Anatomy and Physiology I Final Exam

High heat of vaporization; water was lost when evaporating from the skin to cool the body. Water is the most abundant and important inorganic compound in living material. It makes up 60 to 80 percent of the volume of most living cells. The bicyclist lost a large amount of water through perspiration in an effort to cool his body. This caused a disruption in homeostasis.

A 23 year old male was riding his road bike in 100 degree heat, when he suddenly became nauseated and weak. He called 911 from his cell phone. When the ambulance came, the paramedics started intravenous therapy for severe dehydration. Explain the critical role of water to maintain homeostasis.

a. nonpolar covalent bond

A bond in which electrons are shared equally. a. nonpolar covalent bond b. polar covalent bond c. ionic bond d. hydrogen bond

c. enhancement of labor contractions

A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be a. body temperature regulation b. regulating glucose levels in the blood c. enhancement of labor contractions d. blood calcium level regulation

b. hydrogen bonds

A high fever causes an enzyme to lose its three dimensional structure and function. Which bonds are broken when a protein denatures? a. ionic bonds b. hydrogen bonds c. polar covalent bonds d. nonpolar covalent bonds

d. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasodilation, bringing a greater volume of blood to the skin

A light skinned person may appear pink when they become overheated. The best explanation for this is a. the heart is pumping faster because the person was probably exercising b. blood flow has increased to the sweat glands in order to increase their metabolic activitiy c. the melanocytes are responding to the heat of the sun and change the appearance of the skin with increased production d. the blood vessels of the dermis have undergone vasodilation, bringing a greater volume of blood to the skin

This area is more vulnerable because all the visceral organs in the peritoneal cavity are not protected by the rib cage. Mainly the rib cage only protects the pleural half which consists of the heart and lungs. The abdominal organs are not protected by a bony coverage, thus not keeping them intact.

A small family was traveling in its van and had a minor accident. The children in the back seats were wearing lap belts, but still sustained numerous bruises on the abdomen, and had some internal organ injuries. Why is this area more vulnerable to damage than others?

b. basale

A splinter penetrated into the skin of the sole of the foot, almost to the papillary region of the dermis. Which layer of the epidermis would be the final layer injured? a. granulosum b. basale c. lucidum d. spinosum

a. epithelial tissue

A substance received or given off by your body will likely pass through which tissue type? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. nervous tissue d. muscle tissue

d. hydrogen bond

A type of bond important in tying different parts of the same molecule together into a three-dimensional structure. a. nonpolar covalent bond b. polar covalent bond c. ionic bond d. hydrogen bond

d. decomposition

ATP-> ADP+Pi is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. a. reversible b. synthesis c. exchange d. decomposition

The frontal sinus located in the frontal bone, and the right maxillary sinus located in the right maxilla

After having a severe cold accompanied by nasal congestion, Jamila complained that she had a headache just above her eyes and that the right side of her face ached. What specific bony structures probably became infected by the bacteria or viruses causing the cold?

The child has a vitamin D deficiency, possibly due to poor diet. They would increase the amount of vitamin D and calcium she intakes

Alice and James adopt a 3-year-old child from a developing country. They noticed that her legs were bowed and there were some deformities in her cranial and pelvic bones. They brought her to a physician for a diagnosis. What was the likely diagnosis, and what was the treatment for the disorder?

c. 13

An atom with three electrons in its outermost (valence) shell may have a total of _____ electrons together. a. 3 b. 8 c. 13 d. 17

c. growth

Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things, make them bigger, or more complex. Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex. If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished? a. movement b. responsiveness c. growth d. digestion

a. endothelium

Arteries, veins, and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their _____ is intact and healthy. a. endothelium b. mesothelium c. transitional epithelium d. simple cuboidal epithelium

It is an inherited condition where various chemicals are broken down in the brain by a cell organelle called the lysosome. Unfortunately, because of the buildup of undigested nerve cell lipids, the symptoms of listlessness and motor weakness will progress to mental retardation, seizures, blindness, and ultimately death.

At the age of 6 months, Caleb was diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. As his primary care physician, what would you tell his parents about this disease?

a. ulnar collateral ligament

Baseball pitchers often require tommy john surgery to repair damage to their elbow. which ligament would this surgery target? a. ulnar collateral ligament b. annular ligament c. acetabular labrum d. lateral ligament

d. golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum

Beta cells in the pancreas produce and secrete the protein hormone insulin. You would expect to see a relatively large amount of which organelles in these cells? a. cytoskeleton, and peroxisomes b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and lysosomes c. mitochondria, and cilia d. golgi apparatus, rough endoplasmic reticulum

c. osteogenic cells

Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of a. cartilage and compact bone b. dense irregular connective tissue c. osteogenic cells d. chondrocytes and osteocytes

c. cornified keratinocytes

Cell remnants of the stratum corneum a. keratinocytes b. keratin c. cornified keratinocytes d. dendritic cells e. merkel cells

3. osteoclasts

Cells that can dissolve the bony matrix a. lamellae b. osteoblasts c. endosteum d. canaliculi e. osteoclasts

c. Visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart.

Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membranes. a. Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures. b. Serous membranes are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a virtual space between the two. c. Visceral pericardium covers the outer surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the internal walls of the heart. d. Serous membranes secrete a watery lubricating fluid.

b. canaliculi

Choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone a. central canals b. canaliculi c. nutrient foramens d. perforating (Volkmann's) canals

b. false

Compact bone is replaced more often than spongy bone a. true b. false

a. from cartilage models

Cranial bones develop a. from cartilage models b. within fibrous membranes c. from a tendon d. within osseous membranes

b. giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock

Curvatures of the spine serve the body by a. providing space for soft organs in the various body cavities b. giving additional springiness and flexibility to the spine which absorbs shock c. limiting the flexibility of the spine and preventing hyperextension d. applying greater pressure to the intervertebral discs preventing them from slipping

b. the appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a eprson know that the dermis has been previously stretched and/or torn? a. there is an episode of acute pain due to the large number of tactile corpuscles. b. The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis c. the blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing permanent black and blue marks d. the stretching causes the tension lines to disappear

a. true

Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis in the following order: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. a. true b. false

a. true

Epithelial tissues always exhibit polarity, that is, they have a free surface and a basal surface. a. true b. false

b. excretion of metabolic waste

Expiration (breathing out) is how the body removes excessive carbon dioxide from the blood. This is an example of a. maintaining boundaries b. excretion of metabolic waste c. responsiveness d. metabolism

The increased availability of nutrients allows microorganisms to replicate. The skin and mucous membranes are the body's first line of defense and are most impenetrable to microorganisms, unless broken or damaged by tissue injury

Explain why an infection may occur in a tissue injury.

a. true

Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. a. true b. false

a. true

Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of blood cells within the red marrow cavities of certain bones a. true b. false

b. the transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs

How are thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 different from the other vertebrae? a. the orientation of the articular processes is different form all the other thoracic vertebrae b. the transverse processes do not have facets that articulate with the tubercles of the ribs c. There are two foramina on vertebrae 11 and 12 d. The spinous processes are directed parallel with the centrum

Often, a crime will have fingerprints left at the scene. The DNA from the crime scene can be compared to the DNA from the subject. Each person's DNA is unique and distinct to them, so the suspect can be easily identified.

How can DNA be used to fingerprint a suspect in a crime?

c. fibers are not normally visible

How is hyaline cartilage different from elastic cartilage or fibrocartilage? a. it is more vascularized b. it contains more nuclei c. fibers are not normally visible d. it allows great flexibility

a. true

Hydrogen bonds are too weak to bind atoms together to form molecules, but they do hold different parts of a single large molecule in a specific three-dimensional shape. a. true b. false

a. potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient

If active transport establishes a concentration gradient with the use of ATP, then the concentration gradient can be looked at as a. potential energy that can be harnessed when molecules passively diffuse down the concentration gradient b. an unusable byproduct of active transport that will simply diffuse away c. unwanted pressure that will be alleviated by channel mediated facilitated diffusion d. a byproduct of active transport that will be alleciated by pinocytosis

b. the cells will lose water and shrink

If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable, what could happen? a. the cells will swell and ultimately burst b. the cells will lose water and shrink c. the cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition d. the cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent

b. to hold the molecular backbone together

In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves a. as a code b. to hold the molecular backbone together c. to bind the sugars to their bases d. as nucleotides

a. it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier) the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin? a. it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a Vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism. b. it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body c. the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy d. it absorbs vitamin c so that the skin will not be subject to diseases

e. C (input)

Information about body temperature is sent through the afferent pathway to the brain a. E b. A c. B d. D e. C

Chemicals from the cigarettes inhibited the cilia in the respiratory tract from propelling the mucous and particles up and out the lungs, resulting in an accumulation of particles in the lungs.

John, a 72 year old grandfather, had been smoking heavily for 24 years and had a persistent cough. A biopsy of his lung tissue revealed considerable amounts of carbon particles. How could this happen considering the natural cleaning mechanism of the respiratory system?

Hormonal changes are causing the salacious glands to come overacted, resulting in them becoming clogged and infected.

John, a younger teenager, notices that he is experiencing a lot of pimples and blackheads, which frequently become infected. What is causing this problem?

A long bone receives its blood from canals, for instance, the central canal that contains canaliculi which are hairlike canals connecting lacunae to each other along with the central canal. The lacunae contain the osteocytes in small cavities

Johnny fractured the lower third of his right tibia in a skiing accident. The soft tissues in the area were severely damaged and their surgical removal was necessary. After prolonged immobilization, it was found that Johnny was healing very poorly. The explanation offered by the orthopedic surgeon was that vascularization of the fracture site was still inadequate and good healing was absolutely dependent upon an adequate blood supply. Describe how a long bone receives its blood supply and trace the path of nutrient delivery to the osteocytes.

d. suture

Joint found only in the skull a. syndesmosis b. gomphosis c. symphysis d. suture

d. endothelium

Lines blood vessels and the heart a. mucous membrane b. serous membrane c. cutaneous d. endothelium

b. serous membrane

Makes up the pleura and pericardium a. mucous membrane b. serous membrane c. cutaneous d. endothelium

a. The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium.

One of the descriptions below is from the perspective of anatomical study, the rest are from a physiological perspective. Select the description below that comes from an anatomical perspective. a. The innermost lining of the lungs is composed primarily of a thin tissue called simple squamous epithelium. b. The extremely thin tissue (simple squamous epithelium) of the lngs allows for the quick diffusion of respiratory gases into and out of the body. c. The direction of blood flow through the heart is directed by one way valves. d. The cell-to-cell connections between the heart (cardiac) muscle cells are strong. They hold the tissue together for a life time of forceful contractions.

b. false

Osmosis is the passive movement of water but it follows almost completely opposite laws of physics when compared to the diffusion of ions or other small particles. a. true b. false

d. endoplasmic reticulum

Plays a role in the synthesis of steroid-based hormones and proteins. a. microtubules b. nucleoli c. ribosomes d. endoplasmic reticulum e. nucleus

a. true

Positive feedback mechanisms tend to enhance the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated. a. true b. false

a. calcium and vitamin D

Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of a. calcium and vitamin D b. potassium and vitamin D c. calcium and vitamin E d. vitamin D and chloride

When a woman is pregnant, she has estrogen in her placenta which will then induce the oxytocin receptors on the uterus to release prostaglandins that forms gaps in the uterine smooth muscle. The uterus is then contracting and stimulating the placenta to release. the prostaglandins stimulate more contractions and after this cycle continues, one contraction is going to be ready for birth.

Sara is giving birth to her first child. She is concerned that her labor is taking longer than she thought it would. Why does giving birth usually take time for the contractions to proceed to the point when the child is born?

d. blast cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells

Select the correct statement regarding the stem cells of connective tissue. a. connective tissue does not contain cells b. connective tissue cells are nondividing c. chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper. d. blast cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells

Cranial bones enclose and protect the fragile brain. a helmet would add extra protection in sports such as this, where there is an increased risk for head injury

Sharon is a 32 year old horse trainer. While training a young horse, she was thrown off of the horse and suffered a mild head injury. The nurse inquires about the use of a helmet. Sharon replies, "This is the first time I have ever had a head injury from a horse. I don't think I need a helmet." Based on your understanding of the skull, how should the nurse respond to the patient?

a. E

Skeletal muscles respond with shivering reflex which provides heat to return the body's temperature to a homeostatic balance or ideal value. a. E b. A c. B d. D e. C

c. elastic fibers

Skin, lung, and blood vessel walls have which tissue characteristic in common? a. reticular fibers b. simple squamous epithelium c. elastic fibers d. simple columnar epithelium

d. receptor-mediated endocytosis

Some hormones enter cells via a. exocytosis b. primary active transport c. pinocytosis d. receptor-mediated endocytosis

c. trabeculae

Spongy bone contains a. osteons b. lamellar bone c. trabeculae d. osseous lamellae

c. eccrine and apocrine

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? a. sebaceous and merocrine b. mammary and ceruminous c. eccrine and apocrine d. holocrine and mammary glands

b. false

Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue. a. true b. false

a. true

The apocrine sweat glands are not the primary gland involved in thermoregulation. a. true b. false

c. bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures

The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop? a. boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull b. the boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions c. bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures d. bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings

b. osteoblast

The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the a. osteocyte b. osteoblast c. osteoclast d. chondrocyte

b. brain

The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following? a. intestines b. brain c. lungs d. liver

c. stratum basale

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? a. stratum corneum b. stratum granulosum c. stratum basale d. stratum lucidum

b. false

The frontal bone articulates with the parietal bone by means of the sagittal suture. a. true b. false

b. sequence of the nucleotides

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the a. regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules b. sequence of the nucleotides c. three-dimensional structure of the double helix d. arrangement of the histones

b. the joint is relatively unstable and can easily dislocate

The glenohumeral joint that articulates the humerus to the pectoral girdle is a highly mobile joint. This mobility comes at a cost because a. the blood vessels that lead to the arm and hand can easily be cut off by the free range of motion b. the joint is relatively unstable and can easiy dislocate c. muscles that span this mobile joint will only provide a reduced amount of power d. these types of joints are harder to control and coordinate

c. endosteum

The lining of the marrow cavity a. lamellae b. osteoblasts c. endosteum d. canaliculi e. osteoclasts

a. keratinocytes

The most abundant cells of the epidermis a. keratinocytes b. keratin c. cornified keratinocytes d. dendritic cells e. merkel disc

c. ribosomes

The organelle that facilitates peptic bond formation between amino acids a. microtubules b. nucleoli c. ribosomes d. endoplasmic reticulum e. nucleus

c. sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules

The resilience of bone is thought to come from which of the following? a. amount of mineral salts in the bone b. presence of osteoblasts in the bone c. sacrificial bonds in or between collagen molecules d. amount of mineral salt and protein in the bone

b. false

The right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach. a. true b false

b. false

The shallow socket of the shoulder joint restricts the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint a. true b. false

a. true

The skin cancer most likely to metastasize is cancer of the melanocytes. a. true b. false

b. temporal bones

This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear a. maxillae b. temporal bones c. sphenoid d. lacrimal bones

c. sphenoid

This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault a. maxillae b. temporal bones c. sphenoid d. lacrimal bones

Stratum corneum, the outside layer acts as a barrier to keep everything out

We are told that every surface we touch is teeming with bacteria, and bacteria are found in the pools we swim in, the water we wash with, and the hands of other friends. why are we not inundated with bacterial infections on our skin?

c. sagittal

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called? a. frontal b. regional c. sagittal d. transverse

c. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

What is the major function of the axial skeleton? a. give the body resilience b. provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement c. provide central support for the body and protect internal organs d. provide a space for the major digestive organs

a. goblet cells

Which cells are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells? a. goblet cells b. mast cells c. macrophages d. fibroblasts

c. stratum basale

Which layer of the epidermis will be supplied with the highest levels of oxygen from the blood? a. stratum corneum b. stratum spinosum c. stratum basale d. stratum granulosum

d. dendritic cells - activate the immune system

Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched? a. keratinocytes - provide sense of touch and pressure b. melanocytes - protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of suns rays c. dendritic cells - activate the immune system d. tactile cells - protection

d. cardiovascular physiology

Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels? a. systemic anatomy b. cardiovascular anatomy c. systemic physiology d. cardiovascular physiology

d. enzymes work by raising the energy of activation

Which of the following does not describe enzymes? a. some enzymes are purely protein b. some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor c. each enzyme is chemically specific d. enzymes work by raising the energy of activation

d. pigment structure

Which of the following does not describe uses for the ATP molecule? a. chemical work b. mechanical work c. transport across membranes d. pigment structure

c. help in the formation of cell membranes

Which of the following is not a function of lysosomes? a. digesting particles taken in by endocytosis b. degrading worn-out or nonfunctional organelles c. help in the formation of cell membranes d. breaking down bone to release calcium ions into the blood

c. growth hormone

Which of the following is the single most important stimulus for epiphyseal plate activity during infancy and childhood? a. parathyroid hormone b. calcium c. growth hormone d. thyroid hormone

c. endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs

Which of the following is true about epithelia? a. simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion b. stratified epithelia are associated with filtration c. endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs d. pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized

d. prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defenses protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? a. the skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's color. b. carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight. c. the skin is protected by increasing the number of epidermal dendritic cells, which help to activate the immune system. d. prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

b. microvilli

Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell? a. stereocilia b. microvilli c. primary cilia d. flagella

c. decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane

Which of the following will not speed up the net rate of diffusion for glucose into a cell? a. increasing the concentration of glucose outside of the cell b. increasing the number of glucose transport proteins within the plasma membrane c. decreasing the number of phospholipids in the plasma membrane d. decreasing the concentration of glucose within the cell

b. the paranasal sinuses

Which of the following would be most associated with process of warming and humidifying inhaled air? a. hyoid bone b. the paranasal sinuses c. the cranial bones d. the bones comprising the orbits

d. CH4

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule? a. H2O b. NaCl c. NaOH d. CH4

d. nervous

Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? a. muscular b. lymphatic c. immune d. nervous

a. perpendicular plate

Which part of the ethmoid bone forms the superior part of the nasal septum? a. perpendicular plate b. crista galli c. cribriform plate d. orbital plateriform

c. the lumbar region

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body? a. the sacrum b. the cervical region c. the lumbar region d. the sacral promontory

a. usually contains a large amount of matrix

Which statement best describes connective tissue? a. usually contains a large amount of matrix b. typically arranged in a single layer of cells c. primarily concerned with secretion d. usually lines a body cavity

a. adipose

Which tissue type would likely function to hold the kidneys in place? a. adipose b. dense regular c. smooth muscle d. reticular

c. receptor-mediated endocytosis

Which transport process is the main mechanism for the movement of most macromolecules by body cells? a. phagocytosis b. pinocytosis c. receptor-mediated endocytosis d. secondary active transport

c. atlas

Which vertebra does not have a body? a. last lumbar b. axis c. atlas d. last cervical vertebra

b. phagocytosis

Which vesicular transport process occurs primarily in some white blood cells and macrophages? a. exocytosis b. phagocytosis c. pinocytosis d. intracellular vesicular trafficking

b. olive oil

With a family history of cardiovascular disease, which toast spread would be considered the most heart healthy? a. margarine containing trans fats b. olive oil c. butter containing butterfat d. lard (pig fat)

If cilia are paralyzed, the mucus-containing particles, including bacteria, will remain in the lungs and may cause a respiratory infection

Your patient has a respiratory disease that has literally paralyzed the cilia. Explain why this patient would be at an increased risk for a respiratory infection.

a. triceps brachii

_____ is a powerful forearm extensor a. brachialis a. triceps brachii c. brachioradialis d. biceps brachii.

b. simulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking

a bit of dust blows into and touches the cornea of the eye. which of the following is likely to happen? a. nothing, because there is no sensory information sent from the cornea. b. simulation of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve (V) will cause blinking c. stimulation of the optic nerve (II) will cause tears to flow from the lacrimal gland d. stimulation of the facial nerve (VII) will be perceived as pain

c. diaphysis

a fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the a. epiphysis b. metaphysis c. diaphysis d. articular cartilage

b. false

a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate a. true b. false

c. interneuron

a neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a. efferent neuron b. afferent neuron c. interneuron d. glial cells

In the shoulder joint, stability has been sacrificed to provide the most freely moving joint of the body. The shoulder joint is a ball and socket joint shoulder, dislocation is common, avoid pressure in this area

a nurse is instructing the patient care assistants on transfer techniques. for patients needing to be slid toward the head of the bed, the nurse tells the PCAs to use a draw sheet under the patient's torso. she tells them to avoid pulling on their hands or arms. based on your knowledge of the shoulder joint, explain why pulling on the extremities should be avoided.

d. olfactory nerve

a patient is suffering from the inability to distinguish various types of odors. this patient may have damage to which of the following? a. hypoglossal nerve (XII) b. vagus nerve (X) c. facial nerve (VIII) d. olfactory nerve (I)

a. the membrane potential has been reestablished

a second nerve impulse cannot be generated until a. the membrane potential has been reestablished b. the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell c. proteins have been resynthesized d. all the sodium gates are closed

b. elastic (titin) filaments

although all the anatomical parts of muscle work together to give it its characteristics, which of the following proteins listed below would be most associated with the characteristics of extensibility? a. acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate b. elastic (titin) filaments c. thick (myosin) filaments d. potassium (K+) leak channels

b. a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels

an action potential is regarded as an example of a positive feedback. which of the following examples below best illustrated the positive feedback aspect of an action potential? a. voltage gated potassium ion channels open slowly and remain open long enough to cause hyperpolarization b. a threshold stimulus will cause the opening of voltage gated sodium ion channels that will cause further depolarizing stimulus. this stimulus will open still more voltage gated sodium ion channels c. the sodium potassium pump consistently moves ions as long as ATP is available, and regardless of membrane potential changes d. potassium permeability is about 25 times greater than sodium ions

c. visual association area

an individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the a. calcarine cortex b. primary visual cortex c. visual association area d. lateral geniculate body

The voltage gated K+ channels are slow to open as well as to close. these channels will remain open long enough to hyperpolarize the cell. The K+ ions decrease the positive ion concentration momentarily below the normal -70mV and thus hyperpolarize the cell. This assists in preventing the AP from reversing direction.

at the biochemical level, what is the explanation of the hyperpolarization phase at the conclusion of the action potential?

a. syndesmosis

bones are connected exclusively by ligaments a. syndesmosis b. gomphosis c. symphysis d. suture

b. false

both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage. a. true b. false

a. slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers

depends on oxygen delivery and aerobic mechanisms a. slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers b. fast (oxidative or glycotic), fatigable fibers c. fast (oxidative or glycotic), fatigable fibers

a. they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury

dermatone maps are useful to clinicians because a. they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury b. they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery c. they show the routes of motor nerves d. they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus

a. true

enkephalins and endorphins are peptides that act like morphine a. true b. false

b. fast glycolytic fibers

exhaustion of glycogen storage within a muscle fiber would have the biggest effect on a. slow oxidative fibers b. fast glycolytic fibers c. both slow and fast oxidative fibers d. fast oxidative fibers

Even though both individuals have the same pain threshold since they both perceived pain at the same stimulus intensity, each one's tolerance to pain is different. Sarah has a lower pain threshold compared to Sami's.

good friends same and sara were picking roses when the both encountered rose thorns. sami just laughed and continues to pick more roses. sara, however, had tears in her eyes and complained of how much the thorn prick hurt. what accounts for the difference in their response to the same pain stimulus?

b. fast (oxidative or glycolytic) fatigable fibers

have very fast-acting myosin ATPases and depend upon anaerobic metabolism during contraction a. slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers b. fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers

b. false

hinge joints permit movement in only two planes a. true b. false

a prime mover (agonist) is a muscle that bears major responsibility for effecting a particular movement. an antagonist is a muscle that opposes the action of the prime mover. antagonists help regulate the action of the prime mover by contracting slightly to prevent overshooting the mark or to stop the movement. prime mover and antagonist are located on opposite sides of a joint and can switch rules depending on the movement needed.

how does an antagonist differ from a prime mover (agonist)? how is it the same?

c. third-class lever

if L=load, F=fulcrum, and E=effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? a. first-class lever b. second-class lever c. third-class lever d. fourth-class lever

b. slow oxidative fibers

if given the exact same amount of ATP, which of the 3 fiber types would be able to contract for the longest amount of time? a. fast glycolytic fibers b. slow oxidative fibers c. both fast glycolytic and fast oxidative fibers d. fast oxidative fibers

c. phrenic nerve

if irritated, this nerve will cause hiccups a. cervical plexus b. cutaneous nerve c. phrenic nerve d. lesser occipital nerve

a. hypothalamus

in addition it its vital role in maintaining overall body homeostasis, which brain region synthesizes two major body hormones? a. hypothalamus b. epithalamus c. interthalamic adhesion d. thalamus

a. hyaline cartilage

in symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with a. hyaline cartilage b. synovial membranes c. fibrocartilage d. tendon sheaths

c. the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here

injury to cervical vertebra c3-c4 is particularly problematic because a. part of the brain stem is located here b. several ganglia are near this region that erve the heart c. the phrenic nerve that serves the diaphragm receives its fibers from here d. the greater auricular nerve that serve the parotid gland receive their fibers from here

b. dorsal (posterior) horn

interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the a. dorsal root ganglion b. dorsal (posterior) horn c. ventral (anterior) horn d. lateral horn

d. diarthrotic

lifting up a glass to take a drink involves the elbow joint. which of the following correctly characterizes that joint? a. pivot b. biaxial c. cartilaginous d. diarthrotic

b. premotor cortex

loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the a. spinal cord b. premotor cortex c. primary motor cortex d. rubrospinal tracts

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic, systematic, and inflammatory disorder. RA is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own tissue. RA begins with inflammation of the synovial membrane of the affected joints. fluid accumulates causing joint swelling and gradually, the inflamed synovial membrane thickens into a pannus, an abnormal tissue that clings to the articular cartilages. The nurse should explain that RA has a chronic crippling ankylosis stage where the bone ends fuse together, immobilizing the joint. However, not all cases involve restriction of joint movement and extreme pain.

maggie is a 28 year old caucasian woman who has newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. she complains of painful, stiff hands and feel, feeling tired all the time, and reports an intermittent low grade fever. she asks the nurse if she is going to be crippled. how might the nurse explain the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis?

b. antagonist

muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle a. fixator b. antagonist c. synergist d. agonist (prime mover)

a. fixator

muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle a. fixator b. antagonist c. synergist d. agonist (prime mover)

b. somatic nervous system

nerve impulses leading to the skeletal muscle carry information to direct movement. the nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? a. sensory (afferent) division b. somatic nervous system c. sympathetic division d. parasympathetic division

d. temporal summation

numerous nerve impulses arriving at a synapse at closely timed intervals exert a cumulative effect a. spatial summation b. subthreshold stimulus c. threshold stimulus d. temporal summation

d. syndesmosis

on the basis of structural classification, which is a fibrous joint? a. symphysis b. synchondrosis c. pivot d. syndesmosis

a. smooth muscle

oxygen starved tissues can release chemical signals into the blood that can change the diameter of nearby blood vessels delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. in doing so, the blood vessels will respond through vasodilation (widening of the vessel). which muscle type is responsible for this vasodilation? a. smooth muscle b. cardiac muscle c. skeletal muscle d. striated muscle

a. spatial summation

stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by many terminals at the same time a. spatial summation b. subthreshold stimulus c. threshold stimulus d. temporal summation

a. true

supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned anteriorly or superiorly. a. true b. false

a. act as friction-reducing structures

tendon sheaths a. act as friction-reducing structures b. are lined with dense irregular connective tissue c. are extensions of periosteum d. help anchor the tendon to the muscle

b. false

the all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place. a. true b. false

d. visceral sensory area

the area of the cortex that is responsible for sensing a full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the a. olfactory cortex b. gustatory cortex c. vestibular cortex d. visceral sensory area

b. accessory

the cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the a. hypoglossal b. accessory c. vagus d. glossopharyngeal

b. different post synaptic cells will have different receptors

the effect of acetylcholine can be stimulating or inhibiting. which of the following gives the best explanation for why this is so. a. acetylcholine has many different forms b. different post synaptic cells will have different receptors c. postsynaptic cells have a dynamic and changing metabolism and respond differently at different times. d. acetylcholine has a dose effect. larger doses are stimulating while small doses inhibit

d. multiaxial

the hip joint is a good example of a _____ joint a. nonaxial b. uniaxial c. biaxial d. multiaxial

a. cruciate ligaments

the ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called a. cruciate ligaments b. patellar ligaments c. anterior ligaments d. tibial collateral ligaments

b. reticular activating system

the light of dawn and the buzz of an alarm clock lead to wakefulness through the a. limbic system b. reticular activating system c. cerebellar peduncles d. basal nuclei

a. true

the major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone a. true b. false

a. quadriceps femoris

the most powerful muscle in the body is the a. quadriceps femoris b. rectus abdominis c. gastrocnemius d. gluteus maximu

The contraction of the muscles in these activities helps maintain the shape, size, and strength of muscles, as well as joint mobility

the nurse encourages the patient to do his own activities of daily living such as bathing, eating, dressing, and toileting activities. how do these activities promote physical conditioning?

b. rectus femoris

the quadriceps femoris is composed of three vastus muscles and the a. biceps femoris b. rectus femoris c. semitendinosus d. semimembranosus

a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping

the sliding filament model of contraction involves a. actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping b. the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past c. actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other. d. the z discs sliding over the myofilaments

a. true

the thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment. a. true b. false

left handedness typically occurs when right cerebral dominance occurs. as a result, left handed people are using their right cerebrum for motor activity.

thomas is wearing a tshirt with the saying only left handed people are in their right minds. what does this mean in terms of lateralization of cortical function?

d. proprioceptors

we can touch our finger to our nose while our eyes are closed in part because we can sense the position and movement of our joints as well as the length of stretch in our muscles. these sensations create awareness of our body's positioning. the following receptors are most liekly responsible for this ability. a. nociceptors b. exteroceptors c. interoceptors d. proprioceptors

c. wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity

what are menisci (articular discs)? a. cavities lined with cartilage b. small sacs containing synovial fluid c. wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity d. tendon sheaths

the cerebral cortex is only 2-4 mm thick; however, the convolutions effectively triply the cortical surface area. as a result, the cortex accounts for 40% of the total brain mass and functions in all conscious activity, including movement, sensory perception, thinking, and memory.

what is the importance of the fact that the outer portion of the cerebral hemispheres is convoluted?

d. the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

what is the major factor controlling how levers work? a. the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever b. the weight of the load c. the direction the load is being moved d. the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction

what is the primary function of wave summation? a. produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction b. increase muscle tension c. prevent muscle relaxation d. prevent muscle fatigue

b. refractory period

when a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? a. relaxation period b. refractory period c. latent period d. fatigue period

d. generator potential

when a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) a. postsynaptic potential b. excitatory potential c. action potential d. generator potential

d. vagus

which cranial nerve is the exception and travels to the thoracic and abdominal cavities? a. trochlear b. trigeminal c. vestibulocochlear d. vagus

c. smooth

which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? a. skeletal b. cardiac c. smooth d. no muscle can regenerate

b. internal intercostals and rectus abdominis

which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? a. diaphragm along b. internal intercostals and rectus abdominus c. external intercostals and diaphragm d. rectus abdominis and diaphragm

a. it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? a. it closes, purses, and protrudes the lips b. it pulls the lower lip down and back c. it draws the eyebrows together d. it closes the eye

d. thalamus

which of the following brain regions is a major convergence area for most sensory input before it is sent on the cerebral cortex? a. hypothalamus b. epithalamus c. interthalamic adhesion d. thalamus

a. limbic system

which of the following brain systems is heavily involved in meditating emotional responses a. limbic system b. reticular formation c. reticular activating system d. both a and b

a. facial

which of the following cranial nerves has both sensory and motor functions? a. facial b. trochlear c. hypoglossal d. accessory

b. short distance depolarization

which of the following describes the excitatory postsynaptic potential? a. short distance hyperpolarization b. short distance depolarization c. opens K+ or Cl- channels d. moves membrane potential away from threshold

d. the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius

which of the following is a true statement? a. the head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process b. the greater tubercle of the human articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. c. the rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. d. the annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius

c. acetylcholine

which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle? a. cholinesterase b. norepinephrine c. acetylcholine d. gamma aminobutyric acid

b. a nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal

which of the following is false or incorrect? a. an excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold b. a nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal c. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane

d. innervation of skeletal muscle

which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system? a. innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract b. innervation of cardiac muscle c. innervation of glands d. innervation of skeletal muscle

a. gracilis

which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings? a. gracilis b. semitendinosus c. semimembranosus d. biceps femoris

b. the sartorius

which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position? a. the gastrocnemius b. the sartorius c. all of the hamstrings d. the quadriceps femoris

c. the frontal belly of epicranius

which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? a. the medial pterygoid b. the zygomaticus major c. the frontal belly of epicranius d. the temporalis

d. skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons

which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle? a. skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres. b. skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. the deepest layer being the endomysium c. the shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature. d. skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.

c. striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei

which of the following statements is true? a. cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei b. smooth muscle cells have t tubules c. striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei d. cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels