Anatomy: Exam 2

4. What is the approximate volume of the adult cranial cavity?

1300-1500cc

17. A pollex has _______ phalanges.

2

60. How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum?

10

When during human development does the process of ossification begin? A. 12 weeks after birth B. 12th-13th week of embryonic development C. 8th-9th month of fetal development D. 3-4 months of age E. 10-25 years of age

12th-13th week of embryonic development

61. How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum?

2

This figure illustrates epiphyseal plate morphology. Which is the zone of proliferating cartilage? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

2

This figure illustrates the cell types found in bone. Which type of cell secretes osteoid? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of the choices is correct

2

This figure illustrates the components of compact bone. Which number indicates a region of concentric lamellae? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

2

91. Although the number can vary slightly, the number of bones in a typical adult skeleton is (use digits) _______.

206

3. The thoracic cage includes

24 ribs, sternum

42. Not counting sesamoid bones, what is the total number of tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges in a single ankle and foot?

26

During bone repair, how long does the stage of the bony callus last? A. 12-24 hours B. 3-4 months C. 1-2 years D. 8-10 days E. 1-2 weeks

3-4 months

13. Excluding the bones of the pectoral girdle, how many bones are in each upper limb?

30

This figure illustrates epiphyseal plate morphology. In which zone are minerals deposited in the matrix? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

4

This figure illustrates the cell types found in bone. Which number indicates an osteocyte? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

4

This figure shows the gross anatomy of a long bone. Which number indicates the periosteum? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

4

44. The appendicular skeleton begins to develop during the ______ week of embryonic development.

4th

This figure illustrates epiphyseal plate morphology. Which zones are considered to be bone tissue? A. 3, 4, 5 B. 4, 5 C. 5 D. 1 E. 1, 2, 3

5

This figure shows the gross anatomy of a long bone. Which number indicates the articular cartilage? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

5

19. What is the total number of phalanges in a normal human body?

56

44. In the human body, joints start to form by the ______ week of embryonic development.

6th

65. Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human?

7 lumbar vertebrae

43. The vertebral column includes ______ cervical, ______ thoracic, and ______ lumbar vertebrae.

7, 12, 5

44. Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth?

7, 12, 5

2. What bone count is not correct?

8 tarsals per ankle

. The skull consists of ____________ cranial bones and _________________ facial bones.

8, 14

1. What is not correct regarding articulations?

All articulations contain some type of cartilage

Which affects osteoblast and osteoclast activity? A. Gravity B. Mechanical stress C. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels D. Blood calcium level E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Which is a change in bone architecture or mass related to aging? A. Insufficient calcification B. Demineralization C. Reduction in the organic content of the matrix D. Loss of flexibility and increase in brittleness E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Which is characteristic of cartilage connective tissue? A. Gel-like ground substance B. Matrix of protein fibers C. Cells called chondrocytes D. Avascular E. All of the choices are correct

All of the choices are correct

Osteolysis is A. Demineralization due to hydrochloric acid activity B. The release of calcium and phosphate from the matrix C. The result of osteoclast activity D. The result of enzyme activity E. All of these

All of these

Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n) A. Fossa B. Sulcus C. Sinus D. Alveolus E. Foramen

Alveolus

36. What ligament is responsible for holding the head of the radius in place:

Annular ligament

Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter is called A. Interstitial growth B. Epiphyseal growth C. Appositional growth D. Endosteal growth E. Cancellous bone growth

Appositional growth

Rami, trochanters, tubercles and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as A. Articulating surfaces B. Passageways for nerves C. Attachments for ligaments or tendons D. Pits or depressions to hold cartilage E. Passageways for blood vessels

Attachments for ligaments or tendons

18. What joint is multiaxial:

Ball and socket

16. Fluid-filled sacs that cushion synovial joints are called:

Bursae

In compact bone, ___________ connect adjacent lacunae, thereby providing pathways for nutrients and other materials to pass between osteocytes. A. Osteonic canals B. Blood vessels C. Lamellae D. Canaliculi E. Perforating canals

Canaliculi

During appositional growth of cartilage, the cells that produce the matrix are the A. Chondrocytes B. Osteocytes C. Fibroblasts D. Chondroblasts E. Osteoblasts

Chondroblasts

The epiphyseal plates in the _________ are the last ones in the body to ossify. A. Femur B. Humerus C. Clavicle D. Radius E. Tibia

Clavicle

27. What is not characteristic of a male pelvis?

Coccyx titled posteriorly

What gives bone its flexibility? A. Inorganic salts B. Yellow bone marrow C. Collagen fibers D. Trabeculae E. Elastic fibers

Collagen fibers

A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.

Colles

Patients with osteoporosis often suffer _________ fractures of the vertebral bodies due to loss of bone mass. A. Spiral B. Epiphyseal C. Greenstick D. Compression E. Transverse

Compression

In compact bone, the matrix rings that surround the central canal of each osteon are called A. Canaliculi B. Concentric lamellae C. Circumferential lamellae D. Perforating canals E. Interstitial lamellae

Concentric lamellae

21. The metatarsophalangeal joints allow movement in two planes and are classified as ______ joints.

Condylar

Which is an alternate term for compact bone? A. Cancellous bone B. Trabecular bone C. Spongy bone D. Diploe E. Cortical bone

Cortical bone

6. In fibrous joints, the articulating surfaces are held together by :

Dense regular connective tissue

Which type of cartilage would be punctured if you chose to pierce the auricle of your ear? A. Reticular cartilage B. Articular cartilage C. Fibrocartilage D. Hyaline cartilage E. Elastic cartilage

Elastic cartilage

The formation of bone from a cartilaginous model is termed A. Mesenchymal ossification B. Intramembranous ossification C. Bone remodeling D. Orthodontia E. Endochondral ossification

Endochondral ossification

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of connective tissue called the A. Diaphysis B. Epiphysis C. Endosteum D. Periosteum E. Trabeculae

Endosteum

Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface? A. Head B. Epicondyle C. Condyle D. Facet E. Trochlea

Epicondyle

This figure shows the gross anatomy of a long bone. What bone feature does number 1 indicate? A. Epiphyseal line B. Trabeculae C. Osteon D. Canaliculus E. Perforating canal

Epiphyseal line

Before beginning orthodontic treatment, a patient may have her wrist and hand x-rayed to determine her stage of growth. What long bone feature will the orthodontist use to assess this? A. Osteon B. Periosteum C. Spongy bone D. Epiphyseal plate E. Compact bone

Epiphyseal plate

Which bone does not contain diploe? A. Parietal B. Ethmoid C. Occipital D. Frontal E. Temporal

Ethmoid

This figure illustrates the components of compact bone. Number 1 indicates A. External circumferential lamellae B. Interstitial lamellae C. Concentric lamellae D. Internal circumferential lamellae E. Cortical lamellae

External circumferential lamellae

81. Sutural (Wormian) bones are most commonly found in the squamous suture. T/F

F

About 80% of the human skeleton is replaced yearly as a result of bone remodeling. True False

False

In adults, an area of compact bone called the epiphyseal tract replaces the epiphyseal plate. True False

False

In general, the mechanical stresses on bones that result from exercise tend to weaken them and lead to more frequent fractures. True False

False

Once we reach adulthood and our bones are fully formed and hardened, they cannot be remodeled. True False

False

Osteons run perpendicular to the diaphysis of a long bone. True False

False

Since cartilage must be continuously replaced in the body, appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage continues throughout life. True False

False

Which type of cartilage is described as follows: matrix with thick collagen fibers; lacks perichondrium; resists stretching and compression? A. Elastic cartilage B. Reticular cartilage C. Articular cartilage D. Fibrocartilage E. Hyaline cartilage

Fibrocartilage

Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Reticular cartilage D. Articular cartilage E. Elastic cartilage

Fibrocartilage

38. Describe menisci:

Fibrous cartilage pads

3. The sagittal suture is a(n) :

Fibrous joint

Which bone does not function in protection? A. Parietal bone B. Fibula C. Lumbar vertebra D. Sternum E. Os coxae

Fibula

Spongy bone A. Contains no osteocytes B. Has spaces filled with yellow marrow C. Is composed of tubular units called osteons D. Forms diploe in the cranial bones E. All of the choices are correct

Forms diploe in the cranial bones

2. The term diarthrosis refers to a joint that is:

Freely mobile

Growth at the epiphyseal plate is specifically stimulated by A. Growth hormone B. Estrogen and testosterone C. Parathyroid hormone D. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone E. Growth hormone, estrogen, and testosterone

Growth hormone, estrogen, and testosterone

Which is not a function of bone? A. Protection B. Mineral storage C. Body movement D. Hormone synthesis E. Hemopoiesis

Hormone synthesis

34. What ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint:

Humeral collateral ligament

26. What joint is not capable of circumduction:

Humeroulnar joint

Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) _________ model. A. Mesenchyme B. Dense connective tissue C. Hyaline cartilage D. Membranous E. Osteoid

Hyaline cartilage

Which is the most abundant type of cartilage in the body? A. Elastic cartilage B. Fibrocartilage C. Reticular cartilage D. Hyaline cartilage E. Vascular cartilage

Hyaline cartilage

What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty? A. Increased activity of osteoclasts occurs in response to parathyroid hormone stimulation B. Increased rate of calcium deposition occurs due to high blood calcium levels C. Increased physical activity causes lengthwise growth in response to bone stress D. Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth E. Increased absorption of dietary vitamins and minerals strengthens the matrix

Increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth

6. The _______ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet.

Inferior angle

What gives bone its compressional strength? A. Yellow bone marrow B. Reticular fibers C. Inorganic salts D. Red bone marrow E. Endosteum

Inorganic salts

What is not true regarding ligaments:

Intrinsic ligaments are thickenings of the articular cartilage

Compact bone A. Is located deep to spongy bone in the diaphysis B. Is composed of tubular units called osteons C. Has a brace-like arrangement of trabeculae D. Is avascular E. All of the choices are correct

Is composed of tubular units called osteons

Which is not true about periosteum? A. It includes two layers: outer fibrous and inner cellular B. It is composed of dense regular connective tissue C. It provides stem cells for bone growth and repair D. It is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers E. It covers the entire bone surface, with the exception of articular areas

It is composed of dense regular connective tissue

Which is not correct about spongy bone? A. Its spaces hold red bone marrow B. It is located deep to compact bone C. It forms diploe in the cranial bones D. It is composed of tubular units called osteons E. It is located in the epiphyses of long bones

It is composed of tubular units called osteons

Which is not true about bone remodeling? A. It occurs throughout life B. It assists in the maintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body C. It occurs at both the endosteal and periosteal surfaces of the bone D. It occurs only at articular surfaces E. It can occur in response to stress on a bone

It occurs only at articular surfaces

A fracture parallel to the long axis of the bone is a(n) _________ fracture. A. Transverse B. Oblique C. Linear D. Comminuted E. Medial

Linear

A metatarsal bone is an example of a(n) _____ bone. A. Long B. Irregular C. Short D. Flat E. Sesamoid

Long

Consider the classifications of bone, and examples of each. Which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection? A. Short bones B. Long bones C. Flat bones D. Irregular bones E. Regular bones

Long bones

When bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within A. Hyaline cartilage B. Compact bone C. Mesenchyme D. Elastic cartilage E. Spongy bone

Mesenchyme

Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate? A. Distal epiphysis B. Proximal epiphysis C. Metaphysis D. Diaphysis E. Periphysis

Metaphysis

Which is not involved in the process of bone repair following a fracture? A. Fibroblasts produce collagen fibers to connect broken pieces of bone B. A fibrocartilaginous callus serves as a model for new bone growth C. Osteoclasts remove excess bone from the hard callus D. The fracture hematoma reorganizes to form a procallus E. No exceptions; all of the choices are involved in the process of bone repair

No exceptions; all of the choices are involved in the process of bone repair

During the process of endochondral ossification, chondrocytes in the cartilage model die. Why does this occur? A. Blood supply to the cartilage is cut off by the developing periosteum B. Canaliculi connecting adjacent chondrocyte lacunae fuse C. Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix D. The developing bone collar secretes enzymes that destroy the chondrocytes E. Phagocytic osteoclasts in the new bone engulf and destroy the chondrocytes

Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix

Which is the definition for a greenstick fracture? A. The bone is twisted as it fractures B. The fracture is at right angles to the long axis of the bone C. The bone is splintered into several fragments D. Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent E. The fracture is at an oblique angle to the long axis of the bone

Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent

43. What condition is specifically associated with aging and/or extreme exercise and is commonly called "wear and tear arthritis":

Osteoarthritis

Cells that produce new bone tissue by secreting matrix are called A. Osteocytes B. Osteoclasts C. Osteoblasts D. Osteoprogenitor cells E. Bone-lining cells

Osteoblasts

This figure illustrates the cell types found in bone. What type of cell does number 3 indicate? A. Osteocyte B. Osteoblast C. Osteoprogenitor cell D. Bone-lining cell E. Osteoclast

Osteoclast

Bone cells called __________ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the matrix. A. Osteoprogenitor cells B. Osteoid cells C. Osteocytes D. Osteoclasts E. Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

This figure illustrates the cell types found in bone. The material indicated by number 5 is the initial semisolid form of bone matrix. What is it called? A. Osteon B. Osteoid C. Osteoprogenitor tissue D. Osteomatrix E. Osteolysis

Osteoid

Which hormone inhibits rather than stimulates bone growth? A. Calcitonin B. Estrogen and testosterone C. Thyroid hormone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Growth hormone

Parathyroid hormone

An example of a flat bone would be the A. Femur B. Radius C. Trapezoid D. Parietal E. Calcaneus

Parietal

Which is a sesamoid bone? A. Patella B. Cuboid C. Talus D. Sphenoid E. Scaphoid

Patella

The periosteum is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers called _____ fibers. A. Transverse B. Perforating C. Penetrating D. Connecting E. Cementing

Perforating

This figure illustrates the components of compact bone. Number 5 indicates passageways called A. Central canals B. Perforating canals C. Penetrating canals D. Canaliculi E. Interstitial canals

Perforating canals

24. The iliac crest extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the

Posterior superior iliac spine

Which is not stored in bone? A. Calcium B. Lipid C. Phosphate D. Fat E. Protein

Protein

Where does hemopoiesis occur? A. Epiphyseal line B. Endosteum C. Red bone marrow D. Yellow bone marrow E. Nutrient foramina

Red bone marrow

1. What bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

Sacrum

Which would not be classified as an irregular bone? A. Scapula B. Sphenoid C. Sacrum D. Thoracic vertebra E. Ethmoid

Scapula

4. What bones comprise each pectoral girdle?

Scapula and clavicle

5. What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?

Scapula and sternum

What is the function of cartilage located in the epiphyseal plates? A. Serves as model for bone formation B. Provides passageway for blood vessels C. Forms articular surface D. Supports soft tissues E. Provides flexibility for bending

Serves as model for bone formation

The bones of the wrist are classified as _____ bones. A. Long B. Regular C. Short D. Irregular E. Flat

Short

1. Which structure does not contain cartilage? A. Larynx B. Lung C. Stomach D. Knee E. Ear

Stomach

29. After a pop quiz in anatomy class, you find out that you are one of the top scorers and have earned a fabulous prize. As you reach out your hand to receive your prize, what movements are involved:

Supination and extension

. The joint between the sphenoid bone and the occipital bone is a:

Synchondrosis

Which is not a function of cartilage? A. Provides support for certain soft tissues B. Synthesizes red blood cells C. Forms gliding surface at articulations D. Serves as model for bone formation E. No exceptions; all of the choices are functions of cartilage

Synthesizes red blood cells

If a bone is immersed in a weak acid such as vinegar for several days, its inorganic components will dissolve. What will be the result of such an experiment? A. The bone will dissolve completely B. The compact bone will dissolve, leaving only the inner spongy bone C. The bone will become hard and brittle D. The bone will become soft and flexible E. The spongy bone will dissolve, leaving only the outer compact bone

The bone will become soft and flexible

What would be the effect on bone growth of insufficient dietary calcium? A. There would be no effect, since the body is able to synthesize calcium B. The matrix would be softer C. The bone would be less flexible D. The epiphyseal plates would ossify earlier in development E. There would be increased formation of spongy bone

The matrix would be softer

Which is not correct about osteoclasts? A. They have a ruffled border to increase surface area B. They are found in pits called Howship's lacunae C. They function in bone resorption D. They are concentrated between the periosteum and the bone E. They are multinuclear

They are concentrated between the periosteum and the bone

Endochondral ossification is a form of bone growth in which a cartilaginous model is replaced by bone. True False

True

Further lengthwise bone growth cannot occur once the epiphyseal lines have formed. True False

True

Mature cartilage is avascular. True False

True

Movement of the teeth during orthodontic treatment is a result of bone remodeling. True False

True

Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells; osteoclasts are bone-dissolving cells. True False

True

The flat bones of the cranium form by intramembranous ossification. True False

True

Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen? A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin K

Vitamin C

Rickets, a disease characterized by overproduction and deficient calcification of osteoid tissue, is caused by a lack of sufficient A. Vitamin D B. Calcitonin C. Thyroid hormone D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin C

Vitamin D

Which bone forms by intramembranous ossification? A. Zygomatic B. Radius C. Axis D. Hamate E. First metatarsal

Zygomatic

The process of bone repair includes these steps: a: Fracture hematoma forms b: Bone is remodeled c: Fibrocartilaginous callus forms d: Bony callus forms The correct chronological order for these steps is A. a - c - d - b B. a - b - d - c C. c - d - b - a D. d - a - b - c E. b - a - c - d

a - c - d - b

5. Describe omphoses :

a joint that anchors a tooth to its socket

20. At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?

acetabulum

24. Movement of a body part toward the main axis of the body is called:

adduction

56. Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n)

ala

52. Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra? _-all are correct: - pedicles -vertebral foramen -spinous process - vertebral arch

all are correct

38. Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull? -all of these are correct: -chin pointed and triangular mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees - little or no prominence in superciliary arches -external surface of occipital bone relatively smooth

all of these are correct

78. The _________ neck of the humerus marks the position of the former epiphyseal plate.

anatomical

69. A common knee injury is a torn ACL, which stands for _______________________

anterior cruciate ligament

The growth patterns of cartilage include interstitial growth (from within) and _________ growth (from without).

appositional

23. The ala terminates inferiorly at the ___________ on the medial surface of the ilium.

arculate line

32. In the temporomandibular joint, a pad of fibrocartilage called the _______ divides the synovial cavity into two separate chambers.

articular disc

50. The occipital condyles articulate with the

atlas, c1

17. What is the function of the nuchal lines?

attachment for muscles and ligaments

97. As a person ages, the teeth wear down from use in a process called dental ________.

attrition

2. Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton?

axial: head, neck, trunk

37. The joint known as the "wrist" is the radiocarpal joint. Why is the ulna not considered to be part of this joint:

b/c an articular disk is located between the ulna and the proximal row of carpals

41. What is not a type of joint found in the foot:

ball or socket

39. Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs

before age 5

65. A joint in which the bone can move in two planes is said to be _______

biaxial

. What is not true about synovial joints:

blood circulates within the joint cavity to nourish the articular cartilage

63. Which is not true about aging of the skeleton?

bone mass INCREASES with age

The steps in the process of intramembranous ossification are a: Formation of lamellar bone b: Osteoid undergoes calcification c: Ossification centers form d: Formation of woven bone and its periosteum The correct chronological order for these steps is A. b - a - c - d B. c - b - d - a C. c - b - a - d D. a - c - d - b E. b - c - d - a

c - b - d - a

During bone formation, calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide interact to form crystals of _________, which serve to harden the matrix.

hydroxyapatite

The steps in the process of appositional growth of cartilage are a: New matrix is produced and secreted b: Chondrocytes differentiate, each in its own lacuna c: Stem cells undergo mitosis d: Committed cells differentiate into chondroblasts The correct chronological order for these steps is A. c - d - a - b B. d - c - b - a C. c - d - b - a D. a - c - b - d E. a - c - d - b

c - d - a - b

51. Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominins?

c7

92. The roof of the cranium is called the _______, or skullcap

calvaria

25. What movement cannot be made by the radiocarpal joint:

can't rotate, only move side to side

18. What is not a carpal bone?

capitulum

8. The pubic symphysis is classified as a:

cartilaginous joint and an amphiarthrosis

48. Transverse foramina are found in ____ vertebrae.

cervical

42. What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior?

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

7. The costal tuberosity is a feature of the

clavicle

3. The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the _________ articulates with the __________.

clavicle, sternum

57. The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the ______ notches.

clavicular

36. Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua?

hyoid

98. The primary curves of the vertebral column are also called accommodation curves, while the secondary curves are also called ______ curves.

compensation

28. The ________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.

condylar

53. Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae?

costal facets and demi facets

85. The portion of the lower limb between the knee and the ankle is known as the ________ region, or leg.

crural

40. What tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V?

cuboid

43. What bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

cuboid

The zones found in an epiphyseal plate are a: Calcified cartilage b: Hypertrophic cartilage c: Ossification d: Resting cartilage e: Proliferating cartilage The correct order for these zones, beginning with the edge closest to the epiphysis, is A. c - a - b - e - d B. d - b - e - a - c C. e - d - a - c - b D. c - d - e - a - b E. d - e - b - a - c

d - e - b - a - c

54. Which feature is unique to the axis?

dens

12. Foramina in the skull serve as passageways for blood vessels, nerves, and other structures. Which of these foramina is covered by connective tissue in adults, and therefore does not serve as a passageway?

foramen lacerum

30. What does not correctly pair a movement with its opposing movement:

elevation - retraction

The shaft of a long bone is called the diaphysis; the ends are called the _________.

epiphyses

7. Which of these skull bones cannot be palpated?

ethmoid

54. The joints in the body that are the most mobile, such as the glenohumeral joint or coxal joint, are also the most stable. true/False

f

56. There is only one symphysis in the human body. True/False

f

60. At the knee, the articular capsule encloses only the medial, lateral, and anterior regions of the joint. True/False

f

68. The lateral end of the clavicle forms the sternoclavicular joint. ____t/f___

f

70. The head of the radius is distal; the head of the ulna is proximal. ____t/f_____

f

71. Metacarpal V is located at the base of the thumb. _____t/f____

f

74. The pelvic outlet is the space surrounded by the pelvic brim. _____t/f____

f

The steps in the process of endochondral ossification are a: Ossification center forms in the diaphysis b: Cartilage calcifies and a bone collar forms c: Ossification centers form in the epiphyses d: Bone replaces cartilage e: Epiphyseal plates ossify f: Cartilage model develops The correct chronological order for these steps is A. f - b - c - d - a - e B. b - c - f - a - e - d C. a - c - b - d - e - f D. f - b - a - c - d - e E. a - e - c - d - b - f

f - b - a - c - d - e

83. The longest, heaviest bone in the body is the _________.

femur

. What type of cartilage is located between the bones in a symphysis:

fibrocartilage

A narrow, slit-like opening through a bone is called a _________.

fissure

27. Clenching the fingers to make a fist, then relaxing and straightening them is an example of ________ followed by ________.

flexion, extension

40. The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called

fontanelles

30. Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone?

frontal, temporal, maxilla

14. Which of the cranial bones feature a squamous part?

frontal, temporal, occipital

31. What is not a correct pairing of a joint with its common name: glenohumeral joint - elbow

glenohumeral joint - elbow

10. The head of the humerus articulates with the

glenoid cavity

26. What does not contribute to the pelvic brim?

gluteal line

Osteons are also called _________ systems.

hayersian

28. When you rest your hands on your hips, just below the waist, you are resting them on the

iliac crests

21. What is not correct regarding the pelvis?

in anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium

19. Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone?

inferior nasal conchae

22. On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the

inferior pubic ramus

79. The radius and ulna exhibit _________ borders that are connected to each other by dense regular connective tissue.

interosseous

22. What is not a correct pairing of a joint with its classification:

intertarsal - condylar

33. In intervertebral joints, which ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae:

intertransverse ligaments

46. The __________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body.

intervertebral foramina

Chondrocytes occupy spaces in the matrix called _________.

lacunae

8. The _____________ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.

lambdoid

99. Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two ________.

laminae

12. In anatomic position, the radius lies _______ to the ulna.

lateral

29. What is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur?

lateral condyle

37. The head of the fibula articulates with the fibular articular facet on the

lateral condyle of the tibia

39. The expanded distal end of the fibula is called the

lateral malleolus

42. A sprain is an injury to a joint in which a(n) ________ is damaged.

ligaments

39. What is the function of the cruciate ligaments in the knee joint: :

limit the movement of the femur on the tibia

Blood vessels enter the diaphysis of a long bone through an opening called the _________ foramen.

nutrient

82. The smooth, curved surface of the acetabulum that articulates with the head of the femur is called the __________ surface.

lunate

95. The auditory ossicles are the _______, the _________, and the __________

malleus, incus, stapes

6. Which bone is not paired?

mandible

58. The superior portion of the sternum is called the

manubrium

34. Which of these is not a paranasal sinus?

mastoid sinus

20. Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen?

maxilla

33. The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of the ________

maxilla

35. Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit?

maxilla and zygomatic

34. The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the

medial and lateral condyles of the femur

36. The prominence felt on the medial surface of the ankle is the

medial malleolus

70. During development, tissue called _______________ differentiates to form the various connective tissues of the joints.

mesenchyme

81. The palm of the hand is formed by the _______ bones.

metacarpal

15. What are not considered to be features of a synovial joint:

muscles

41. What bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones?

navicular

What is not a function of synovial fluid:

nourishes ostecyte

66. The ligamentum ___________ is the part of the supraspinous ligament that extends between C7 and the base of the skull.

nuchae

47. The inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc is called the

nucleus pulposus

9. Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion?

occipital

11. Which bones form the calvaria?

occipital, parietal, frontal

22. The jugular foramen is located between the ______________ and ___________ bones.

occipital, temporal

32. What bones articulate with the femur?

os coxae, tibia, patella

Found within both the periosteum and endosteum, _________ cells are derived from mesenchyme and serve as the stem cells of bone.

osteoprogenitor

29. Which facial bone is shaped like the letter "L"?

palatine

31. A perpendicular plate is a feature of the _____ and ___________ bones.

palatine, ethmoid

96. Collectively, the hollow cavities in the maxillae, ethmoid, sphenoid, and frontal bones are called the _______ sinuses.

paranasal

16. Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines?

parietal

21. Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature?

parietal bone: mental foramen

41. Which is not a function of the vertebral column?

passageway for cranial nerves

31. What is a sesamoid bone?

patella

68. At the knee, a bone called the _________ is embedded within the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

patella

35. The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the

patellar tendon

25. The ___________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis".

pelvic brim

63. In a gomphosis, the tooth is held in place by the ___________ membrane.

periodontal

23. What is the function of the cribriform plate?

permits passage of olfactory nerves

15. Which part of the temporal bone includes the internal acoustic meatus?

petrous

37. What is the location of the auditory ossicles?

petrous part of temporal bone

20. The joint formed by the axis and atlas that permits the "no" shaking of the head is a ______joint.

pivot

19. What synovial joints does not have at least one rounded or convex surface:

plane

45. The apical ectodermal ridge

plays a role in differentiation and elongation of the limb

84. The flattened triangular area on the distal posterior surface of the femur is called the __________ surface.

popliteal

25. Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum?

posterior

100. Developmentally, the vertebrae and ribs are formed by portions called __________ that separate from the somites, surround the neural tube, and become cartilaginous.

sclerotomes

59. The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the

second rib

What is not a cartilaginous joint:

second sternocostal joint

15. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the ____________ of the radius.

radial tuberosity

8. The bones of the antebrachium are the

radius and ulna

64. Which is not true about development of the axial skeleton?

ribs and clavicles form from schlerotomes

55. The spinal cord terminates at an opening in the sacrum called the

sacral hiatus

67. Humans are able to grasp objects between the thumb and fingers due to a special joint movement called ________

saddle joint

9. What bones articulate with the humerus?

scapula, radius, ulna

18. The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the ________

sella turcica

24. The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the ______ bone.

sphenoid

49. The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the _______ processes.

spinous

13. Of the four largest types of sutures in the skull, which are paired?

squamous

87. As compared to the male, the angle of the pubic arch is greater in the female pelvis. ____t/f________

t

62. Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ____and the _________

t1, manubrium

11. The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the

styloid processes

23. Rotation of the forearm so as to direct the palm anteriorly (as in anatomic position) is called:

supination

93. The immovable joints that form boundaries between skull bones are called ______

sutures

7. The interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna is an example of a :

syndesmosis

62. In an older adult, the tissue in a suture may become completely ossified, fusing the skull bones together. This type of suture is called a _________

synostosis

64. The lining of an articular capsule is called the __________ membrane.

synovial

4. An articular capsule is present in:

synovial joint

55. The epiphyseal plates in long bones are examples of synchondroses. True/False

t

57. Articular cartilage is composed of hyaline cartilage that lacks a perichondrium. True/False

t

58. The ankle joint is the only joint that makes the movements "dorsiflexion" and "plantar flexion". True/False

t

59. The temporomandibular joint is the only mobile joint between skull bones. True/False

t

69. The posterior "bump" of the elbow is the olecranon of the ulna. ____t/f_____

t

72. The acetabulum is formed by the fusion of three separate bones. ___t/f_____

t

73. The ossa coxae are united anteriorly by the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by the sacrum. ____t/f_______

t

75. In anatomic position, the fibula is lateral to the tibia. _______t/f_______

t

76. The medial longitudinal arch prevents the medial side of the foot from touching the ground. _____t/f_____

t

77. Age-related changes to the pubic symphysis make the os coxae a reliable indicator of age at death for skeletal remains. _____t/f_____

t

40. The deltoid ligament, lateral ligament, and tibiofibular ligaments belong to the _________ joint.

talocrural

71. The talonavicular joint and calcaneocuboid joint are examples of joints between bones of the ankle, also called _________ joints.

talocrural

38. The only bone of the ankle that articulates with the tibia is the

talus

46. Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name?

talus-heel

10. The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the _________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch.

temporal

26. Which bone is not part of the facial complex?

temporal

32. Which bone bears the mandibular fossa?

temporal

33. What is not correct regarding the patella?

the board superior portion of the patella is called the apex

30. What is not correct regarding the femur?

the intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone

45. Which of the spinal curves form when a child is about 12 months of age?

thoracic and sacral

86. The _____________ arch of the foot runs perpendicular to the longitudinal arches.

transverse

16. What is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals?

trapezoid

80. The deltoid muscle attaches to the humerus at the deltoid __________.

tuberosity

28. The joint movement called eversion involves:

turning the sole of the foot laterally

14. What is not a feature of the ulna?

ulnar notch

17. Based on its range of motion, the elbow is classified as a(n)

uniaxial joint

27. Which bone is unpaired?

vomer

5. Which is not a cranial bone?

vomer

94. The _____ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.

vomer