ALL DRUGS EXAMS
A woman with numerous chronic health problems has been diagnosed with a benign gastric ulcer has begun treatment with ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to this patient? A. "Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer." B. "This drug will help to eliminate the bacteria in your stomach that caused your ulcer." C. "You should eat several small meals each day rather than three larger meals." D. "Take each dose of ranitidine with an antacid of your choice."
A. "Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer."
A patient is diagnosed with a brain tumor. The patient is told that the cancer cells proliferate. The patient asks the nurse what this means. What is the nurse's best response? A. "The proliferation is the growth of cancer cells and the rate of growth." B. "The proliferation of cancer cells is the metastasis of the tumor." C. "The proliferation of the cancer cells is the suppression of growth." D. "The proliferation of the cancer cells is the treatment with chemotherapy."
A. "The proliferation is the growth of cancer cells and the rate of growth."
Your patient, a 37-year-old woman, was admitted due to elevated temperature, oliguria, and dehydration. With adequate hydration, the expected normal urine production would be approximately: A. 2 L/day. B. 0.5 L/day. C. 1L/day. D. 3 L/day.
A. 2 L/day.
Testosterone therapy would be recommended for all these patients except for a: A. 35-year-old male with erectile dysfunction due to diabetes mellitus. B. 14-year-old who is diagnosed with hypogonadism. C. 25-year-old with low testosterone levels and loss of pubic hair. D. 52-year-old female with inoperable metastatic breast cancer.
A. 35-year-old male with erectile dysfunction due to diabetes mellitus.
Conjugated estrogen therapy would be most appropriate for which one of these patients? A. A 25-year-old female with primary ovarian failure B. A 35-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis, to prevent pregnancy C. A 65-year-old with a history of abnormal vaginal bleeding D. A 72-year-old with newly diagnosed breast cancer
A. A 25-year-old female with primary ovarian failure
Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from treatment with ondansetron (Zofran)? A. A woman who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of colon cancer B. A woman who is recovering from a bilateral mastectomy and breast reconstruction C. A man who has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure secondary to poorly controlled diabetes D. A child who experienced a greenstick fracture of his humerus in a playground accident
A. A woman who is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of colon cancer
A patient is being sent home with orders for a laxative PRN. What should the nurse inform the patient is one of the most common adverse effects of a laxative? A. Abdominal cramping B. Dizziness C. Headache D. Weakness
A. Abdominal cramping
An infant is to receive a hepatitis B vaccine within a few hours after birth. Which is the best approach for the nurse to take when giving this medication? A. Administer the medication in the infant's vastus lateralis with a 25-gauge needle. B. Administer the medication in the vastus lateralis with a 20-gauge needle. C. Administer the medication in the dorsogluteal with a 25-gauge needle. D. Administer the medication in the deltoid muscle with a 20-gauge needle.
A. Administer the medication in the infant's vastus lateralis with a 25-gauge needle.
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the ED with an asthma exacerbation, including wheezing (a high-pitched, whistling sound caused by turbulent airflow through an obstructed airway). Those who have asthma chronically present with what signs, even when they may appear symptom free? (Select all that apply.) A. Airway inflammation B. Damaged airway mucosa C. Elevated temperature D. Bradycardia
A. Airway inflammation B. Damaged airway mucosa
A nurse who provides care for older adults is aware of the decreased rate of drug distribution among this population. The ability of older adults to adequately distribute drugs that are ingested is highly dependent on serum levels of A. Albumin B. Creatinine C. Blood urea nitrogen D. Sodium
A. Albumin
A pregnant woman who has had no prenatal care delivers an infant with significant physical malformations and microcephaly. What substance does the nurse question the patient about using during the pregnancy? A. Alcohol B. Marijuana C. Opiates D. Benzodiazepines
A. Alcohol
A nurse should question chronic asthma clients concerning which of the following at each office visit? Select all that apply: A. Allergies B. Frequency of attacks C. Severity of attacks D. Anti-asthma drugs currently taken E. Anti-ashtma drugs taken in the past
A. Allergies B. Frequency of attacks C. Severity of attacks D. Anti-asthma drugs currently taken E. Anti-ashtma drugs taken in the past
A nurse should advise a female client beginning therapy with methyltestosterone (Testred) for the treatment of inoperable advanced breast carcinoma of which of the following adverse reactions? Select all that apply: A. Amenorrhea B. Acne C. Facial hair growth D. Somnolence E. Mania
A. Amenorrhea B. Acne C. Facial hair growth
A client who is HIV positive is taking zidovudine. Which adverse effects should the nurse closely monitor for in this client? A. Anemia and granulocytopenia B. Numbness in the extremities C. Alterations in the renal function D. Pancreatitis
A. Anemia and granulocytopenia
A nurse should monitor a client closely for increased CNS depressant effects when a skeletal muscle relaxant is used concomitantly with which of the following? Select all that apply: A. Antihistamine B. Oral contraceptives C. Alcohol D. Opiates E. Antidiabetic medications
A. Antihistamine C. Alcohol D. Opiates
The administration of immunizations to a patient is a form of what type of immunity? A. Artificial active immunity B. Naturally active immunity C. Passive active immunity D. Attenuated active immunity
A. Artificial active immunity
The physician should be notified for a possible reduction in the ordered dose for a patient with a new prescription of tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for which of the following symptoms? A. Atrial fibrillation who takes warfarin (Coumadin) B. History of surgery for cataracts C. Diabetes mellitus taking metformin (Glucophage) D. History of renal disease
A. Atrial fibrillation who takes warfarin (Coumadin)
hen describing the action of vaccines, the nurse identifies their action as primarily affecting: A. B lymphocytes. B. interleukins. C. histamine release. D. effector T cells.
A. B lymphocytes.
Which is an example of a direct-acting cholinergic that acts like the neurotransmitter acetylcholine? A. Bethanechol (Urecholine) B. Pyridostigmine (Regonol) C. Pilocarpine (Pilopine) D. Ambenonium (Mytelase)
A. Bethanechol (Urecholine)
The nurse is teaching a class on laxative medications. What medication would the nurse explain is a chemical stimulant? A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) B. Polycarbophil (FiberCon) C. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) D. Docusate (Colace)
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
The nurse should notify the physician immediately if which of the following occurs during observation of a client receiving an antineoplastic drug as they may be signs of thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply: A. Bleeding gums B. Petechiae C. Tarry stools D. Hematuria E. Coffee-ground emesis
A. Bleeding gums B. Petechiae C. Tarry stools D. Hematuria E. Coffee-ground emesis
Which hormone would the nurse identify as important in decreasing serum calcium levels? A. Calcitonin B. Melatonin C. Gastrin D. Thyroid hormone
A. Calcitonin
The nurse should complete which of the following during acute breathing distress before initiation of a broncodilator? Select all that apply: A. Check blood pressure. B. Check blood glucose. C. Check pulse. D. Check peak flow E. Check respiratory rate
A. Check blood pressure. C. Check pulse. E. Check respiratory rate
The nurse should warn a patient taking aluminum and calcium-containing antacids about which adverse effects? A. Constipation B. Diarrhea C. Dehydration D. Flatulence
A. Constipation
A patient has been prescribed hydrocodone for back pain related to a compression fracture. Which of the following interventions should the patient be taught regarding the medication administration? A. Consume a diet high in fiber B. Decrease activity due to pain C. Elevate the lower extremities D. Take aspirin with the medication
A. Consume a diet high in fiber
A patient is having an allergic reaction to mold. The patient describes chest tightness and difficulty breathing. Which of the following body effects are occurring? A. Contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi B. Suppression of the vagus nerve endings producing tachycardia C. Decreased permeability of the veins and capillaries D. Decreased secretion of the mucous glands
A. Contraction of smooth muscle in the bronchi
A group of students are reviewing the various drugs that affect inflammation. The students demonstrate understanding when they identify which agent as a mast cell stabilizer? A. Cromolyn B. Montelukast C. Calfactant D. Triamcinolone
A. Cromolyn
A client sustained a musculoskeletal injury to his left leg that has resulted in occasional spasticity. What should the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe? A. Cyclobenzaprine B. Baclofen C. Dantrolene D. Botulinum toxin type B
A. Cyclobenzaprine
The client is taking cyclobenzaprine for muscle spasms secondary to an injury to the lumbar spine that occurred while lifting a motor at work. The client is being seen for a follow-up visit by the physician. The client reports dry mouth, blurred vision, and constipation. Why is the client having these side effects from cyclobenzaprine? A. Cyclobenzaprine produces an anticholinergic response, resulting in these side effects. B. Cyclobenzaprine acts in the peripheral nervous system, resulting in these side effects. C. Cyclobenzaprine has an effect at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in these side effects. D. Cyclobenzaprine is structurally similar to amitriptyline, resulting in these side effects.
A. Cyclobenzaprine produces an anticholinergic response, resulting in these side effects.
A gerontological nurse is highly aware of the changes in pharmacokinetics that accompany the aging process. What phenomenon is primarily responsible for these changes? A. Decreased function of vital organs B. Changes in cognition, including concentration and decision-making abilty C. Hemodynamic changes D. Increased prevalence of chronic diseases
A. Decreased function of vital organs
A patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is taking vasopressin (Desmopressin). What outcome would indicate to the nurse that the desmopressin is producing a therapeutic effect? A. Decreased urine output B. Decreased water reabsorption C. Increased plasma osmolarity D. Decreased blood volume
A. Decreased urine output
Systemic antidiarrheals, such as loperamide (Imodium), decrease the number and liquidity of stools by which of the following mechanisms? A. Decreasing intestinal motility B. Absorbing toxins C. Binding with fecal material to increase bulk D. Blocking the CTZ zone
A. Decreasing intestinal motility B. Absorbing toxins
The nurse receives a call from a male client who takes finasteride (Proscar) for treatment of BPH, and tells the nurse that his wife may be pregnant. What does the nurse expect the health care provider to do? A. Discontinue the medication. B. Decrease the dose of medication. C. Increase the dose of medication. D. Change the finasteride to dutasteride.
A. Discontinue the medication.
Many drugs prescribed to pediatric clients are used off label. What is the main reason that this occurs? A. Drug studies do not typically involve children. B. Pharmaceutical companies have no financial incentive to seek FDA approval for a drug that is already on the market. C. Physicians and prescribing providers do not need to follow drug label recommendations if their particular practice dictates the need to prescribe the medication. D. The prescribing community realizes that the dosage of any drug can be safely calculated, even if there is not a recommended pediatric range given.
A. Drug studies do not typically involve children.
Which statement is true concerning drugs to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? A. Drugs for rheumatoid arthritis help to decrease inflammation. B. All rheumatoid arthritis medications depress the immune response. C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs should never be used for arthritis. D. Cholinergic agonists are often used to decrease pain in rheumatoid arthritis.
A. Drugs for rheumatoid arthritis help to decrease inflammation.
A nurse is conducting a medication reconciliation of a woman who is newly admitted to a long-term care facility. When appraising the woman's medication regimen in light of the Beers Criteria, the nurse will look for A. Drugs that are known to cause adverse effects in older adults. B. Drugs for which generic equivalents are available at lower cost. C. Drugs that have been found to be ineffective in older adults. D. Drugs that are known to exacerbate the aging process.
A. Drugs that are known to cause adverse effects in older adults.
Constipation is a common adverse reaction seen with the use of cholinergic-blocking drugs, which of the following nonpharmacological treatments can a nurse recommend to a client with drug-induced constipation? Select all that apply: A. Eat a diet high in fiber. B. Decrease the dose of cholinergic-blocking medication. C. Increase fluid intake to 2000 mL daily. D. Stop taking the cholinergic-blocking medication. E. Obtain adequate exercise.
A. Eat a diet high in fiber. C. Increase fluid intake to 2000 mL daily. E. Obtain adequate exercise.
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has issued a Black Box Warning concerning estrogen's use and associated increased risk of which of the following? A. Endometrial carcinoma B. Lung disease C. Pelvic inflammatory disease D. Osteosarcoma
A. Endometrial carcinoma
An instructor is preparing a teaching plan for a group of students about adrenergic agonists. Which would the nurse include as an alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonist? A. Epinephrine B. Phenylephrine C. Albuterol D. Terbutaline
A. Epinephrine
A patient is being treated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). What is the cause of SIADH? A. Excessive secretion of ADH B. Insufficient secretion of ADH C. Excessive secretion of androgens D. Insufficient secretion of antidepressants
A. Excessive secretion of ADH
What reduce the secretion of gastric acid by inhibiting the action of histamine at H2 receptors in the stomach? (Select all that apply.) A. Famotidine (Pepcid) B. Ranitidine (Zantac) C. Esomeprazole (Nexium) D. Lansoprazole (Prevacid) E. Calcium carbonate (Tums)
A. Famotidine (Pepcid) B. Ranitidine (Zantac)
A client is to receive etanercept. What characteristic of the client may contraindicate the use of this medication? A. Fear of injections B. Occasional dysphagia C. Lack of social support D. Employment involving heavy machinery
A. Fear of injections
Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone density (osteopenia) and weak, fragile bones. Which of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis? Choose all that apply. A. Female gender B. Lean body mass C. Smoking D. Childbearing age E. African-American race
A. Female gender B. Lean body mass C. Smoking
A pregnant nurse should not handle crushed or broken tablets of which of the following medications as it is classified in pregnancy category X and its absorption poses substantial risk for abnormal growth to a male fetus? (Choose one) A. Finasteride B. Estradiol C. Medroxyprogesterone D. Nandrolone
A. Finasteride
While maternal medication ingestion can affect the fetus at any point during pregnancy, at what time is drug-induced teratogenicity most likely to occur? A. First trimester B. Second trimester C. Third trimester D. No specific trimester is more likely
A. First trimester
A 29-year-old man is distraught at being recently diagnosed with HIV. He has just had his first appointment with his care provider since being diagnosed and the drug treatment regimen is being planned and explained by his primary care provider. Which of the following principles will guide the planning and implementation of the patient's drug treatment regimen? A. HIV replication is best suppressed by the simultaneous use of multiple anti-HIV drugs. B. Suppression of the viral load and maximization of CD4+ levels are best achieved by the exclusive use of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). C. The patient and the care provider need to decide whether to use protease inhibitors (PIs) or whether to use NRTIs in treatment. D. The patient's medical history prior to HIV diagnosis will be the primary determinant of the drug regimen that is chosen.
A. HIV replication is best suppressed by the simultaneous use of multiple anti-HIV drugs.
What nursing diagnoses is a priority for 87-year-old Mrs. Quinn, who has stomatitis secondary to the administration of Methotrexate? A. Impaired skin integrity B. High risk for infection C. Imbalanced nutrition D. High risk for bleeding
A. Impaired skin integrity
Thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in metabolic rate of tissues that can result in certain effects? What are some of these effects? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased heart rate B. Decreased respiratory rate C. Increased body temperature D. Increased cardiac output E. Decreased oxygen consumption
A. Increased heart rate C. Increased body temperature D. Increased cardiac output
A nurse is administering an antineoplastic extravasation occurs. How can the nurse best prevent tissue damage caused by extravasation? A. Inspect the site frequently for redness or swelling B. Infuse into proximal veins whenever possible C. Administer through a hand vein, if possible D. Use an infusion pump
A. Inspect the site frequently for redness or swelling
A nurse has received the glucose tolerance test results from a client and is concerned that the client is developing gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). The nurse is preparing to teach the client regarding which of the following medications to treat GDM and try to prevent injury to the fetus? A. Insulin B. Metformin C. Glyburide D. Glucophage
A. Insulin
Ms. Martin is being treated with methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse understands that this medication is being prescribed to modify the disease. What is the mechanism of action of this drug? A. It is a folate antimetabolite, which inhibits folic acid. B. It modifies the inflammatory process by inhibition of prostaglandin. C. It alters the function of osteoclasts preventing bone production. D. It alters the ability of the cells to regenerate, therefore preventing the deformities of the joints.
A. It is a folate antimetabolite, which inhibits folic acid.
During which phase of the cell cycle would a nurse expect a mitotic inhibitor to act? A. M B. G0 C. G1 D. S
A. M
Which drug exerts its diuretic effects by increasing the density of the filtrate in the glomerulus? A. Mannitol (Osmitrol) B. Furosemide (Lasix) C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
A. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
A nurse has completed a medication reconciliation of a patient who has been admitted following a motor vehicle accident. Among the many drugs that the patient has received in the previous year is rituximab. The nurse would be justified in suspecting the patient may have received treatment for which of the following diseases? A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma B. Malignant melanoma C. Nonsmall cell lung cancer D. Renal cell carcinoma
A. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
A patient is diagnosed with peptic ulcer due to H. pylori. The nurse would anticipate administering which agent in conjunction with an antibiotic? A. Omeprazole B. Magaldrate C. Sucralfate D. Cimetidine
A. Omeprazole
After teaching a group of students about proton pump inhibitors, the instructor determines that the students have understood the information when they identify which agent as the prototype proton pump inhibitor? A. Omeprazole B. Esomeprazole C. Lansoprazole D. Pantoprazole
A. Omeprazole
The drug imatinib (Gleevec) is used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia and is much more successful than others. To have optimal effects of this drug for chronic myeloid leukemia, what chromosomal variation does the patient have to have? A. Philadelphia chromosome B. Boston chromosome C. Pittsburgh chromosome D. Washington chromosome
A. Philadelphia chromosome
Jennifer, the nurse caring for Ms. Cox, is explaining how she will administer a suppository of mesalamine in order to produce the maximum effectiveness of the medication. How should Jennifer administer this medication? A. Position Ms. Cox in a left side-lying position. B. Assist Ms. Cox into a prone position. C. Warm the suppository in hot water before administration. D. Administer the suppository after a cleansing enema.
A. Position Ms. Cox in a left side-lying position.
A patient being treated for HIV with saquinavir informs the nurse they he has been "suffering from depression" and taking St. John's wort to help. What is important for the nurse to discuss with this patient? A. Refraining from use of St. John's wort, which can cause decreased effectiveness of saquinavir B. Taking St. John's wort only as directed by the manufacturer to decrease the toxic effects C. Informing the health care provider if any bleeding or bruising is observed when taking the St. John's wort D. Reporting to the health care provider if any yellowing of the eyes or skin develops
A. Refraining from use of St. John's wort, which can cause decreased effectiveness of saquinavir
The patient informs the nurse that he has been taking methotrexate for 1 week and it is not working to control the rheumatoid arthritis (RA) symptoms. What should the nurse explain to the patient about the onset of action? A. Relief of symptoms should occur within 3-6 weeks. B. Relief of symptoms should occur within 3 days. C. Relief of symptoms should occur within 1 week. D. Relief of symptoms should occur within 2 months.
A. Relief of symptoms should occur within 3-6 weeks.
Which diffuse connective tissue disease is the result of an autoimmune reaction that results in phagocytosis, producing enzymes within the joint that break down collagen and cause edema? A. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Osteoporosis D. Polymyositis
A. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
A breastfeeding mother is to begin treatment with radioactive iodine for hyperthyroidism. What can the nurse advise the patient at this time? A. She can pump during the time that breast milk is radioactive then discard in a biohazard container. She can resume breast feeding when treatment is complete. B. She can continue to breastfeed during this time because the radioactive iodine will not cross over into the breast milk. C. She will not be able to breastfeed at any time and will have to bottle feed the baby. D. She can pump and give the baby the breast milk.
A. She can pump during the time that breast milk is radioactive then discard in a biohazard container. She can resume breast feeding when treatment is complete.
When describing the various effects of antineoplastic agents, the nurse explains that antineoplastic drugs primarily affect human cells that are rapidly multiplying, going through the cell cycle quickly. The nurse would identify which cells as an example? A. Skin B. Breast C. Testicles D. Ovaries
A. Skin
About 80% of water, sodium, potassium, and other substances are reabsorbed during renal processing; the remaining 20% enters the loop of Henle. What substance is reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle? A. Sodium B. Water C. Glucose D. Amino acids
A. Sodium
Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are administered to produce which therapeutic effect? A. Stop the progression of the disease. B. Increase the immune response. C. Reverse joint deformity. D. Increase cerebrospinal fluid secretion.
A. Stop the progression of the disease.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing adrenergic agonists with the nursing class. Which drugs would the instructor tell the students are generally indicated for the treatment of shock, bronchospasm, and some types of asthma? A. Sympathomimetic drugs B. Beta-blocking drugs C. Parasympathetic stimulating drugs D. Anti-catecholamine drugs
A. Sympathomimetic drugs
A nurse is preparing a class on the various drugs used to treat erectile dysfunction. Which would the nurse include? A. Tadalafil B. Testosterone C. Danazol D. Oxandrolone
A. Tadalafil
Which would be most important to include when teaching a patient about using psyllium? A. Taking the agent with a large amount of water B. Taking the agent at bedtime C. Taking other prescribed drugs along with the psyllium D. Limiting the use of high fiber foods
A. Taking the agent with a large amount of water
A postmenopausal woman with breast cancer will most likely be treated with which anti-estrogen drug? A. Tamoxifen B. Bleomycin C. Cyclophosphamide D. Cisplatin
A. Tamoxifen
A nurse is caring for patients receiving androgen therapy. For which of the following conditions may androgen therapy be given as replacement therapy? Select all that apply. A. Testosterone deficiency B. Male pattern baldness C. Delayed puberty D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy E. Failure of development of the testes
A. Testosterone deficiency C. Delayed puberty E. Failure of development of the testes
What would the nurse identify as the primary purpose of performing a CD4 count for a patient infected with HIV? A. The CD4 count is an indication of the patient's current immunological status. B. The CD4 count indicates the risk for disease progression and is the most important indicator of treatment response. C. The CD4 count is considered a direct way of measuring drug resistance. D. The CD4 count evaluates the genetic makeup of a patient's virus and detects the presence of drug-resistant mutations in relevant genes.
A. The CD4 count is an indication of the patient's current immunological status.
Cell-mediated immunity depends on which of the following? (Choose one) A. The action of T lymphocytes B. The action of B lymphocytes C. Antigen-antibody response D. Globulin production
A. The action of T lymphocytes
A 5-week-old infant is being administered a drug that affects the central nervous system. What characteristic of the infant's blood-brain barrier must be considered? A. The drug will affect the infant's CNS more readily than in an older child. B. The blood-brain barrier does not develop until 6 to 8 weeks of age. C. The blood-brain barrier does not develop until 4 months of age. D. The blood-brain barrier will block the passage of drugs from the blood to the CNS.
A. The drug will affect the infant's CNS more readily than in an older child.
A patient has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and is experiencing pain and decreased mobility. Etanercept has been proposed as possible treatment option. Which characteristic of this patient would likely preclude the use of etanercept? A. The patient has chronic osteomyelitis resulting from a diabetic foot ulcer. B. The patient is morbidly obese and leads a sedentary lifestyle. C. The patient uses a topical corticosteroid when he experiences contact dermatitis on his hands. D. The patient has a family history of cancer.
A. The patient has chronic osteomyelitis resulting from a diabetic foot ulcer.
Which patient is most at risk for adverse effects from disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)? A. The patient with hepatic insufficiency B. The patient with supraventricular tachycardia C. The patient with chronic constipation D. The patient with joint pain
A. The patient with hepatic insufficiency
Why are inhaled steroids used to treat asthma and COPD? A. They act locally to decrease release of inflammatory mediators B. They act locally to improve mobilization of edema C. They act locally to increase histamine release D. They act locally to decrease histamine release
A. They act locally to decrease release of inflammatory mediators
A 36-year-old male client undergoes dialysis three times weekly while waiting for renal transplant. A diuretic has been added to his current medications to combat developing edema. Why would potassium-sparing diuretics be contraindicated? A. They may cause hyperkalemia. B. They are strong diuretics. C. They promote excretion of potassium. D. They may cause rebound edema.
A. They may cause hyperkalemia.
A nurse is caring for a patient being treated with antineoplastic drugs. The patient reports recently experiencing bloody urine. What complication might this patient be experiencing? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Megaloblastic anemia C. Hodgkin's disease D. Crystalluria
A. Thrombocytopenia
A patient is receiving tamsulosin. The nurse understands that this drug is most likely being given for which reason? A. To relax prostatic smooth muscles B. To decrease vascular tone C. To promote vasodilation D. To induce a reflex tachycardia
A. To relax prostatic smooth muscles
An adverse effect of tamoxifen therapy involves menopausal symptoms. A. True B. False
A. True
Leukotriene receptor antagonists are administered orally. A. True B. False
A. True
Pancrelipase would most likely be used to treat a patient with cystic fibrosis. A. True B. False
A. True
Rheumatoid factor (RF) interacts with circulating IgG to form immune complexes that deposit in the joints precipitating an inflammatory reaction. A. True B. False
A. True
You are a home health registered nurse who has a patient who cannot afford medications. The doctor has ordered a calcium supplement for your patient. Which of the following would you recommend for your patient? A. Tums (5 per day) B. Alendronate (Fosamax) C. Ibandronate (Boniva) D. Risedronate (Actonel)
A. Tums (5 per day)
An older adult comes to the clinic with several medication bottles. The nurse is concerned about one of the medications that the client is taking and identifies that it may inappropriate for an older adult. What can the nurse do to find if this is not a medicine that the client should be taking? A. Use the Beers Criteria. B. Use the Physicians' Desk Reference. C. Use the Facts and Comparison. D. Use the Davis Drug Guide.
A. Use the Beers Criteria.
Diabetes insipidus is treated with replacement of which hormones? A. Vasopressin B. Gonadotropin C. Somatropin D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
A. Vasopressin
A nurse educating a client on Ortho Tri-Cyclen Lo should strongly caution the client not to smoke because smoking increases the risk of which of the following adverse events? Select all that apply: A. Venous thromboembolism B. Arterial thromboembolism C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Myocardial infarction E. Thrombotic stroke
A. Venous thromboembolism B. Arterial thromboembolism C. Hemorrhagic stroke D. Myocardial infarction E. Thrombotic stroke
Which diagnostic test measures HIV RNA in the plasma? A. Viral load B. Enzyme immunoassay C. ELISA D. Western Blot assay
A. Viral load
When is calcitonin released by the body? A. When serum calcium levels rise B. When serum calcium levels fall C. When PTH secretion mobilizes calcium D. When PTH secretion immobilizes calcium
A. When serum calcium levels rise
Bisphosphonates are drugs that bind to bone and inhibit calcium resorption from bone. These drugs are used to treat hypercalcemia. Which of the following are bisphosphontes? Choose all that apply. A. alendronate (Fosamax) B. ibandronate (Boniva) C. risedronate (Actonel) D. raloxifene (Evista) E. teriparatide (Forteo)
A. alendronate (Fosamax) B. ibandronate (Boniva) C. risedronate (Actonel)
An elderly client comes into the clinic with a family member. The client reports back pain. The physician prescribes cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril) for the client. What type of adverse effects should the nurse educate the client and family about? A. anti-cholinergic side effects such as sedation and weakness B. increased agitation and irritability C. asymptomatic gastrointestinal pathology D. may cause delirium and hallucinations
A. anti-cholinergic side effects such as sedation and weakness
The nurse should exercise caution when administering antimetabolites to a patient with: A. bone marrow suppression. B. diabetes mellitus. C. hypertension. D. seizure activity.
A. bone marrow suppression.
Epinephrine causes relaxation of: A. bronchioles. B. smooth muscles in the intestinal wall. C. superficial blood vessels. D. sphincter muscles.
A. bronchioles.
The oncology nurse understands that chemotherapeutic agents are most effective during a particular phase of the cell cycle. This means the agents are: A. cell cycle-specific. B. cell cycle-nonspecific. C. growth fraction. D. cell targeting.
A. cell cycle-specific.
A 28-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis has begun thalidomide therapy. She tells the nurse that she and her husband would like to start a family. The nurse will advise her to A. continue using two forms of birth control. B. stop using birth control. C. discontinue birth control, but avoid breast-feeding. D. continue using birth control for at least 6 more months.
A. continue using two forms of birth control.
An elderly client has been brought to the clinic by her daughter. The daughter reports the client has been progressively becoming more confused over the past few weeks. The nurse reviews the client's list of over-the-counter medications and seeks more information when she notes the client has been taking A. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for seasonal allergies B. acetaminophen (Tylenol) for minor aches and pains C. omeprazole (Prilosec) for occasional heartburn D. docusate (Colace) as a stool softener daily
A. diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for seasonal allergies
An antibiotic has been ordered for a toddler who is showing signs and symptoms of sepsis. The dose will be determined based on the child's body surface area (BSA). In addition to knowing the child's weight, the care team will also have to consider the child's: A. height. B. developmental stage. C. ethnicity. D. body mass index (BMI).
A. height.
A patient presents to the walk-in clinic reporting vomiting and burning in their mid-epigastria. The nurse suspects peptic ulcer disease and knows that to confirm peptic ulcer disease, the physician is likely to order a diagnostic test to detect the possible presence of: A. infection with Helicobacter pylori. B. decreased stomach acid secretion. C. gastric irritation caused by NSAIDs. D. overconsumption of spicy foods.
A. infection with Helicobacter pylori.
When describing thyroid function, the nurse would emphasize the need for intake of: A. iodine. B. calcium. C. sodium. D. vitamin B6.
A. iodine.
The nurse is working in a pediatric Emergency Department and uses caution when administering medications. The client most at risk for a medication error is the client who: A. is 18 months old. B. has a minor injury. C. demonstrates a decrease in weight of 2 pounds due to vomiting. D. is being admitted to the pediatric unit for observation.
A. is 18 months old.
The nurse reviews the plan of care for a patient receiving antineoplastic therapy. The nurse notes a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection. Which adverse effect would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. pancytopenia B. gastrointestinal toxicity C. dehydration D. alopecia
A. pancytopenia
A client asks the nurse what cancer cell growth is called. What would the nurse tell the client? A. proliferation B. anaplasia C. pleomorphism D. neoplasm
A. proliferation
Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to: A. stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate. B. avoid drinking water with the drug. C. lift weights in the gym at least five times a week. D. take calcium and vitamin D supplements.
A. stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate.
A nurse is caring for a 92-year-old who is taking multiple drugs and displaying increased cognitive impairment and memory loss. The initial action of the nurse would be to: A. try to distinguish between normal signs of aging and the adverse drug effects. B. report adverse effects of drug therapy to the prescriber. C. wait several days to see if the symptoms subside. D. hold the client's medications until a doctor can see the client.
A. try to distinguish between normal signs of aging and the adverse drug effects.
The antibody prototype is the monoclonal antitumor antibody called rituximab (Rituxan). The drug interactions of this drug are described by which of the following? Select all that apply. A. vaccines B. no known drug interactions C. antibiotics D. antihistamines
A. vaccines
A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. He reports to the nurse that he has chronic arthritis and circulation problems. The client has a history of mild hypertension. He explains that he owns a business and lives alone. The nurse determines that he is within the normal weight range for his height and age but has a fondness for spicy foods and sweets. Which of the mentioned patient variables will have the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the client's drug therapy? A. vascular impairment B. mild hypertension C. dietary habits D. chronic arthritis
A. vascular impairment
Which adrenergic receptor is responsible for increased heart rate and increased force of myocardial contraction? A. β1 receptors B. α1 receptors C. α2 receptors D. β2 receptors
A. β1 receptors
A client asks a nurse to explain how the drug bethanechol works to help a person void. What would be a correct response from the nurse? A. "Bethanechol is an indirect-acting cholinergic drug that causes the bladder to constrict." B. "Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic drug that causes contraction of the smooth muscles of the bladder and passage of urine." C. "Bethanechol is a diuretic that works in the loop of Henle, blocking the reuptake of sodium, which causes one to void." D. "Bethanechol is a medication that increases the amount of water that is produced by the kidneys, causing one to void."
B. "Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic drug that causes contraction of the smooth muscles of the bladder and passage of urine."
Which statement indicates a client understands the management of care after a thyroidectomy? A. "Radioactive iodine treatments will be weekly until my thyroid shrinks completely." B. "I will have to take thyroid hormones for the rest of my life." C. "I should call my primary care provider when I experience hyperthyroid symptoms." D. "The scar on my chest should heal completely in 4-6 weeks."
B. "I will have to take thyroid hormones for the rest of my life."
he nurse is reviewing medications with an elderly client who has a history of spinal cord injury. The client reports taking bisacodyl (Dulcolax) every day. When providing client education, the nurse states A. "Bisacodyl is recommended for you on a long-term basis to ensure daily bowel movements." B. "Let me explore other alternative methods with you to assist in having bowel movements." C. "You should increase the fat content in your diet when taking bisacodyl." D. "You can switch to the suppository form of bisacodyl if you experience vomiting."
B. "Let me explore other alternative methods with you to assist in having bowel movements."
A patient is taking low-dose corticosteroids on a long-term basis for COPD. What does prolonged use of corticosteroids put the patient at risk for? A. Adrenal storm B. Adrenal atrophy C. Stunted growth D. Hypothalamic insufficiency
B. Adrenal atrophy
The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking methotrexate. The nurse knows that this medication interferes with folic acid synthesis. What adverse effect could result from drug therapy that prevents folic acid synthesis? A. Blood cancer B. Anemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B. Anemia
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department after a motor vehicle accident. The patient is diagnosed with multiple injuries including a bladder injury. The patient is taken to surgery and develops a nonobstructive postoperative urinary retention. What drug would the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient? A. Neostigmine B. Bethanechol C. Ambenonium D. Pyridostigmine
B. Bethanechol
The client has been diagnosed with urinary retention. The nurse expects the client to receive which medication for this condition? A. Ambenonium B. Bethanechol C. Benadryl D. Guanidine
B. Bethanechol
The nurse knows that which assessment finding suggests hyperthyroidism? A. Heart rate 55 beats per minute B. Blood pressure 145/87 C. Cool, dry skin D. Hard, thick nails
B. Blood pressure 145/87
A patient began combination antiretroviral therapy 7 months ago and is being followed closely by a care team that includes members of several disciplines. When attempting to determine the efficacy of the patient's current drug regimen, the nurse should prioritize which of the following laboratory data? A. Viral load B. CD4 cell count C. Total leukocyte level D. Neutrophil level
B. CD4 cell count
A patient has been receiving bethanechol (Urecholine) for 1 week. One hour after the dose is administered, the patient develops sweating, flushing, abdominal cramps, and nausea. What is the rationale for the development of these symptoms? A. Myasthenic crisis B. Cholinergic overdose C. Anaphylactic reaction D. Pulmonary edema
B. Cholinergic overdose
A patient diagnosed with acute primary HIV infection is in the clinic. What treatment should be initiated for this patient? A. Monotherapy protease inhibitor therapy B. Combination antiretroviral therapy C. Zidovudine therapy once daily D. Didanosine therapy once daily
B. Combination antiretroviral therapy
A nurse is required to assess a patient who is brought into the outpatient department of a healthcare facility with acute respiratory distress. Which of the following symptoms, if present, would help the nurse to identify this as a case of asthma? Select all that apply. A. Increase in body temperature B. Cough with or without mucus C. Generalized chest tightness D. Decrease in pulse rate E. Prolongation of expiration
B. Cough with or without mucus C. Generalized chest tightness E. Prolongation of expiration
A 25-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with acetaminophen and salicylates. The physician has switched her medication regimen to include DMARDs. What is the advantage of DMARDs over salicylates? A. DMARDs control the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. B. DMARDs can arrest the progression of rheumatoid arthritis. C. DMARDs have a lower risk of adverse effects. D. DMARDs are more effective with a lower dose.
B. DMARDs can arrest the progression of rheumatoid arthritis.
A male patient is taking indinavir (Crixivan) for HIV. To decrease the risk of kidney stones, the nurse's teaching plan will include which of the following? A. Increase physical activity B. Drink 1 to 2 L of water a day C. Avoid taking acetaminophen D. Decrease fatty foods in his diet
B. Drink 1 to 2 L of water a day
The nurse is aware that older men are more prone to urinary tract infections because of what physiologic change related to aging? A. Involuntary contractions of the bladder muscle B. Enlargement of the prostate C. Reduction in renal function D. Loss of muscle tone in the pelvic structures
B. Enlargement of the prostate
Androgens are used as replacement therapy for hypergonadism. A. True B. False
B. False
Stress typically results in hypoglycemia. A. True B. False
B. False
Testosterone is injected directly into the corpus spongiosum. A. True B. False
B. False
Which of the following drugs inhibit the conversion of testosterone into 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone (DHT) which results in a decrease in prostate gland size and are useful in the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy? Select all that apply: A. Terazosin (Hytrin) B. Finasteride (Proscar) C. Methyltestosterone (Testred) D. Dutasteride (Avodart) E. Doxazosin (Cardura)
B. Finasteride (Proscar) D. Dutasteride (Avodart)
Carter, age 2, is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis; the physician places him on pancrelipase. What would be the most appropriate diagnosis for Carter related to his medication regimen? A. Risk for injury related to the side effects of the drug therapy B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to impaired digestion secondary to insufficient pancreatic enzymes C. Alterations in elimination related to the disease process D. Alteration in comfort related to the drug therapy and the adverse effect of a headache
B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to impaired digestion secondary to insufficient pancreatic enzymes
When a nurse is doing a shift assessment on a patient, which symptom should be reported as a possible side effect from administration of methylprednisolone? A. Sensitivity to light B. Impaired wound healing C. Constipation D. Urinary retention
B. Impaired wound healing
A nurse practitioner is reviewing the prepregnancy medication regimen of a patient who has just had a positive pregnancy test. The nurse should be aware of which of the following changes in pharmacokinetics that accompanies pregnancy? A. Hepatic metabolism of drugs that are normally metabolized by the kidneys B. Increased drug distribution resulting from hemodynamic changes C. Decreased absorption of inhaled drugs due to decreased tidal volume D. Decreased excretion rates as a result of decreased glomerular filtration rate during pregnancy
B. Increased drug distribution resulting from hemodynamic changes
Which is an effect of epinephrine? A. Peripheral vasodilation B. Increased heart rate C. Bronchoconstriction D. Decreased blood pressure
B. Increased heart rate
A patient who suffers from GERD and diverticulosis has just been admitted to a medical floor. The admitting physician orders cimetadine and a sedative to calm the patient. About what should the nurse be concerned? A. Decreased sedative effect B. Increased sedative effect C. If the patient's insurance will cover the two drugs D. Cost of the drugs
B. Increased sedative effect
A patient is beginning a course of chemotherapy for the treatment of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. To what is the start of this therapy referred? A. Consolidation therapy B. Induction therapy C. Maintenance therapy D. Palliative therapy
B. Induction therapy
Mr. Tyler arrives for a follow-up visit. He began minoxidil 2 months ago for the treatment of his male pattern baldness. At today's visit, he expresses his concern because he has not noted any hair growth. What would be the best course of action for the nurse in this case? A. Assess whether the client suffers from frontal hair loss. B. Inform the patient that the therapy will require at least 4 months of twice-daily application. C. Advise the patient to consult a prescriber for an increased dose. D. Assess whether the client suffers from a nonintact scalp.
B. Inform the patient that the therapy will require at least 4 months of twice-daily application.
Which of the following is the correct rationale for why the nurse would administer a laxative at a separate time from the client's other medications? A. They often taste bad and clients are less likely to take other medications. B. Laxatives may reduce absorption of other drugs present in the GI tract. C. Often laxatives make the client nauseated, which interferes with the ability to take medications. D. Because a laxative may stimulate a bowel movement, it can interfere with medication administration.
B. Laxatives may reduce absorption of other drugs present in the GI tract.
A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman's care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate? A. Height in the lowest quartile of the population and a history of joint pain B. Low bone density and a family history of osteoporosis C. Reports of cold intolerance, recurrent constipation, and evidence of diverticular disease D. Labile moods and short-term memory deficits
B. Low bone density and a family history of osteoporosis
An older adult is prescribed a skeletal muscle relaxant for reports of neck pain. What is the top priority of care for the nurse to teach the family? A. Administer the medication with meals. B. Monitor the client before ambulating. C. Instruct on how to assess client's pain level. D. Give the medication at the same time each day.
B. Monitor the client before ambulating.
A client 16 years of age arrives at the emergency department (ED) saying she was stung by a bee and used her EpiPen prior to arriving in the ED. She is breathing well now. What would the nurse do next for this client? A. Explain that she is fine and does not need to be seen because she already gave herself the medication. B. Obtain from her, and those who were with her, as much information about the bee sting (and her physical reaction to the bee sting) as possible. C. Explain that she needs a parent or guardian to sign admission papers prior to being seen in the emergency department. D. Start an IV and give epinephrine STAT before she goes into cardiac arrest.
B. Obtain from her, and those who were with her, as much information about the bee sting (and her physical reaction to the bee sting) as possible.
The nursing instructor is discussing cholinergic drugs. According to the instructor, what system is acted upon by this family of drugs? A. Sympathetic nervous system B. Parasympathetic nervous system C. Cardiovascular system D .Genitourinary system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
A 47-year-old female client with a history of asthma is treated with a steroid burst for the second time this year since moving to the area. Other significant history includes a BMI of 22, allergic rhinitis, and contact dermatitis. The client asks why she cannot just stay on the prednisone long term. What would be the best answer based on the long-term effects of prednisone therapy? A. Prednisone can lead to poor wound healing. B. Prednisone can lead to osteoporosis. C. Prednisone can lead to glucose intolerance. D. Prednisone can lead to fluid retention.
B. Prednisone can lead to osteoporosis.
The pregnant woman requires monitoring of orally administered drug therapy because of decreased gastric tone and motility. What hormone is responsible for this alteration? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Oxytocin D. Prolactin
B. Progesterone
A female client self-administers pseudoephedrine for relief of her symptoms associated with seasonal allergies. She phones the office reporting restlessness and insomnia. The nurse explains to the client that these are expected side effects of the medication. What is the reason for these side effects? A. Pseudoephedrine is a stimulant and causes stimulation of the central nervous system. B. Pseudoephedrine produces a sympathomimetic effect. C. Pseudoephedrine causes an adverse response in the CNS. D. Pseudoephedrine causes an anticholinergic response.
B. Pseudoephedrine produces a sympathomimetic effect.
An HIV-positive patient has a positive baseline tuberculin skin test. What is the next step for this patient? A. Begin the patient on Isoniazid and Rifampin. B. Schedule a chest x-ray. Repeat the skin test. C. There is no next step. D. The tuberculin test result is negative because the patient is immunocompromised.
B. Schedule a chest x-ray. Repeat the skin test.
A client has been started on vincristine as part of treatment for cancer. What factor will the nurse need to assess with regard to interactions with this medication? A. Alcohol intake B. Sensory, motor, and perceptual functions C. Exposure to sunlight D. Cigarette smoking
B. Sensory, motor, and perceptual functions
A 42-year-old female with breast cancer has had a radical mastectomy. She will have radiation therapy and then begin chemotherapy. Drug therapy will consist of a combination of doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, and paclitaxel. What will the nurse include in the teaching plan concerning the drug therapy? A. Stay on a low-fat diet during the course of the drug therapy. B. Take special care when shaving or brushing her teeth. C. Continue to go to church or to the mall just as she did before the diagnosis of cancer. D. Stay in bed 2 days after each administration.
B. Take special care when shaving or brushing her teeth.
A male client is prescribed sildenafil for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. What mechanism of action of sildenafil causes a sustained erection? A. The drug inhibits steroid 5-alpha reductase, consequently blocking the peripheral conversion of testosterone to DHT. B. The drug inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) type 5, consequently decreasing the metabolism of cGMP. C. The drug increases the production of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). D. The exact mode of action is unknown.
B. The drug inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE) type 5, consequently decreasing the metabolism of cGMP.
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil citrate. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A. Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B. The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C. Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D. A dose of more than 80 mg will result in a change of vision, making everything appear blue.
B. The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse.
A patient has been prescribed a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist for the treatment of GERD. Why are H2RAs more effective than H1 receptor antagonists in the treatment of diseases of the upper GI tract? A. H2RAs have a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than H1RAs. B. The parietal cells of the stomach have H2 receptors but not H1 receptors. C. H2RAs may be administered orally and in an outpatient environment but H1RAs require intravenous administration. D. H2 receptors in the upper GI tract outnumber H1 receptors by a factor of 2:1.
B. The parietal cells of the stomach have H2 receptors but not H1 receptors.
A patient has been taking ibuprofen (Advil) twice daily for 2 weeks after an ankle injury. The patient calls her health care provider and states she is bothered by shortness of breath and rapid breathing. What will the patient's health care provider suspect? A. The patient is having an anxiety attack. B. The patient is having a hypersensitivity reaction. C. The patient is experiencing hypoglycemia. D. The patient is suffering from a myocardial infarction.
B. The patient is having a hypersensitivity reaction.
A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize? A. The patient will remain free of sexual side effects related to drug therapy B. The patient will experience complete bladder emptying C. The patient will remain free of urethral pain D. The patient will not experience hematuria
B. The patient will experience complete bladder emptying
Following an assessment by her primary care provider, a 70-year-old resident of an assisted living facility has begun taking daily oral doses of levothyroxine. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to withhold a scheduled dose of levothyroxine? A. The resident has not eaten breakfast because of a recent loss of appetite. B. The resident's apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm. C. The resident had a fall during the night while transferring from her bed to her bathroom. D. The resident received her annual influenza vaccination the previous day.
B. The resident's apical heart rate is 112 beats/minute with a regular rhythm.
Prior to administering a dose of 5-FU to a patient with pancreatic cancer, the nurse is conducting the necessary drug research. The nurse is aware that 5-FU is a cell cycle-specific chemotherapeutic agent. Which statement best describes cell cycle-specific drugs? A. They follow a specific sequence of cytotoxic events in order to achieve cell death. B. They affect cancerous cells during a particular phase of cellular reproduction. C. They achieve a synergistic effect when administered in combination with cell cycle-nonspecific drugs. D. They affect cancerous cells and normal body cells in a similar manner.
B. They affect cancerous cells during a particular phase of cellular reproduction.
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 72-year-old patient who has been discharged home on a diuretic. What would the patient's instructions regarding the use of a diuretic at home include? A. Measuring their intake and output of urine B. To weigh themselves on the same scale, at the same time of day, in the same clothing C. Restrict fluids to 500 cc per day to limit the need to urinate D. Decrease exercise to conserve energy
B. To weigh themselves on the same scale, at the same time of day, in the same clothing
A 26-year-old man is receiving interferon alfa-2a for AIDS-related Kaposi sarcoma. His physician has also prescribed theophylline for his asthma. The nurse is aware that combining interferon alfa-2a and theophylline can result in which of the following? A. Hypertension B. Toxicity C. Anorexia D. Hypothyroidism
B. Toxicity
What medication should the nurse prepare to administer to prevent Pneumocystis jirovechi for a patient taking alemtuzumab who has lymphopenia? A. Rocephin 1 GM IV prior to injection B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS C. Famciclovir D. Acyclovir
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS
The nursing instructor is discussing HIV/AIDS with the junior nursing class. The instructor tells the students that it is important to understand how HIV-1 integrates itself into a person's immune system and how immunity plays a role in the course of HIV disease. What else is this knowledge essential for? A. Knowing therapy options for different patients B. Understanding medication therapy C. Understanding vaccine distribution D. Knowing expected results of different therapies
B. Understanding medication therapy
Knowing that thyroid hormones are principally concerned with the increase in metabolic rate of tissues, which symptoms would a nurse observe in a client with uncontrolled hypothyroidism? (Select all that apply.) A. Elevated body temperature B. Weight gain C. Bradycardia D. Hypertension E. Sleepiness
B. Weight gain C. Bradycardia E. Sleepiness
A client is going through menopause. She informs you that her health care provider has prescribed estrogen and progesterone. She asks why she should take two medications. The nurse's best response is: A. You need both estrogen and progesterone to stop the hot flashes. B. When estrogens are used alone, they cause endometrial hyperplasia and may cause endometrial cancer. C. You should speak to your health care provider because you do not need to take both prescriptions. D. Taking both of the medications together will make your periods lighter and of shorter duration.
B. When estrogens are used alone, they cause endometrial hyperplasia and may cause endometrial cancer.
A patient has been admitted to the unit with salt-losing adrenogenital syndrome. The patient is taking fludrocortisone (Florinef) for replacement therapy in combination with a glucocorticoid. The nurse would know that high-dose fludrocortisone requires the nurse to monitor for: A .development of hypokalemia. B. an increase in sodium and water retention along with potassium depletion. C. a toxic effect that may occur with the combination of a glucocorticoid. D. sodium and water depletion along with potassium retention.
B. an increase in sodium and water retention along with potassium depletion.
A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for: A. lack of secondary sexual characteristics. B. cardiovascular complications. C. early epiphyseal closure. D. decreased libido.
B. cardiovascular complications.
A patient with seasonal allergies is exasperated by her recent nasal congestion and has expressed her desire to treat it by using pseudoephedrine. The nurse should inform the patient that A. under the Combat Methamphetamine Abuse Act, pseudoephedrine now requires a prescription. B. drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves. C. she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine. D. pseudoephedrine is being phased out of the marketplace in order to combat illegal use.
B. drugs containing pseudoephedrine are available without a prescription but are kept off pharmacy shelves. AND (Dr. K took both answers) C. she must be prepared to show identification when buying a drug that contains pseudoephedrine.
The lower the client's viral load, the: A. shorter the time to AIDS diagnosis. B. longer the survival time. C. shorter the survival time. D. longer the time immunity.
B. longer the survival time.
The lower the client's viral load, the: A. shorter the time to AIDS diagnosis. B. longer the survival time. C. shorter the survival time. D. longer the time immunity.
B. longer the survival time.
A 24-year-old female patient with hepatitis is being treated with interferon alfa-2a therapy. The nurse will schedule the patient to have a complete blood count (CBC) every month during therapy to: A. assess the effectiveness of the therapy. B. monitor for signs of bone marrow suppression. C. monitor for signs of iron-deficiency anemia. D. assess for signs of toxicity.
B. monitor for signs of bone marrow suppression.
A 70-year-old woman who is on long-term ibuprofen therapy for osteoarthritis has returned to the clinic for her regular 6-month visit. In the last couple of months, she has been having increasing periods of abdominal pain. The nurse suspects that this pain may be related to: A. anemia. B. peptic ulcer disease or gastritis. C. interstitial nephritis. D. constipation.
B. peptic ulcer disease or gastritis.
The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to A. increase the blood concentrations of the drug in the breast-feeding infant. B. reduce neonatal drug exposure. C. reduce the half-life of the drug. D. evaluate the drug's potential adverse effects on the neonate.
B. reduce neonatal drug exposure.
A patient has been scheduled to begin treatment with rituximab for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. The nurse who will administer this drug should understand that it targets A. the function of the complement system. B. specific antigens on the surface of malignant B cells. C. the DNA of mature plasma cells. D. the molecular structure of the cells making up the semipermeable membrane of cancerous cells.
B. specific antigens on the surface of malignant B cells.
On the advice of her sister, a 52-year-old woman has visited her nurse practitioner to discuss the potential benefits of hormone replacement therapy in controlling the symptoms of menopause. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "We'll have to check your bone density first, because if it's too low then it's not safe to start HRT." B. "Actually, most of the current research is suggesting that HRT may not be all that effective in treating the symptoms of menopause." C. "It's important to balance the possible benefits of HRT with the fact that it might increase your risk of heart disease and stroke" D. "HRT might be quite beneficial to you, and it carries the additional benefit of modest protection against breast cancer."
C. "It's important to balance the possible benefits of HRT with the fact that it might increase your risk of heart disease and stroke"
A patient being placed on drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis (RA) asks the nurse why she will have to take methotrexate as well as naprosyn (Naproxyn). What is the best response by the nurse? A. "Methotrexate will work only with a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)." B. "NSAIDs reduce the disease activity more than methotrexate." C. "NSAIDs are given to control the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis until the methotrexate action starts." D. "NSAIDs begin the immunosuppression until methotrexate takes over."
C. "NSAIDs are given to control the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis until the methotrexate action starts."
A patient who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder expresses a desire to become pregnant. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "We should see if the physician will switch your medication to valproic acid, which does not have a high risk for teratogenic effects." B. "We should asks the physician to stop all antiepileptic drug therapy while you are trying to get pregnant." C. "The physician may start you on newer antiepileptic drugs that do not have a high risk for teratogenic effects." D. "I would not advise you to have children because they may also have seizures."
C. "The physician may start you on newer antiepileptic drugs that do not have a high risk for teratogenic effects."
A female patient has GERD and is taking ranitidine (Zantac). She continues to have gastric discomfort and asks whether she can take an antacid. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse? A. "Sure, you may take an antacid with ranitidine." B. "No, the two drugs will work against each other." C. "Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine." D. "I wouldn't advise it. You may experience severe constipation."
C. "Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine."
Which finding is most characteristic of Paget's disease? A. Joint inflammation B. Noninflammatory degeneration of articular cartilage C. Abnormal bone remodeling D. Advanced-stage malignancy with hypercalcemia
C. Abnormal bone remodeling
A woman is seen in the primary care provider's office with chronic severe diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome, which has not responded to conventional therapy. Which medication is the drug of choice? A. Rifaximin (Xifaxan) B. Nitazoxanide (Alinia) C. Alosetron (Lotronex) D. Cholestyramine (Questran)
C. Alosetron (Lotronex)
A nurse is planning care for a patient who is taking tolterodine. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis that is an indication for using this drug? A. Risk for Injury related to multiple drug therapies and drug interactions B. Risk for Injury related to hyperkalemia secondary to use of the drug C. Altered Urinary Elimination related to overactive bladder D. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to the action of the drug
C. Altered Urinary Elimination related to overactive bladder
A 31-year-old woman is being treated with fludrocortisone for Addison disease. In addition to monitoring the client's urinary output, what other assessment should the nurse prioritize? A. Level of consciousness B. Measures of coagulation C. Blood pressure D. Hydration status
C. Blood pressure
A medical-surgical registered nurse (RN) is requested to go to the oncology unit, which is short staffed. When the RN arrives to the unit, the oncology nurse states, "We are so short today that you are going to have to administer chemotherapy to some of the clinic patients." According to the Oncology Nurses Society (ONS), of what should the oncology nurse be aware? A. Because there is a critical shortage of oncology nurses in the unit, it is within the scope of practice for the RN to administer the chemotherapy. B. The oncology nurse should be aware that he or she must watch the RN administer the chemotherapy. C. Chemotherapy should be administered by RNs who have successfully completed a course in chemotherapy administration. D. The oncology nurse should be aware that he or she may delegate chemotherapy to another nurse as long as the oncology nurse is in the department.
C. Chemotherapy should be administered by RNs who have successfully completed a course in chemotherapy administration.
A student asks the pharmacology instructor to describe the function of a cholinergic agonist. What would the instructor reply? A. Cholinergic agonists increase the activity of dopamine receptor sites throughout the brain and spinal cord. B. Cholinergic agonists decrease the activity of GABA receptor sites throughout the body. C. Cholinergic agonists increase the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites throughout the body. D. Cholinergic agonists decrease the activity of norepinephrine receptor sites throughout the brain and spinal cord.
C. Cholinergic agonists increase the activity of acetylcholine receptor sites throughout the body.
A patient who has chronic bronchial asthma has had a mast cell stabilizer prescribed. What drug would the physician prescribe? A. Ipratropium or budesonide B. Isoetharine or montelukast C. Cromolyn D. Aminophylline or caffeine
C. Cromolyn
A nurse is assessing a patient who has come to the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The patient states that he has a history of opioid addiction and does not want to take any drug that "puts me at risk of becoming physically dependent." Which of the following medications would the nurse question, if ordered? A. Methocarbamol (Robaxin) B. Orphenadrine (Norflex) C. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) D. Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
C. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
A nurse is caring for a patient with hypothyroidism. The nurse would know that the effects of hypothyroidism include: A. Nervousness and restlessness B. Fever C. Decreased cardiac output D. Increased blood pressure
C. Decreased cardiac output
A patient is suffering from constipation. He is a truck driver and does not always have access to a toilet. When providing patient teaching, what will result when the patient fails to respond to the defecation reflex? A. Involuntary evacuation B. Increased sensory stimulation C. Decreased sensory stimulation D. Diarrhea
C. Decreased sensory stimulation
The critical period of organogenesis is when the major fetal organs form. When is this critical time period? A. The first 3 months of pregnancy B. From implantation until the beginning of the second trimester C. From implantation up to approximately day 60 after conception D. From implantation up to approximately day 30 after conception
C. From implantation up to approximately day 60 after conception
A 26-year-old man with testicular cancer is prescribed combination chemotherapy that involves using two drugs that are effective against testicular tumors. Combination drug therapy is superior to single-drug therapy because of: A. Decreased duration of remissions B. Lower risk for secondary cancers C. Higher tumor response rates D. Increased capillary permeability
C. Higher tumor response rates
A nurse is caring for a patient who is taking sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) therapy. The nurse will monitor for which of the following? A. Cardiac arrhythmias B. Ventricular arrhythmias C. Hypokalemia D. Cardiotoxicity
C. Hypokalemia
A nurse administers methotrexate (Rheumatrex). What assessment finding is attributable to the effect of this medication? A. Decreased urination B. Increased red blood cell count C. Immunosuppression D. Increased hemoglobin
C. Immunosuppression
A patient has been prescribed the drug finasteride for the treatment of benign hypertrophy of the prostate. Which of the following adverse effects of the drug should the nurse caution the patient about? A. Hypertension B. Increased libido C. Impotence D. Hyperglycemia
C. Impotence
You are talking to your class of nursing students about the adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy. What dietary change would you tell the students may help prevent osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid administration? A. Decreasing protein intake B. Decreasing calcium intake C. Increasing vitamin D intake D. Increasing caloric intake
C. Increasing vitamin D intake
A 70-year-old woman is taking a cholinergic blocking drug. Her family has noticed that she is very excited, a little confused, and is not able to void normally. What action by the nurse would be most appropriate to deal with these symptoms? A. Instruct the client to continue to take the medication and ignore the symptoms. B. Instruct the client to increase the dose of the medication to combat these symptoms. C. Instruct the client to withhold the next dose and contact the prescribing provider. D. Instruct the client to go to the emergency department immediately.
C. Instruct the client to withhold the next dose and contact the prescribing provider.
Laboratory testing of an 80-year-old patient who is well-known to the clinic nurse indicates that his liver function has been gradually decreasing over the last several years. How will this age-related physiological change influence drug metabolism? A. The patient will metabolize drugs more quickly but derive less of a therapeutic benefit from them. B. The liver will sequester drug molecules in the hepatocytes, and they will be released at unpredictable times. C. Many of the patient's medications will remain in his body for a longer time. D. The patient's kidneys will be forced to metabolize a disproportionate quantity of medications.
C. Many of the patient's medications will remain in his body for a longer time.
A patient being treated for psoriasis with methotrexate tells the nurse that she thought methotrexate was only for arthritis. What action does the methotrexate have for psoriasis? A. Methotrexate inhibits the formation of collagen. B. Methotrexate inhibits cyclooxoygenase, and results in decreased production of arachidonic acid. C. Methotrexate targets rapidly proliferating epithelial cells. D. Methotrexate allows a "resetting" of the inflammatory thermostat.
C. Methotrexate targets rapidly proliferating epithelial cells.
Mr. Barnes, age 45, has had type 1 diabetes since age 4. During a routine follow-up visit, he reports to the nurse that in the past 3 months he has experienced nausea, heartburn, and a persistent fullness after meals. He states that his blood sugar levels have been stable and his hemoglobin A1C level that morning was 6.8%. After seeing the physician, Mr. Barnes is diagnosed with gastroparesis. Which medication would the physician most likely prescribe to treat this condition? A. Misoprostol B. Famotidine C. Metoclopramide D. Cisapride
C. Metoclopramide
Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) is prescribed for a client suffering from nasal and sinus congestion. What is the most important assessment the nurse should complete before the client leaves the clinic to purchase the medication? A. Observe for swelling in nasal passages. B. Ask about history of hay fever. C. Obtain the client's blood pressure. D. Ask about nausea and vomiting.
C. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
Kalie, age 18, is prescribed progesterone for the treatment of primary amenorrhea. Which adverse effect would need to be reported immediately to the physician? A. Abnormal menstrual bleeding B. Breast tenderness C. Pain in one leg D. Weight gain
C. Pain in one leg
A client is receiving a cholinergic medication for urinary retention. What assessment should the nurse perform prior to administering the medication? A. Assess the client's grip strength. B. Obtain the client's blood pressure. C. Palpate the pelvic region to assess fullness of bladder. D. Palpate the upper abdomen for ascites.
C. Palpate the pelvic region to assess fullness of bladder.
A patient who is receiving an immune modulator has been admitted to the unit. What would be a priority action by the nurse? A. Monitor nutritional status. B. Provide patient teaching regarding the drug. C. Protect the patient from exposure to infection. D. Provide support and comfort measures in relation to adverse effects of the drug.
C. Protect the patient from exposure to infection.
A male taking anabolic steroids could expect to experience what physical change? A. Thinning of the skin B. Body hair loss C. Reduced sperm count D. Increased endurance
C. Reduced sperm count
The anatomy and physiology instructor is discussing what happens to the body during times of stress. What would the instructor tell the students causes the release of cortisone during times of stress? A. Negative feedback mechanism B. Stimulation of the hypothalamus C. Release of epinephrine and norepinephrine D. Adrenal cortex atrophy
C. Release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
The patient has Maalox ordered for administration before meals. Which of the following conditions is contraindicated with the administration of Maalox? A. Hypertension B. Heart rate of 68 C. Renal dysfunction D. Stress ulcer
C. Renal dysfunction
Marge, a 38-year-old woman, is seen in the physician's office for the first time. She complains of fatigue, decreased range of motion in her hands, pain with activities that require her to use her hands, loss of strength in her hands and arms, and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis that would explain Marge's symptoms? A. Inflammatory osteoarthritis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gouty arthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
A patient with muscular pain has been prescribed an NSAIDs. What advice should the nurse give the patient to promote an optimal response to NSAID therapy? A. Suggest the patient take the NSAID with fiber-rich food. B. Suggest the patient take the NSAID on an empty stomach. C. Suggest the patient take the NSAID with food and milk. D. Suggest the patient take the NSAID with a calcium supplement.
C. Suggest the patient take the NSAID with food and milk.
A client asks the nurse why he has to have several courses of a chemotherapy drug instead of just one dose. The nurse states that it is based on the cell kill theory. Which of the following statements describes the cell kill theory? A. The cell kill theory is based on the premise that one dose of a chemotherapy drug will kill all the cancer cells if enough of the medication is given to a client. B. The cell kill theory describes the ways that different chemotherapy medications work to kill both healthy and cancerous cells within the human body. C. The cell kill theory describes the process of giving multiple doses of chemotherapy with each dose, killing approximately 90% of the cancer cells. After several rounds of chemotherapy, nearly all of the cancer cells are killed and the body's immune system will kill the few cancer cells that are left. D. The cell kill theory describes the phenomenon that occurs during the life cycle of a cancer cell as it is treated with a chemotherapy medication.
C. The cell kill theory describes the process of giving multiple doses of chemotherapy with each dose, killing approximately 90% of the cancer cells. After several rounds of chemotherapy, nearly all of the cancer cells are killed and the body's immune system will kill the few cancer cells that are left.
The nurse is assessing a patient who received etanercept (Enbrel). What assessment indicates a potential side effect? A. The patient reports fatigue. B. The patient has diarrhea. C. The patient develops wheezing. D. The patient has a heart rate of 100 beats/minute.
C. The patient develops wheezing.
A patient has been administered a cytotoxic antineoplastic agent. The patient is a 32-year-old female. Which of the following is the most important instruction related to teratogenicity? A. The medication will be completely eliminated 24 hours after the administration. B. The patient should protect herself from infections and take Bactrim. C. The patient should not become pregnant for several months. D. The patient will not get pregnant due to the elimination of ova.
C. The patient should not become pregnant for several months.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has HIV and is taking saquinavir therapy. What should the nurse include in the dietary education for this patient? A. The patient should limit carbohydrates when taking this medication. B. The patient should limit proteins while taking this medication. C. The patient should not take this medication with grapefruit or pomegranate juice. D. The patient is not restricted to a specific diet while taking this medication.
C. The patient should not take this medication with grapefruit or pomegranate juice.
While learning about corticosteroids in pharmacology class, a student asks the instructor to offer an example of indications for use. What could the instructor mention? A. Treatment of any hormone excessive state B. Treatment of any systemic disease state C. Treatment of a disease with an inflammatory component D. Treatment of a nagging issue
C. Treatment of a disease with an inflammatory component
Which of the following hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland? Select all that apply: A. Growth hormone B. Adrenocoritcotropic hormone C. Vasopressin D. Prolactin E. Oxytocin
C. Vasopressin E. Oxytocin
A female patient has been taking prednisone for her asthma for 1 month. The nurse will teach her to gradually decrease her dose of prednisone to avoid: A. hypokalemia. B. gastrointestinal problems. C. adrenal insufficiency. D. menstrual irregularities.
C. adrenal insufficiency.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is going home on sucralfate (Carafate). The nurse would teach the patient to take sucralfate: A. with meals. B. with an antacid before breakfast. C. before meals. D. after each meal.
C. before meals.
A new graduate working on a pediatric unit is giving a 3-year-old an injection intramuscularly (IM). The nurse uses the dorsogluteal site and the child screams and says it hurts down his leg. What potential damage may have been done using this site for a preschooler? A. damage to the posterior femoral nerve B. damage to the pudential nerve C. damage to the sciatic nerve D. damage to the perineal nerve
C. damage to the sciatic nerve
A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should: A. teach the boy fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications. B. have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered. C. offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible. D. insert a central intravenous line.
C. offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible.
A client diagnosed with excessive parathyroid production is prone to develop: A. Alzheimer's disease. B. hypertension. C. osteopenia. D. heart disease.
C. osteopenia.
When learning about thyroid hormones in pharmacology, the nursing students learn that when the thyroid gland is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin or TSH) from the anterior pituitary gland, thyroid hormones are: A. stored in the thyroid gland. B. stored in the parathyroid glands. C. released into the bloodstream. D. released into the lymphatic system.
C. released into the bloodstream.
A 43-year-old man is taking pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) for sinusitis. He calls the clinic to report that it feels like his heart is racing and that he can "feel his heart beating fast." The nurse will instruct him to A. continue taking the drug because the sensations will resolve with time. B. decrease the dosage by one half. C. stop taking the medication and come to the clinic as ordered by the physician. D. lie down after each dose.
C. stop taking the medication and come to the clinic as ordered by the physician.
The function of vasopressin is to regulate: A. growth. B. kidney function. C. water balance. D. homeostasis.
C. water balance.
A 66-year-old woman has experienced a significant decline in her quality of life as a result of worsening rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician has prescribed etanercept and the nurse is responsible for facilitating this new aspect of the patient's drug regimen. This will involve the administration of: A. daily, outpatient intravenous therapy. B. daily, oral administration . C. weekly subcutaneous injections. D. weekly administration of an enteric coated tablet.
C. weekly subcutaneous injections.
When educating a group of nursing students on immunologic agents, the nurse explains about a particular kind of immunity that develops by injecting ready-made antibodies found in the serum of immune individuals or animals. The nurse is referring to what kind of immunity? A. Active immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity C. Humoral immunity D .Passive immunity
D .Passive immunity
A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman? A. "It's good to measure your heart rate before you take your Detrol each day, and withhold it if your heart rate is below 60 beats/minute." B. "You'll probably need to stop taking your hormone replacement therapy when you're taking Detrol." C. "You'll likely find that you have scant amounts of blood in your urine for the first few days, but this is not unusual or problematic." D. "You might find that you get a dry mouth or a headache from this drug, but this does not mean it has to be discontinued."
D. "You might find that you get a dry mouth or a headache from this drug, but this does not mean it has to be discontinued."
A patient sees a physician for pain in the joints of fingers with significant swelling. X-rays reveal extensive joint damage from theumatoid arthritis (RA); laboratory results are definitive. Which medication does the nurse anticipate the patient will receive to decrease the extensive joint damage? A. A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication, such as Ibuprofen B. A glucocorticoid steroid, such as prednisone C. An uricosuric medication, such as Allopurinol D. A disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD), such as methotrexate
D. A disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD), such as methotrexate
Which of the following patients has the greatest potential to benefit from treatment with rituximab? A. A woman who has been diagnosed with ductal carcinoma in situ B. A man with AIDS who is currently being treated for Kaposi's sarcoma C. A lifelong smoker who has been diagnosed with non-small cell lung cancer D. A woman who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. A woman who has chronic lymphocytic leukemia
What is the most prevalent mineralocorticoid that regulates fluid balance? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Aldosterone
D. Aldosterone
Which condition is treated with an adrenergic agonist? A. Renal failure B. Hypertension C. Tachycardia D. Anaphylaxis
D. Anaphylaxis
What intervention by the nurse can reduce pain for a 4-year-old child who is to receive an intramuscular (IM) injection? A. Use the dorsogluteal site to decrease the pain felt from the injection. B. Use an ice pack to numb the area prior to administering the medication. C. Inject the site with 2% Lidocaine prior to administering the medication. D. Apply a topical anesthetic cream (EMLA) 30 minutes prior to administering the injection.
D. Apply a topical anesthetic cream (EMLA) 30 minutes prior to administering the injection.
A male patient has been prescribed thalidomide for the treatment of multiple myeloma. What intervention is most likely to reduce the patient's risk of experiencing adverse effects of this treatment? A. Arrange for a pressure-reducing mattress B. Avoid placing the patient's extremities in a dependent position C. Perform vigilant skin care D. Apply antiembolism stockings
D. Apply antiembolism stockings
The pharmacology instructor is explaining the difference between bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory drugs. How does an anti-inflammatory drug reduce bronchoconstriction? A. Increases ability to metabolize medication B. Decreases formation of mucus secretions C. Increases reactivity to medication D. By decreasing airway hyperreactivity to various stimuli
D. By decreasing airway hyperreactivity to various stimuli
An elderly patient has been diagnosed with Paget's disease. Which serum electrolyte is altered in this disease process? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Chloride D. Calcium
D. Calcium
A nurse is overseeing the care of a young man whose ulcerative colitis is being treated with oral prednisone. Which action should the nurse take in order to minimize the potential for adverse drug effects and risks associated with prednisone treatment? A. Avoid OTC antacids for the duration of treatment. B. Advocate for intravenous, rather than oral, administration. C. Teach the patient strategies for dealing with headaches. D. Carefully assess the patient for infections.
D. Carefully assess the patient for infections.
What is the preferred treatment for the diagnosis of atrophic vaginitis? A. Monistat topically daily for 1 week B. Vibramycin by mouth every 6 hours for 14 days C. Nonsteroidal synthetic preparations D. Estrogen preparations
D. Estrogen preparations
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left lower extremity. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to this patient? A. Aspirin B. Plavix C. Coumadin D. Heparin
D. Heparin
A primiparous woman was vigilant in avoiding medications and herbs during her pregnancy and states that she is similarly committed to protecting her baby's health now that she is breast-feeding. What principle should guide the woman's use of medications while breast-feeding? A. Very few medications are explicitly contraindicated while breast-feeding. B. It is generally safe to use herbs rather than medications while breast-feeding. C. Most women can resume their prepregnancy medication regimen after delivery. D. Most medications are contraindicated while a woman is breast-feeding.
D. Most medications are contraindicated while a woman is breast-feeding.
A patient is admitted to emergency and is unconscious as a result of a head injury. The patient's intracranial pressure is increased. What diuretic will be administered to the patient? A. Loop diuretic B. Potassium-sparing diuretic C. Thiazide diuretic D. Osmotic diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic
A nurse experienced a needle stick injury while administering a subcutaneous heparin injection to an HIV-positive patient. Which of the following aspects of postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be implemented in the nurse's treatment? A. The nurse's current health status and medical history will determine whether PEP is appropriate. B. The nurse should begin PEP within 7 days of the injury in order to reduce the chance of seroconversion. C. The nurse should be tested weekly for HIV for the next 12 months. D. PEP should be initiated within 1 or 2 hours of the time the nurse was exposed.
D. PEP should be initiated within 1 or 2 hours of the time the nurse was exposed.
A patient with breast cancer being treated with tamoxifin is also taking the oral anticoagulant coumadin for chronic atrial fibrillation. What is important to monitor in this patient? A. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels B. Liver enzymes C. White blood count D. Prothrombin time
D. Prothrombin time
A client is prescribed a selective estrogen receptor modifier for treatment of osteoporosis. The nurse would identify which drug as belonging to this class? A. Alendronate B. Calcium gluconate C. Tamoxifen D. Raloxifene
D. Raloxifene
A patient has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. he patient shows the nurse small nodules on both elbows and hands. What does the nurse understand that these nodules are? A. Lipomas B. Calcification nodules C. Tophi D. Rheumatoid nodules
D. Rheumatoid nodules
The nursing students are studying sympathomimetic drugs. How do these drugs act on the body? A. Stimulate beta receptors and block alpha receptors. B. Stimulate alpha receptors and block beta receptors. C. Block adrenergic receptors. D. Stimulate both alpha and beta receptors.
D. Stimulate both alpha and beta receptors.
A nurse educator who coordinates the staff education on an oncology unit is conducting an inservice on targeted therapies. What potential benefit of targeted therapies should the nurse highlight in this education session? A. Targeted therapies achieve the therapeutic benefits of traditional chemotherapy with no risk of adverse effects. B. Targeted therapies have the potential to provide prophylactic protection against neoplasia in high-risk individuals. C. Targeted therapies are significantly more cost-effective than traditional chemotherapeutic drugs. D. Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected.
D. Targeted therapies have the potential to damage cancerous cells while leaving normal body cells less affected.
A woman of childbearing age is diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently taking hormonal contraceptives. What information should the woman be given regarding the hormonal contraceptives? A. The hormonal contraceptives will inhibit tumor growth. B. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate uterine bleeding. C. The hormonal contraceptives will impair uterine bleeding. D. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate tumor growth.
D. The hormonal contraceptives will stimulate tumor growth.
A patient's physician is considering the addition of efavirenz to the patient's drug regimen for the treatment of recently diagnosed HIV. Which aspects of the patient's medical history should prompt the nurse to question the use of this drug? A. The patient has a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes and did not consistently monitor blood glucose levels prior to diagnosis with HIV. B. The patient experienced an adverse reaction to an influenza immunization several years ago. C. The patient's body mass index at the time of diagnosis was 27 (overweight). D. The patient has hepatitis C and a history of heavy alcohol use.
D. The patient has hepatitis C and a history of heavy alcohol use.
Mr. Hall, age 65, is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Since admission he has not had a bowel movement. The physician prescribes magnesium hydroxide. What would be a realistic outcome of this therapy? A. Within 2 to 3 hours of using the drug, the patient will experience a decrease in abdominal pain and distention. B. Diarrhea will be controlled through the use of the drug. C. The patient will not sustain injury from drug therapy. D. The patient will have a bowel movement after taking the drug.
D. The patient will have a bowel movement after taking the drug.
While studying for a pharmacology test, a student asks peers about interferons. What statement about interferons is true? A. They stimulate B lymphocyte activity. B. They interfere with multiplication of stem cells. C. They stimulate growth and differentiation of lymphoid cells into lymphocytes. D. They interfere with the ability of viruses in infected cells to replicate.
D. They interfere with the ability of viruses in infected cells to replicate.
Symptoms including severe tachycardia, fever, dehydration, heart failure, and coma are consistent with which of the following? A. Subclinical hyperthyroidism B. Hashimoto's disease C. Myxedema D. Thyroid storm
D. Thyroid storm
A client is taking long-term corticosteroid therapy. Which finding would alert the nurse to a potential Cushing's syndrome manifestation? A. Muscle weakness B. General itching C. Weight loss D. Truncal obesity
D. Truncal obesity
A male patient is taking finasteride for BPH. Which of the following will the nurse evaluate at each clinic visit? A. Serum cholesterol levels B. Bone growth C. Hemoglobin levels D. Urinary elimination patterns
D. Urinary elimination patterns
A patient with osteoporosis has bones that become progressively porous, brittle, and especially prone to fracture. This increased susceptibility to fracture manifests most commonly as: A. spiral fracture of the tibia. B. dislocation of the shoulder. C. boxer's fracture. D. compression fracture of the vertebrae.
D. compression fracture of the vertebrae.
Unwanted anticholinergic effects include: A. wakefulness, mental alertness, and decreased fatigue. B. drowsiness or sleep; decreased muscle tone; and decreased ability to move. C. increasing hyperactivity, excessive talking, nervousness, and insomnia. D. constipation and dry mouth.
D. constipation and dry mouth.
An infant's antiseizure medication has been ordered after careful consideration of the unique pharmacokinetics among this population. What characteristic of neonates has the greatest bearing on drug metabolism? A. the undeveloped state of the blood-brain barrier B. increased gastric motility in infants C. the infant's undeveloped renal function D. immaturity of the infant's liver
D. immaturity of the infant's liver
A patient on 5-FU calls the clinic and reports that he has between five and seven loose bowel movements daily. The nurse will instruct the patient to A. treat the diarrhea with OTC medications. B. avoid protein-rich foods. C. avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice. D. notify the clinic if the stools are black or if there is evidence of blood.
D. notify the clinic if the stools are black or if there is evidence of blood.
A 4-year-old boy is postoperative day one following surgery for trauma suffered in a motor vehicle accident. The boy is in pain, and the nurse is preparing to administer a dose of hydromorphone syrup as ordered. To administer this drug, the nurse should use a(n): A. teaspoon. B. transparent, 2-ounce medication cup. C. parenteral syringe with the needle removed. D. oral syringe.
D. oral syringe.
A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also A. include adequate amounts of vitamin C in the diet. B. drink at least 6 to 8 oz of milk daily. C. stop using artificial sweeteners while taking alendronate. D. perform light-weight exercises and go for walks.
D. perform light-weight exercises and go for walks.
A 45-year-old woman with acute leukemia is going to begin chemotherapy with vincristine. The nurse is aware that vincristine must always be administered A. at a rapid infusion rate. B. at a slow infusion rate. C. through an IV line primed with vincristine. D. through a central line.
D. through a central line.
A home care nurse is visiting a patient to assess blood pressure and heart rate. The patient's grandson has a large amount of pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) in the kitchen. For what might the nurse suspect the patient's grandson is using the pseudoephedrine? A. Methamphetamine production B. Treatment of bronchial asthma C. Treatment of sinusitis D. To increase appetite
Methamphetamine production
