ANS 201 Final
Which of the following describes proper restraint technique for sheep? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Set the animal on the side of its hip to immobilize it. b. Turn the head in towards the flank. c. Raise the chin. d. Grab the sheep by its wool. e. Grab both horns firmly. f. Lift the animal's body upwards by the flank.
a. Set the animal on the side of its hip to immobilize it. b. Turn the head in towards the flank. c. Raise the chin.
The point of balance in cattle is at the... Select one: a. Shoulder b. Hip c. Tail d. Head
a. Shoulder
What causes the blood to be pulled from the animal to a vacutainer tube? Select one: a. The vacuum that is present in the tube itself. b. Pulling back the plunger that is used in conjunction with the vacutainer c. Gravity
a. The vacuum that is present in the tube itself.
True/False. The Henneke Body Condition Scoring System is accepted in the court of law. Select one: True False
True
Which of the following is not a location to look at when assessing body condition score in small ruminants? Select one: a. Neck b. Sternum c. Transverse process d. Spinous process
a. Neck
What is the ideal BCS range in small ruminants? Select one: a. 1.0-3.0 b. 2.5-4.0 c. 3.0-5.0 d. None of the above.
b. 2.5-4.0
You enter a sow barn to body condition score a group of sows, you approach the first notice and can visually identify her vertebrae from both the side and the rear. You would consider this sow to be what score? Select one: a. 4 b. 1 c. 5 d. 3
b. 1
Which of the following is true about flight zones? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Calm cattle have a larger flight zone. b. A flight zone is the safety zone an animal will keep between itself and a person or another animal. c. The size of a flight zone is affected by the animal's experience with people. d. A flight zone is the area around the animal in which they will stop what they're doing and look at you.
b. A flight zone is the safety zone an animal will keep between itself and a person or another animal. c. The size of a flight zone is affected by the animal's experience with people.
What is the ideal body condition score of a sow as she enters farrowing? Select one: a. 3 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5
c. 4
The IDEAL body condition score for a horse is: Select one: a. 8 b. 6 c. 5 d. 3
c. 5
What is a sign the compost pile is lacking oxygen? Select one: a. Color lightens b. Aggregation of compost particles c. Bad odor d. Weed growth
c. Bad odor
What is the appropriate method for using the bander when castrating? Select one: a. Apply two bands, rather than one, to ensure that the testicles will eventually fall off. b. Cauterize the scrotum immediately after banding. c. Check that the testicles are pushed up into the scrotum and place the band around the base of the scrotum.
c. Check that the testicles are pushed up into the scrotum and place the band around the base of the scrotum.
What is the correct term used to identify a castrated male of the bovine species? Select one: a. Barrow b. Cattle c. Steer d. Cow e. Bull
c. Steer
Which of the following is NOT true about using a curry comb? Select one: a. You should use the curry comb on the body before you use brushes. b. The curry comb should be used in a circular motion. c. You should only use very light pressure when using a curry comb. d. Using a curry comb helps to promote skin health. e. Hard Brush
c. You should only use very light pressure when using a curry comb.
If a sow is holding her tail between her hind legs she is: Select one: a. happy b. content c. nervous d. angry
c. nervous
The average body temperature of a sow is: Select one: a. 100.5-101.5 b. 99-100 c. 102-103 d. 101.5-102.5
d. 101.5-102.5
How many blindspots do horses have? Select one: a. 4 b. 3 c. 1 d. 2
d. 2
What do humans represent to cattle? Select one: a. A subordinate herdmate b. Either a dominant or subordinate herd mate depending on circumstances c. A dominant herdmate d. A predator
d. A predator
Which of the following is a benefit from castrating bull calves? Select one: a. It stops undesired mating events. b. Improved temperament of males c. Improved meat quality at processing d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following is a good place to draw blood from cattle? Select one: a. The jugular vein b. The aorta c. The caudal vein d. Both A and C
d. Both A and C
What is NOT a reason mentioned in the video to know your horse's body weight? Select one: a. Calculating feed b. Tracking weight gain/loss c. Determining dewormer amount d. Determining pasture size
d. Determining pasture size
When using the FAMACHA card, you should compare it to: Select one: a. The eye itself. b. The gums in the mouth of the animal. c. The immediate inner membrane of the top or bottom eyelid. d. The bed of the mucous membrane in the bottom eyelid.
d. The bed of the mucous membrane in the bottom eyelid.
Which of these is not one of the 10 natural survival traits of horses? Select one: a. Horses are prey animals b. Horses are the most perceptive of all domestic animals c. Horses depend on flight as a primary way to survive d. The horse has a very slow response time
d. The horse has a very slow response time
If a horse's ears are pinned back it means: Select one: a. The horse is interested in something b. The horse is tired c. The horse is excited to see you d. The horse is angry or aggressive
d. The horse is angry or aggressive
Where should you place your hand when catching a sheep? Select one: a. Along the throat b. At the shoulder--the point of balance c. The flank d. Under the chin
d. Under the chin
Where do you approach a sow? Select one: a. from behind b. the tail c. the face d. the shoulder
d. the shoulder
Which of the following is a reason to administer iron to piglets after birth? Select one: a. Low iron reserves in the newborn piglet b. Low iron in the sow's colostrum and milk c. Lack of contact with iron in the soil d. Rapid growth rate of piglets e. All of the above
e. All of the above
True or False: Ear tag applicators are universal, except for in the case of EID/RFID tags. Select one: True False
False
True or False: When you are drawing blood from an animal, it is important not to disengage the vacutainer before removing the needle from the animal. Select one: True False
False
True/False. The tape should be 10 inches behind the horse's elbow and shoulder, around the thickest part of the horse's stomach. Select one: True False
False
A FAMACHA score of 4 indicates that you should deworm the animal. Select one: True False
True
Horses have very poor color vision and will have trouble differentiating yellow and green from gray. Select one: True False
True
The body condition scoring method used at the swine unit uses a scale from 1 to 5. Select one: True False
True
True or False: Injecting a more viscous substance like an antibiotic will traditionally require using a larger diameter needle than injecting a less viscous substance like a vaccine or drawing blood? Select one: True False
True
True or False: The point of balance is the same for cattle, sheep, and goats.
True
True/False. A compost pile's moisture can be retained by covering the pile with plastic or fabric tarps. Select one: True False
True
True/False. A horse with less than 200-250 EPG may not need as much dewormer as a horse over 200-250 EPG. Select one: True False
True
Umbilical cords should be clipped to 1-2" in length if they are excessive in length. Select one: True False
True
When clipping needle teeth, the side cutters should be kept parallel with the jawbone/gum tissue. Select one: True False
True
Navels should NOT be dipped until more than one week after birth. Select one: True False
False
Producers should wait until after piglets are weaned (at 21 days) before castrating. Select one: True False
False
The average respiration rate of a sow is 25-30 breaths per minute. Select one: True False
False
The leader (or alpha) of a herd of wild horses is usually an older stallion. Select one: True False
False
True or False: A 22-gauge needle has a larger shaft diameter than a 16-gauge needle? Select one: True False
False
How many needle teeth do piglets have? Select one: a. 8 b. 2 c. 6 d. 4
a. 8
What factors should you keep in mind when putting in an ear tag? Select one: a. All of the above. b. Avoid the outer edges of the ear to prevent the tag from being pulled out. c. Don't place the tag too close to the ear canal as this can lead to future irritation as they get older. d. Locate and avoid the veins in the ear.
a. All of the above.
To halter a horse, you approach from the left side, go over the horse's neck and grab the crownpiece of the halter with your right hand, scoop the nose up, and buckle the halter completely. Why is this the ideal method for haltering? Select one: a. It helps you maintain control of the horse b. It crushes the horse's ears c. You are not in a safe position d. It can scare some horses
a. It helps you maintain control of the horse
Which of the following are reasons why cattle need to have a physical form of identification? Select one or more: a. It makes them easier to track through the phases of production. b. It makes them more metabolically feed efficient c. To allow for more accurate record keeping with each animal
a. It makes them easier to track through the phases of production. c. To allow for more accurate record keeping with each animal
Where should dewormer be administered? Select one: a. On the back of the tongue b. In the water source c. In the cheek pocket d. Underneath the tongue
a. On the back of the tongue
Which of the following is NOT one of the six main points examined in the Henneke scoring system? Select one: a. Pastern b. Loin c. Withers d. Tailhead
a. Pastern
What is the proper placement of the band for tail docking? Select one: a. Roughly where the skin of the tail begins to be covered by wool. b. 2 inches above the tip of the tail (closest to ground). c. Anywhere on the tail is good enough when docking. d. As close to the base of the tail as possible.
a. Roughly where the skin of the tail begins to be covered by wool.
Which of the following is true regarding chutes? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Using chutes to work cattle increase safety for the handlers and the animals. b. A well-designed chute reduces distractions by making cattle thinking they are walking into a dead-end. c. Cattle can be quickly and safely released from a chute. d. Reducing stress in cattle handling ultimately saves time.
a. Using chutes to work cattle increase safety for the handlers and the animals. c. Cattle can be quickly and safely released from a chute. d. Reducing stress in cattle handling ultimately saves time.
What is the definition of selective deworming? Select one: a. A method to deworm the animal on a 2-3 month rotation. b. A method that has the farmer check and deworm specific animals that have symptoms of a high parasitic load, rather than treating the whole herd. c. A method that only uses limited classes of dewormers. d. All of the above are examples of selective deworming.
b. A method that has the farmer check and deworm specific animals that have symptoms of a high parasitic load, rather than treating the whole herd.
Which of the following is NOT an identification method used in pigs? Select one: a. Tattooing b. Branding c. Ear notching d. Ear tags
b. Branding
Which of the following is false regarding cattle vision? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Cattle can focus on an object with both eyes b. Cattle have similar vision to humans c. Cattle have a blind spot directly behind them d. Cattle can see separate images with each eye
b. Cattle have similar vision to humans
You should always approach a horse from what area? Select one: a. The side b. From the shoulder c. The head d. Behind
b. From the shoulder
Which letter in the picture shows the best area in which a traditional ear tag should be put into the ear of a cow (not EID of RFID)? Select one: a. Location A b. Location B c. Location C d. Location D
b. Location B
Because cattle have a herding instinct, they like to... (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Spread out b. Move in groups c. Follow the leader d. Be separated from the group
b. Move in groups c. Follow the leader
Which of the following is true about sheep and goats? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. Sheep have a weaker flocking instinct than goats. b. Sheep are a separate genus and species than goats. c. Goats are more naturally independent and curious than sheep. d. Goats' tails are typically pointed down.
b. Sheep are a separate genus and species than goats. c. Goats are more naturally independent and curious than sheep.
Why should you stand behind the shoulder when restraining a sheep or goat? Select one: a. The animal can't see you if you are in front of the shoulder. b. To keep the animal from wanting to back up. c. To reduce the chance of getting bitten or kicked. d. To keep the animal from wanting to move forward.
b. To keep the animal from wanting to back up.
Which of the following is true about moving cattle? (Select all that apply.) Select one or more: a. To move an animal forward, you should move in front of the point of balance. b. When moving cattle, you should work at the edge of the flight zone. c. When moving cattle, you should work as close to the animal as possible. d. To move an animal forward, you should move behind the point of balance. e. When moving cattle, it is important to apply calm, continuous pressure to the flight zone.
b. When moving cattle, you should work at the edge of the flight zone. d. To move an animal forward, you should move behind the point of balance.
Which of the following IS true regarding proper grooming techniques? Select one: a. A soft brush can be used on the body and legs, but not the face. b. You should brush the tail by starting at the bottom and working your way up. c. You should use the dandy brush against the direction of the hair to promote circulation. d. You should stand directly behind the horse when brushing their tail.
b. You should brush the tail by starting at the bottom and working your way up.
What does EPG stand for? Select one: a. egg parasite graph b. eggs per gram c. equine parasite graph d. equine parasites a gram
b. eggs per gram