Adult Health - Exam Questions

B Rationale: SLE causes a characteristic facial "butterfly" rash that is dry, scaly, red, and raised

A clinic nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. A gray-colored, papular rash across the trunk and back B. A dry, red rash across the bridge of the nose and cheeks (butterfly rash) C. Pitting edema of the hands and fingers D. Subcutaneous nodules on the ulnar side of the arm

A

A nurse at an ophthalmology clinic is caring for a client. The nurse is interviewing a client who was referred by her primary care provider for suspicion of cataract. Which of the following client reports should the nurse recognize is consistent with the primary care provider's suspicion? a. decrease ability to perceive color. b. Loss of peripheral vision c. Bright flashes of light and floatersd. d. Eyestrain and headache with close work

C The assessment phase includes asking the client about her health history, physical concerns and health care expectations. A review of possible allergies is included in the assessment phase.

A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who will undergo diagnostic testing. The nurse should ask about a client's potential allergies during which phase of the nursing process? A. Planning B. Evaluation C. Assessment D. Implementation

A The nurse should reinforce that different treatment modalities, such as heat or cold therapy, can be tried to determine which one is more effective for the client. Heat application can help with muscle relaxation in the area around the affected joint. The application of cold numbs nerve endings and decreases joint inflammation. The nurse should instruct the client that the primary medication of choice for the treatment of osteoarthritis is acetaminophen. NSAIDS, such as celecoxib and ibuprofen, might be tried if acetaminophen does not control discomfort. Nurse should encourage the client to include aerobic exercise and lower extremity strength training into her daily regimen. These activities have been shown to slow the progression of osteoarthritis and relieve the manifestations of the disorder. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid the use of pillows under the knees as this contributes to the development of flexion contractures

A nurse in a medical clinic is providing teaching to an older adult client who has osteoarthritis that is affecting her knees. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? a. "I can use either heat or ice to help relieve the discomfort." b. "Ibuprofen is the first step in medication therapy for osteoarthritis." c. "I should limit physical activity to prevent further injury." d. "I will elevate my legs by placing two pillows under my knees when I go to bed."

A A patient who has a hemorrhagic stroke often experiences a sudden onset of symptoms including: sudden onset of severe headache, a decrease in LOC, and seizures.

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who had a seizure and became unresponsive after stating she had a sudden, severe headache and vomiting. The client's vital signs are as follows B/P 198/110 mm Hg Pulse 82/min Respirations 24/min Temp 38.2C/100.8F Which of the following neurologic disorders should the nurse suspect? a. Hemorrhagic stroke b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) c. Thrombotic stroke d. Embolic stroke

B Fatigue, weakness, and anorexia are early manifestations of RA

A nurse is assessing a client for early manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following changes is an early manifestation of RA? a. Morning stiffness b. Fatigue c. Baker cysts d. Temporomandibular joint pain

D Pallor on elevation of the limbs, and rubor when the limbs are dependent; In a client who has chronic PAD, pallor is seen in the extremities when the limbs are elevated, and rubor occurs when they are lowered.

A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Edema around the ankles and feet b. Ulceration around the medial malleoli c. Scaling eczema of the lower legs with stasis dermatitis d. Dependent rubor

D Watery red drainage should be documented as serosanguineous

A nurse is assessing a client's wound dressing and observes watery red drainage. The nurse should document this drainage as to which of the following? a. Serous b. Purulent c. Sanguineous d. Serosanguineous

A In the initial stages of PAD, patients might experience intermittent claudication. As the disease progresses, the client will experience pain, even at rest, due to ischemia of the distal extremities. The client might describe the pain as a persistent burning or aching pain that often awakens the patient at night.

A nurse is assessing a male patient who has advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? a. Leg pain at rest b. Thin, pliable toenails c. Hairy legs d. Flushed, warm legs

B

A nurse is caring for a child who has otitis media. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? a. Clear drainage from the affected ear b. Tugging on the affected ear lobe c. Pain when manipulating the affected ear lobe d. Erythema and edema of the affected ear

D When caring for a client following a total hip arthroplasty, the nurse should abduct the affected extremity to prevent dislocation, positioning the legs away from the midline

A nurse is caring for a client following a right total hip arthroplasty. Postoperatively the nurse should maintain the right leg in which of the following positions? a. Adduction b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. Abduction

C The greatest risk to the client's safety following an EGD is aspiration. Until the client's gag reflex returns, the nurse must keep the client NPO and prepare to intervene to keep the airway open and unobstructed.

A nurse is caring for a client following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) procedure. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority? A. Pain B. Nausea C. gag reflex D. Level of consciousness

A A serum albumin level is a good indicator of the nutritional status of a client. A value less than3.5 g/dL is an indication of poor nutrition, can delay wound healing, and lead to infection.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a stage 3 pressure ulcer. The nurse should recognize that which of the following laboratory findings will affect wound healing? a. Serum albumin 3.2 g/dL b. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL c. WBC count 8,000/mm3 d. PTT 1.8

B Because nurses cannot measure pain objectively, it is standard practice to accept that pain is what the client says it is and to intervene accordingly.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative. The nurse should base her pain management interventions primarily on which of the following methods of determining the intensity of the client's pain? a. Vital sign measurement b. The clients self-report of pain severity c. Visual observation for nonverbal signs of pain The nature and invasiveness of the surgical procedure

INR 3.0 Rationale:Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents thrombus formation in susceptible clients. The INR measures its effectiveness. For most clients taking Warfarin, an INR of 3.0 indicates effective therapy

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking Warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse recognize as an effective response to the medication?

A Intermittent claudication is ischemic pain that is precipitated by exercise, resolves with rest, and reproducible. The pain associated with claudication arises when cellular oxygen demand exceeds the supply. It occurs early in the disease course and is typically the initial reason patients who have PAD seek medical attention.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has PAD. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to find in the early stage of the disease? a. Intermittent claudication b. Foot ulcers c. Rest pain d. Dependent rubor

A Sudden weakness or numbness of the face and one arm or leg can indicate that the patient is at greatest risk for a stroke, therefore this is the nurse's priority finding. In addition to these findings, the patient may appear confused, have slurred speech, loss of balance, dizziness, or sudden severe headache.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has atrial fibrillation and is receiving heparin. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority? a. The patient experiences sudden weakness of one leg and arm b. The patient's ECG tracing shows irregular heart rate without P waves c. The patient has an aPTT of 80 seconds d. The patient's urine output is cloudy and odorous

A Providers most often extract bone marrow from the iliac crest of adults, but they sometimes use the sternum.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a bone marrow aspiration. The client asks the nurse about the sites the provider might use for the procedure. Which of the following locations should the nurse identify as one of the sites used for this procedure? a. Sternum b. Ribs c. Humerus d. Femur

A

A nurse is caring for a patient with moderate vision impairment. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Face the client when speaking B. Open shades in windows to let in light C. Stand to the client's side when speaking D. Speak in a loud tone

A, C, E Glucosamine can increase blood glucose levels; clients who have shellfish allergies might experience reactions when taking glucosamine Glucosamine alone or when taken with chondroitin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients who are taking anticoagulants or antiplatelet medications. The nurse should instruct the client to discuss the use of glucosamine with her provider to prevent interactions.

A nurse is caring for a pt. who has osteoarthritis and asks about the use of glucosamine. Which of the following should the nurse make? SATA A. "Glucosamine might increase bleeding." B. "Glucosamine can help lower your blood pressure." C. "Glucosamine can increase blood glucose levels." D. "Glucosamine hydrochloride has been shown to decrease the discomfort of osteoarthritis." E. "Pt. who have shellfish allergies might experience reactions when taking glucosamine."

D Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic inflammatory disease. ESR is useful in detecting and monitoring tissue inflammation in clients with RA. As the disease improves the ESR decreases

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and is taking aspirin 650 mg every 4 hours. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication? a. White blood cell (WBC) count b. Rheumatoid factor (RF) c. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

D

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has COPD. The nurse should include which of the following interventions in the plan? A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L per day B. Provide the client with a low protein diet C. Have a client use the early morning hours for exercise and activity D. Instruct the client to use pursed lip breathing

C, E The nurse should keep the heels off the bed to prevent skin breakdown on the client's heels. The nurse should minimize skin exposure to moisture to prevent skin breakdown.

A nurse is developing a plan of care to prevent skin breakdown for a client with a spinal cord injury and paralysis. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? SATA A. Massage over erythematous bony prominences. B. Implement turning schedule every 4 hr. C. Use pillows to keep heels off the bed surface. D. Keep the client's skin dry with powder. E. Minimize skin exposure to moisture.

D Psoriasis is significantly aggravated by stress. The use of effective stress reduction techniques is appropriate to manage this chronic disorder.

A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has psoriasis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan? a. Maintain occlusive dressings on the lesions throughout the day and remove them at bedtime. b. Eliminate the use of products containing salicylic acid. c. Avoid friction over scaly lesions while bathing. d. Identify effective stress reduction techniques.

A A body map of scars, spots and lesions will help clients monitor for new growth and changes to lesions to help detect skin cancer.

A nurse is developing an education program about skin cancer for a community center. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include? a. Keep a body map of skin lesions. b. Examine your body every 2 months for lesions. c. Avoid the sun after 3 p.m. d. Limit tanning bed use.

Lactated Ringers

A nurse is monitoring fluid replacement of a client who has sustained burns. The nurse should administer which of the following fluids in the first 24 hours following a burn injury?

C

A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse who is performing a focused skin assessment on a client who reports a skin condition. Which of the following questions by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention? a. "Does your skin condition keep you awake at night?" b. "Have you had any changes in your diet?" c. "How do you handle stress?" d. "How does your skin condition make you feel?"

B According to evidence-based practice, the most reliable indicator of pain is the client's self-report of pain. A pain intensity scale is a reliable too to identify the client's pain level.

A nurse is performing a pain assessment for a client who is alert. The nurse should recognize that which of the following measures is the most reliable indicator of pain? a. Vital signs b. Self-Report of pain c. Severity of the condition d. Nonverbal behavior

C The nurse should identify that atrial fibrillation increases the client's risk of having a stroke due to clot formation in the atrium. Warfarin can prevent clot formation when used long-term, which will reduce the client's risk of having a stroke

A nurse is preparing to administer Warfarin to a client who has a new onset of atrial fibrillation. The client asks the nurse, "What should this medication do?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. It helps the heart return to normal rhythm B. It dissolves blood clots C. In can reduce the risk of having a stroke D. It helps to prevent bleeding in Atrial fibrillation

B The greatest risk to this client is injury from a wound infection. Therefore, the priority action the nurse should take is to schedule a follow-up visit by a home health nurse for dressing changes. Wounds healing by secondary intention are open and have edges that are not approximated, which increases the risk for infection.

A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has an abdominal wound that is healing by secondary intention. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? a. Instruct the client about home disposal of contaminated dressings. b. Schedule a follow-up visit by a home health nurse for dressing changes. c. Provide a dietary list of foods which promote wound healing. d. Establish a follow-up appointment with the client's provider.

325 mL For burns, in the first 8 hours 1/2 of the solution needs to be delivered.

A nurse is preparing to to start an iv infusion of lactated ringers for a client who sustained a burn. the client is prescribed 5200 mL of fluid over the first 24 hours. How many mL per hour should the nurse set the pump to infuse for the first 8 hours?

D The nurse should determine that nuts and legumes, such as lentils, are the best foods to recommend for protein intake for this client. One cup of lentils contains 17.86 g of protein. A diet high in protein and calories is required to promote wound healing. Nuts and legumes are good sources of protein to include in a plant-based diet such as a vegan diet.

A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has a burn injury and adheres to a vegan diet. The nurse should recommend which of the following foods as the best source of protein to promote wound healing? a. One cup of brown rice b. One cup of orange juice c. One cup of pureed avocado d. One cup of lentils

B The patient's instructions should include keeping the environment warm to prevent vasoconstriciton. Wearing gloves, warm clothes, and socks help prevent vasoconstriciton.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Apply a heating pad on a low setting to help relieve leg pain B. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm C. Wear antiembolic stockings during the day D. Rest with the legs above heart level

B The patient's instructions should include keeping the environment warm to prevent vasoconstriction. Wearing gloves, warm clothes, and socks will help prevent vasoconstriction.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Apply a heating pad on a low setting to help relieve leg pain b. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm c. Wear antiembolic stockings during the day d. Rest with the legs above the heart level

B The client should rest and elevate the foot to help reduce discomfort and prevent edema

A nurse is providing postoperative teaching with a client who had a surgical correction of hallux valgus. Which of the follow information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. "Expect the foot to be numb for several days postoperatively" b. "Rest frequently with your foot elevated." c. "Expect the foot to take at least 3 weeks to heal." d. "Walk primarily on the heel relieve pressure on the toes."

A A renal function disorder reduces the excretion of creatinine, resulting in increased levels of blood creatinine. Creatinine is a specific and sensitive indicator of renal function.

A nurse is reviewing lab values for a patient who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the patient's renal function? a. Serum creatinine b. Urine-specific gravity c. Serum sodium d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

D When using the urgent vs nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority laboratory result is an INR of 5.5. A client who is taking Warfarin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation is expected to have an INR in the range of 2 to 3. A level of 5.5 is considered a critical value and places the client at risk of bleeding; therefore, the nurse should report this result to the provider immediately

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of a client who has been taking Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider immediately? A. PT 18 seconds B. Platelet count 160,000 C. Hct 43% D. INR 5.5

A, B, C, E

A nurse is teaching a class of older adults about the expected physiologic changes of aging. Which of the following changes should the nurse include in the discussion? (select all that apply) a. more difficulty seeing due to a greater sensitivity to glare b. decreased cough reflex c. decreased bladder capacity d. decreased systolic blood pressure e. dehydration of intervertebral discs

A Alcohol use can break down the mechanism of the hearing aids. The client should follow the manufacturer's instructions, which usually include using a soft cloth to remove cerumen and other debris and never immersing them in water. Hairspray residue makes hearing aids oily and greasy, which can damage them. If the client wears the hearing aids for 10 to 12 hr a day, the batteries should last about a week. The client should keep additional batteries nearby. A whistling sound when the client cups her hand over an ear with a hearing aid in place means that the battery is functioning

A nurse is teaching a client about how to use her new hearing aids. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client needs further instruction? a. "I will clean the hearing aids with alcohol wipes." b. "I will not use hairspray if I am wearing the hearing aids." c. "I will change the batteries once a week." d. "I will expect the hearing aids to whistle when I cup my hand over them."

C, D, E Aging is a risk factor for osteoarthritis, as the joints bear the load of the body's weight over time. Obesity is a risk factor for osteoarthritis, as it increases the load of the body's weight over time. Smoking is a risk factor for osteoarthritis, as smoking predisposes people to the loss of cartilage in the knees.

A nurse is teaching a client about risk factors for osteoarthritis. Which of the following factors should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Bacteria b. Diuretics c. Obesity d. Aging e. Smoking

D ex; hanging leg off the edge of the bed while sleeping; This will alleviate swelling and discomfort of the legs

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of severe PAD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? a. wear tightly-fitted insulated socks with shoes when going outside b. elevate both legs above the heart when resting c. apply heating pad to both legs for comfort d. place both legs in dependent position while sleeping

A The nurse should instruct the client to modify fine motor activities, such as wringing out a sponge, by using larger joints or body surfaces, such as the palm of the hand, to substitute for smaller ones.

A nurse is teaching a client who has rheumatoid arthritis about self-care strategies for managing the disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include in the teaching? a. Press water from a sponge rather than ringing it out b. Turn door knobs in a clockwise motion c. Finish weekly household tasks within 1 to 2 days d. Engage in repetitive tasks, even when joints are inflamed, to keep the joints mobile

A Long-term use of glucocorticoids, such as prednisone, places the client at risk for osteoporosis. The nurse should instruct the client to take calcium and vitamin D supplements to reduce this risk.

A nurse is teaching a client who is to begin long-term therapy with prednisone to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should instruct the client take which of the following supplements while taking this medication? a. Calcium and vitamin D b. Biotin in vitamin B2 c. folic acid and vitamin C d. Pantothenic acid and vitamin B6

A Altered atrial contractions can cause blood pooling and thrombus formation. The patient is at risk for developing a PE or embolic stroke. The patient should monitor and immediately report manifestations, such as SOB or neurological changes.

A nurse is teaching a patient who has a new diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. The nurse should instruct the patient to monitor for which of the following complications? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Hypertension c. Peripheral vascular disease d. Bradycardia

A An abnormal Pap smear typically requires further evaluation, usually with a colposcopy. HSV testing would not be warranted. A transvaginal ultrasound would be used to identify endometrial thickness to determine the need for an endometrial biopsy for endometrial cancer. An endometrial biopsy would be done to evaluate for endometrial cancer.

A nurse prepares a woman with an abnormal Papanicolaou test result for further diagnostic evaluation. Which procedure would the nurse expect to be done? A. Colposcopy B. Endometrial biopsy C. Transvaginal ultrasound D. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) testing

C Vitamin K is an antagonist against warfarin, an oral anticoagulant. Patients with an INR of 5.5 should be given a low dose of oral vitamin K. Too much vitamin K may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin for up to 2 weeks. Fresh frozen plasma and intravenous iron are given for anemia caused by blood loss. Protamine sulfate is given for heparin overdose.

A patient who is taking warfarin has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.5. The nurse will anticipate giving a. fresh frozen plasma b. intravenous iron c. vitamin K d. protamine sulfate

A Rationale: Plasma cells are the immediate result of cell division by a sensitized B-cell in response to initial recognition of a specific antigen, such as a virus. The plasma cell secretes immunoglobulins (antibodies) directed against the invading virus. Although this response does not always prevent the person from becoming ill as a result of the exposure, it does limit the duration of illness and sets up more long-lasting adaptive immunity.

How do plasma cells provide immune protection? A. They actively secrete immunoglobulins against specific antigens. B. They interact with virgin B lymphocytes upon first exposure to an antigen, enhancing B-lymphocyte sensitization. C. They regulate the function of natural killer cells, preventing unnecessary damage or death to normal health body cells. D. They are responsible for balancing helper cell activity with regulator T cell activity, ensuring that an immunologic response can be mounted whenever the body is invaded by pathologic microorganisms but limiting the response when the body receives antigens as drugs or food.

B The severe skeletal change of the spine reduces the size of the chest cavity on the right and limits its mobility. As a result, ventilation is compromised on this side and gas exchange will be reduced. The spinal deformity does not affect airway elasticity or pulmonary perfusion, only ventilation.

The nurse assessing an 88 year old client notices a severe kyphosis that curves the client's spine to the right and bends her forward. Which change in respiratory function does the nurse expect as a result of this age-related change? a. Decreased gas exchange as a result of reduced airway elasticity b. Decreased gas exchange as a result of ineffective chest movement c. Reduced pulmonary perfusion as a result of decreased alveolar diffusion capacity Reduced pulmonary perfusion as a result of decreased blood return to the right atrium

A After total hip replacement, the client should be instructed to sit on a high, firm chair. The client should be instructed to keep the legs apart while sitting or lying to prevent disruption of the hip replacement; this may be accomplished by placing a blanket or a pillow between the legs. The use of an elevated toilet seat will prevent discomfort and pressure at the operative site. The health care provider should be notified if the client notes the development of any redness, irritation, or drainage at the incision site

The nurse has provided discharge instructions to a client after a total hip replacement. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? a. "I should sit in my recliner when I get home." b. "I need to keep my legs apart when sitting or lying." c. "I should try to obtain an elevated toilet seat for use at home." d. "I should contact the healthcare provider if the incision becomes red or irritated or if I note any drainage."

C A sudden weight increase of 2.2 lb (1 kg) can result from excess fluid (1 L) in the interstitial spaces. The best indicator of fluid balance is weight. A weight increase of 9 pounds in the past week is a significant indicator of fluid balance as weight often increases first, allowing for intervention before other symptoms such as edema develop.

The nurse is assessing a client with heart failure. Which assessment data are the best indicator of fluid balance? a. Blood pressure 144/79 mm Hg b. Urine output 200mL in the last 4 hours c. Weight increase of 9lb in the past week d. Generalized edema in the lower extremities

A, D, E, G A BMI of 26 is considered overweight which is a risk for CVD. Exercise for 20-30 minutes does not adhere to the recommended guidelines to combat the known risk of a sedentary lifestyle. Exposure to second hand smoke is a risk factor, as well as a family history of cardiovascular disease. Recurrent streptococcal infections are associated with valvular disease and place the client at risk for CVD. A blood pressure of 120/66 is within normal limits. Triglycerides of 140 mg/dL for a male client is also considered within normal limits.

The nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a male client. Which assessment data is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? Select all that apply. A. BMI of 26 B. BP of 120/66 C. Triglycerides 140 mg/dL D. Moderate exercise for 20-30 minutes weekly E. Exposure to secondhand cigarette smoke F. History of repeated streptococcal tonsillitis G. Family history of cardiovascular disease

C Changes in bowel or bladder habits A A sore that does not heal U Unusual bleeding or discharge T Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere I Indigestion or difficulty swallowing O Obvious changes in a wart or mole N Nagging cough or hoarseness

What are the seven warning signs of cancer?

C Primary open-angle glaucoma develops slowly. Central vision is unaffected at first. The patient will not have pain.

What finding does the nurse anticipate when assessing a client with a new diagnosis of glaucoma? a. Seeing "shooting stars" b. Decrease in central vision c. Gradual loss of visual fields Abrupt onset of excruciating pain

D The skin symptoms reflect subcutaneous emphysema with air being forced into the tissue layers, most often caused by a persistent air leak. These are not indications of infection and no culture is needed. Depending on the severity of the problem, the client's airway could be in jeopardy. The respiratory health care provider needs to evaluate the problem.

When assessing the client 2 hours after a thoracentesis, the nurse notes the skin around the puncture site is swollen and a crackling is felt and heard when pressure is applied to the area. What is the nurse's best action? a. Assess the client's SPO2 b. Obtain a prescription to culture the site c. Document the finding as the only action d. Notify the respiratory health care provider

C, D Memory B-cells are the ones that secrete huge numbers of antibodies whenever the host experiences a subsequent exposure to the same antigen (especially a microorganism) that initially sensitized the B-cells. Monocytes mature into macrophages, which are essential in antigen presenting and processing for the naive B-cell to become sensitized to the antigen. If this initial sensitization does not take place, no long-lasting immunity develops as a result of the exposure. Antibody attenuation is the laboratory modifying of an infectious organism before administering it as a vaccination to prevent the host from becoming ill as a result of the vaccination. Attenuation is not a part of the mechanism for developing long-lasting immunity. Interleukin 10 has immunosuppressive effects, not immune stimulating effects. Neutrophils do not have a direct role in the development of long-lasting immunity, only innate-native immunity. Phagocytosis is not a direct action for long-lasting immunity. Although macrophages are a part of antigen presentation for B-cell sensitization, the presentation does not occur through phagocytosis.

Which cells, products, or actions are involved in long-lasting immunity resulting from exposure to a specific antigen? SATA a. Antibody attenuation b. Interleukin 10 (IL-10) c. Memory B-cells d. Monocyte maturation e. Neutrophilia f. Phagocytosis

A Lutein helps maintain retinal function.

Which supplement will the nurse recommend to a client who wants to enhance eye health? a. Lutein b. Vitamin D c. Magnesium d. Saw Palmetto

C, F, G The terminal bronchioles are inherently prone to collapse because they have a small diameter and contain no cartilage (not even C-shaped cartilage) to passively hold them open. The only force that maintains patency is the elastic recoil of the lungs. Although they contain little if any cilia, are too thick to permit gas exchange, and are surrounded by capillaries, these anatomic structures have no bearing on their patency.

Why are the terminal bronchioles more prone to collapse than are the other airways? SATA a. The cartilage is an incomplete C shape rather than a true ring b. The mucous membrane lining contains minimal active cilia c. Lung elastic recoil is the only force that keeps them patent d. Their walls are too thick to permit gas exchange e. They are surrounded by capillaries f. The lumens have a small diameter g. Their walls contain no cartilage