glaucoma, which is not a normal visual change associated with aging and requires rapid treatment. The other patient statements indicate visual problems (presbyopia, dryness, and lens opacity) that are considered a normal part of aging

36. Which assessment finding of a 42-yr-old patient who had a bilateral adrenalectomy requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 192 mg/dL. b. The lungs have bibasilar crackles. c. The patient reports 6/10 incisional pain. d. The blood pressure (BP) is 88/50 mm Hg.

ANS: D The decreased BP indicates possible adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should immediately notify the health care provider so that corticosteroid medications can be administered. The nurse should also address the elevated glucose, incisional pain, and crackles with appropriate collaborative or nursing actions, but prevention and treatment of acute adrenal insufficiency are the priorities after adrenalectomy.

After the emergency department nurse has received a status report on the following patients who have been admitted with head injuries, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 20-yr-old patient whose cranial x-ray shows a linear skull fracture b. A 50-yr-old patient who has an initial Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 c. A 30-yr-old patient who lost consciousness for a few seconds after a fall d. A 40-yr-old patient whose right pupil is 10 mm and unresponsive to light

ANS: D The dilated and nonresponsive pupil may indicate an intracerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. The other patients are not at immediate risk for complications such as herniation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis)

5. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient? a. Urine dipstick for glucose b. Oral glucose tolerance test c. Fasting blood glucose level d. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

ANS: D The glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C or HbA1C) test shows the overall control of glucose over 90 to 120 days. A fasting blood level indicates only the glucose level at one time. Urine glucose testing is not an accurate reflection of blood glucose level and does not reflect the glucose over a prolonged time. Oral glucose tolerance testing is done to diagnose diabetes, but is not used for monitoring glucose control once diabetes has been diagnosed.

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 30% b. Platelets 95,000/μL c. Hemoglobin 10 g/L d. White blood cells (WBC) 2700/μL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 235 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. A 44-yr-old female patient with Cushing syndrome is admitted for adrenalectomy. Which intervention by the nurse will be most helpful for the patient problem of disturbed body image related to changes in appearance? a. Reassure the patient that the physical changes are very common in patients with Cushing syndrome. b. Discuss the use of diet and exercise in controlling the weight gain associated with Cushing syndrome. c. Teach the patient that the metabolic impact of Cushing syndrome is of more importance than appearance. d. Remind the patient that most of the physical changes caused by Cushing syndrome will resolve after surgery.

ANS: D The most reassuring and accurate communication to the patient is that the physical and emotional changes caused by the Cushing syndrome will resolve after hormone levels return to normal postoperatively. Reassurance that the physical changes are expected or that there are more serious physiologic problems associated with Cushing syndrome are not therapeutic responses. The patient's physiological changes are caused by the high hormone levels, not by the patient's diet or exercise choices.

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. The nurse has been teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about managing blood glucose levels and taking glipizide (Glucotrol). Which patient statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take the usual dose of medication." b. "Other medications besides the Glucotrol may affect my blood sugar." c. "When I am ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "My diabetes won't cause complications because I don't need insulin."

ANS: D The patient should understand that type 2 diabetes places the patient at risk for many complications and that good glucose control is as important when taking oral agents as when using insulin. The other statements are accurate and indicate good understanding of the use of glipizide.

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient is restless and looks away without making eye contact. The patient asks the nurse to repeat the information about the complications associated with chemotherapy. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment d. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to possible anxiety about leukemia diagnosis

ANS: D The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

1. A 62-year old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory findings to include a. a hematocrit (Hct) of 38%. b. an RBC count of 4,500,000/L. c. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices. d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L).

ANS: D The patient's clinical manifestations indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal.

A 62-year old man with chronic anemia is experiencing increased fatigue and occasional palpitations at rest. The nurse would expect the patient's laboratory findings to include a. a hematocrit (Hct) of 38%. b. an RBC count of 4,500,000/L. c. normal red blood cell (RBC) indices. d. a hemoglobin (Hgb) of 8.6 g/dL (86 g/L).

ANS: D The patient's clinical manifestations indicate moderate anemia, which is consistent with a Hgb of 6 to 10 g/dL. The other values are all within the range of normal.

30. A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to a. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. b. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory. c. notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.

ANS: D The patient's symptoms indicate a possible acute hemolytic reaction caused by the transfusion. The first action should be to disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline. The other actions also are needed but are not the highest priority.

A patient in the emergency department complains of back pain and difficulty breathing 15 minutes after a transfusion of packed red blood cells is started. The nurse's first action should be to a. administer oxygen therapy at a high flow rate. b. obtain a urine specimen to send to the laboratory. c. notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. disconnect the transfusion and infuse normal saline.

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short or long term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 252 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A 28-year-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching? a. The patient always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise. b. The patient goes for a vigorous walk when his glucose is 200 mg/dL. c. The patient has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride. d. The patient increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine.

ANS: D When the patient is ketotic, exercise may result in an increase in blood glucose level. Type 1 diabetic patients should be taught to avoid exercise when ketosis is present. The other statements are correct.

33. Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect will have rapid effects on a patient admitted to the emergency department in thyroid storm? a. Iodine b. Methimazole c. Propylthiouracil d. Propranolol (Inderal)

ANS: D β-Adrenergic blockers work rapidly to decrease the cardiovascular manifestations of thyroid storm. The other medications take days to weeks to have an impact on thyroid function.

The health care provider orders a liver and spleen scan for a patient who has been in a motor vehicle crash. Which action should the nurse take before this procedure? a. Check for any iodine allergy. b. Insert a large-bore IV catheter. c. Administer prescribed sedatives. d. Assist the patient to a flat position.

ANS: D. Assist the patient to a flat position. During a liver and spleen scan, a radioactive isotope is injected IV, and images from the radioactive emission are used to evaluate the structure of the spleen and liver. An indwelling IV catheter and sedation are not needed. The patient is placed in a flat position before the scan.

Which component of normal hemostasis involves the proess of protein C and protein S and plasminogen? a. Activation b. Aggregation c. Platelet plug formation d. Clot retraction and dissolution

ANS: D. Clot retraction and dissolution Protein C and protein S are examples of anticoagulants that are involved in clot retraction and dissolution. Fibrinolysis also keeps blood in its fluid form by thrombin-activating conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Plasmin attacks fibrin or fibrinogen and splits it into smaller elements known as fibrin split products (FSPs) or fibrin degradation products (FDPs).

A lymph node biopsy is most often performed to diagnose: a. Leukemia b. Cause of lymphedma c. Hemorrhagic tendencies d. Neoplastic cells in lymph nodes

ANS: D. Neoplastic cells in lymph nodes Lymph node biopsy is usually done to determine whether malignant cells are present in lymph nodes and can be used to diagnose lymphomas as well as metastatic spread from any malignant tumor in the body. Leukemias may infiltrate lymph nodes, but biopsy of the nodes is more commonly used to detect any type of neoplastic cells.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being discharged after an emergency splenectomy following a motor vehicle crash. Which instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. Check often for swollen lymph nodes. b. Watch for excess bleeding or bruising. c. Take iron supplements to prevent anemia. d. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill.

ANS: D. Wash hands and avoid persons who are ill. Splenectomy increases the risk for infection, especially with gram-positive bacteria. The risks for lymphedema, bleeding, and anemia are not increased after a person has a splenectomy.

The nurse reviews the laboratory test results of a patient admitted with abdominal pain. Which information will be most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Monocytes 4% b. Hemoglobin 13.6 g/dL c. Platelet count 168,000/µL d. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/µL

ANS: D. White blood cell (WBC) count 15,500/µL The elevation in WBCs indicates that the patient has an inflammatory or infectious process ongoing, which may be the cause of the patient's pain, and that further diagnostic testing is needed. The monocytes are at a normal level. The hemoglobin and platelet counts are normal.

A nurse reviews the laboratory data for an older patient. The nurse would be most concerned about which finding? a. Hematocrit of 35% b. Hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL c. Platelet count of 400,000/µL d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/µL

ANS: D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 2800/µL Because the total WBC count is not usually affected by aging, the low WBC count in this patient would indicate that the patient's immune function may be compromised and the underlying cause of the problem needs to be investigated. The platelet count is normal. The slight decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit are not unusual for an older patient.

Transmission

Action potential moves along afferent nerves --> neurotransmitters allow action potential --> dorsal horn of spinal cord --> thalamus and midbrain

Modulation

Activation of brainstem releases endorphins, enkephalins, serotonin and dynophin to stimulate relapse of endogenous opioids to inhibit further pain impulse

An anticoagulant such as warfarin that interferes with prothrombin production will alter the mechanism during

Activation of thrombin

Pain is PROTECTIVE :

Alerts the brain to potential or actual body harm

Nociceptive pain

Alerts the brain to potential or actual tissue harm The brain may filter or block pain information or change perception

A patient is receiving a continuous infusion of morphine via an epidural catheter following major abdominal surgery. Which actions should the nurse include in the plan of care. Select all that apply a. Label the catheter as an epidural access b. Assess the patient's pain relief frequently c. Use sterile technique when caring for the catheter d. Monitor the patient's level of consciousness e. Monitor patient vital signs (blood pressure, heart rate, respirations) f. Assess the motor and sensory function of the patient's lower extremities

All of the answers are correct

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