Adult Nursing Final Practice Q

A nurse is preparing to administer 0.45% sodium chloride (NaCl) 2000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.

250mL 2000mL/8hr = 250mL

A nurse is caring for a client who has an NG tube set to low intermittent suction. The nurse irrigates the NG tube twice with 30 mL of normal saline solution during his shift. At the end of the shift, the NG canister contains 475 mL. What amount of NG drainage should the nurse record? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

415mL There is 475mL in the canister The nurse irrigated 30mL (twice) 30x2 = 60 Therefore 475-60=415mL is what the nurse should record

The nurse is teaching a group of patients about the process of a mechanical bowel obstruction. Which example should the nurse include in the teaching? A. A tumor obstructs the lumen of the bowel. B. A paralytic ileus causes cessation of peristalsis. C. The bowel is inflamed by diverticulitis D. The bowel motility is slowed by antidiarrheal drugs

A tumor obstructs the lumen of the bowel. *Mechanical obstruction results in blockage of the lumen of the bowel. Examples include tumors, adhesions, strangulated hernia, twisting of the bowel (volvulus), telescoping of one part of the bowel into itself (intussusception), gallstones, barium impaction, and intestinal parasites

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has acute leukemia and received an aggressive chemotherapy treatment 10 days ago. Which of the following hematologic laboratory values should the nurse expect? Select all that apply. A. Decreased platelet count B. Increased hemoglobin count C. Decreased leukocyte count D. Increased platelet count E. Decreased erythrocyte count

A. C. E. The nurse should expect to see a decreased platelet, leukocyte, and erythrocyte count due to bone marrow suppression

A nurse is providing discharge for a client who has peptic ulcer disease and a new prescription for famotidine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should take this medication at bedtime." B. "I should expect this medication to discolor my stools." C. "I will drink iced tea with my meals and snacks." D. "I will monitor my blood glucose level regularly while taking this medication."

A. "I should take this medication at bedtime." The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime to inhibit the action of histamine at the H2-receptor site in the stomach.

After radiation treatment, a client reports dryness, redness, and scaling of his skin occurring within the designated radiation treatment markings. The nurse should instruct the client to take which of the following actions? A. Apply hydrating lotions B. Apply moist heat C. Sit in the sun for 10 min per day D. Wash with plain soap and water

A. Apply hydrating lotions The nurse should instruct the client to gently apply hydrating lotions that do not contain metal, alcohol, or perfume

A patient has a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. B. Assist to dangle on edge of bed and assess for dizziness. C. Encourage patient to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours. D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway to prevent airway obstruction.

A. Apply intermittent pneumatic compression stockings. The patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage usually has minimal activity to prevent cerebral vasospasm or further bleeding and is at risk for venous thromboembolism. Activities such as coughing and sitting up that might increase intracranial pressure or decrease cerebral blood flow are avoided. Because there is no indication that the patient is unconscious, an oropharyngeal airway is inappropriate.

A nurse is caring for a client who has gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Assess orthostatic blood pressure B. Explain the procedure for an upper gastrointestinal series C. Administer pain medication D. Test the client's emesis for blood.

A. Assess orthostatic blood pressure Using the nursing process, the first action the nurse should take is to assess the client by measuring the client's orthostatic blood pressure. This action determines if the client is hypovolemic and establishes a baseline for further measurements

A nurse is providing education about hypertension to a community group. One client reports that his doctor has diagnosed him with hypertension, but that he feels just fine. He asks, "What would happen if I did not treat my hypertension?" Which of the following are possible consequences of untreated hypertension? Select all that apply A. CAD B. Pneumonia C. Pancreatitis D. MI E. Stroke

A. CAD D. MI E. Stroke

A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Decreased muscle strength B. Decreased gastric motility C. Increased heart rate D. Increased blood pressure

A. Decreased muscle strength Hyperkalemia can cause muscle weakness. The nurse should monitor the client's muscle strength.

A nurse is caring for a client who has severe manifestations of schizophrenia and is medicated PRN for agitation with haloperidol. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Dysrhythmias B. Cataracts C. Pancreatitis D. Bleeding

A. Dysrhythmias Cardiac dysrhythmias are a risk for clients taking haloperidol and other conventional antipsychotic medications. The client should be monitored for changes in vital signs, tachycardia, and ECG changes, including prolonged QT interval, while taking haloperidol. There is a risk for cardiac arrest due to torsades de pointes.

A nurse is caring for a client at a rehabilitation center 3 weeks after a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Because the client's CVA affected the left side of the brain, which of the following goals should the nurse anticipate including in the client's rehabilitation program? A. Establish the ability to communicate effectively B. Have a regular, formed stool at least every other day C. Learn to control impulsive behavior D. Improve left-side motor function.

A. Establish the ability to communicate effectively A CVA is an interruption of the blood supply to any part of the brain, resulting in damaged brain tissue. The left hemisphere is usually dominant for language. Because this client had a left-side CVA, the nurse should anticipate the client will have some degree

On assessment of a client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse? A. Flank pain B. Periorbital edema C. Bloody and cloudy urine D. Enlarged abdomen

A. Flank pain Flank pain and a distended or enlarged abdomen occur in PKD because the kidneys enlarge and displace other organs. Urine can be bloody or cloudy owing to cyst rupture or infection. Periorbital edema would not be a finding related to PKD and should be investigated further.

The nurse in the cardiology clinic is reviewing teaching about hypertension, provided at the client's last appointment. Which actions by the client indicate that teaching has been effective? (Select all that apply.) A. Has maintained a low-sodium, no-added-salt diet B. Has lost 3 pounds since last seen in the clinic C. Cooks food in palm oil to save money D. Exercises once weekly E. Has cut down on caffeine

A. Has maintained a low-sodium, no-added-salt diet B. Has lost 3 pounds since last seen in the clinic E. Has cut down on caffeine Clients with hypertension should consume low-sodium foods and should avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure. Although palm oil may be cost-saving, it is higher in saturated fat than canola, sunflower, olive, or safflower oil. The goal is to exercise three times weekly.

While reviewing a client's laboratory results, a nurse notes a serum calcium level of 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Implement seizure precautions. B. Administer phosphate. C. Initiate diuretic therapy. D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.

A. Implement seizure precautions The client is at risk for seizures due to low excitation threshold as a result of the client's decreased calcium level. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions to prevent injury.

A nurse is caring for a client who has aphasia following a stroke. A family member ask the nurse how she should communicate with the client. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? A. Incorporate nonverbal cues in the conversation B. Ask multiple choice questions as part of the conversation C. Use a higher-pitched tone of voice when speaking D. Use simple, child-like statements when speaking

A. Incorporate nonverbal cues in the conversation Nonverbal cues enhance the client's ability to comprehend and use language

A nurse is assessing a client who has an 8 score using the Glasgow Coma Scale to evaluate levels of consciousness. Which of the following nursing statements most accurately describes the score? A. Indicates the need for total nursing care B. Reflects an alert client C. Indicates a client in a deep coma D. Indicates stable neurological status

A. Indicates the need for total nursing care The nurse understands a Glasgow Coma score of 8 indicates the client is in a coma and requires total nursing care.

A nurse is caring for a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following symptoms is typically the initial reason clients with PAD seek medical attention? A. Intermittent claudication B. Dependent rubor C. Rest pain D. Foot ulcers

A. Intermittent claudication

A nurse is reviewing medications for a client who has a diagnosis of a small bowel obstruction. The nurse should withhold senna (Senoket) prescribed orally based on understanding of which of the following? A. Laxatives are contraindicated in clients who have a small bowel obstruction B. Only bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium (Metamucil) should be prescribed. C. Medication should be administered via NG tube rather than the oral route D. Opioid analgesics, rather than laxatives, should be prescribed to alleviate discomfort.

A. Laxatives Laxatives are contraindicated in clients who have fecal impaction, bowel obstruction, and acute abdominal surgery to prevent perforation. Because the bowel does not allow for any passage of stool with a complete small bowel obstruction, laxatives will cause increased abdominal cramping and discomfort. Bulk-forming laxatives such as psyllium (Metamucil) also are contraindicated in small bowel obstructions because they soften the fecal mass and increase the bulk of the stool

A nurse is caring for a client who has diverticular disease. When palpating the client's abdomen, in which of the following locations should the nurse expect the client to report abdominal pain? A. Lower left quadrant B. Upper left quadrant C. Lower right quadrant D. Upper right quadrant

A. Lower left quadrant The nurse should expect the client to have abdominal pain in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen. The disease is usually found in the sigmoid colon, where high pressure to move fecal contents from the rectum causes pouch formation

A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood gas results: HCO3 18 mEq, PaCO2 28 mm Hg and pH 7.30. The nurse recognizes the client is experiencing which of the following acid base imbalances? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis. D. Respiratory alkalosis

A. Metabolic acidosis A client experiencing metabolic acidosis would have a decreased pH, a decreased HCO3 and a decreased PaCO2.

A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 116 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Nausea and Vomiting B. Extreme thirst C. Flushed skin D. Fever

A. Nausea and Vomiting A sodium level of 116 mEq/L is a critical value indicating hyponatremia. Nausea and vomiting are expected findings for a client with this sodium level. All other options are S/S of Hypernatremia

A nurse is assessing a client who has appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply) A. Oral temperature 38.4° C (101.1° F) B. WBC 6,000/mm3 C. Bloody diarrhea D. Nausea and vomiting E. Right lower quadrant pain

A. Oral temperature 38.4° C (101.1° F) D. Nausea and vomiting E. Right lower quadrant pain

A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings? A. Poor impulse control B. Unable to discriminate words and letters C. Deficits in the right visual field D. Motor retardation

A. Poor impulse control A client who had a stroke involving the right cerebral hemisphere is likely to have personality changes, which can include impulsiveness, confabulation, and poor judgement.

A nurse is assessing a client who has HIV. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to suspect that the clients diagnosis has progressed to AIDS? A. Small, purple-colored skin lesions B. Fever and diarrhea lasting longer than 1 month C. Persistent, generalized lymphadenopathy D. CD4-T cells decreased to 750 cells/mm3

A. Small, purple-colored skin lesions The nurse should identify the presence of small, purple-colored skin lesions as an indication that the client has acquired Kaposi's sarcoma, which is an AIDS-defining illness.

Which type of hernia can lead to necrosis? A. Strangulated hernia B. Indirect hernia C. Direct hernia D. Irreducible hernia

A. Strangulated hernia An incarcerated hernia may become strangulated, which cuts off the blood supply and can lead to necrosis of the trapped bowel loop. Hernias are classified as reducible, which means the protruding organ can be returned to its roper place by pressing on the organ, and irreducible, which means that the protruding part of the organ is tightly wedged outside the cavity and cannot be pushed back through the opening. Another name for irreducible hernia is incarcerated hernia. An indirect hernia protrudes through the inguinal ring. A direct hernia protrudes through the posterior inguinal wall

A nurse is caring for a client who has ulcerative colitis. The client has had several exacerbations over the past 3 years. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care to minimize the risk of further exacerbations? (Select all that apply) A. Use progressive relaxation techniques B. Increase dietary fiber intake C. Drink two 240 mL (8 oz) glasses of milk per day D. Arrange activities to allow for daily rest periods E. Restrict intake of carbonated beverages

A. Use progressive relaxation techniques D. Arrange activities to allow for daily rest periods E. Restrict intake of carbonated beverages

A patient with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections has been scheduled for a cystoscopy. What teaching point should the nurse emphasize before the procedure? A. You might have pink-tinged urine and burning after your cystoscopy. B. You'll need to refrain from eating or drinking after midnight the day before the test. C. The morning of the test, you will drink some water that contains a contrast solution D. You'll require a urinary catheter inserted before the cystoscopy, and it will be in place for a few days

A. You might have pink-tinged urine and burning after your cystoscopy. Pink-tinged urine, burning, and frequency are common after a cystoscopy. The patient does not need to be NPO before the test, and contrast media is not needed. A cystoscopy does not always necessitate catheterization before or after the procedure.

A patient who has been taking a benzodiazepine for panic attacks is to be started on buspirone (BuSpar). Which instruction should the nurse provide? A."Take decreasing doses of the benzodiazepine for several days until the buspirone becomes effective." B."Stop taking the benzodiazepines immediately. Wait 2 days, and then start the buspirone." C."You should take buspirone only once a day. More frequent dosing can cause dependency." D."Tolerance to buspirone may develop in about a month, requiring larger doses to be prescribed

A."Take decreasing doses of the benzodiazepine for several days until the buspirone becomes effective." Two factors suggest that the patient should take tapering doses of benzodiazepine while beginning buspirone therapy. Benzodiazepines should be tapered gradually for discontinuation to avoid withdrawal. Buspirone takes 7 to 10 days to begin to exert its therapeutic effect. The other statements about buspirone are incorrect

A nurse is providing instructions for a 52-year-old client who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client reports that he has not had the procedure before and is very anxious about feeling pain during the procedure. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? A. "Don't worry; most clients dislike the prep more than the procedure itself B. "Before the examination, your provider will give you a sedative that will make you sleepy" C. "I know you're anxious, but this procedure is recommended for people your age D. "After you have signed the consent form, we can talk more about this

B. "Before the examination, your provider will give you a sedative that will make you sleepy" This therapeutic response appropriately addresses the client's concerns. The client is seeking information and this response provides the client with accurate information. It can also lead to further discussion about the procedure.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Apply a heating pad on a low setting to help relieve leg pain B. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm C. Wear antiembolic stockings during the day D. Rest with the legs above heart leve

B. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm

Several weeks after a stroke, a 50-yr-old male patient has impaired awareness of bladder fullness, resulting in urinary incontinence. Which nursing intervention should be planned to begin an effective bladder training program? A. Limit fluid intake to 1200 mL daily to reduce urine volume. B. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. C. Perform intermittent catheterization after each voiding to check for residual urine. D. Use an external "condom" catheter to protect the skin and prevent embarrassment..

B. Assist the patient onto the bedside commode every 2 hours. Developing a regular voiding schedule will prevent incontinence and may increase patient awareness of a full bladder. A 1200-mL fluid restriction may lead to dehydration. Intermittent catheterization and use of a condom catheter are appropriate in the acute phase of stroke, but should not be considered solutions for long-term management because of the risks for urinary tract infection and skin breakdown

The teaching plan for a patient beginning oxazepam (Serax) should include instructions to (select all that apply): A. Take the drug on an empty stomach. B. Avoid discontinuing the drug abruptly. C. Stop taking the drug if side effects occur. D. Drink only moderate amounts of alcohol. E. Avoid herbal preparations.

B. Avoid discontinuing the drug abruptly. E .Avoid herbal preparations. Patients must be informed that abrupt discontinuation of benzodiazepines produces withdrawal symptoms. Use of herbal preparations such as kava-kava and valerian can produce harmful additive effects. The other options contain information that is inappropriate to teach patients.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Drink up to 1500 ml of fluid per day B. Avoid the use of NSAIDS for pain C. Check peripheral blood glucose levels twice per day D. Increase dietary protein intake

B. Avoid the use of NSAIDS for pain The nurse should instruct the client to avoid the use of NSAIDs for pain because they can further damage the kidney, causing papillary necrosis and reflux.

A nurse is reviewing the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine (Cr) levels of an older adult diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). The nurse should expect which of the following findings? A. BUN 10; creatinine 0.3 B. BUN 45; creatinine 8 C. BUN 23; creatinine 1 D. BUN 8; creatinine 0.7

B. BUN 45; creatinine 8

A nurse is collaborating on care for a client following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which of the following should be addressed by an occupational therapist? A. Using assistive devices B. Completing self-care C. Thickening clear liquids D. Transferring from chair to bed

B. Completing self-care As a member of the interdisciplinary team, the occupational therapist works with the client to develop fine motor skills and coordination, such as improving hand strength and hand movements. The occupational therapist focuses on self-management of ADLs, such as skills needed for eating, hygiene, and dressing. Occupational therapists also can teach clients to perform other independent living skills, such as cooking and shopping.

Which nursing intervention for an angry, hostile patient would best contribute to prevention and management of aggression? A. Loudly calling the patient by name B. Conveying personal interest in the patient C. Positioning oneself directly in front of the patient D. Firmly directing the patient to discontinue the behavior

B. Conveying personal interest in the patient Research has indicated that the nurse's ability to be with the patient as a unique person in a unique situation is essential for dealing with potentially violent patients. De-escalation techniques include listening, empathizing, using a calm voice, offering alternatives rather than ultimatums, and conveying genuine interest in the patient and his or her well-being. The other options listed are not therapeutic

A nurse is caring for a client who has a postoperative ileus and an NG tube that has drained 2,500 mL in the past 6 hr. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor the client for? A. Elevated sodium level B. Decreased potassium level C. Elevated magnesium level D. Decreased calcium level

B. Decreased potassium level Hypokalemia is an electrolyte imbalance in which the serum potassium level is less than 3.5 mEq/L. Hypokalemia may be the result of diuretic use, diarrhea, vomiting, and prolonged nasogastric suctioning.

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Acute Kidney Disease B. Diabetes Mellitus C. Anemia C. Obesity

B. Diabetes Mellitus Diabetes mellitus is considered a risk factor for a UTI due to the increased amount of glucose present in the urine.

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who had a seizure and became unresponsive after stating she had a sudden, severe headache and vomiting. The client's vital signs are as follows: blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg, pulse of 82/min, respirations of 24/min, and a temperature of 38.2° C (100.8° F). Which of the following neurologic disorders should the nurse suspect? A. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Thrombotic stroke D. Embolic stroke

B. Hemorrhagic stroke A client who has a hemorrhagic stroke often experiences a sudden onset of symptoms including sudden onset of a severe headache, a decrease in the level of consciousness, and seizures. Hemorrhagic strokes occur when bleeding occurs in the brain caused by the rupture of an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation, hypertension and atherosclerosis, or trauma

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as a risk factor for this condition? A. History of bulimia B. History of NSAID use C. Drinks green tea D. Has a glass of wine with dinner each day

B. History of NSAID use The nurse should recognize that long-term use of NSAIDs is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease. NSAIDs break down the mucosal barrier and cause production of prostaglandins to decrease, which results in local gastric mucosal injury.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following findings is a risk factor for this condition? A. History of bulimia B. History of corticosteroid use C. Drinks green tea D. Drinks alcohol occasionally

B. History of corticosteroid use Long-term use of corticosteroids is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of COPD. Which findings would the nurse expect to nose on assessment of this client? Select all that apply. A. Low arterial PCO2 level B. Hyperinflated chest noted on chest x-ray C. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise D. Widened diaphragm noted on chest x-ray E. Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity

B. Hyperinflated chest noted on chest x-ray D. Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic glomerulonephritis with oliguria. For which of the following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse monitor? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypomagnesemia D. Hypophosphatemia

B. Hyperkalemia Glomerulonephritis causes potassium retention

A nurse is teaching a client who has urge urinary incontinence about bladder retraining. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. If you are unable to urinate, sit on the toilet every 4 hours with water running in the sink B. Increase the intervals between urination by 15 minutes per day when able to remain continent C. Immediately empty your bladder when you have the urge to urinate D. If you are unable to urinate, plan to self-catheterize every 3 to 4 hours

B. Increase the intervals between urination by 15 minutes per day when able to remain continent The nurse should instruct the client to increase the length of time between urination by 15 min per day when able to remain continent. The goal is to have 3- to 4-hr intervals between urination.

A nurse admits a client to the emergency department who reports nausea and vomiting that worsens when he lies down. Antacids do not help. The provider suspects acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory test results should the nurse expect to see? A. Decreased WBC B. Increased serum amylase C. Decreased serum lipase D. Increased serum calcium

B. Increased serum amylase Amylase is an enzyme that changes complex sugars into simple sugars that can be used by the body. It is produced by the pancreas and salivary glands and released into the mouth, stomach, and intestines to aid in digestion. The amylase level of a client who has acute pancreatitis usually increases within 12 to 24 hr and can remain elevated for 2 to 3 days

A nurse is assessing a client who has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Facial flushing B. Increasing dyspnea. C. Decreasing respiratory rate. D. Friction rub

B. Increasing dyspnea. The postoperative client is at increased risk for developing atelectasis because of a blunted cough reflex or shallow breathing due to anesthesia, opioids or pain medication. Common manifestations include shortness of breath and pleural pain.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has cystitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Instruct the client to take antibiotics until dysuria is no longer present. B. Instruct the client to avoid drinking carbonated beverages. C. Instruct the client to drink 240 mL of tomato juice each day. D. Instruct the client to drink 1 L of fluid each day

B. Instruct the client to avoid drinking carbonated beverages caffeinated beverages should be avoided by clients who have cystitis as they can irritate the mucosa of the bladder resulting in painful spasms.

A nurse is admitting a client who has influenza and is reporting numbness and tingling of the toes and fingers. The nurse should recognize the client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances? A. Metabolic Acidosis B. Metabolic Alkalosis C. Respiratory Acidosis D. Respiratory Alkalosis

B. Metabolic Alkalosis A client who has influenza has experienced excessive vomiting leading to metabolic alkalosis. Manifestations include dizziness, Circumoral paresthesias, and numbness and tingling of the extremities

Six hours after surgery of a ruptured appendix, a client has a WBC of 17, abdominal tenderness, and abdominal rigidity. The nurse should recognize that the client is exhibiting symptoms of which condition? A. Regional enteritis. B. Peritonitis. C. Colitis. D. Gastritis

B. Peritonitis

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has COPD. which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter B. Productive cough with green sputum C. Clubbing of the fingers D. Pursed-lip breathing with exertion

B. Productive cough with green sputum When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is a productive cough with green sputum. The nurse should report this finding to the provider because it can indicate infection.

A nurse in a women's health clinic is caring for a client who reports urinary urgency and dysuria. Which of the following additional findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. Vaginal discharge B. Pyuria C. Glucosuria D. Elevated creatine kinase-MB

B. Pyuria The nurse should identify pyuria, or white blood cells in the urine, as a common manifestation of a UTI

A nurse is teaching a client who is postpartum and has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. Yogurt and mozzarella B. Spinach and beef C. Turkey slices and milk D. Fish and cheese

B. Spinach and beef Spinach and beef are high in iron and would be recommended for this client.

A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of gastrointestinal perforation? A. Hyperactive bowel sounds B. Sudden abdominal pain C. Increased blood pressure D. Bradycardia

B. Sudden abdominal pain Blood pressure generally decreases with gastrointestinal perforation as a result of hemorrhage, which leads to hypovolemic shock.

A nurse is caring for a client following a CVA and observes the client experiencing severe dysphagia. The nurse notifies the provider. Which of the following nutritional therapies will likely be prescribe? A. NPO until dysphagia subsides B. Supplements via nasogastric tube C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition D. Soft residue diet

B. Supplements via nasogastric tub Total parenteral nutrition is initiated when the GI tract cannot be used for the ingestion, digestion, and absorption of essential nutrients. This nutritional therapy will not likely be prescribed

A client who is scheduled for a barium swallow asks the nurse why a laxative is necessary following the procedure. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? A. The laxative will prevent the absorption of magnesium. B. The laxative helps eliminate the barium C. The laxative is the protocol at this facility D. The laxative makes the barium turn brown

B. The laxative helps eliminate the barium The nurse's statement that the laxative will help eliminate the barium is appropriate and provides the client with the reason for the laxative

A nurse's assessment reveals that a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be experiencing bronchospasm. Which assessment findings would suggest that the client is experiencing bronchospasm? Select all that apply. A. Fine or coarse crackles on auscultation B. Wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation C. Reduced respiratory rate or lethargy D. Slow, deliberate respirations and diaphoresis E. Labored and rapid breathing

B. Wheezes or diminished breath sounds on auscultation E. Labored and rapid breathing Wheezing and diminished breath sounds are consistent with bronchospasm. Crackles are usually attributable to other respiratory or cardiac pathologies. Bronchospasm usually results in rapid, labored breathing and agitation, not slow, deliberate respirations, reduced respiratory rate, or lethargy

A nurse is caring for a client who has hemianopsia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The nurse should document an improvement in this condition when the nurse observes that the client do which of the following? A. Walks independently with a cane. B. Eats items from both sides of her lunch tray. C. Has infrequent episodes of crying. D. Maintains communication with others.

B. eats items from both sides of her lunch tray. Hemianopsia, blindness in one half of the visual field, is a functional defect that can affect the right or left side. A client who had a CVA and has weakness of, for example, the right arm and leg may also have right-sided hemianopsia. Some clients lose sight primarily in the upper or lower part of the visual field, whereas others lose sight in one-half of the visual field on the affected side. An improvement in hemianopsia allows the client to see from a more complete visual field.

For a patient who had a right hemisphere stroke, the nurse anticipates planning interventions to manage A. impaired physical mobility related to right-sided hemiplegia. B. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. C. impaired verbal communication related to speech-language deficits. D. ineffective coping related to depression and distress about disability.

B. risk for injury related to denial of deficits and impulsiveness. The patient with right-sided brain damage typically denies any deficits and has poor impulse control, leading to risk for injury when the patient attempts activities such as transferring from a bed to a chair. Right-sided brain damage causes left hemiplegia. Left-sided brain damage typically causes language deficits. Left-sided brain damage is associated with depression and distress about the disability

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is hospitalized for a bowel obstruction and has a nasogastric (NG) tube to wall suction. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the postoperative plan of care? (Select all that apply.) A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids after the client's gag reflex returns. B. Maintain the client on complete bed rest for 48 hr. C. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with saline as needed. D. Place sequential compression devices on the bilateral lower extremities. E. Reposition the client from side to side every 2 hr. F. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer every hour while the client is awake

C. D. E. F. Offer small amounts of clear liquids after the client's gag reflex returns is incorrect. Offering of clear liquids is contraindicated in a client who has a nasogastric tube. In addition, the client's diet will not be resumed until bowel sounds, rather than the gag reflex, have returned. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with saline as needed is correct. A nasogastric tube will be in place following surgery for a bowel obstruction to provide gastric decompression. The tube should be irrigated as needed to maintain patency. Place sequential compression devices on the bilateral lower extremities is correct. Sequential compression devices improve blood flow in a client who has impaired mobility and should be in place on the lower extremities whenever the client is in bed. Reposition the client from side to side every 2 hr is correct. All clients who are postoperative should be repositioned, either alone or with assistance, every 2 hr. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer every hour while the client is awake is correct. Use of the incentive spirometer helps to prevent the development of atelectasis. All clients who are postoperative should be encouraged to use the device 10 times each hour while awake

The nurse prepares a patient for discharge after a cystoscopy. It is most important for the nurse to provide additional information in response to which patient statement? A. "I should drink plenty of fluids to prevent complications." B. "If my urine is cloudy, I should contact my health care provider." C. "Bright red bleeding is normal for a few days after the procedure." D. "Sitz baths and acetaminophen will help to reduce my discomfort."

C. "Bright red bleeding is normal for a few days after the procedure." Bright red bleeding after a cystoscopy is not normal and should be reported immediately. Other complications include urinary retention, bladder infection, and perforation of the bladder. Patients should drink plenty of fluids and expect burning on urination, pink-tinged urine, and urinary frequency. Warm sitz baths, heat, and mild analgesics may be used to relieve discomfort.

A nurse on a medical unit is assessing four clients for urinary retention. Which of the following clients have manifestations of urinary retention? A. A client who has an elevated BUN B. A client who reports painful urination C. A client who reports urinary frequency D. A client who has glucose in the urine

C. A client who reports urinary frequency Voiding a small amount of urine (less than 100 mL) frequently (2 to 3 times per hour) and dribbling of urine are manifestations of urinary retention

A group of nurses are discussing risk factors for transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which of the following individuals should the nurse identify as being at the greatest risk for contracting HIV? A. An occupational therapist who works with a client who has HIV B. A personal trainer who works with a client who has HIV C. A phlebotomist who collects blood from clients who have HIV D. A nurse who works for an insurance company and collects urine samples from clients who have HIV

C. A phlebotomist who collects blood from clients who have HIV The greatest risk for exposure to HIV is from a needle stick; therefore, the phlebotomist who collects blood is at greatest risk.

A left-handed patient with left-sided hemiplegia has difficulty feeding himself. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Provide a wide variety of food choices. B. Provide oral care before and after meals. C. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. D. Teach the patient the "chin-tuck" technique.

C. Assist the patient to eat with the right hand. Because the patient has difficulty feeding himself, the appropriate interventions will focus on teaching the patient to use the right hand for self-feeding. The other interventions are appropriate for patients with other etiologies for the imbalanced nutrition.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has experienced an acute episode of gastritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Limit drinking milk B. Take NSAIDs for pain C. Avoid drinking alcohol D. Limit strenuous exercise

C. Avoid drinking alcohol The nurse should teach the client to avoid drinking alcohol because it increases manifestations of gastritis.

A nurse is teaching a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease about managing his illness. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Limit fluid intake not related to meals. B. Chew on mint leaves to relieve indigestion C. Avoid eating within 2 hr of bedtime D. Season foods with black pepper

C. Avoid eating within 2 hr of bedtime The nurse should instruct the client to eat small, frequent meals but to avoid eating with 2-3 hrs of bedtime

A nurse is preparing dietary instructions for a client who has episodes of biliary colic from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A. Include foods high in starch and proteins B. Include foods high in fiber C. Avoid foods high in fat D. Avoid foods high in sodium

C. Avoid foods high in fat The nurse should instruct the client to follow a low-fat diet to decrease episodes of biliary colic. A client who has chronic cholecystitis has an intolerance to fatty foods

A nurse is caring for a client who has an active upper gastrointestinal bleed. After inserting an NG tube into the client, which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate? A. Frothy pink drainage B. Dark amber drainage C. Coffee-ground drainage D. Greenish-yellow drainage

C. Coffee-ground drainage "Coffee-ground" drainage or emesis indicates the presence of blood. The coffee ground appearance is the result of the effects of methemoglobin on the hemoglobin

A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription of a nasogastric tube (NG) to treat a pyloric obstruction. Which of the following rationales for the use of the nasogastric tube should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Determine the pH of the gastric secretions. B. Supply nutrients via tube feedings C. Decompress the stomach. D. Administer medications.

C. Decompress the stomach. A pyloric obstruction, also called gastric outlet obstruction, is caused by edema, scarring, or spasm, often the result of gastritis or peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should inform the clientthat because the stomach is dilated and may contain undigested food, it must bedecompressed, necessitating the placement of an NG tube.

A nurse is teaching a client how to prepare for a colonoscopy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Begin drinking the oral liquid preparation for bowel cleansing on the morning of the procedure. B. Drink full liquids for breakfast the day of the procedure, and then take nothing by mouth for 2 hr prior to the procedure. C. Drink clear liquids for 24 hr prior to the procedure, and then take nothing by mouth for 6 hr before the procedure. D. Drink the oral liquid preparation for bowel cleansing slowly.

C. Drink clear liquids for 24 hr prior to the procedure, and then take nothing by mouth for 6 hr before the procedure The nurse should instruct the client to drink clear liquids for 24 hr prior to the colonoscopy to promote adequate bowel cleansing. Maintaining NPO status for 4 to 6 hr prior to the colonoscopy preserves the bowel's cleansed state.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) about ways to manage his condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Wait to go to bed for 1 hr after eating B. Sleep on your left side C. Eat four small meals each day D. Drink milk to soothe your stomach

C. Eat four small meals each day The client should avoid eating large meals because of the pressure it places on the stomach. Instead, he should eat four to six small meals per day

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan to prevent pulmonary complications? A. Perform range-of-motion exercises B. Place suction equipment at the bedside C. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer D. Administer an expectorant

C. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer Incentive spirometry expands the lungs and promotes gas exchange after surgery which can help prevent pulmonary complications

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam. The client's respiratory rate decreases from 16/min to 6/min, and their oxygen saturation decreases from 92% to 85%. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer? A. Atropine B. Acetylcysteine C. Flumazenil D. Protamine sulfate

C. Flumazenil The client's respiratory rate and oxygen saturation level indicate increased sedation caused from a benzodiazepine. The nurse should administer flumazenil, a benzodiazepine agonist, to reverse the sedative effects of the medication.

A nurse is providing nutritional teaching to a client who has dumping syndrome following a hemi-colectomy. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? A. Rice B. Poached Eggs C. Fresh Apples D. White Bread

C. Fresh Apples Clients with dumping syndrome following a hemi-colectomy should avoid fresh fruits and choose canned or well-cooked fruits instead

When caring for a patient with a new right-sided homonymous hemianopsia resulting from a stroke, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A. Apply an eye patch to the right eye. B. Approach the patient from the right side. C. Place needed objects on the patient's left side. D. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve.

C. Place needed objects on the patient's left side. During the acute period, the nurse should place objects on the patient's unaffected side. Because there is a visual defect in the right half of each eye, an eye patch is not appropriate. The patient should be approached from the left side. The visual deficit may not resolve, although the patient can learn to compensate for the defect.

A client has right-sided paralysis from a cerebral vascular accident (CVA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent foot-drop? A. Place sandbags to maintain right plantar flexion B. Position soft pillows against the bottom of the feet. C. Support the right foot in dorsiflexion with a footboard D. Splint the right lower extremity to maintain proper alignment

C. Support the right foot in dorsiflexion with a footboar The foot should be positioned in a dorsiflexion position using a firm surface, such as a footboard. When foot-drop occurs, the foot is permanently fixed in plantar flexion with toes pointing downward.

A patient who takes haloperidol 10 mg/day orally developed restlessness, agitation, and and inability to sit still. The nurse then administered a PRN dose of haloperidol 5 mg intramuscularly. One hour later the patient's symptoms were worse. What is the most likely explanation for the increase in symptoms? A. The PRN medication has not yet taken effect. B. The patient needs an increase in the dosage of haloperidol to control the rising agitation. C. The patient was experiencing akathisia, which worsened after receiving the haloperidol medication. D. The nurse should consider an adjunctive dose of an antianxiety drug such as lorazepam

C. The patient was experiencing akathisia, which worsened after receiving the haloperidol medication. Akathisia is characterized by subjective feelings of restlessness accompanied by the inability to sit still and the need to pace. It is an EPSE of antipsychotic medication, made more intense by higher doses of medication and use of PRN doses. It is unnecessary to change to a more sedating drug or to add an antianxiety drug.

Which stroke risk factor for a 48-yr-old male patient in the clinic is most important for the nurse to address? A. The patient is 25 lb above the ideal weight. B. The patient drinks a glass of red wine with dinner daily. C. The patient's usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. D. The patient works at a desk and relaxes by watching television.

C. The patient's usual blood pressure (BP) is 170/94 mm Hg. Hypertension is the single most important modifiable risk factor. People who drink more than 1 (for women) or 2 (for men) alcoholic beverages a day may increase their risk for hypertension. Physical inactivity and obesity contribute to stroke risk but not as much as hypertension.

A client is prescribed lansoprazole 15 mg PO once a day. At which of the following times should the nurse administer the medication? A. Thirty minutes after lunch B. With a bedtime snack C. Thirty minutes before breakfast D. During the evening meal

C. Thirty minutes before breakfast Lansoprazole should be given thirty minutes before breakfast for best absorption because food diminishes the effectiveness of the medication

A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. What lab findings should suggest to the nurse that med therapy is effective? A. WBC 3500/mm3 B. lymphocyte 1400/mm3 C. decreased viral load D. low CD4/CD8

C. decreased viral load The nurse should recognize that a client who has HIV and is receiving medication therapy should display a decreasing viral protein amount in the blood, indicating a positive response to the medication therapy.

A new nurse will best ensure that the therapeutic environment is healthy when he or she verbalizes: A. "I want to always avoid conflict in the workplace." B. "I believe the team should make important decisions for the patient." C. "I don't think the patients should be busy with activities on the unit." D. "I will closely monitor my own personal values and preconceptions."

D. "I will closely monitor my own personal values and preconceptions." Self-awareness and insight by the nurse promote healing and foster a therapeutic environment. It is not realistic, nor professionally or personally possible, to always avoid conflict. It is a nursing responsibility to support patient independence, autonomy, and decision-making. The statement about activities is incongruent with the purposes of a therapeutic environment or therapeutic milieu

A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and a blood glucose level of 925 mg/dL. The nurse should anticipate which of the following prescriptions from the provider? A. Glucocorticoid medications B. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% sodium chloride C. Oral hypoglycemic medications D. 0.9% sodium chloride IV bolus

D. 0.9% sodium chloride IV bolus A client in DKA is basically DEHYDRATED always restore their fluids. The nurse should expect a prescription for an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to be administered at 15 to 20 mL/kg/hr for the first hour to restore volume and maintain perfusion to the vital organs

A nurse is admitting a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following BUN levels should the nurse expect the client to have upon admission? A. 3.1 mg/dL B. 10 mg/dL C. 16.5 mg/dL D. 35 mg/dL

D. 35 mg/dL A BUN of 35 mg/dL is an expected finding for a client who has dehydration. Clients who have dehydration can have decreased blood flow, which leads to decreased renal excretion of BUN. Other causes of increased BUN levels include GI bleeding, heart failure, burns, shock, and myocardial infarction

A client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for the past 4 weeks. The nurse determines that the medication is effective when the client reports relief from: A. Nausea B. Diarrhea C. Headache D. Acid -indigestion

D. Acid -indigestion Intestinal parasites are not a manifestation of ulcerative colitis. This inflammatory boweldisease can cause dehydration and anorexia, however

A nurse in an urgent care center is caring for a client who is having an acute asthma exacerbation. Which of the following actions is the nurse's highest priority? A. Providing immediate rest for the client B. Initiating oxygen therapy C. Positioning the client in High Fowlers D. Administering a nebulized betafiadrenergic

D. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic The greatest risk to the client's safety is airway obstruction. Beta-adrenergic medications act as bronchodilators. They provide prompt relief of airflow obstruction by relaxing bronchiolar smooth muscle and are the initial priority intervention when a client has an acute asthma exacerbation.

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing perforation of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Increased BP B. Decreased HR C. Yellowing of the skin D. Boardlike abdomen

D. Boardlike abdomen

A patient with a stroke experiences facial drooping on the right side and right-sided arm and leg paralysis. When admitting the patient, which clinical manifestation will the nurse expect to find? A. Impulsive behavior B. Right-sided neglect C. Hyperactive left-sided tendon reflexes D. Difficulty comprehending instructions

D. Difficulty comprehending instructions Right-sided paralysis indicates a left-brain stroke, which will lead to difficulty with comprehension and use of language. The left-side reflexes are likely to be intact. Impulsive behavior and neglect are more likely with a right-side stroke.

A nurse working for a home health agency is assessing an older adult male client. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to address? A. Urinary hesitancy B. Pruritus C. Respirations of 13 D. Dysphagia

D. Dysphagia Dysphagia poses the greatest safety risk to the client because it can cause choking, or result in aspiration of food or liquids leading to pneumonia and respiratory compromise. This is the priority finding for the nurse to address

A nurse is planning care for a client who has diverticulitis. Which of the following menu selections should the nurse include in the plan? A. Turkey sandwich with celery sticks B. Sliced ham with green salad C. Pork tenderloin with green peas D. Grilled chicken breast with white rice

D. Grilled chicken breast with white rice Both of these items are low in fiber which is advised during the inflammation of diverticulitis. But if it was diverticulosis, a high-fiber diet would be indicated.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. The type of foods I eat does not affect this condition B. I will sleep on my left side C. I will not eat at 6hours before bedtime D. I will sleep with the head of my bed elevated

D. I will sleep with the head of my bed elevated The client should sleep with the head of the bed elevated by 6 to 12 inches to prevent reflux at night.

A nurse is teaching a client about strategies to manage gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include? A. Elevate the head of your bed by 18 inches. B. Avoid snacking between meals C. Limit foods that are high in fiber D. Lie on your left side when sleeping

D. Lie on your left side when sleeping The nurse should instruct the client to lie on the right side when sleeping to prevent nighttime reflux

5. You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? A. Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B. Metabolic alkalosis with a compensation C. Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

D. Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO3 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem

A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has a long history of diabetes mellitus and is being admitted to the emergency department confused, flushed, and with an acetone odor on the breath. Diabetic ketoacidosis is suspected. The nurse should anticipate using which of the following types of insulin to treat this client? A. NPH insulin B. Insulin glargine C. Insulin detemir D. Regular insulin

D. Regular insulin Regular insulin is classified as a short-acting insulin. It can be given intravenously with an onset of action of less than 30 min. This is the insulin that is most appropriate in emergency situations of severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis

Which class of medications is most often used long term to effectively treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) B. Benzodiazepines C. Nonbenzodiazepines D. Selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI)

D. Selective serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI) Antidepressants such as SSRIs and SNRIs are most effective for treating GAD and comorbid disorders such as depression. Because GAD is a chronic disorder, antidepressants are better than benzodiazepines because of the possibility of dependency and tolerance with long-term use of benzodiazepines. The tricyclic antidepressants are seldom used because of their association with more serious side effects than with the SSRIs. Buspirone (BuSpar), a nonaddicting nonbenzodiazepine, is useful for the cognitive symptoms, worry, irritability, and apprehension

A nurse is caring for a client following extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for the treatment of calcium phosphate kidney stones. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Monitor the client's urine for ketones B. Provide the client with an increased animal protein diet C. Limit the client's fluid intake to 1.5 L per day D. Strain all of the client's urine

D. Strain all of the client's urine The nurse should strain all of the client's urine following ESWL to monitor for stone fragments that have left the client's body.

A nurse is preparing to remove an NG tube from a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Disconnect the tube from the wall suction B. Perform hand hygiene and don gloves C. Observe the amount and color of drainage D. Verify provider order to discontinue the tube

D. Verify provider order to discontinue the tube

A nurse is reviewing the daily lab results for a female client who has acute leukemia. What is an expected finding? A. hct 40% B. hgb 14 C. platelets 170,000/mm3 D. WBC 21000/mm3

D. WBC 21000/mm3 The nurse should expect a client who has acute leukemia to have an elevated WBC count.

A nurse is caring for a client who has expressive aphasia following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To determine if the client is experiencing pain, the nurse should use? A. pulse and blood pressure findings B. behavioral indicators and affect C. facial expressions and grimaces D. a self-report pain rating scale.

D. a self-report pain rating scale. Expressive aphasia does not necessarily mean that a client is unable to reliably report pain. When assessing a client for pain, it is always better to use a subjective method, such as a client rep

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is experiencing adverse effects of chlorpromazine. The nurse should administer benztropine to relieve WOTF adverse effects? A. blurred vision B. orthostatic hypotension C. dry mouth D. acute dystonia

D. acute dystonia The nurse should administer benztropine, an anticholinergic agent, to relieve acute dystonia, which is an extrapyramidal adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

When a patient is diagnosed with achalasia, the nurse will teach the patient that? A. lying down after meals is recommended. B. a liquid or blenderized diet will be necessary. C. drinking fluids with meals should be avoided. D. treatment may include endoscopic procedures

D. treatment may include endoscopic procedures Endoscopic and laparoscopic procedures are the most effective therapy for improving symptoms caused by achalasia. Keeping the head elevated after eating will improve esophageal emptying. A semisoft diet is recommended to improve esophageal emptying. Patients are advised to drink fluid with meals.