Anesthesia

According to criteria established by the American Society of Anesthesiologists, a patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life belongs in which physical status category? a. • Class IV. b • Class II. c • Class III. d • Class V.

a. • Class IV. According to the American Society of Anesthesiogists criteria, an animal with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is categorized as a Class IV. Class I is for a normal animal with no organic disease. Class Il has mild systemic disease. Class III has severe systemic disease, but is not incapacitating. Class V is near death and not expected to survive with or without help.

What is the best explanation for a dog under anesthesia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute? a. • The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia. b • The patient is in too deep a plane of anesthesia. c • The patient is hypothermic. d • This is normal.

a. • The patient is in too light a plane of anesthesia. A canine heart rate of 200 beats per minute under anesthesia indicates that the patient is in too low a plane of anesthesia. The normal heart rate for a canine is 70 to 100 beats / min. Values below 50 and above 160 beats per minute indicate that cardiovascular function maybe impaired. If the patient was too deeply anesthetized or was hypothermic, the heart rate would be below normal.

Which type of anesthetic agents cause central nervous system depression, respiratory depression, and muscle relaxation, but have no analgesic effects? a • Sedatives. b • Tranquilizers. c • Opioids. d • Halogenated.

d • Halogenated. Halogenated agents, such as isoflurane and sevoflurane are inhalant agents that cause central nervous system depression, respiratory depression, and muscle relaxation, but do not have an analgesic effect. Opioids provideanalgesia and sedative effects. Sedatives and tranquilizers provide both analgesia and muscle relaxation.

Which agent is considered an anticholinergic? a • Acepromazine. b • Midazolam. c • Morphine. d • Atropine.

d • Atropine. Anticholinergics, such as atropine, are used to slow down the parasympathetic system. Acepromazine and midazolam are tranquilizers, and morphine is used for pain.

Which item is used in conjunction with an inhalant or injectable anesthesia? a • Intravenous fluids. b • Intravenous catheter. c. Urinary catheter. d • Endotracheal tube.

d • Endotracheal tube. For almost every patient receiving anesthetic agents, whether injected or inhaled, an endotracheal tube is placed to maintain an open airway, prevent aspiration, and allow administration of

The veterinarian prescribes an anesthetic combination of Rompun, acepromazine, and Torbugesic ("RAT"), but the office does not carry the brand name Rompun. What generic drug should be used instead? a • Butorphanol. b • Tiletamine.Incorrect c • Ketamine. d • Xylazine.

d • Xylazine. The generic name for Rompun is xylazine. Ketaset is a brand name for ketamine. Tiletamine is the generic for Telazol. The generic for Torbugesic is butorphanol.

Which species is intubated by digital palpation? a • Equine. b• Feline. c• Canine. d• Cattle.

d• Cattle. Cattle are intubated by digital palpation, while canines and felines are usually intubated with the assistance of a laryngoscope. Horses are intubated blindly. Felines and canines are intubated using the traditional laryngoscope.

What are anesthetic reversal agents called? A • Antagonists. B • Partial agonists. C. Mixed agonists. D. • Agonists.

A • Antagonists. Anesthetic reversal agents are known as antagonists, which means these agents block or reverse the action of the corresponding agonist. For example, Antisedan is the reversal agent for Domitor. Most anesthetic agents are agonists, which means that they bind to receptors and exert one or more effects. Partial agonists bind to receptors and exert a partial or milder effect. Mixed agonists-antagonists partially reverse the effects of pure agonsists.

Which local anesthetic has the longest lasting analgesic effects? A • Bupivacaine. B. Lidocaine. C• Tetracaine. D• Mepivacaine.

A • Bupivacaine. Bupivacaine has longer-lasting effects (6 to 8 hours) than lidocaine (1 to 2 hours), mepivacaine (90 to 180 minutes), and tetracaine (2 hours), and is therefore recommended when true analgesic effects are desired.

A 0.1 mL dose of 2% lidocaine is sufficient to prevent laryngospasm during intubation of which species? A • Cats. B • Sheep. C • Pigs. D• Goats.

A • Cats. A dose of 0.1 mL of 2% lidocaine is an appropriate dose to prevent laryngospasm in cats during intubation. A much larger dose (1 to 2 mL) is recommended for sheep, goats, and pigs.

The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed through which pre-anesthetic screening test? A • Hemoglobin. B • Total solids. C• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). D. • Aspartate aminotransferase (AST).

A • Hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is the oxygen carrying portion of the RBC. AST and ALT are liver function tests. Total solids are a measure of protein content in the blood.

Which type of anesthetic is vaporized in oxygen? A • Inhalant. B • Topical. C • Oral. D • Injectable.

A • Inhalant. Inhalant anesthetics are vaporized in oxygen and administered via a breathing system by endotracheal tube, mask, or chamber. Injectable anesthetics are administered by intravenous or intramuscular routes. Oral anesthetics are are best described as sedatives and are given by mouth. Topical anesthetics are agents that provide analgesia on the skin, but are not true anesthetic agents.

Which intravenous anesthetic agent is extremely short-acting and is known to cause apnea if administered too quickly? A • Propofol. B. Thiopental. C • Domitor. D • Ketamine.

A • Propofol. Propofol is an extremely short-acting anesthetic given intravenously, which can cause apnea. Additionally, propofol is used for the induction of general anesthesia or can be used at a constant rate for anesthesia itself. Ketamine is used for minor and short procedures to immobilize patients. Thiopental is now typically used to induce anesthesia in lab animals. Domitor is also a shorting reversible anesthetic agent.

For which patient is it safe to administer acepromazine as a preanesthetic? A. • 6-month-old Poodle having an ovariohysterectomy. B. 10-year-old Labrador Retriever with moderate liver disease prior to a lumpectomy. C. 6-year-old stallion having teeth floated. D. 2-year-old English Bulldog undergoing allergy testing.

A. • 6-month-old Poodle having an ovariohysterectomy. Phenothiazines, such as acepromazine, are safe to use on a 6-month-old Poodle. Acepromazine should not be used when testing dogs for allergies due to its antihistaminic properties. The primary organ of metabolism is the liver, so this medication should be avoided in animals with moderate to severe liver disease. Many phenothiazine tranquilizers, including acepromazine and promazine, may cause erection (priapism) and temporary or permanent prolapse of the penis in stallions so its use should be avoided.

During a splenectomy of a 10-year-old Rottweiler, the veterinary technician places a pulse oximeter on the patient's tongue. After 2 minutes, the SpO2 level is consistently reading 82%. How should the veterinary technician respond? A. • Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen. B • Inform the doctor that SpO2 levels are low, but not concerning. C • Inform the doctor, turn off the anesthetic gas and oxygen until the Sp02 levels rise. D. Leave the anesthetic gas level intact and wait 5-10 minutes before alerting the doctor.

A. • Alert the doctor immediately, turn down the anesthetic gas, and turn up the oxygen. The technician should never completely turn off the anesthetic gas or oxygen during surgery unless directed by the doctor to do so. Since the SpO2 level was at 82% the technician should not wait to alert the doctor, or inform the doctor that the patient's Sp02 is low but not concerning. Ideally, the Sp02 level should not drop below 92% The technician should alert the doctor immediately and turn down the anesthetic gas and turn up the oxygen.

Which task will increase the staff's exposure to waste-gas? a. • Filling the vaporizers when needed. b. Using masks or chambers only when absolutely necessary. c. • Pouring the anesthetic carefully to avoids spills. d. • Leaving patients attached to the scavenger system as long as possible to remove expired gases.

A. • Filling the vaporizers when needed. Filling the vaporizers should be done at the end of the day when the least amount of people are present, not when necessary. Minimizing waste-gas exposure can be completed by avoiding spills, leaving patients attached to the scavenger, and using masks and chambers only when necessary.

The pet owner is reviewing the anesthesia plan pertaining to a dental prophylaxsis. The owner is concerned that anesthesia may negatively affect the pet, which suffers from epilepsy. Which anesthetic agent will help prevent an adverse reaction? A• Diazepam. B• Doxapram. C • Atropine. D • Glycopyrrolate.

A• Diazepam. Diazepam, like other benzodiazepines, have anticonvulsant effects and are used in patients with a history of seizures. Atropine, doxapram, and glycopyrrolate do not have anti-convulsant applications.

Which species is commonly catheterized in the dorsal metatarsal or facial arteries to monitor direct arterial blood pressure and to obtain arterial blood samples? A• Horses. B• Cats. C. Dogs. D • Goats.

A• Horses. The jugular, cephalic, and saphenous veins are frequently catheterized to administer IV drugs and fluids. The dorsal metatarsal and facial arteries (horses), auricular artery (cattle, sheep, goats, pigs, camelids, cats), dorsal pedal arteries (dogs, cats) and coccygeal artery (cats) are catheterized to monitor direct arterial blood pressure and to obtain arterial blood samples for pH and blood gas (Pa02, PaC02) analysis.

Which agent is classified as an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic, and antitussive effects? A • Hydromorphine. B • Butorphanol. C • Fentanyl. D• Morphine.

B • Butorphanol. Butorphanol is an opioid mixed agonist-antagonist that provides sedation, analgesic, and antitussive (cough suppression) effects. Fentanyl, morphine, and hydromorphine are classified as opioid agonists and have a duration of a few hours. Opioids are most commonly given by constant infusion.

Which is a common complication when intubating felines? A • Coughing. B • Laryngospasm. C • Cyanosis. D • Vomiting.

B • Laryngospasm. A common complication when intubating cats, as well as swine and small ruminants, is laryngospasm. This occurs when the glottis closes as soon as it is touched and does not open easily thereafter. Cyanosis can occur due to laryngospasm, as patients are unable to oxygenate their blood. Coughing and vomiting are complications that may occur in any animal that requires intubation.

Which agent causes miosis? A • Benzodiazepines. B • Opioids. C • Alpha 2-adreneric D. • Phenothiaines.

B • Opioids. Opioids cause miosis (constriction of the pupils) in patients. Benzodiazepines cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Phenothiazines reduce anxiety. Alpha 2-adrenergic agents cause sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.

What effect does atropine at normal doses have on the heart rate? A • No effect. B • Prevents a decrease. C • Decreases. D • Increases.

B • Prevents a decrease. Atropine, at a normal dose, inhibits bradycardia by decreasing vagal tone. A decrease in heart rate and hypotension may occur after rapid intravenous administration of Valium (diazepam).

A 10-year-old canine exhibits a pulse rate of 80 and a respiratory rate of 8. The pupils are centrally positined, jaw tone is slack, and reflexes are absent. This presentation is most consistent with which stage and plane of anesthesia? A • Stage III, plane 2. B • Stage III, plane 3. C • Stage III, plane 4. D • Stage IV, plane 1.

B • Stage III, plane 3. Based on the information provided, this patient is in stage III, plane 3. In stage III, Plane 2, respiratory rate may be increased or decreased, and respiratory volume (tidal volume) is decreased; cardiovascular function is mildly depressed. Stage III, plane 4 involves complete paralysis of muscles needed for breathing and cardiovascular function is generally impaired; this plane of anesthesia condition causes vasodilation, which leads to hypotension. Stage IV is marked with respiratory arrest followed by circulatory collapse; death ensues within 1 to 5 minutes.

What is the proper length of time neonatal patients should be fasted prior to surgery? A. • 2 hours. B. 0 hours. C• 4 hours. D • 6 hours.

B. 0 hours. Neonatal patients should never be fasted prior to surgery, as this may cause their blood glucose levels to drop too low. It is recommended to fast all adult felines and canines 8 to 12 hours from food and 2 to 4 hours from water unless otherwise instructed by the veterinarian. Owners should be provided with fasting instructions prior to the surgery date, and staff admitting the animal should confirm with the owner that the pet has been fasted.

The medical gas supply company requests notification when the E cylinder tank reaches half capacity. How many pounds per square inch (psi) will the pressure gauge read if it is half full? A • 350 B. 1,100 C. • 2,200 D. • 700

B. 1,100 A half-full standard E cylinder has a pressure reading of 1100 psi; a full tank contains 2200 psi. The equivalent capacity in liters is 700 L for a full tank and 350 L for a half-full tank.

Which anesthetic agents are commonly used for patients with severe heart disease or shock? A. Ketamine. B• Etomidate. C• Thiopental. D • Pentobarbital.

B• Etomidate. Etomidate is the anesthetic agent commonly used for patients with severe heart disease or shock, as it has minimal effect on cardiovascular and respiratory function. Thiopental causes a decrease in cardiac output and blood pressure. Pentobarbital slows down the central nervous system. Ketamine increases heart rate and blood pressure without decreasing cardiac output.

What type of equipment is used to induce anesthesia in fractious, vicious animals that can not otherwise be restrained? A • Masks. B • Endotracheal tubes. C • Chambers. D • Muzzles.

C • Chambers. Chambers are often used to induce anesthesia in fractious, vicious animals that can not be handled otherwise. By incorporating chambers, the patients can be monitored effectively and extubated when it is safe for the patient and the person administering the anesthesia. Masks are used for patients that are not yet intubated or are not going to be intubated. Endotracheal tubes are used when patients are relaxed enough and the tube can be placed in the trachea. Muzzles should not be used unless it is to hold a mask on; in the event that a patient vomits, this could cause that patient to aspirate.

In which breed of canine is fasting prior to surgery contraindicated? A • Labrador Retriever. B • Boxer. C • Chihuahua. D. Pug.

C • Chihuahua. Due to a risk of hypoglycemia, food should not be withheld in neonates, toy breeds such as Chihuahuas, animals weighing less than 5 kg, or birds prior to surgery. Large breed dogs, such as the Boxer and Lab, as well as medium breeds such as the Pug, are advised to fast prior to surgery to reduce the risk of vomiting.

Which agent is both a muscle relaxant and sedative for large animals? A• Pentobarbital. B • Propofol. C • Guaifenesin. D. Ketamine.

C • Guaifenesin. Guaifenesin is the muscle relaxant and sedative used in large animals for induction of anesthesia. Ketamine is used in small animals and is an immobilizer. Propofol is used in small animals for short procedures. Pentobarbital is used mostly in laboratory animals to induce anesthesia.

Which size rebreathing bag should be selected for a 10 kg canine? A • 5 L. B. 3L. C. 2 L. D. 1L.

C. 2 L. Rebreathing bags come in various sizes appropriate for the patient's weight. A 2 L bag is used for animals weighing between 7 and 15 kg. There is also a 0.5 L bag, a 1 L bag, a 3 L bag, and a 5 L bag; these are used for animals weighing 3 to 5 kg or less, 5 to 7 kg, 15 to 50 kg, and 50 kg to150 kg, respectively.

Because a Cole endotracheal tube has a tapered end and no inflatable cuff, it is recommended for use is which species? A. Dogs. B. Horses. C. Birds. D. • Cats.

C. Birds. Cole tubes have a tapered end and no cuff, which make them suitable for small patients and for birds, which do not have an expandable trachea. Murphy tubes have a side hole called the Murphy eye at the tapered end that permits airflow in the event of blockage of the tip. Murphy tubes are used regularly in cats, dogs and horses as they have expandable tracheas.

What is the antagonist for opioids? A. Yohimbine. B • Antisedan. C. • Naloxone. D. • Atipamezole.

C. naloxone. Naloxone is the antagonist (reversal agent) for opioids. Antisedan and atipamezole are the antagonists for dexdomitor. Yohimbine is the antagonist for xylazine.

Which inhalant anesthetic agent was once very popular in veterinary medicine but is no longer available in the United States? A. Enflurane. B• Methoxyflurane. C• Halothane. D • Desflurane.

C• Halothane. Halothane was previously used in veterinary medicine, but is no longer available in the United States. Halothane is very similar to isoflurane, but the risk of cardiac arrhythmias is higher. Desflurane is also similar to isoflurane but it causes respiratory depression. Methoxyflurane has been linked to organ damage and is no longer on the market. Enflurane is not accepted in veterinary medicine due to its adverse effects.

What is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthesia for patients weighing less than 7 kg? A• Chamber. B• Rebreather. C• Non-breather. D. • Mask.

C• Non-breather. For patients weighing less than 7kg, a non-breather is the best way to deliver inhalant anesthetic. A mask can be used, but only if the patient is not intubated. A chamber can also be used, but only for vicious animals that can not be handled by other means. A breather is used for animals weighing more than 7kg since anesthetic gases are more easily distributed in larger animals.

What is the usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane? A. • 0.5% to 2%. B. 0.25% to 1%. C. 1% to 3%. D • 3% to 4%.

D • 3% to 4%. The vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is 3% to 4%. The maintenance setting for Halothane is 0.5% to 2% and the setting for Isoflurane is 1% to 3%. A vaporizer setting of 0.25% to 1% is not used.

Which potential complication may be avoided by placing an arterial catheter in a horse's peripheral artery during maintenance of inhalant anesthesia? A • Epistaxis. B• Hypertension. C • Hyperventilation. D • Hypoxemia.

D • Hypoxemia. Because horses are more likely to develop hypoxemia during maintenance of inhalation anesthesia than other species, a peripheral arterial catheter is recommended for taking blood gas samples every 30 to 60 minutes during procedures lasting longer than 1 hour. Other risks posed for horses with inhalant anesthesia include hypoventilation and hypotension, not hypertension and hyperventilation. Epistaxis may occur as a result of nasal intubation, but not with inhalant anesthesia.

According to OSHA, what is the exposure limit in parts per million (ppm) for halogenated anesthetic gases? A. 4 B. 8 C. 6 D. 2

D. 2 The safe exposure limit for halogenated anesthetic gases, as established by OSHA, is not to exceed 2 ppm. Exposure to 4 ppm, 6 ppm, and 8 ppm are be beyond the safe limit.

Between which two vertebrae is the epidural needle placed for a Great Dane undergoing a tail amputation procedure? A. L6 and S1. B• L6 and L7. C• S1 and S2. D• L7 and S1.

D• L7 and S1. The needle should be placed between L7 and S1 for a tail amputation procedure requiring lumbosacral epidural anesthesia. There are 7 lumbar vertebrae so it is impossible to place the needle between L6 and S1. Placing it between L6 and L7 is too high, while placing it between S1 and S2 is too low.

Which species is most susceptible to hyperpyrexia and malignant hyperthermia from intravenous (IV) drugs such as ketamine and inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane? A. • Rabbits. B • Cats. C• Dogs. D• Pigs.

D• Pigs. Hyperpyrexia and malignant hyperthermia can occur in genetically predisposed pigs and is triggered by intravenous (IV) drugs such as ketamine and inhalant anesthetics such as isoflurane. Elevations in body temperature occur because of the relatively low body surface area to body mass ratio, the relative absence of effective sweat glands, and inefficient thermoregulatory mechanisms. These conditions are not common side effects in dogs, cats, or rabbits.

An 8-year-old Golden Retriever is undergoing surgery for a mast cell tumor resection. The veterinarian prescribes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) preoperatively. Which adverse side effect should be discussed with the owner? A • Polyphagia. B•Constipation. C• Polyuria. D• Sedation.

D• Sedation. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is the most popular antihistamine used in conjunction with anesthesia and surgery before mast cell tumor resection in dogs and cats. Diphenhydramine is also used as an antiemetic and to prevent motion sickness in dogs. Adverse side effects include sedation and vomiting. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) does not cause polyuria, but it is known to cause urinary retention. It does not cause polyphagia, but it is associated with appetite loss. Constipation is not an adverse side effect, but rather diarrhea is likely.

What is the first step for preparing an inhaled anesthetic agent prior to surgery? a • Check the level of carrier gas. b • Prepare the scavenger. c • Set the pop-off valve. d • Prepare the breathing system.

a • Check the level of carrier gas. When preparing for procedures in which an anesthetic inhalant is to be administered, the level of carrier gas must be verified and replenished if necessary. If the carrier gas is too low or empty, delivering inhalant anesthesia will not be possible. All other steps, including setting the pop-off valve and preparing the scavenger and the breathing system, are irrelevant if the gas levels are too low.

A 6-year-old thoroughbred is undergoing an orthopedic procedure to correct a fractured stifle. How many hours does this horse need to be without food before the procedure? a • 10 hours. b • 6 hours. c • 12 hours. d • 24 hours.

b • 6 hours. With the exception of foals, food should be withheld from horses for approximately 4 to 8 hours before surgery. Water should not be withheld. Food should be withheld from adult pigs for 6 to 10 hours. Sheep, goats, and large ruminants should be without food for 12 to 18 hours. Some exotic species, such as amphibians and fish, need to be without food for 24 hours.

How often should physiologic parameters be assessed during anesthetic procedures? a • Every 20 minutes. b • Every 5 minutes. c • Every 10 minutes. d. Every 15 minutes.

b • Every 5 minutes. Several patient parameters heart rate and rhythm, respiratory rate and rhythm, capillary refill time, color of mucous membranes, eye position, muscle tone, and reflexes) should be assessed every 5 minutes. The patient's temperature should be monitored at least every 15 minutes if possible. Several anesthetic and treatment parameters should be tabulated every 5 to 15 minutes, including volume of fluid administered, oxygen flow rate, oxygen tank pressure, and anesthetic gas concentration. The other options are inappropriate, as the patient requires reassessment every 5 minutes.

A 1-year-old Boxer is scheduled for surgery to remove a corn cob that was ingested and now has caused an intestinal obstruction. Which medication will cause an adverse reaction in this particular case? a. Sevoflurane. b • Nitrous oxide. c • Propofol. d • Isoflurane.

b • Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide should not be used in cases of GI obstruction because it is known to accumulate in areas where gas is trapped, forcing the already gas-filled intestines to distend even more. Isoflurane, sevoflurane, and propofol, besides being safer anesthetic choices, do not have this particular effect and are not contraindicated in this patient.

Which drug should be avoided in patients suffering from hypovolemic shock? a • Butorphanol. b • Diazepam. c • Acepromazine. d. • Fluxin meglumine.

c • Acepromazine. Acepromazine should be avoided for patients suffering from hypovolemic shock sincethe main adverse reaction to this drug is hypotension. Diazepam, butorphanol, and fluxin meglumine are medications that may be administered to patients suffering from shock.

Which sign indicates that a patient is at risk for developing colic as a result of treatment with morphine or other opioids? a • Increased urine production. b • Decreased activity level. c • Decreased fecal production. d • Increased appetite.

c • Decreased fecal production. Gut motility should be closely monitored in the form of fecal production in patients receiving opioids such as morphine because decreased motility may lead to colic. While activity, appetite, and urine production are important parameters, they are not indicators of colic.

Which common inhalant anesthetic agent is irritating to mucous membranes and causes patients to hold their breath? a • Nitrous oxide. b • Halothane. c • Isoflurane. d. • Sevoflurane.

c • Isoflurane. Isoflurane is one of the most commonly used inhalant anesthetic agents used in veterinary medicine; this agent can cause irritation of the mucous membranes andalso causes patients to hold their breath. Sevoflurane is the other commonly used anesthetic agent used in veterinary medicine; however, it is not irritating to the mucous membranes. Halothane is no longer used in veterinary medicine. Nitrous oxide will not produce anesthetic effects alone.

Which is a component of a Bain non-rebreathing anesthetic circuit? a • Unidirectional valves. b • Carbon dioxide absorber. c • Reservoir bag. d • Oxygen flush valve.

c • Reservoir bag. The Bain non-rebreathing system uses a reservoir bag and a coaxial (tube inside of a tube) design. Unidirectional valves, oxygen flush, and a carbon dioxide absorber are all components of a rebreathing anesthesia system.

Which anesthetic agent should be avoided in an animal with a body condition score of 5? a • Propofol. b • Guaifenesin. c • Thiopental. d. Xylazine.

c • Thiopental. Barbiturates such as thiopental are highly soluble in fat tissue. Animals with a body condition score of 5 (indicating obesity) will store more of this drug and, as a result, are at increased risk for overdose and extended recovery times. Propofol, xylazine, and guaifenesin are not lipophilic, and are therefore not contraindicated in patients with a high body condition score.

Which oxygen saturation (Sp02) level is considered a medical emergency? А. 90%. В. 95%. С. 85%. D. • 93%.

С. 85%. An oxygen saturation level (which is measured by pulse oximetry) of 85% or less indicates hypoxemia, a condition that requires immediate medical attention. An Sp02 level between 90% and 95% is considered low. Ideally, SpO2 levels should be at 95% or above.