AO1 Study Guide

A fuze is said to be Instantaneous when the functioning time is less than how many seconds?

.0003

A delay occurs when the functioning time of a fuze is longer than what time frame?

.0005 second

What is the minimum size candle that must be used to provide enough light to allow the observation of people at exterior doors of all storage rooms and structures containing arms or Category I or II A&E?

0.2 foot

On the all weather coat, anodized metal shoulder rank insignias shall be worn by E4 through O-10 personnel on each epaulet, centered from side to side with the bottom edge of the device approximately what length from the squared end of the epaulet?

0.75"

Message type TDs released after what date and missing ACC/TYCOM concurrence and amplifying remarks paragraph shall not be taken for action?

06 February 2008

Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule?

0800

A member has sufficient knowledge and has demonstrated the proficiency to be entrusted with performing the work task alone in safe and reliable operations at what certification level?

1

CAT I QDRs are reported by routine precedence message within how many working days after the discovery of the deficiency unless combined with an HMR?

1

Which category of material for unit or organization movements will be placed in the custody of a commissioned or warrant officer, enlisted person E-6 or above, government service employee GS-6 or above, wage leader-1, or wage supervisor?

1

The appropriate embroidered rank/rate collar insignias will be worn on the NWU by E-4 to O-10 personnel. Except for flag officers, the center of the insignia will be placed at a point at approximately what distance from the front and lower edges of the collar and the vertical axis of the insignia will lie along an imaginary line bisecting the angle of the collar point?

1 inch

The blue garrison cap will be worn squarely on the head, with fore and aft crease centered vertically between the eyebrows and the lowest point approximately what distance above the eyebrows?

1 inch

Members of Naval Service awaiting disposition of criminal proceedings by a foreign jurisdiction are afforded statutory and regulatory protection and benefits attendant to their status as members of the Armed Forces. At least how long before EAOS, member will be offered opportunity to extend member's enlistment voluntarily for the duration of legal proceedings and any subsequent punishment?

1 month

Approximately how many inches above the floor at the back of the shoe should the black trousers for the E-6 and below service uniform hang?

1 to 2 inches

Ensure a weekly inspection of work center HAZMAT and HAZWASTE sites is accomplished and maintain a record of all inspections for a minimum of how long?

1 year

How long are QA audit records maintained for?

1 year

Prior approval from NAVPERSCOM (PERS-811) is not required when reenlistment is within how long of EAOS?

1 year

The DLQP shall include a control system for MRB data which shall be retained for a minimum of how long?

1 year

How far below the center of the tie in a horizontal position may tie clasps be worn on the four-in-hand tie?

1"

The cumberbund when worn shall be worn with pleats up, around the waist overlapping the skirt/trouser top by at least what length?

1"

Within what distance of the top of the belt buckle does the bottom of the male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand hang?

1"

The HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar is used to manually lift Mk 80/BLU 100 (series) general-purpose bombs that weigh up to how many pounds during aircraft loading/unloading operations?

1,000

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 9C bomb skid adapter?

1,000 lbs.

What is the maximum effective range of the M240D?

1,200 meters

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the AERO 12C skid?

1,250 lbs.

The amount of explosives used in air-laid mines ranges from 160 pounds to how many pounds?

1,300

When the Mk 339 Mod 1 primary fuze arming wire is pulled, the fuze will function how many seconds after the arming wire has been extracted?

1.2

How many inches above the upper edge of the cuff on jumpers having a buttoned cuff is the lower end of the first service stripe?

1.5

The Navy ball cap shall be worn squarely on the head, with bottom edge parallel to and at least how far above the eyebrows?

1.5 inch

The white combination cap may be worn squarely on the head, with the bottom edge parallel to and how far above the eyebrows?

1.5 inch

How many inches below the crease behind the knee can the Female Officer Formal and Dinner Dress Uniform Skirt Length be?

1.5 inches

What is the maximum length that womens hair may extend past the top of the jumper collar?

1.5"

White hats shall be worn squarely on the head with the lower front edge approximately what distance above the eyebrows and not crushed, bent, or rolled?

1.5"

Security Badges will be metal or embroidered patches, gold in color, black lettering and approximately 2 1/2 inch in height by how many inches in width?

1.75

NWU identification markings will be embroidered in approximately 3/4 inch block letters on approximately 1-1/4 inch wide fabric strips. Names exceedingly long can be embroidered in approximately what size letters?

1/2 inch

For Male Officers/CPOs, the overcoat, blue extends what amount of the distance from kneecap to ground, shaped at waist, held by a two section half-belt at back with the end of the belt overlapped and fastened with two 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons?

1/3

How far are service stripes placed apart when more than one is authorized?

1/4 inch

If a shaving waiver is authorized, no facial/neck hair shall be shaved, manicured, styled or outlined nor exceed what length?

1/4 inch

Mustaches shall not go beyond a horizontal line extending across the corners of the mouth and no more than what distance beyond a vertical line drawn from the corner of the mouth?

1/4 inch

Navy coveralls and NWU's are required to have U.S. NAVY tape of what size, worn centered side to side over the wearer's left breast pocket?

1/4 inch

Sleeve insignia are gold stripes, black on green coats, in widths of either 2 inch, 1⁄2 inch, or what other size indicating the individual's rank?

1/4 inch

The dress blue jumper collar is trimmed with three stripes of white tape, each 3/16 inch wide and 3/16 inch apart with the outer stripe at what distance from the collar edge?

1/4 inch

What is the interval between stripes for sleeves that have multiple insignia stripes?

1/4 inch

What is the maximum fingernail length measured from the fingertip that females can have?

1/4 inch

What should be the approximate thickness of the soles in womens dress heels?

1/4 inch

When a womans hairstyle of multiple braids is worn, the braids shall be of uniform dimension, small in diameter (approx. what size), and tightly interwoven to present a neat, professional, well groomed appearance?

1/4 inch

A WP consisting of how many pages or less will always be revised?

10

All electrical cabling and telephone lines within how many feet of the ground will be encased in metal conduit to preclude lines from being manipulated/cut?

10

Commands functioning with minimal publications (how many or less) and no automatic data processing (ADP) support may use the older Naval Warfare Publication Library (NWPL) system for publication management rather than the Technical Publications Library Program?

10

Julian dates may not be postdated in excess of how many days?

10

Like items maintained in large quantities (how many or more) may be grouped into homogeneous lots for PMS inspections?

10

MRB action must commence within how many workdays after preparation of the MRB Form?

10

Mech is published bimonthly by the U.S. Naval Safety Center. It is distributed to naval aeronautic organizations on the basis of one copy per how many persons?

10

O-level or I-level compliance normally will not be assigned when equipment out-of-service time will exceed 8 hours or if more than how many man-hours per compliance action will be required?

10

The ADU-496A/E is used to support the AGM-88 HARM missile and how many-inch diameter and larger stores?

10

The unauthorized possession of keys, key blanks, keyways, or locks adopted by a DoD component to protect AA&E is a criminal offense punishable by imprisonment of up to how many years?

10

Requests for SELRES personnel HYT waivers shall be submitted to NAVPERSCOM, Reserve Enlisted Status Branch/FTS Recall and Conversions (PERS-913) using NAVPERS 1306/7, and should arrive how long prior to established HYT date?

10 months

What is the HYT for SELRES E3 personnel?

10 years

The GAU-21 has a barrel life of how many rounds?

10,000

Long-range guided missiles are usually capable of traveling a distance of at least how many miles?

100

RFI aircraft tire/wheel assemblies shall not exceed how many pounds PSIG or 50 percent of test pressure, whichever is less, while being stored?

100

The functional delays for both the primary and option modes of the Mk 339 Mod 1 fuze can be adjusted from 1.2 to how many seconds?

100

Warning signs will be posted in intervals not to exceed how many feet?

100

What type of uniforms must not be worn when operating in any operating fire room?

100% Polyester

Flammable liquids are any liquids that have a flash point below what?

100°F

Which executive order delegated the authority to prescribe the quantity and kind of clothing or cash allowances in lieu of clothing, for enlisted personnel, to the Secretary of Defense?

10113

Studies have indicated that the temperature within conventional ordnance storage magazines seldom exceeds what temperature?

105°F

At least what-gauge of steel or the equivalent containers can the keys to Category III and IV AA&E be secured in?

12

CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested?

12

During major combat operations (MCOs) or small-scale contingency combat, expenditures will be reported via ATR/TIR within how many hours?

12

How many cumulative years of good conduct do personnel have to have served before wearing gold service stripes?

12

The RCN is composed of how many elements?

12

The Record Purpose category may be assigned only to Formal Change TDs and only when the period for change incorporation in all affected systems is how many months or less?

12

The TTL missile can be stacked three high using a total of how many Mk 8 Mod 0 support systems, allowing for an increase in storage density?

12

When a classified or Category I or II shipment is not received within how long of estimated time of arrival (24 hours for Category III or IV) and the delivering carrier cannot provide a reasonable explanation for the delay, the origin transportation officer will be notified to begin tracing procedures?

12 hours

Inspect individual qualification/certification records and EDVR to ensure all aircraft engine test cell operators qualified for how many months or longer possess NEC 6422/MOS 6023 or an artisan equivalent series designation?

12 months

What is the HYT for SELRES E4 personnel?

12 years

The commanding officer's authorization may also include CONUS transport of .30-06 and .30 caliber ammunition of up to how many rounds for Director of Civilian Marksmanship affiliated clubs?

12,000

If the previously approved HYT waiver is cancelled, ACDU and FTS Sailors will be separated within how long of cancellation, unless they have sufficient time to transfer to the Fleet Reserve or retire?

120 days

When the M61A1/2 gun reaches a round interval of how many rounds fired or requires major repair or alteration, it is sent to a depot-level maintenance activity?

120,000

How many weeks long is OCS?

13

How many-digits is the NSN stock number?

13

The majority of the ordnance items in the naval inventory today have been designed to withstand high temperatures in the range of what?

130° to 160°F

Aircraft must be washed and cleaned at least every how many days, unless otherwise directed by NAVAIR?

14

Anytime an aircraft is out of service or will remain idle for how many or more days, maintenance will put the aircraft in level I preservation?

14

How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of?

14

Suspension lugs are used to attach the weapon to the aircraft bomb racks and are spaced how many inches apart, depending on the size of the bomb?

14 or 30 inches

What is the HYT for E5 personnel?

14 years

Pressure-sensitive Adhesive Tape should perform satisfactorily over a temperature range of -65°F to what?

140°F

Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy?

141.4

A lapsed medical qualification will invalidate an individual's certification; however, this is not applicable if the individual has a medical examination scheduled within how many days of the date the QUAL/CERT is due to expire?

15

How many minutes within an alarm or report of intrusion in AA&E storage areas must an armed response force be able to respond?

15

No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports, including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS- 311) approval?

15

Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates will result in more than how many months between Regular reports?

15

What is the maximum amount of CAT IV small arms that may be sent via registered mail (return receipt requested) when the size and weight meet U.S. Postal Service requirements?

15

Within how many days must Performance Information Memorandum's be forwarded to the command preparing the Regular FITREP or EVAL report for the covered period?

15

Personnel serving at code 2 sea duty stations can expect to be away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year?

150

Active duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?

16

LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?

16

When the skid adapter assemblies are installed, the Aero 58A skid adapter is limited to weapons with a maximum diameter of how many inches?

16

The Mk 85, Mk 86, Mk 87, and Mk 100 pallet slings are wire rope basket slings that are adjustable for load height. These slings accommodate a full range of load heights (how many inches)?

16 to 70

How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day?

17

The second part of the TMINS is called the suffix. It is an added field of up to how many characters (including the slash)?

17

Do not use zinc chromate primer on exterior aircraft surfaces, including wheel wells and wing butts, and in areas that are exposed to temperatures exceeding what?

175°F

What year was the first Continental Navy squadron put to sea by Esek Hopkins?

1776

At the end of the Revolutionary War, a new federal government was established. In 1783, the Navy was down to five ships. The Navy was disbanded, and the last frigate, the USS Alliance, was sold in what year?

1785

What year was the Department of the Navy established by John Adams?

1798

A directive classified ROUTINE ACTION must be accomplished within how many months of the date of issue?

18

ACDU and FTS Sailors who have completed how many years, but less than 20 years of service and are subsequently reduced in rate, shall be retained on ACDU until they are eligible to transfer to the Fleet Reserve unless they are discharged under other provisions of law?

18

School assignments of less than how many months are classified as code 5 neutral duty?

18

TCDs for Record Purpose TDs shall be how many months or less form date of CCB approval?

18

Skill proficiency of 2M technicians shall be evaluated every how often using NAVAIR SE-004-PQS-000?

18 months

Validate 2M repair sites at what intervals to ensure compliance with the 2M Program, using CSEC?

18-month

When the soft expiration of active obligated service (i.e., EAOS plus any extensions) exceeds the HYT LOS gate of the reduced pay grade, separation must occur within how many days from the date of reduction in rate, unless granted an HYT waiver, reinstated, or subsequently advanced?

180

What year was the recommendation given by a Navy surgeon to employ women in hospitals in order to care for the Navy's sick and wounded?

1811

What year did the Navy launch the USS Pennsylvania which was the largest of ship-of-the-line vessel?

1837

What year did the Navy launch the USS Missouri and the USS Mississippi which were our first ocean-going, steam-driven capital ships?

1841

What year did the Navy launch the USS Michigan which was the first iron-hulled warship?

1843

What year was the USS Princeton which was the Navy's first successful steamship launched?

1843

What year was USS New Ironsides, that had armor allowing it to survive 50 hits in one battle, launched by the Union?

1862

What year did the USS Cushing which was one of the Navy's first torpedo boats join the fleet?

1890

What year did construction begin on the first United States Navy Destroyer?

1899

How old must OCS applicants be?

19

What year did the Great White Fleet depart Hampton Roads, Virginia for a round-the-world cruise to display the flag?

1907

When Signature and Tally Record service is used, what DD Form will be furnished to the commercial carrier's representative who will be instructed that the document must be completed, signed, and surrendered with the bill of lading to the consignee?

1907

What year were the Nurse Corps officially established?

1908

What year did the USS Ranger join the fleet?

1934

What year did the Japanese attack Pearl Harbor?

1941

What year did Congress authorize the Women's Reserve establishment with an estimated goal of 10,000 enlisted women and 1,000 officers?

1942

What year was the invasion of Normandy?

1944

What year did a squadron of FH-1 Phantoms qualify for carrier operations aboard the USS Saipan (CVL-48)?

1948

What year did the Korean Conflict end?

1953

What year did the periscope start being replaced as the submarine's basic visual aid?

1958

What year did America enter the Vietnam conflict?

1965

Following the catastrophic ordnance incident involving a Mark (MK) 24 aircraft parachute flare aboard the United States Ship (USS) ORISKANY (CVA 34) in what year that resulted in a significant loss of life and major ship damage, the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) established the Explosives Handling Personnel QUAL/CERT Program?

1966

Poly/cotton may be worn only as Working Khaki effective as of what year?

1999

Warrant Officers shoulder insignia surface is black cloth. Stripe widths are as specified for sleeves of blue coats but what length are the blue break(s) rather than being 2 inches apart?

1⁄2 inch

What is the maximum length that an individual mustache hair that is fully extended can be?

1⁄2 inch

The watch cap will worn with a single fold approximately 3.5 inches - 4 inches diagonally from the base of the back of the head, across the ears and on the forehead with the bottom of the fold what distance above the eyebrows?

1⁄4 inch

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe will Male Trousers, Blue, Evening?

2

Commercial shipping containers used for ammunition storage will be considered an aboveground magazine unless how many feet of earth cover can be maintained over the entire container to qualify it as an ECM?

2

EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day?

2

How many inches should the Male Officer/CPO boat cloak extend below the kneecap?

2

How many years do personnel have to complete a baccalaureate degree when they are enrolled in the ECP?

2

The TYCOM or REGCOM, as appropriate, must provide written approval for the break out and use of live AE for training to achieve qualification. This written approval shall be retained as part of the individual training record for a period of how many years?

2

The shipping activity is responsible for notifying the receiving activity that a shipment is enroute. Shippers will notify the designated receiver no later than how long after a shipment's departure?

2 hours

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall coveralls hang?

2 inches

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe shall service khaki trousers hang?

2 inches

A member whose normal EAOS falls within the wife's pregnancy may execute an extension not to exceed how long beyond spouse's estimated delivery date?

2 months

The 4,000-pound hand pallet truck has a two-tine fork that supports a palletized load. The tines are raised or lowered by a hydraulic or mechanical lift mechanism. The height of lift differs from model to model but is generally in the range of how many inches?

2 to 4

Approximately how many inches from the floor at the back of the shoe should dress blue trousers hang?

2"

The traditional sword belt is made of plain black grain leather, or synthetic material presenting the same appearance, 1-3/4 inch wide, with sling straps of the same material, 3/4 inch wide. The buckle and mounting are gold plated with the buckle how many inches in diameter?

2"

What is the maximum length that the bulk of womens hair as measured from the scalp can be?

2"

How many pounds is the Mk 65 Mods mine which is an air-laid, all modular, influence actuated, bottom mine used against submarines and surface targets?

2,000

A demolition area is used for destroying unserviceable ammunition and explosives. This area may be selected within the confines of the ASP provided that it is a minimum of 1,800 feet from any stored ammunition and explosives and how many feet from any other component areas?

2,340

What is the SWL of the Mk 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier?

2,500 lbs

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of each Aero 64A soft- belt adapters?

2,500 lbs.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of each Aero 64B adapter?

2,500 lbs.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the ADU-400/E adapter?

2,500 lbs.

What is the muzzle velocity in fps of the GAU-17?

2,850

What is the muzzle velocity of the GAU-21?

2,887 fps

The tip end of the utility belt will pass through the buckle, feeding back around the locking bar to the wearer's left, extending how many inches beyond the buckle?

2-4

How deep must civilian handbags be when worn with the full dress uniform?

2-4"

How many inches wide are the rating badges for female CPO's?

2.5

The Male Necktie, Bow, Black shall be plain style with square ends between 2 inches and how many inches in vertical width?

2.75"

ATRs are limited to 6 pages in length with how many lines per page?

20

Each stack within an FSU is limited to a maximum of how many short tons?

20

Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less?

20

What is the minimum ACT english score required for STA-21 candidates?

20

JDRS, shall be made how many days after Preliminary Disposition Report release, but the period may be extended if it is known that shipment will take longer?

20 days

What is the HYT for E6 personnel?

20 years

What is the HYT for SELRES E5 personnel?

20 years

Diesel engine forklift trucks used throughout the Navy range from a 4,000-pound capacity to a how many-pound capacity?

20,000

What is the maximum gross weight of CAT IV small arms ammunition, Class/Division 1.4S, that may be shipped via DoD CIS regardless of FPCON?

200 lbs

Combustible liquids are any liquids that have a flash point at or above 100°F, but below what?

200°F

MIL-S-8516 is an accelerated, synthetic, rubber sealing compound used for sealing low-voltage electrical connectors, wiring, and other electrical equipment against moisture and corrosion where temperatures do not exceed what?

200°F

Explosives drivers must be 18 years of age or older to operate motor vehicles transporting AE on-station, and shall be how many years of age or older for off-station operations?

21

Equipment, such as slings, bands, beams, strong-backs, and spreader bars, is static tested at 200 percent to what percent of the SWL?

215%

What is the HYT for SELRES E6 personnel?

22 years

Extensions shall be executed in monthly increments of 1 to how many months?

23

Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?

24

CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which application is made?

24

How many months at a maximum after the effective completion date of a rating merger must personnel transition to the new rating badge?

24

The enlistment contract cannot be extended for more than how many aggregate months?

24

Up to how many months does the Enlisted Education Advancement Program (EEAP) allow career-motivated individuals to earn an associate of arts/sciences degree?

24

CAT 1 TPDR priority message shall be submitted within how many hours of discovery of a safety related deficiency?

24 hours

Process and return all sample results via the fastest possible means. For samples with abnormal results, advise the customer activity of the laboratory recommendation no later than how long after sample receipt per NAVAIR 17-15-50.2?

24 hours

Reenlistment under continuous service conditions may be effected on board the activity from which discharged within how long following discharge?

24 hours

No prime generators, as defined in NAVAIR 01-1A-23, shall be closer than what distance to an ESD protected work area?

24 inches

ACDU, FTS, and SELRES personnel shall appear before a career development board how long prior to reaching HYT?

24 months

Navy and contracted GTETS Operators will be recertified every how often?

24 months

What is the HYT for E7 personnel?

24 years

What is the HYT for SELRES E7 personnel?

24 years

When solvents contain more than what percent by volume of chlorinated materials, they must be kept in specially marked containers?

24%

Full Time Support (FTS) personnel must have a minimum Reserve Active Duty Obligation (RADO) of how long for reenlistment?

24-months

To break the gloss of existing finishes and to feather (smooth out) the edges for overlap, you should scuff sand by using what grit aluminum oxide cloth?

240 or 320

All RFI tires being transported off station shall not exceed how many pounds PSIG of pressure?

25

What is the HYT for E8 personnel?

26 years

What is the HYT for SELRES E8 personnel?

26 years

How many destroyers were ordered during World War I?

273

Hydraulic fluid MIL-H-46170 is also used as a testing medium in stationary test stands within a temperature range of -40°F to what?

275°F

Any aircraft with AWM corrosion discrepancies that are within maintenance capability shall be restricted from flight if the discrepancies are not corrected within how many calendar days from the date of discovery?

28

How many guns were generally carried by Frigates during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?

28 to 44

Ensure the interim or final reply does not exceed how many calendar days for CAT I PQDRs not requiring exhibits or how many calendar days after receipt of exhibit for CAT I PQDRs with exhibits?

28/45

Members in receipt of an authorization for transfer to the Fleet Reserve may not extend their enlistment more than how many days beyond approved Fleet Reserve date without specific approval from PERS-823?

29

OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date?

29

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for the repair of miniature/micro-miniature electronic assemblies and the certification/recertification and training of personnel?

2M Program

A new reporting senior who has not written an "Observed" report on a member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months?

3

An E6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has not yet received an Observed report?

3

Any fuel system that has been drained of fuel for more than how many days or is expected to remain inactive for more than 60 days is to be preserved with MIL-L-6081 Grade 1010, and be dehumidified?

3

Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants?

3

Commanding Officers can recommend personnel for a Navy Good Conduct Medal as a reward for how many years of good conduct?

3

Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the reporting senior's permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next Regular report?

3

For up to how many months, unless it was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member, may a Special report be extended for?

3

How many types of aluminum surfaces insofar as corrosion removal is concerned?

3

How many years are performance marks averaged to arrive at the merit rating?

3

In all cases, members reenlisting how many months or less prior to the normal expiration of enlistment, or enlistment as extended, will be considered as having completed their initial contract?

3

In place of a Regular FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL report a Performance Information Memorandum may be prepared for Duty, DUINS, TEMDU, or TEMDUINS for a period of how many months or less?

3

Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic report date?

3

Within how many years of STA-21 application due date must candidates have certified copies of SAT or ACT test scores?

3

Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action?

3

A QA stamp may not be reassigned within a period of how long?

3 months

Members on inactive duty who are participating in a Navy Reserve Program and who are eligible for reenlistment shall be notified at least how long prior to the expiration of their enlistment or service obligation concerning such expiration and the procedures set up for reenlistment processing?

3 months

Once a QA stamp is turned in by an inspector, either due to transfer or loss of qualifications, it may not be reassigned within a period of how long?

3 months

Recoupment of reenlistment bonus is not required in the case of early discharges not more than how long prior to expiration of enlistment?

3 months

Authorized (current assignment) Force or command/unit patch may be worn on the NWU wearer's right breast pocket. The size of the patch shall not exceed how many inches in length/width/diameter?

3 to 3-1/2

How long must the records of guard checks be kept and maintained?

3 years

How long should the daily logs be kept and maintained of all alarms, including the nature of the alarm (e.g., intrusion system failure or nuisance alarm), date and time, location, and response made to identify IDS reliability problems?

3 years

In order to be eligible for any amount of ISP, ACDU and FTS members must have completed at least 6, but less than 20 years of active service, and must enter into an agreement to serve in the Ready Reserve for a period of not less than how long?

3 years

SE operator licenses are valid for type equipment and aircraft for how long, regardless of activity assigned?

3 years

What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO?

3 years

What is the rate of fire of the GAU-17?

3,000 RPM

What is the maximum range of the M240D?

3,725 meters

What systems are used to improve fleet material readiness?

3-M

All servicing SE will be equipped with what type of filtration?

3-micron (absolute)

Collar points of the CPO/Officer males white dress shirt worn with the dinner dress uniform measure no more than how many inches with a medium spread?

3.25"

The male Officer Necktie, Black, Four-in-Hand is made of authorized fabric measuring no more than how many inches wide?

3.25"

The Secretary of the Navy prescribed the following distinctive mark for members of military societies which are composed entirely of honorably discharged officers and enlisted personnel and the instructors and members of duly organized cadet corps. This distinctive mark is a diamond, how many inches long in the vertical axis, made of any fabric, white on blue, forestry green, or khaki clothing and blue on white clothing?

3.5"

The black jacket should be worn with the zipper closed at least what amount of the way up?

3/4

Approximately what distance from the forehead hairline tilted slightly to the right shall women wear the beret toward the front of the head?

3/4 inch

Hair above the ears and around the neck shall be tapered from the lower natural hairline upwards at least 3/4 inch and outward not greater than what length to blend with hair-style for men?

3/4 inch

What should the size of the embroidered letters on Navy coveralls be?

3/4 inch

Dress shoes shall be plain toed, oxford style black, brown, or white, low quarter, lace shoe, made of smooth leather or synthetic leather. The heel shall be an outside heel that is how high with a flat sole?

3/4 inch - 7/8 inch

Approximately how high should stencil letters be?

3/8 inch

How wide are male El-E6 service stripes?

3/8 inch

AMMOLANT/AMMOPAC will follow local office procedures by sending requisition status or ensuring a USFF/PACFLT ordnance handling activity publishes requisition status, approximately how many days prior to the start of the load evolution?

30

Ensure all work center supervisors and their designated HMC&M Petty Officers have completed formal or local HAZMAT storage and handling training within how many days of assignment?

30

Members in the Regular Navy, Navy Reserve, and Fleet Reserve on active duty other than training duty of less than how many days, who are in need of medical care or hospitalization as a result of disease or injury incident to service and not due to their own misconduct, may be retained with their consent beyond the date of their normal expiration of active OBLISERV?

30

TEMP STOW is not to exceed how many days and must include the reason for the temporary storage?

30

The normal date of expiration of enlistment or extension of enlistment of a member serving aboard a ship in foreign waters may be extended until return of the ship to a continental port of the United States (U.S.) or until transfer of member concerned to the separation activity nearest port of debarkation. So retained shall be separated not later than how many days after arrival in the U.S.?

30

Upon designation as Program Manager, a self-audit shall be performed within how many days and annually thereafter using the CSEC. The most current self-audit shall be retained within the program binder?

30

Within how many days of medical evaluation must a DoDSER be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service members, as determined by competent medical authority?

30

An analysis of these qualifying customers' D-level calibration requirements is made approximately how many days prior to the beginning of each fiscal year quarter. Based on available funding, a portion of these requirements is allocated to each customer?

30 days

Every effort shall be made to complete resolution and issue corrective action within how long of receipt of CAT 1 TPDRs?

30 days

The Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) recommends personnel to reenlist at least how long prior to EAOS to avoid possible pay stoppage or discrepancies?

30 days

What is the HYT for E9 personnel?

30 years

What is the HYT for SELRES E9 personnel?

30 years

What age must STA-21 candidates be able to complete degree requirements and be commissioned prior to?

31

Maintenance personne1 remove corrosion products by rubbing lightly with stainless steel wool, abrasive impregnated webbing, or what-grit or finer aluminum oxide abrasive paper?

320

To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age?

33

MECP applicants must be able to complete the nursing degree requirements and be commissioned prior to what age?

35

How many consecutive calendar months do MECP selectees have to complete degree requirements?

36

What is a completely new edition of the existing directive?

Revision

How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in?

36

The sword worn with the ceremonial uniform for LCDR and above shall have a cut and thrust blade, from 22 inches to how many inches long, half basket hilt, and fit in a scabbard of plain black grain leather or synthetic material presenting the leather appearance?

36"

What size is the plain black silk or synthetic fabric square that the neckerchief is made from?

36"

The male version of the white dinner dress coat jacket is semi- peaked with narrow lapels with the back tapered to a point, and loops for shoulder boards. There are two 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons down each side of the front, with a front closure held together by two 28- line Navy eagle buttons with a link approximately how long?

3⁄4"

For men, no individual hair will measure more than how many inches in length?

4

The typical BSU-33/conical fin assembly is steel, conical in shape, and has how many fins to provide stability?

4

How long must backed up, protected, independent power be provided for IDS systems?

4 hours

An immigrant alien who has been in the U.S. for a period of how long beyond the age of majority, who has been lawfully admitted, and who holds an I-151 Alien Registration Receipt Card, is eligible for enlistment or reenlistment in the Navy without being required to apply for U.S. citizenship?

4 years

What is the HYT for E1 and E2 personnel?

4 years

What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO?

4 years

What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for OCS graduates?

4 years

What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO?

4 years

What is the Mk 3 Mod 0 pallet SWL?

4,000 lbs

What is the SWL of the Mk 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier?

4,000 lbs

What is the standard four-way pallet safe working load (SWL)?

4,000 lbs

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of two pairs (total four) of the ADU-483/E skid adapters?

4,000 lbs.

The M61A1/2 automatic gun is hydraulically driven, electrically controlled, and can fire M50 and PGU series ammunition at how many rounds per minute?

4,000 to 6,000

Allow the stripper to remain on the surface long enough for it to wrinkle and lift the paint. This may be from 10 to how many minutes, depending upon temperature, humidity, and the condition of the paint coat being removed?

40

The BLU-109A/B must not be missing more than 20 square inches of thermal coating in a single area or more than how many square inches total?

40

The GAU-21 has a depot maintenance cycle of how many rounds?

40,000

Each FSU is limited to a maximum of how many short tons with spacing between units established by OP 5 Volume 3?

400

The Mk 109 Mod 1 container-lifting sling permit adjustment of sling-leg width within the range of 25 inches to how many inches?

41

If member fails next official PFA while on conditional reenlistment, consideration will be given to process member for ADSEP within how many days of PFA failure?

45

Ships offloading at Navy stock points will submit an offload planning message to the offloading receipt activity how many days prior to the event?

45

The cases of General Purpose (GP) bombs are aerodynamically designed, relatively light, and approximately what percent of their weight is made of explosives?

45%

Ensure the interim or final reply does not exceed how many calendar days for CAT II PQDRs not requiring exhibits or how many calendar days after receipt of exhibit for CAT II PQDRs with exhibits?

45/60

Room temperature vulcanizing (RTV), silicone rubber sealant is used for sealing small electrical connectors and electrical components that are located in areas where the temperatures are between 200°F and what?

450°F

Upon receipt of RIE requests, AMMOLANT/AMMOPAC will input requisition and provide status to the requisitioner and supplementary addressee within five working days. Status for urgent RIE requests will be provided within how many hours?

48

What is the maximum amount of months that MSC IPP program selectees have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)?

48

10 U.S.C. 509 allows the term of enlistment to be extended up to how long?

48 months

The A/F 32K-1A bomb assembly stand consists of three interchangeable and interlocking sections of what length?

49"

For women, one earring per ear (centered on earlobe) may be worn while in uniform. Earrings shall be what size ball, plain with shiny or brushed matte finish, screw on or with posts?

4mm - 6mm

CAT II QDRs are submitted on an SF 368 to the CFA within how many working days of the discovered deficiency?

5

How many detachable 35-line Navy eagle gilt buttons on the right front are there on the service dress white officers/CPO coat?

5

How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate?

5

Inside the All-Weather Coat, Blue lining, ownership markings must be 3 inches below collar seam, and inside on outer shell on manufacturer's tag, how many inches from bottom left front?

5

Navy and Marine Corps units that operate UAS Groups 3 through what are exempt from the ALSS Program?

5

RAMECs shall have a maximum rescission interval of how many years after date of issue?

5

Submit the EI request by routine precedence message within how many working days after discovery of the deficiency?

5

What is the recommended maximum towing speed for single or multiple MHU-126A/M munitions trailers being towed in a train?

5 MPH

Which class of GSA-approved vault doors may interior doorways to armories and magazines use?

5 or 8

What is the HYT for E3 personnel?

5 years

The Mk 45 Mod 2 is intended for use in lifting and maneuvering long, heavy containers and cradles within the weight capacity of two trucks (how many pounds)?

5,000

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of one set of Aero 58A skid adapters?

5,000 lbs.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 83A?

5,000 lbs.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the MHU-126A/M?

5,000 lbs.

How many inches long are female service stripes?

5.25

What is the maximum width that tie clasps are authorized to be?

5/16 inch

Maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate contamination levels are Navy Standard Class what for aircraft and Navy Standard Class what for SE?

5/3

Duty performed in commissioned vessels or activities in an active status that operate away from their home port/home base in excess of how many days per year are credited as double sea credited because of the nature of the mission?

50

For military personnel to qualify as explosives drivers special duty physical examination is required every five years until what age, and annually thereafter?

50

Stacks within an FSU must be separated by a minimum of how many feet?

50

When materials designated as flammable are used, all sources of ignition must be at least how many feet away from the work location?

50

The GAU-16 has a depot maintenance cycle of how many rounds?

50,000

A posted symbol should be situated so it is visible during daylight from a distance of how many feet?

500

How many pounds is the Mk 62 mine?

500

The MP&T Coordinator is only assigned to CV IMAs and the larger (how many or above manning during the year, including TAD personnel) Navy shore IMAs which provide I-level support for a significant number of aviation activities?

500

How many Navy ships were in active service a year and a half after the Civil War?

56

The ammunition handling system holds a maximum of how many rounds of ammunition in the F/A-18 M61A1/2 gun system?

578

Military, civil service, or contractor personnel may monitor alarms, except for Marine Corps Electronic Security System (MCESS) Operators, who will be military police personnel possessing what MOS code?

58XX

An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees?

6

If a ship is expected to remain in the yard for less than how many weeks, the ship offloads, as a minimum, all ammunition or explosives that can't be stowed in sprinkler-protected or floodable spaces?

6

Insufficient demand to maintain EA capability is defined as less than three aircraft confined space requirements in a how many-month period?

6

Navy Reservists on inactive duty may be discharged at any time for the purpose of incurring a how many-year Selected Reserve (SELRES) obligation to gain entitlement to the SELRES Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB)?

6

Projectiles, cartridges, and powder tanks up to how many inches in diameter, boxed ammunition, and various inert loads are typical of the items handled with the ammunition pallet crate?

6

Reenlistment may be effected for the terms specified in recruiting instructions, but must be effected within 3 months after date of discharge or release from Active Duty or within how many months to receive benefits of continuous service?

6

The UCMJ and 10 U.S.C. 937 require that certain articles of the UCMJ be carefully explained to each enlisted member at the time of enlistment, after the member has completed how many months of active duty, or, in the case of a member of a Reserve component, after the member has completed basic or recruit training, and at the time the member reenlists?

6

The completed check flight checklists are retained in the aircraft maintenance files for a minimum of how many months, or one phase cycle, whichever is greater?

6

To become a QUAL/CERT board member, a civilian equivalent must have a minimum of 4 years of experience and to become a Board Chair, a minimum of how many years of experience?

6

Activities must conduct AA&E security surveys every 12 months (how many months for ships) and maintain records for 3 years for review during assistance visits, command inspections and explosive safety inspections?

6 months

Completed FCF checklists shall be retained in the aircraft history files for a minimum of how long, or one phase cycle, whichever is greater?

6 months

Copies of TD summaries shall be annotated and maintained on file by each activity for a period of how long?

6 months

Ensure egress/explosive system training and checkout for all maintenance personnel upon reporting aboard and every how often thereafter?

6 months

How long after being stationed at their first duty station should personnel submit a duty preference form?

6 months

Members for whom tacit consent to retention is assumed ordinarily will not be retained in excess of how long beyond the date of their normal expiration of active obligated service (EAOS)?

6 months

What is the HYT for SELRES E1 and E2 personnel?

6 years

What two leg length sizes do PTU shorts come in?

6"or 8"

The Mk 105 Mod 0 hoisting sling is a braided nylon rope that consists of a pendant and a leg assembly. Legs are rated at 4,000 pounds; with two or more legs, the assembly is rated at a how many- pound capacity?

6,000

How many weeks after a member's suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the DoDSER and respond to unforeseen questions?

6-8

If circumstances indicate the TEMP STOW period will exceed 30 days, TYCOM may grant a 30-day extension on a case-by-case basis to a maximum TEMP STOW period of how many days?

60

Indoctrination training per NAMP Training Requirements shall be provided to personnel within 30 days of reporting to the Maintenance Department, but may be extended to how many days if mitigating circumstances exist?

60

Level I preservation of engines requires the fuel system to remain at least 95% full of fuel for a period not to exceed how many days?

60

Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which suicide has not been excluded by the medical examiner?

60

A revision normally takes place when more than what percent of the pages are affected by a single change or accumulated changes?

60%

The GAU-21 has a burst limit of how many rounds?

600

How many sonobuoys in launch containers can the ADU-699A/E with four sonobuoy transport adapters ADU-834/E hold and or transport up to?

64

The All-Weather Coat, Blue is a black, single-breasted, beltless, water repellent coat made of a poly/cotton poplin fabric mix of what percent poly what percent cotton poplin?

65/35

The M240D is an air-cooled, gas-operated, automatic machine gun and fires the standard 7.62 mm North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) cartridge from the open bolt position at firing rates of how many rounds per minute?

650 to 950

How many inches long are male CPO's service stripes?

7

Initial status on all requisitions submitted will be provided via OIS-W. If initial status is not received within how many days, a MILSTRIP follow-up is submitted to Naval Ammunition Logistics Support Center (NAVAMMOLOGCEN) Mechanicsburg using RIC NCB?

7

MIL-C-81309 corrosion-preventive compound is a water- displacing compound and lubricant that must be reapplied frequently. On exposed surfaces, protection lasts about how many days at best?

7

Scheduled M61A1/2 gun maintenance begins at how many rounds?

7,500

Sealants should not be applied to metal that is colder than what?

70°F

Class V (A) ammunition utilized during a Combined Arms Exercise (CAX) will be reported within how many hours after completion of the exercise?

72

Approximately what percent of the size of the men's rating badges are womens rating insignia, chevrons and rockers?

75%

At least what percent of the way should the NWU Parka zipper be closed?

75%

What percentage of the distance from the wrist to the knuckles should the pettycoat sleeves reach when the arms are hanging naturally at the sides?

75%

What is the performance rate of fire for the GAU-16?

750 to 850 RPM

Under standard atmospheric conditions, sonic speed is about how many miles per hour?

766

Which section of Title 10, U.S. Code stipulates that no one person except members of the Army, Navy, Air Force, or Marine Corps, may wear uniform which has components similar to distinctive parts of Army, Navy, Air Force or Marine Corps uniforms?

771

How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates?

8

If personnel separate from the Navy at their EAOS but have not completed at least how many years of service they will not receive a discharge but will be "separated" from active naval service?

8

What is the HYT for E4 personnel?

8 years

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the A/M 32K-4A?

8,000 lbs.

What is the Safe Working Load (SWL) of the Aero 51D?

8,500 lbs.

No mine is jettisoned safe in water that is less than how many feet deep with positive assurance that it isn't a hazard?

800

How many enlisted men and women from the Regular Navy or Regular Marine Corps may be appointed by the Secretary of the Navy to the Naval Academy at Annapolis, Maryland?

85

QA shall administer written Phase II examinations. A passing grade of what percent is required. A licensed operator shall administer the practical examination?

85%

How many-digits is the NIIN which uniquely identifies a specific item of supply?

9

Any personnel removed from aircraft maintenance responsibilities for how many days or longer will receive an egress system checkout before performing any aircraft maintenance?

90

Deviation to allow the OINC of a detachment to designate QA personnel is authorized, provided the deployment period is in excess of how many days?

90

Ensure designated plane captains assigned away from plane captain duties over how many days receive refresher training and are interviewed by the Program Manager prior to assuming plane captain duties?

90

How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically canceled?

90

Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report?

90

Routine NATOPS flight manual changes are generally issued every how many days?

90

Ships are required to maintain their shipfill ammunition allowance on board or on order. One exception is that stock levels can be reduced to what percent to permit expenditures for training, or to carry exercise ammunition?

90

Visually review every welder's proficiency against the welder's test plate every how many days?

90

Wing Material Condition Inspectors shall complete the Aircraft Corrosion Control course (Course N-701-0013) or Aircraft Corrosion course (Course C-600-3183) within how many days of assignment?

90

Filiform corrosion occurs independently of light, metallurgical factors, and microorganisms present. It takes place when the relative humidity of the air is 78 to what percent and when the surface is slightly acidic?

90%

The GAU-21 is capable of firing at a rapid rate of how many rounds per minute?

950 to 1100

What is the maximum number of days that members serving on code 1 shore duty are required to be absent from the corporate limits of their duty stations?

99

Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time?

A

The M61A1and M61A2 (M61A1/2) is a six-barrel, rotary-action, automatic gun based on the machine-gun design of whom?

Richard J. Gatling

Which side of the buckle do women wear the belt with clip with the exception of the Navy Working Uniform (NWU) and Coveralls?

Right

Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on?

Right

The purpose of what program is to ensure a safe environment when aeronautical fuel systems are worked on?

A VGFE

Who was the first to successfully power a commercial steamboat with steam?

Robert Fulton

What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation?

Root cause

Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?

Routine

What TD category will be assigned whenever the urgency of the situation does not warrant assignment of Immediate or Urgent Action categories and the assignment of Record Purpose would be inappropriate?

Routine Action

What TDs are used to authorize, accomplish, or modify only?

Routine action

Lettering is put on ammunition by die stamping, stenciling, decaling, etching, or which other method?

Rubber-stamping

Planned Maintenance System (PMS) publications consist of maintenance requirements cards (MRCs), periodic maintenance information cards (PMICs), checklists, and what else?

SCCs

What aid the planning and accomplishment of scheduled and unscheduled maintenance tasks during inspections?

SCCs

What is used to record acceptance information, custody and transfer, record of rework, preservation/depreservation, TDs and inspections that involve NDI, proofload testing, and dis- assembly/reassembly?

SE Custody and Maintenance History Record (OPNAV 4790/51)

What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority?

SECNAVINST 5216.5C

Which instruction should be used to train the security force in the use of deadly force?

SECNAVINST 5500.29A

Which type of single adapter is the HLU-288/E bomb hoist used with to load various weapons onto a variety of aircraft?

SHOLS

A member certified at what level must have sufficient knowledge and experience of applicable safety procedures, functioning of safety devices, and working knowledge of work task procedures to determine subsequent reaction when safety procedures or devices are not properly used?

SO

What is the required document that provides detailed, written procedures (step-by-step instructions) for conducting safe processing of AE?

SOP

Who is responsible for ensuring uniform policy compliance as issued by the prescribing authority regarding liberty parties and members of the command operating ashore?

SOPA

Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level?

ABCD

Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn new or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding?

ABCD

Only the most qualified and experienced maintenance personnel will be selected and trained as what?

ABDR assessors

PMA requested engine removals and accessory and component teardown inspections must be coordinated with the cognizant what?

ACC/TYCOM

Who are responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and support of the naval aviation mission?

ACCs

Who has authority to approve TD removal via message if operational necessity dictates?

ACCs

What, assisted by type wings/MAWs/COMFAIRs, will research and liaise as necessary to verify and substantiate the need for a deviation request based solely on manpower constraints (loss of authorized bullets, for example, "gapped" billets)?

ACCs/TYCOMs

What is a Web application and shipboard stand-alone application used to capture and pass airborne weapons captive carry flight data to AWARS?

ACES

What is a method for reporting defects discovered in newly manufactured, modified, or reworked aircraft that require immediate attention to ensure acceptable standards of quality in aircraft maintenance and rework procedures?

ADR

For mission-essential publications, the central library submits the what?

ADRL

HYT dates for ACDU and FTS personnel are computed using what?

ADSD

What series missile launcher adapter is used to adapt the LAU-7 missile launcher, providing Sidewinder missile capabilities?

ADU-299

The ADU-511A/E adapter is used in support of the AIM-7, AIM- 120 AMRAAM, AGM-88, and what other missiles for transporting and loading operations?

AGM-65

What establishes the policy and requirements for determining acceptable civilian personnel certification qualifications for maintaining personnel parachute assemblies, ejection seat drogues, and related egress equipment?

ALSS Program

What is the official source document that displays an activity's manpower requirements and authorization and is based on CNO approved manpower documents (SMD/SQMD)/FMF/SEAOPDETs and by claimants for Shore Statements of Manpower Requirements generated by Efficiency Review Reports?

AMD

What is an inventory management and reporting system for SE at O-level, I-level, and D-level activities?

AMMRL Program

QARs, CDQARs, and CDIs must be designated in writing by whom?

AMO

What is a concept that uses technology infusion to standardize tracking, monitoring, and management of all training (formal and IST) into an integrated, cohesive "cradle-to-grave" system?

AMTCS

What includes all equipment whose primary function is to support the installed aircraft systems and is used primarily by an aircraft intermediate maintenance department or squadron?

ASE

What are the three subcategories of AWSE?

ASE, WSE, and LSE

What is an unclassified training management tool that supports AMTCS in the schoolhouse and the fleet?

ASM

What is normally established to facilitate the through-put for all Class V (Ammunition) material received into the area responsible for consolidation and redeployment of this material?

ASP

What evaluations are conditional maintenance actions that are depot-level evaluations of an aircraft's general material condition?

ASPA

What are used to report ammunition supply transactions by naval activities, and commercial ordnance handling and storage activities that do not have TIR capability?

ATRs

What concept has improved the reliability, availability, and logistics support of current guided missiles used by fleet activities?

AUR

What provides for the collection, processing, analysis, reporting, and modeling of performance, maintenance, logistics, and acquisition data?

AWARS

What is an information network subsystem of the Naval Aviation Logistic Data Analysis (NALDA) Up-line Information System (UIS) which supports the basic maintenance doctrine for weapons and support equipment as prescribed by the Naval Ordnance Maintenance Management Program (NOMMP)?

AWIS

What is support equipment that is required on the ground?

AWSE

What message is the primary means of keeping higher authority informed of the readiness condition of naval units?

SORTSREPNV

Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented?

SPC

Which type of blasting is the preferred surface preparation method for many of the components of SE?

Abrasive or grit

What can be used to remove severe corrosion (intergranular or exfoliation) on thick metal?

Abrasive wheel

Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training?

Accession point

What combines the forces of oil solvents and detergent cleaners in removing grease, oil, light rust, and other contaminants?

Acid cleaning

Which type of mine is fired by the initiation of an enclosed microphone which picks up the sound waves generated by a nearby ship's rotating screws or other operating machinery?

Acoustic

What is the preferred topcoat material for aircraft markings that identify the reporting custodian and for propeller safety stripes?

Acrylic lacquer

Skids and weapons transporters cannot be used without what?

Adapters

What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both?

Address Indicating Groups

To provide for controlled entry by authorized personnel, what should telephone communications between an alarm control center and alarmed zones be considered as to an what to the IDS?

Adjunct

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with three 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

Admiral

What is the general term for a temporary base that is in or near a forward area outside the zone of the interior?

Advanced base

What should the U.S. Flag never be used for?

Advertising

What are numeric-alphabetic or alpha-alpha and provide coded instructions to supply sources when such data is considered essential to supply action and entry in narrative form is not feasible?

Advice codes

What is the primary consideration of a manufacturer during the design and production of an aircraft?

Aerodynamic efficiency

What is a loose-leaf log contained within a separate cover and is used for selected items of SE?

Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR)

Which part of the lightning protection system was designed to provide a primary attachment point for a lightning strike?

Air termination system

What recognizes other than ''factory standard'' specifications and relies primarily on technicians and equipment currently available within the battle zone and as augmented by D-level ABDR personnel?

Aircraft Battle Damage Repair (ABDR)

What performs applicable O-level maintenance functions relative to assigned branches?

Aircraft Division

What are prepared on a systems maintenance concept, and they appear in two basic formats, conventional and work package?

Aircraft MIMs

What is the principal method of making large-scale mining attacks on enemy coastal and port areas?

Aircraft mine delivery

What is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of the services provided for movement of AA&E items by military airlift -- worldwide -- and by commercial airlift procured by them?

Airlift Mobility Command (AMC)

What are personnel not allowed to consume while wearing NWUs off base?

Alcohol

Who defined sea power, showed the importance of understanding naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemy's Navy?

Alfred T. Mahan

What is an aliphatic hydrocarbon product used as an alternate compound for cleaning acrylics?

Aliphatic naphtha

Which type of missiles, rockets, or torpedoes are provided as complete assemblies and described in the Complete Round Dictionary (CRD)?

All-Up-Round (AUR)

Impact tools, such as the needle gun (pneumatic descaler), provide a rapid means for removing rust and old paint from metal surfaces of SE. These tools must NEVER be used on what?

Aluminum

What clarifies, adds to, deletes from, makes minor changes to, or cancels an existing technical directive?

Amendment

What is used in the lavatories of aircraft to neutralize urine and waste products?

Ammonium hydroxide

What is a quantity of ammunition assembled from uniform components under similar conditions?

Ammunition lot

What is the preferred hydraulic fluid contamination analysis equipment and shall be used when available?

An electronic particle counter

Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located which offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young men and women to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps?

Annapolis, Maryland

What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year?

Annual Employment Schedule

At least how often will suicide prevention training be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations?

Annually

How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?

Annually

How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?

Annually

How often should Commanding Officers ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel?

Annually

How often should high security locks or lock cores be rotated to allow preventive maintenance?

Annually

The QA division audits the CTPL at least how often?

Annually

Wing Material Condition Inspectors shall complete inspection OJT with FRC PMI representatives how often to include general inspection techniques, common discrepancy issues and current specific areas of interest being observed by the FRC/ISSC/TYCOM team?

Annually

CNO and CMC allocate materials and services for support of the NAMP how often?

Annualy

What is the most common surface treatment of nonclad aluminum alloy surfaces?

Anodizing

What must be installed as an IDS component on all Risk Category I and II ammunition and explosives storage facility active doors equipped with high security padlocks and hasps?

Anti-Intrusion Barrier (AIB)

Who may authorize working uniforms in specific geographic regions or situations when warranted by local conditions?

Area coordinators

What is a combination of a hydrostatic switch piston and an explosive aligning piston?

Arming device

What is the amount of time or vane revolutions needed for the firing train to be aligned after the bomb is released or from time of release until the bomb is fully armed defined as?

Arming time

Maintaining ordnance components in a safe condition until actual release of the bomb from the aircraft is the primary function of what?

Arming wire assemblies

Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties?

Article 1037

Which U.S. Navy Regulations article states that no person in the Naval service shall have any article of wearing apparel belonging to any other person in the naval service without permission from proper authority?

Article 1161

Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance?

Attitude

What is a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?

Audit

What, as it applies to QA, is a periodic or special evaluation of details, plans, policies, procedures, products, directives, and records?

Audit

What provide an evaluation of performance throughout the department and serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies?

Audits

What serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on a scheduled and unscheduled basis?

Audits

What grants the right to require actions of others?

Authority

What (NAVSEA 4734/15 and NAVSEA 4734/16) are used when unusual or special conditions should be noted, such as deviations from usual calibration tolerances, multiple calibration intervals, a special requirement for in-place calibration or to refer to a correction factor chart?

SPECIAL CALIBRATION

What contain abbreviated procedures for use in high-tempo operational areas?

SRCs

What is used as a guide in making structural repairs to the airframe?

SRM

What provides guidance and criteria for qualifying and certifying personnel who perform Strategic Systems Programs (SSP) specific functions at Strategic Weapons Facilities (SWF)?

SSPINST 8023.1C (NOTAL)

Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Navy or Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission?

STA-21

Which type of devices are usually small explosives that blow or open a hole in the mine case to sink it?

Auxiliary

What Program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing and maintaining techniques to prevent contamination of aircraft oxygen systems and components through careful and safe handling, surveillance, and quality control?

Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO)

Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?

B

There are two types of subcaliber practice bombs—the Mk 76 Mod 5 and what else?

BDU-48/B

What are developed by exam writers to help Sailors study for advancement-in-rate examinations?

BIB

Which program is intended to help people who have been educationally deprived but have demonstrated they have the basic qualities and desires needed to earn a commission?

BOOST

Which program was designed to to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)?

BOOST

The face shall be clean shaven unless a shaving waiver is authorized by the Commanding Officer per what instruction?

BUPERSINST 1000.22

Which instruction contains Naval advancement system information?

BUPERSINST 1430.16

Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy's Tuition Assistance Montgomery GI Bill (MGIB) educational benefits?

BUPERSINST 1780.1

Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?

Balance resources

Magazines are classified depending on their design or construction as above-ground, arch-type (igloo), box-type, earth- covered, or what else?

Barricaded

What are the minimum items which must be worn on uniforms unless the prescribing authority directs otherwise?

Basic uniform components

What fumes cause rapid corrosive attack on unprotected surfaces?

Battery electrolyte

How often is the Evaluation Report and Counseling Record for E-3 and below submitted?

Biannually

How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?

Biennially

What areas are natural collection points for waste, hydraulic fluids, water, dirt, loose fasteners, drill shavings, and other debris?

Bilge

The Naval Aviation News is published how often for the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) by NAVAIRSYSCOM and the Naval Historical Center?

Bimonthly

Which ammunition color code identifies armor-defeating ammunition?

Black

Which color are the Mk 80 (series) inert GP bombs painted?

Blue

What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are?

Book

Which flag should be prominently displayed by all ships and craft engaged in ammunition and explosives loading and unloading operations?

Bravo

Which ammunition color code identifies rocket motors, JATOs, or low explosive items or components?

Brown

What is the ability to perform the assigned mission within allotted resources?

Budgetability

What is defined as the distance that the mass of hair protrudes from the scalp?

Bulk

What format should subordinates' accomplishments be in to make them stronger?

Bullet

What is a TD which directs a one-time inspection to determine if a given condition exists and specifies what action shall be taken if the condition is found?

Bulletin

What is an interim document comprised of instructions and information that directs a onetime inspection to determine whether a given condition exists?

Bulletin

How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority?

By direction

What words are used to show that the CO has authorized a person to sign the document?

By direction

Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that may occur in time?

C

To conform to safety and ammunition stowage requirements, mines are normally received aboard ship in what assembly configurations?

C or D

E-4 personnel approved for what program are authorized to exceed HYT dates?

STAR

What provides student scheduling into various courses, generates student reports, performs diagnostic testing and grading and maintains individual and unit statistical data?

STASS

What (NAVSEA 4734/8, NAVSEA 4734/9, and NAVSEA 4734/11) are the most commonly used labels in the Navy METCAL Program?

CALIBRATED

FRCs shall provide welding training, examinations, and qualification for welders per NAVAIR 01-1A-34 and as identified in the what?

CANTRAC

What cannot be used to negate the requirement for guards, roving patrols, or constant surveillance, unless used in conjunction with another access control or IDS technology?

CCTV

QARs and what else must be highly qualified personnel with the ability to ensure quality of maintenance within their technical areas?

CDIs

Who are personnel permanently assigned to a production or fleet readiness aviation maintenance personnel work center and have a collateral duty for inspecting work done by the work center?

CDIs

Usually, in a small OMD under a one work center concept, qualified personnel are designated as what to carry out the QA verification functions?

CDQARs

Who coordinates with OPNAV, COMNAVAIRSYSCOM, COMNAVSEASYSCOM, COMSPAWARSYSCOM, and other Navy support activities in the planning for, and acquisition of, equipment, weapons, weapon systems, material, supplies, facilities, maintenance, and support services for Marine Corps aviation?

CMC

What is used to request scheduling of end items of SE that are beyond the requesting IMA/FRC capability?

CNAF 4790/80

Who is responsible for the training of naval personnel and for directing the various commands and offices in providing resources required to implement the training program?

CNO

Who issues the U.S. Navy Uniform Regulations?

CNO

Who provides the basis for the NAMP and sets policy in the basic instruction for the assignment of maintenance responsibilities to all activities that maintain naval aircraft?

CNO

What is the final disposition authority for cancelling HYT waivers?

CNPC

What is the two-digit numeric-alphabetic code symbol preceding a National Stock Number (NSN), which identifies ammunition, supply item, its inventory manager, and the stores account in which carried?

COG

What activities shall establish local procedures for investigating, approving, and disapproving all request for modifications, additions, and deletions to/from existing tool containers using local forms?

COMFRC

What is designated as the focal point for fleet aviation maintenance performance improvement matters

COMNA V AIRSYSCOM

What is responsible for research, design, development, test, acquisition, and logistic support of all aviation procurements relating to Navy and Marine Corps aircraft, missile targets, associated material, and equipment?

COMNA V AIRSYSCOM

Approval of pre-final technical manuals for release for maintenance purposes shall be provided via an authorization letter signed by what?

COMNAVAIRFOR

Funding for ETS support is a responsibility of what?

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level?

CPO

What type of cash allowance is provided for replacing a minimum quantity of each required uniform that is paid over the estimated useful life of the articles?

CRA

Which submarine was a jinx to the Confederate Navy?

CSS Hunley

What controls technical publication activities within the command?

CTPL

What shall E-9 Active duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointed as that have completed 2 years TIR as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes?

CWO3

Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field?

CWOs

What is usually used on bolts as a sacrificial metal to protect the base metal?

Cadmium

What is a scheduled performance evaluation and correction requirement for certain specified items of SE?

Calibration

What standards embedded within ATE are maintained by two Atlantic area and two Pacific area D-level calibration sites?

Calibration

What is the process by which a TD is removed from the active files?

Cancellation

Which officer rank is identified by four 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

Captain (CPT)

Who defeated a British squadron on Lake Erie on September 10, 1813, and wrote his dispatch "We have met the enemy and they are ours."?

Captain Oliver Hazard Perry

Who was the U.S. Navy's first officer in charge of aviation?

Captain Washington Irving Chambers

Which section of the Mk 7 bomb dispenser is the main structure of the weapon and contains the bombs/bomblets?

Cargo

What can be used to quickly and safely attach a crane cable or other hoisting device to ammunition for movement from one area to another?

Carriers

What sealants are transformed from a fluid or semifluid state into a solid mass by chemical reaction of physical change rather than by evaporation of a solvent?

Catalyst-cured

Which Category of AA&E for overseas movement should be under U.S. security control to POD unless waived by the Defense Security Assistance Agency in coordination with the Director, Security Plans and Programs, Office of the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Policy?

Category 1

SE in what categories of preservation should be removed from the MRC inspection schedule?

Category B or Category C

Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission?

Category I

Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness?

Category II

Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness?

Category III

Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness?

Category IV

What refers to a procedure or practice that, if not correctly observed, could result in damage to or destruction of equipment?

Caution

What provides a central source of up-to-date information for the use of all personnel in the performance of their work, and it is an excellent source of reference information to facilitate personnel training and individual improvement?

Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL)

What is documented affirmation that all product characteristics affecting quality conform to applicable specifications and requirements?

Certification

What is a document containing instructions and information that directs the accomplishment and recording of a material change, a repositioning, a modification, or an alteration in the characteristics of the equipment to which it applies?

Change

What to a technical manual is the official release of new or correction pages to a part or portion of an existing document?

Change

When several changes are made at once in the same area of an illustration, what may be used to indicate the general area?

Change bar

Technical manuals are updated by two methods; What are they?

Changes and revisions

What format for inspections provides maintenance personnel with abbreviated requirements for turnaround and preoperational inspections?

Checklist

Which type of coatings increase a surface's resistance to corrosion and improve paint bonding on the surface?

Chemical conversion

Who establishes the requirement for enlisted personnel to wear civilian clothing in the performance of their official duties?

Chief of Naval Operations

Who is responsible for approving the fabrics used for Naval uniform manufacturing?

Chief of Naval Operations

Who must authorize the fabrics to be used for manufacturing Naval uniforms?

Chief of Naval Operations

Who must authorize Navy personnel assigned to Joint/Unified Commands to wear distinctive command identification badges?

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

Who convenes the Seaman to Admiral board to select eligible applicants?

Chief of Naval Personnel (CNP)

Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibit suicide- related ideations, communications or behaviors?

Chief, BUMED

Which war saw the most changes and advances made in ship design than during any period since the Navy originated in 1775?

Civil War

Historically, what were women's uniforms designed to duplicate?

Civilian fashion trends

Which Hazard C/D are ammunition and explosives that are considered mass-detonating hazards?

Class 1, Division 1

What Navy Training School provides basic knowledge/skills required for entry level performance?

Class A

Which type of schools provide the basic technical knowledge and skills required to prepare personnel for a Navy rating as well as further specialized training?

Class A

What Navy Training School provides advanced knowledge/skills required to fill a billet coded with an NEC/MOS and awards an NEC/MOS?

Class C

Which type of schools provide personnel with the advanced knowledge, skills, and techniques required to perform a particular job in a billet?

Class C

What Navy Training School provides professional CNO mandated or non-pipeline refresher training?

Class D

What Navy Training School provides individual functional skill training required by fleet or ACC/TYCOM?

Class F

Which type of schools provide team training to officer and enlisted fleet personnel who are normally ship company members?

Class F

What Navy Training School provides a segment course of an NEC/MOS producing pipeline?

Class G

What Navy Training School provides training upon initial enlistment or induction which provides general indoctrination and prepares the recruit for early adjustment to military life by providing skill and knowledge in basic military subjects?

Class R

Which type of schools provide general indoctrination and teach basic military skills and knowledge?

Class R

What Navy Training School provides team training to fleet personnel, officers and enlisted, enroute to duty as members of ship's company?

Class T

Which type of schools provide training in the skills that lead to the designation of naval aviator or naval flight officer?

Class V

What is the single repository for worldwide status of Navy expendable non-nuclear ordnance requirements, assets, production, expenditures, costs, and technical inventory management data, regardless of inventory management or ownership responsibilities?

Classified OIS-W

Which type of weapons dispense smaller weapons over a large area?

Cluster Bomb Units (CBUs)

What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called?

Collective Address Designators

Who may exceed 30 years service provided they meet certain requirements?

Command Master Chiefs (CMCs)

Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all military and civilian command personnel?

Command ORM manager

Which officer rank is identified by three 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

Commander (CDR)

Who made America's first suborbital flight on May 5, 1961?

Commander Alan B. Shepard, Jr.

Who is referred to as the "Father of the Steam Navy"?

Commander Matthew Calbraith Perry

Who ensures that specifications for all articles of uniform and insignia prescribed for naval personnel are prepared and maintained for approval of the Chief of Naval Operations?

Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command

Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies?

Commander, Navy Installations Command

Who is responsible for the command's QUAL/CERT program?

Commanding Officer

Who must authorize the transfer or exchange of an enlisted person's uniform?

Commanding Officer

Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process?

Communicate to others

What is the direct route from a place of residence to place of work by the means of a private vehicle including all travel aboard DOD- owned/controlled aircraft referred to as?

Commuting

What is defined as any system or instrument which uses the earth's magnetic field as its primary source of heading information, whether employed as a navigational aid, computer input for weapons delivery systems, or magnetic variation computations in inertial navigation?

Compass system

Intermediate- and depot-level manuals are based on what rather than system breakdown?

Component

What can introduce small amounts of free water in empty or partially filled fuel cells/tanks?

Condensation of moist air

Which type of fin is used for the non-retard mode of delivery?

Conical

What must the holding area be under in order to provide secure holding of CAT I and CAT II AA&E?

Constant Surveillance (CS)

There are two general types of fuzes used in guided missiles— proximity fuzes and which other type?

Contact

What alloys used in aircraft have a cadmium-plated finish to prevent surface straining and decay?

Copper

Which battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers?

Coral Sea

Which type of magazine is shaped like a beehive or dome?

Corbetta

What is the resolution of a problem or deficiency?

Corrective action

Content, location, size, along with what else are the four criterias that will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel?

Cosmetic

Four Criteria will be used to determine whether tattoos/body art/brands are permitted for Navy personnel: content, location, size and what else?

Cosmetic

What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division?

Counseling

What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation?

Counseling sheet

Concentration cell corrosion is controlled and prevented by avoiding the creation of what during repair work?

Crevices

What defects constitute hazardous or unsafe conditions, or as determined by experience and judgment could conceivably become so, thus making the aircraft unsafe for flight or endangering operating personnel?

Critical

What deficiency is a defect that judgment and experience indicate is likely to result in hazardous or unsafe conditions for individuals using or maintaining it?

Critical

All metals consist of many tiny building blocks called what?

Crystals

What is established to ensure the customer receives a product which satisfies their needs and requirements?

Customer Liaison Program

Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are unlikely to occur but that are not impossible?

D

What provide calibration and repair of the PME/TMDE and FCA standard workloads?

D-level laboratories

What provides a wide range of examination and certification programs, operates an independent study support system, and provides other support and developmental activities?

DANTES

Artisans assigned TAD to I-level activities shall receive NALCOMIS training from the activity's what?

DBA Supervisor

What form is used when a new item of SE is introduced into the Navy system and is originated by the manufacturer and is signed by the appropriate authorized government representative for inspection and acceptance?

DD 250

Which form is used to document the turn-in of ammunition and ammunition details?

DD Form 1348-1A

What provides a means of identifying a given product (e.g., requisition, referral action, status document, and follow-up cancellation) to OIS-W and further identify such data as to the intended purpose, usage, and operation desired?

DIC

Clerical instructions for preparation of the agreement to extend enlistment are contained in what reference?

DJMS PTG

What provides monitoring, analysis, and specialized knowledge to initiate preventive actions that are effected by engineering, production, and other departments?

DLQP

What are used to inform commands of which NECs are being distributed and how they are carried against the activity's manpower document?

DNECs

Which directive outlines uniform allowances policies and regulations?

DOD Directive 1338.5

Civilian NETS positions are designated as Emergency-Essential per what?

DOD Directive 1404.10

Which four character code is centrally assigned by the Defense Logistics Information Service (DLIS) to generically describe items of supply identified under the FLIS in Federal Supply Groups (FSGs) 13 (AE) and 14 (Guided Missiles)?

DODIC

Which Department of Defense (DOD) system uses satellite positioning and communications technology to monitor the in-transit movement of all DOD shipments of sensitive Ammunition and Explosives (AE) being transported in Continental United States (CONUS) by commercial motor carriers?

DTTS

Inspection of drains is a standard requirement, especially aboard ship how often?

Daily

What is one of the best tools for ensuring a smooth flow of information about maintenance between shifts and other supervisors?

Daily maintenance meeting

What gave the famous order "Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!" on August 5th, 1864?

David Farragut

Detonator-safe, shear-safe, along with what else make up the most important fuze safety features?

Delay arming

What is primarily a means of relieving you of details?

Delegating authority

Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task?

Deliberate

Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations?

Department head

Which manual is the authority for clothing allowance payments?

Department of Defense Military Pay and Allowances Entitlements Manual

Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?

Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, Training and Education) (CNO (N1))

What was the main German U-boats defense?

Destroyers

What are highly effective in attacking and dissolving grease and oil on metal surfaces of SE?

Detergents and solvents

What requests shall include rationale for request, condition of manuals, fleet impact, and planned delivery date of final technical manuals?

Deviation

What type of solution may be used to brighten embroidered insignia?

Diluted ammonia

Prior to implementation of the AI process in a production work center, who shall ensure an assessment of the product line or work posture, work center audit results, and certification is accomplished?

Director of Quality

DON shore activities should not store any ammunition and explosives that is in excess to their ammunition storage allowance or to their research, development, testing, or manufacturing needs, unless specifically directed to do so, in writing by the inventory control points or by the designated what?

Disposition Authority (DDA)

What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship's bills to the WQS bill?

Division notebook

Who are responsible for establishing and maintaining training programs for production personnel involved with QA functions?

Division officers

What should personnel traveling overseas consult for any particular uniform or civilian clothing requirements for their destination?

DoD Foreign Clearance Guide

DoD Directive 1338.5 along with what other instruction contain the uniform requirements that the initial clothing articles issued to enlisted personnel must meet?

DoD Instruction 1338.18

On an Installation or Contractor facility AA&E will be afforded what type of barrier protection?

Double barrier

What is the title of the message composer?

Drafter

Who wears white leather gauntlet gloves, baldric, and tall bear skin hat when in Full Dress Blue or Whites in the Navy Band?

Drum Major

What is the only approved blasting method of removing corrosion on assembled aircraft?

Dry honing

The most effective mechanical methods of removing corrosion with the least removal of the metal are vapor blasting, soft-grit blasting, and what else?

Dry vacuum blasting

What solvent should not be used in oxygen areas or around oxygen equipment?

Dry-cleaning

What sealants set and cure by evaporation of the solvent?

Drying

What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation—an action or task required by one's position?

Duty

HYT gates for OSVETs in pay grades what and below are computed based on total active Navy service only?

E-4

Ensure SE Phase I instructors are trained and capable in the proper techniques on instruction. Instructors shall be designated in writing, be what rank or above or civilian, and licensed on all SE for which designated to provide training?

E-5

The GTETS Qualifier shall be what rank or above with NEC 6422/MOS 6023, or a qualified artisan certified as an operator in the activity.

E-5

What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier?

E-5

What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for MSC IPP programs?

E-5

All personnel considered for selection as a QAR should be in what grade or above?

E-6

QUAL/CERT Program board members shall be in the grade of what or higher, or civilian equivalent?

E-6

The 2M Technician Recertifier shall be what rank or above with NEC 9503 for Navy recertifiers?

E-6

A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or frocking to what paygrade?

E-7

What should the minimum rank of the SPC be whenever it is possible?

E-7

Active service obligation beyond 30 years normally will be considered for personnel serving in what pay grade only?

E-9

The preferred method to submit BTRs is by what method?

E-mail

Which personnel must have their seabags inspected at regular intervals to ensure that they possess the required items?

E1-E3

Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in what paygrades?

E1-E9

Which personnel will not wear insignia on the sweater?

E6 and below

What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command?

EDVR

What apply to all aircraft and weapons systems, their subsystems, equipment, components, related SE, special tools, fluids, and materials used in operating the equipment?

EI's

Effects of the what on complex electronic systems remain one of the least understood mission threatening problems confronting naval aviation today?

EME

FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, along with what else are the preferred reports for significant, observed performance?

EVAL

What is it called when personnel are taught broad, general, or specific knowledge?

Education

Who is the point of contact for all Navy training and education programs?

Educational Services Officer (ESO)

What is a function of the outputs, tells us how well goals are achieved?

Effectiveness

PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members?

Eight

What coatings are used as a coating system to protect exterior laminated plastic parts of high-speed aircraft, missiles, and helicopter rotary blades from rain erosion in flight?

Elastomeric

The two most important factors in preventing corrosion, and the only factors that can be controlled by field personnel, are the removal of the what and the application of protective coatings?

Electrolyte

What is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills?

Emergency bills

What solvent cleaning is an effective cleaning method for removing heavy oil, grease, wax, and other contaminants of SE?

Emulsifiable

What is a brief form of a naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information?

Endorsement

What is the component of, or an item of ammunition which is inherently designed to produce the necessary energy required for ignition, propulsion, detonation, fire or smoke, thus enabling the item to function?

Energetic Material

What consist of information, instruction, and training provided to DOD personnel ashore and afloat in the installation, maintenance, repair, and operation of aircraft weapons systems and related SE?

Engineering and Technical Services (ETS)

Technical data for SE is issued in the form of technical manuals, TDs, and what else?

Engineering drawings

What manages extensions for active duty USN and Full Time Support Sailors?

Enlisted Active Programs (PERS-811)

What manages Fleet Reserve, retirement and High Year Tenure (HYT) matters for Active duty USN, and PERS-91 manages SELRES?

Enlisted Retirement Branch (PERS-823)

Who is the senior enlisted person who matches personnel within a particular rate or specialty with the available Navy wide billets?

Enlisted detailer

What is defined as training received prior to reporting to one's ultimate duty station/activity and is primarily funded by BUPERS?

Enroute training

Which officer rank is identified by one sleeve stripe that is 0.5"?

Ensign

Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space?

Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL)

Who successfully took off from and landed a biplane on a platform rigged aboard USS Pennsylvania (ACR 4) demonstrating the practical use of naval aircraft?

Eugene Ely

What is the most significant personnel management tool in the service record?

Evaluation Report and Counseling Record

Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill?

Executive Officer

What is a separation along the grain boundaries of metal and is caused by intergranular corrosion?

Exfoliation

What is made when an item is permanently removed from the Navy inventory?

Expenditure

What refers to any energetic material which is not enclosed in a munition?

Explosive Material

Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies?

Extra Military Instruction (EMI)

What provides AIM-9X flight control and connects to the aft end of the rocket motor?

FAU

NTMPS and what else are web-based applications that provide various tools in performing fundamental tasks in the administration of the Maintenance Manpower Program?

FLTMPS

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements to prevent damage to aircraft, engines, SE and other aeronautical equipment, and to provide uniform FOD reporting procedures?

FOD Prevention Program

Which model provides the Navy's Fleet Ordnance Support (FOS) workload and funding requirement projection?

FOS-M

Who shall maintain and operate facilities and perform a complete range of D-level rework operations on designated weapon systems, accessories, and equipment?

FRC

What is used by the Fleet to report the unclassified results of noncombat missile firings and unsuccessful combat missile firings for designated programs?

FRS

Each item in an ALSS falls under the cognizance of the what, the In-Service Support Activity located within an ISSC?

FST

What is a style called that is followed for a short period of time with exaggerated zeal?

Faddish

AE with similar characteristics are known as what?

Family Groups

The best method to protect extremely sensitive operations from all sources of electromagnetic radiation (not just lightning) is to enclose the operations or facility inside of a what?

Faraday cage

What is caused by the combined effect of corrosion and stress applied in cycles to a component?

Fatigue corrosion

What consists of threadlike filaments of corrosion known as underfilm?

Filiform corrosion

What provide stability to a GP bomb causing the bomb to fall in a smooth, definite curve to the target?

Fin assemblies

Fingernails shall not extend past what distance for males?

Fingertips

What must IDS's that transmit alarm signals over a shared network (such as a local area network (LAN), wide area network (WAN), public switched telephone network (PSTN), or the internet) have which will allow data transfers only between IDS components?

Firewall

Which two distinct cycles is the operation of the M61A1/2 gun divided into?

Firing and Clearing

Each engine FOD incident (including FOD due to natural causes, such as birds or ice) shall be investigated, and an Engine FOD Incident Report shall be submitted by the FOD Prevention Program Manager within how many working days of discovery for each reportable FOD?

Five

How many types of discharges from Naval Service are there?

Five

How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for?

Five

The ORM process revolves around a simple how many-step sequence?

Five

The POM includes projections of forces programmed for 8 fiscal years and manpower programmed for how many fiscal years?

Five

The individual WP has a how many-digit code number that appears in the upper right comer of the page?

Five

Which type of clothing provides increased protection from flash fire situations which have been prevalent with the threat of Improvised Explosive Devices and other safety hazards?

Flame-Resistant Organization Clothing/Gear (FROG)

What can paint be mechanically removed with?

Flap brush

Which message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?

Flash

What is defined as the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off an ignitable vapor within a test vessel?

Flash point

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with four 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

Fleet Admiral

Who wear two gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge?

Fleet/Force Master Chief Petty Officers

What is a mobile four-wheel or three-wheel unit that lets one person pick up, transport, and lift the load to different heights?

Forklift truck

What is the primary COMNAVAIRSYSCOM document for implementing a configuration change?

Formal Change TD

What is any training with an approved course curriculum?

Formal Training

How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process?

Four

How many common precedence categories are messages divided into?

Four

How many digits is the Department of Defense Identification Code (DODIC) that is assigned by the Defense Logistics Information Service Center (DLISC) or Naval Operational Logistics Support Center (NOLSC)?

Four

How many inches is the maximum length for Men's hair?

Four

How many slashes are used to indicate the beginning of an ATR and ending of an ATR?

Four

How many years of active duty service or reserve service in an active status in any of the armed services does it take for personnel to earn one service stripe?

Four

Permanent CDQARs may be assigned when the activity maintains how many or less aircraft and is organized according to guidelines set forth in the NAMP?

Four

The ADU-514A/E small missile adapter is used on a variety of weapon skids, transporters, and trailers for transporting up to how many for each of the following missiles: AIM-7 series, AIM-120 series AMRAAM, AIM-9 series, and AGM-114 series?

Four

The Hellfire missiles may be launched in day or night operation in three launch modes and in how many different firing modes?

Four

The female version of the blue overcoat has a single row of how many 40-line Navy eagle, gilt buttons on each forefront?

Four

There are how many types of Technical Directives (TDs)?

Four

When activities with how many or less aircraft assigned or small OMDs elect to organize a QA division, the QA officer and the QA supervisor will be permanently assigned?

Four

What became one of the first foreign powers to recognize the struggling government of the American Colonies?

France

What is caused by a slight vibration, friction, or slippage between two contacting surfaces that are under stress and heavily loaded?

Fretting corrosion

What Program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for implementing procedures to maintain a satisfactory level of aircraft and engine fuel systems purity?

Fuel Surveillance

Which uniform is miniature command insignia not worn with?

Full Dress

What are used to determine whether the airframe, power plant, accessories, and other items of equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards while subjected to the intended operating environment?

Functional Check Flight Checklist

What is the time required for a fuze to detonate after impact or a preset time known as?

Functioning time

Which type of codes have been developed to properly bill an activity for material received?

Fund

Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply?

Fundamentals (100 series)

Bomb detonation is controlled by the action of a what?

Fuze

Which type of device causes the detonation of an explosive charge at the proper time after certain conditions are met?

Fuze

What is an increase in the asset position based upon physical inventory of an ammunition item?

GBI

What Ammunition Replenisher replenishes 20mm ammunition into the Ammunition Loader GFK-21/E32K-7 while simultaneously downloading unfired rounds and spent cartridge cases?

GFK-20/E32K-7

Which type of magazine is a tunnel or cave?

Gallery

The bonding and grounding straps used on aircraft and electrical equipment are major sources of what corrosion?

Galvanic

When aluminum pieces are attached with steel bolts or screws, what corrosion can occur around the fasteners?

Galvanic

What Program establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for the training and licensing of jet engine test facility operators and qualifiers?

Gas Turbine Engine Test System Operator Training and Certification Program

Oxygen comes in what two states?

Gaseous and liquid

What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities?

General

Which type of discharge indicates satisfactory service by personnel but not to the standards established by the Navy?

General

What type of non-occupational training are all naval personnel required to take on a periodic basis?

General Military Training (GMT)

What are the two categories of authority?

General and Organizational

What are the two distinct types of authority?

General and Organizational

Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship?

General emergency bill

What series manuals cover standard aviation maintenance practices that apply to all aircraft rather than to a particular aircraft?

General engineering

After removal of exfoliation corrosion by abrasive wheel, VACU-Blast area with what to ensure removal of all corrosion?

Glass beads

The external surfaces of all Navy guided missiles, except radome and antenna surfaces, are painted white or which other color?

Gray

Which ammunition color code identifies ammunition that contains irritant or toxic agents when used as an overall body color except for underwater ordnance?

Gray

Which type of missile is a small, light, precision-guided, small yield weapon used for light fortified structures and soft targets which is designed as a highly accurate and reliable air-to-ground weapon with low maintenance requirements?

Griffin

Which section is the brain of the missile which directs its maneuvers and causes the maneuvers to be executed by the control section?

Guidance

Which type of supersonic, air-to-ground, rail-launched guided missile that has the capability of discriminating a single target from a number of emitters in the environment?

HARM

Which type of bomb-hoisting unit is a lightweight, portable unit designed to load various weapons/stores on naval aircraft?

HLU-196D/E

Which type of missile has a low-level cruise trajectory with over- the-horizon range that makes it less susceptible to radar detection?

Harpoon

What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death, or property damage?

Hazard

Which symbols represent the type of agent being stored or processed?

Hazard

What is the foundation of the entire risk management process?

Hazard identification

What System provides MSDSs containing health, safety, and environmental information about specific products?

Hazardous Material Information Resource System

Which type of missile is an anti-armor terminal homing weapon that uses a variety of warhead configurations, including shaped charge, blast fragmentation, and thermobaric, to defeat individual hard point targets with minimal exposure to enemy fire by the delivery platform?

Hellfire

What is a vital and effective force shaping tool to properly size and shape the active and Reserve Navy?

High Year Tenure (HYT) Program

Which mechanism provides a mechanical advantage when raising or lowering heavy loads, such as bombs, mines, and torpedoes?

Hoist

What are used for carrying, lifting, and handling weapons?

Hoisting bars

What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?

Human error

What causes hydraulic system and component failures and presents a serious threat to flight safety?

Hydraulic fluid contamination

What is a guided missile traveling at speeds above Mach 5.0 classified as?

Hypersonic

What must include a continuously manned alarm control center where alarms annunciate and from which a response force can be dispatched (local alarms (i.e., alarm bells located only at the protected location) are not acceptable)?

IDS

What is designed to ensure required SE is available in the activity, similar D-level work unit, or team?

IMRL Program

What contains a list of weapons systems component parts keyed to simple illustrations?

IPB

ACDU and FTS personnel who are separated due to HYT gates, and are advancement eligible at the time of separation, may be eligible for full what?

ISP

Who is responsible for processing HMRs, EIs, and HMR/EIs for assigned material?

ISSC

Who are authorized to prepare and issue bulletins, changes, interim changes, and RAMECs, except those which restrict flight operations?

ISSCs

What is training conducted by fleet activities to complement formal training and increase professional safety, technical knowledge and proficiency?

IST

What certification level is used to document a process by which the individual is learning how to perform the associated certification level?

IT

What is a standardized, documental, level progressive, technical skills training management and evaluation program for Marine Corps enlisted aviation MOSs?

ITSS/MATMEP

Which ORM steps does the "A" in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine?

Identify and Assess hazards

Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation?

Identify and Assess the hazards

Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees?

Immediate

What TD category is assigned when unsafe conditions exist which, if uncorrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property; and such conditions embody risks which are calculated to be unacceptable?

Immediate Action

What TDs are issued when an uncorrected, unsafe condition exists that could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property?

Immediate action

Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the "D" in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to?

Implement controls and Supervise

What is used to remove exhaust gas stains and to polish corroded aluminum surfaces?

Impregnated cotton wadding

Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task?

In-depth

What is the most frequently used mode for fin assembly delivery?

In-flight selection (pilot option)

What inspections are specific QA functions that are required during the performance of maintenance requirements and actions when satisfactory task performance cannot be determined after the task has been completed?

In-process

What is a certified task or operation found to be deficient within the certifying shop?

In-process

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for local repair capabilities of the IMA?

Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) Program

What is defined as Summer Whites without ribbons for both male and female medical personnel?

Indoor Duty White

Which type of ammunition and components contain no explosive material?

Inert

Which type of mechanisms are the only type of firing mechanisms currently used in aircraft mines?

Influence-actuated

What is the creativity applied to the transformation process?

Innovation

What is the examination (including testing) of supplies and services, including raw material, documents, data, components, and assemblies?

Inspection

What is the examination and testing of supplies and services that include raw materials, components, and intermediate assemblies, to determine whether they conform to specific requirements?

Inspection

What is a technical directive issued by message or message format letter that dictates urgent dissemination?

Interim change

The maintenance and testing responsibilities of M61A1/2 gun installations are distributed evenly between the organizational and which other maintenance level?

Intermediate

Which type of maintenance responsibilities are tasks associated with repair or replacement of unserviceable or damaged assemblies, components, or parts of the gun installation that do not require the special maintenance facilities of an overhaul depot?

Intermediate

What lists all calibratable PME/TMDE under a customer activity's cognizance. It provides part number, serial number, sub- custodian, calibration interval, and next due date?

Inventory Format 310

What should be used to remove salt residue and contaminants from internal avionics and electrical equipment?

Isopropyl alcohol

What is the transfer of an item, regardless of its serviceability condition, to another activity?

Issue

Which family of low-cost, air-to-ground weapons employ a GPS- aided inertial guidance system and a kinematically efficient airframe that satisfies the stand-off requirements for attacking interdiction targets from outside enemy point defenses during day, night, and adverse weather conditions?

JSOW

Tattoos/body art/brands/mutilation/dental ornamentation may be waived if they existed prior to what date and are not prejudicial to good order, discipline, and morale or are of a nature to bring discredit upon the naval service?

January 24th, 2003

What is probably the most important single aid in estimating time and personnel requirements for maintenance tasks?

Job plan

Who is the father of our highest naval traditions?

John Paul Jones

Former Navy pilot Neil Armstrong became the first man to set foot on the moon on what date?

July 20, 1969

Which type of magazine is earth-covered and arch-shaped with a prefabricated concrete construction?

Keyport

What series guided missile launcher is designed to carry and launch the AIM-9 SIDEWINDER and AIM-120 AMRAAM missiles?

LAU-127

Which type of guided missile launcher is a reusable launcher that provides a complete launching system for use with the AIM-9 Sidewinder and AGM-122 SIDEARM missiles?

LAU-7

Who piloted the NC-4 which became the first airplane to fly across the Atlantic?

LCDR Albert C. Read

Which commissioning programs provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree?

LDO and CWO

Which commissioning program selects senior enlisted personnel to become commissioned officers without requiring a degree?

LDOs

Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills?

LDOs

What consists of equipment used for packaging, bulk handling storage, or stowage and transportation of weapons and weapon components within the weapon logistics cycle?

LSE

What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active duty CWOs selected for LDO be appointed as?

LTJG (02E)

What is the time difference between the Julian date of the requisition and the required delivery date (RDD)?

Lead time

Which eval trait is not required unless abilities are clearly demonstrated for personnel in paygrades E-1 through E-3?

Leadership

What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation?

Letter of Instruction

What will MSC IPP Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree?

Lieutenant

Which officer rank is identified by two 1⁄2 inch stripes on their sleeve?

Lieutenant (LT)

Which officer rank is identified by two 1⁄2 inch stripes with one 1⁄4 inch stripe in between on their sleeve?

Lieutenant Commander (LCDR)

What officer rank wears a one 1⁄2 inch stripe with one 1/4 inch stripe above it?

Lieutenant Junior Grade (LTJG)

Who was the first Naval Aviator?

Lieutenant T. G. Ellyson

There are two distinct 1813 officer uniforms: one worn by the Commanding Officer and the other worn by whom?

Lieutenants

Which ammunition color code identifies screening or marking smoke ammunition?

Light Green

Which ammunition color code identifies incendiary ammunition or indicates the presence of highly flammable material for producing damage by fire?

Light Red

What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education?

Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer

What type of officer is identified by a five-pointed gold star placed on the sleeve with one ray pointing downward?

Line

What is a history file created and maintained by COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-6.3.5) to reduce active file volume and operating cost?

List No. 04H

What is the single repository for worldwide status of Marine Corps 0T Cognizant (OT COG) expendable non-nuclear ordnance requirements, assets, production, expenditures, costs, and technical inventory management data?

MAARS II

What is used to document all TD compliance?

MAF

What governs the explosives handling QUAL/CERT Program for the U.S. Marine Corps (USMC)?

MCO 8023.3A

Detailed information regarding ITSS/MATMEP procedures, policy, and responsibilities can be found in what?

MCO P4790.20

Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps?

MECP

The GAU-21 weapon system is capable of being mounted on what aircraft?

MH-60

What aircraft cleaning compound is the primary cleaning compound used on naval aircraft?

MIL-C-85570

To remove corrosion from clad surfaces, the corroded areas should be hand polished with what metal polish?

MIL-P-6888

Compass Correction Card AN5823 is the military standard listed in what?

MIL-STD 765A

Upon reenlistment, a new service record shall be prepared. Refer to what for guidance?

MILPERSMAN 1070-140

"Retention eligible member" is defined as a member that meets minimum eligibility criteria outlined per what?

MILPERSMAN 1160-030

Refer to what for early reenlistment authority when a member cannot meet service obligation by extension due to two or more extensions or 24 total aggregate extension months on a current enlistment?

MILPERSMAN 1160-030

Enlisted members may volunteer to be held beyond expiration of their enlistment or active duty obligation, or other period of OBLISERV. Refer to what?

MILPERSMAN 1160-040

SELRES E-3 through E-9 personnel may extend or reenlist for any period of time per MILPERSMAN 1160-030 or what else?

MILPERSMAN 1160-040

Members on Active Duty are precluded from serving beyond their high year tenure (HYT) date, as outlined in what?

MILPERSMAN 1160-120

Individuals who are discharged from the Navy Reserve for reasons of expiration of enlistment, fulfillment of service obligation, or convenience of the Government, and who are recommended for reenlistment, may be immediately reenlisted in the Navy Reserve provided they are physically and otherwise qualified, not to exceed quality control standards set forth in what?

MILPERSMAN 1160-130

What defines and discusses twilight tour eligibility?

MILPERSMAN 1300-600

Refer to what for information about OBLISERV in connection with a PCS transfer?

MILPERSMAN 1306-106

For non-5/6-year obligor members disenrolled, through no fault of their own, from single "A" or "C" service schools, or consecutive service schools, payback will be determined by using the OBLISERV for schools chart in what?

MILPERSMAN 1306-604

Regular members who are within 2 years of qualifying for transfer to the Fleet Reserve, and Reserve members who are entitled to be credited with at least 18 but not less than 20 years of service, may not be separated or denied reenlistment under the provisions of this instruction unless separated under any other provision of law and as set forth in what?

MILPERSMAN 1910

What should be used for ordering all material from the Navy Supply System, other military installations, the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and the General Services Administration (GSA)?

MILSTRIP

Before you attempt any task on an aircraft, consult the what for that particular model of aircraft?

MIM

What should be consulted for the specific procedures to be used when stripping any aircraft surface?

MIM

Which type of torpedo is the next generation lightweight, variable speed, antisubmarine torpedo that combines the MK 50 search and homing system with the propulsion system of the MK 46 torpedo for optimized performance in shallow water?

MK 54

After cleaning an aircraft, relubricate it as specified by the what?

MRCs

What is the ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of sound in the medium through which the object is moving?

Mach number

How is the speed capability of guided missiles expressed?

Mach numbers

What is the first number of the magazine designator symbol?

Magazine group number

What forms a strong anodic galvanic cell with every other metal and is ALWAYS the one attacked?

Magnesium

What manuals contain instructions for the effective use and support of weapons systems or equipment?

Maintenance

Which type of manuals contain a description of the weapons systems from the viewpoint of upkeep and repair?

Maintenance

What defines the scheduled preventive maintenance, PMIC, MRCs, TDs, and other service bulletins as well as the potential corrective repairs that are anticipated such as conditional and unscheduled maintenance?

Maintenance Baseline

What maintains and increases technical knowledge and proficiency?

Maintenance IST

What defects could result in failure or materially reduce usability of the unit for its intended purpose?

Major

What deficiency is a defect that is likely to result in the failure or reduced material utility of a unit or product?

Major

A command (Flag Officer) having the expressed and implied authority for enacting policy and procedural decisions over subordinate activities is known as what?

Major Claimant

What is served when QA monitors the complete maintenance effort of the department and furnishes the factual feedback of discrepancies and deficiencies?

Management

What is the application of colored spots, bands, or symbols on ammunition, ammunition components, or ammunition containers?

Marking

Who wears three gold stars above the eagle and one gold star in place of the specialty mark on their rating badge?

Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy

The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at "A" schools and "C" schools for hospital corpsman, religious program specialists and which other rate?

Master-at-arms

What shall assist the ICRL Program Manager in training QARs, work center supervisors, and ICRL petty officers on the compatibility of repairable/consumable COGs with SM&R and CC documentation?

Material Control

The purpose of the what is to systematically evaluate nonconforming material in order to achieve material recovery and savings?

Material Review Board (MRB)

Which type of missile is designed as a highly accurate, reliable, low maintenance air-to-ground hardened target weapon compatible with a variety of airborne platforms in the U.S. Navy and U.S. Marine Corps inventories?

Maverick

Which two general classes are fuzes normally divided into?

Mechanical and Electrical

Which medal, if awarded, allows personnel to wear their uniform at any time except under specific circumstances?

Medal of Honor

What library contains more than 1,200 modules of training that includes, but is not limited to, eleven T/M/S aircraft, Ordnance, I- level Avionics, and SE?

MediaTrax

Which type of officers are identified by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, surcharged with a silver embroidered acorn, placed on the sleeve, stem down?

Medical corps

What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head?

Memorandum

What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of the message as it was originally drafted?

Message readdressal

What can NAVPERSCOM (PERS-313) request when missing performance reports are urgently needed by selection boards?

Message summaries

Which type of pallets are bombs shipped on?

Metal

Which type of pallets must be used when live ammunition and explosives are involved?

Metal

What is the greatest threat to the soundness of metals and to the structural integrity of an a ircraft?

Metal corrosion

Metal corrosion is the decay of metals as they combine with oxygen to form what?

Metallic oxides

What is a cleaner for bare-metal surfaces and areas where MIL- S-8802 sealant is to be removed?

Methyl Ethyl Ketone (MEK)

What is used where a high flash point is required?

Methyl chloroform

Text for what medium emphasizes coordination between text and illustrations, line art instead of photographic art for illustration legibility, and a comprehensive index for many points of entry?

Microfilm

What shall athletic socks not extend past?

Mid-calf

What part of the ear will sideburns not extend past?

Middle

What are Naval Academy students designated as?

Midshipmen

Which battle was the turning point of the war in the Pacific?

Midway

What situation prohibits personnel from wearing conservative sunglasses?

Military formations

What manuals are prepared for specific requirements to support defined maintenance concepts and predetermined maintenance level coverage?

Military specification

What is the main element of the mine?

Mine case

What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic?

Minimize

What defects are not likely to materially reduce usability of the unit or product for its intended purpose, or depart from established standards?

Minor

What deficiency is a defect that is not likely to materially reduce the utility of a unit or product or is a departure from established standards having little bearing on the use or operation of a unit?

Minor

The Mk 31 Mod 0 or which other air stabilizers are used on torpedoes configured for helicopters?

Mk 31 Mod 1

Which lift beam is used with an overhead crane or hoist to lift the Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM) and the Harpoon air- launched missile?

Mk 37 Mod 1

Which torpedo is one of the primary weapons used in antisubmarine warfare (ASW)?

Mk 46 Mods

Which adapter hook converts a forklift truck tine assembly into a fork/boom assembly, for lifting and transporting various loads?

Mk 91 Mod 0

What, as it applies to QA, is an ongoing review of application of details, plans, policies, practices, procedures, products, directives, and records?

Monitor

Approach, the Naval Aviation Safety Review, is published how often by the U.S. Naval Aviation Safety Center and gives the most accurate information currently available on the subject of aviation accident prevention?

Monthly

Audit the unit users enrolled in JDRS on what basis, for example, identifying users who have transferred or no longer require access, and provide feedback via the Contact Us tool to update, delete, or change unit personnel profiles?

Monthly

How often must visible transmission lines be inspected?

Monthly

On what basis, a working-level forum shall be held by the area QA Specialist with the AIs to evaluate program performance, monitoring results and improvement opportunities?

Monthly

Within the National Capital Region (NCR) the NWU is authorized for wear at all locations with the exception of inside the pentagon building, national mall area bounded by capitol hill and surrounding senate and house offices, the white house and executive office building, state department and all what?

Monuments and memorials

Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)?

Multiple-address

What is defined as the intentional radical alteration of the body, head, face, or skin for the purpose of and or resulting in an abnormal appearance?

Mutilation

What is responsible for material support of the NAMP?

NA VICP

While policy control and direction of the Navy manpower requirements system is vested in CNO, support for these programs is provided by what?

NA VMAC

If Mark and Mod number designations identify an item, what command controls it?

NA VSEASYSCOM

Performance improvement objectives in the CNO Strategic Plan provide direction to all echelons. To effectively achieve these objectives, naval aviation established the what?

NAE

The quality assurance responsibilities assigned to the QA division include using information from the maintenance data reports (MDRs) and what reports to develop discrepancy trends, and to identify failure areas or other maintenance problems?

NALCOMIS

The MRB function does not apply to deficient material reported by what?

NAMDRP

Which method is used for reporting hazardous deficiencies in material, publications, substandard workmanship, and improper QA procedures?

NAMDRP

Billet descriptions are prepared for QA division personnel to ensure that all QA functions and responsibilities, covered in the what?

NAMP

The corrosion control program established by the what is an ALL HANDS participation concept?

NAMP

What shall be the Naval Aviation Fleet Performance Improvement ESC?

NAMP Policy Committee

All aeronautic publications, changes, technical directives, and forms issued by NAVAIRSYSCOM are cataloged in the what?

NAPI

What flight manual contains the complete operating instructions for a specific aircraft and its operational equipment?

NATOPS

All TDs are issued by NAVAIR or what else, except in cases where the time delay in obtaining approval is unacceptable?

NATSF

Which manual describes the NAVAIR Technical Manual Program and provides guidance on maintaining technical manuals?

NAVAIR 00-25-100

All TDs shall be prepared and processed by the ISSC or PMA per what requirements?

NAVAIR 00-25-300

What provides basic information for the safe and professional use of SE in the hazardous work environment of naval aviation?

NAVAIR 00-80T-96

Basic structural repair data, common to all aircraft, is released in what general engineering series manual?

NAVAIR 01-1A-1

Handle unprotected ESDS items only at ESD protected work areas that comply with requirements identified in MIL-HDBK-263B and what else?

NAVAIR 01-1A-23

Aircraft Confined Space Program and Entry Authority (EA) certification requirements are in what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-35

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM manages the Aircraft Confined Space Program per what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-35

What outlines requirements for the AVGFE program?

NAVAIR 01-1A-35

What in addition to T/M/S specific ABDR repair manuals provide in-depth information on ABDR policies, procedures, techniques, and materials?

NAVAIR 01-1A-39

Ensure bearings are protected from careless handling and contamination from abrasives, improper greases, solids, fluids, and salt water per what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-503

A standardized paint system for O- and I-level painting and paint touch-up is presented in what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

For specific information on solvents, you should check what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

Recovery and reclamation procedures are covered in detail in what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

When cleaning or performing corrosion control on aircraft and non-avionics aircraft components, you should use the materials listed in what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

When in-depth information is needed about structural corrosion, refer to what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

What addresses specific requirements for the cleaning, inspection, protection, maintenance, and depreservation of auxiliary power units, gas turbine engines, and reciprocating engines?

NAVAIR 15-01-500

For a complete list, description, and application of avionic cleaning materials. you should refer to what?

NAVAIR 16-l-540

Authorized SE cleaning materials and procedures are identified in what?

NAVAIR 17-1-125

Requirements for lead-acid and nickel-cadmium battery safety are in what?

NAVAIR 17-15BAD-1

What assigns responsibilities within COMNAVAIRSYSCOM?

NAVAIRINST 13070.1

Policy for the management of automation-type technical manuals is contained in what instruction?

NAVAIRINST 13630.1

D-level maintenance policy, procedures, and responsibilities for SE are in what instruction?

NAVAIRINST 13680.1

Initiate depot repair actions on IMRL assets per what instruction if repair is beyond FCA capability?

NAVAIRINST 13680.1

FRCs shall provide NDI training examination and qualification per what instruction and as identified in the CANTRAC?

NAVAIRINST 1500.2

What instruction establishes the TMINS for aeronautic publications?

NAVAIRINST 4160.1

What contains complete information on the RAMEC program?

NAVAIRINST 5215.10

The CNO and CMC (as appropriate) shall be advised of the cause and effect of the pending action using a Red Stripe memorandum per what instruction?

NAVAIRINST 5216.11

What determines when there is a requirement to change a manual and authorizes that the change be made?

NAVAIRTECHSERVFAC

What contains information on schools and courses offered through Navy training commands?

NAVEDTRA 10500

What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DOD) addressees?

NAVGRAMs

Component repair of engines included in the COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Nonavionic CSE QECA Program will be performed per what instruction?

NAVICPINST 4400.75

The physical standards for reenlistment are prescribed in Chapter 15 of what reference, which directs use of the periodic health assessment to determine suitability for continued service?

NAVMED P-117

Individuals shall not be allowed to handle AE until the requirements of what reference are met?

NAVMED P-117, Chapter 15, Article 15-107

Which instruction establishes burial uniform policy?

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1

What form is used to document the official history of a person's Naval career?

NAVPERS 1070/600

What form is used to document dependents and emergency data in the service record?

NAVPERS 1070/602W

Which service record form documents the Enlisted Qualifications History?

NAVPERS 1070/604

At reenlistment, and following compliance with the provisions of the UCMJ, each Service member will have "On (date), per UCMJ, article 137; member advised of the required provisions of the UCMJ." Entry made in the permanent service record on what?

NAVPERS 1070/613

To execute an extension, use what?

NAVPERS 1070/621

"Agreement to Extend Active Duty" refers to what official form of agreement?

NAVPERS 1070/622

Requests for ACDU and FTS HYT waivers shall normally be submitted using what?

NAVPERS 1306/7

What form shall Female Service Members submit to their Commanding Officer to express their desire to obtain permanent makeup?

NAVPERS 1336/3

FTS personnel may not reenlist in the Regular Navy; likewise Regular Navy into the FTS community, without approval from what?

NAVPERSCOM (PERS-91)

An integral enabler of meeting the single fleet driven metric is what?

NAVRIIP

Who is the ORM model manager?

NAVSAFECEN

Who serves as the Navy's ORM program subject matter expert (SME)?

NAVSAFECEN

What is the Chief of Naval Operation's (CNO's) approved full war allowance for shipfill, ship to shore rotational units, and shore stations?

NAVSEA (30000) Series and Fleet Allowances

What provides in-depth guidance on the Navy's explosives safety training program?

NAVSEA OP 5 Volume 1

What contains the general information needed for personnel to safely perform the duties required when shipping ordnance materials?

NAVSEA SW020-AG-SAF-010

Which command designs and designates all magazines or storage areas?

NAVSEASYSCOM

What are the military requirements for a paygrade?

NAVSTDs

What should be used to record all pertinent data for each NALC or NIIN carried?

NAVSUP Form 1296 (8-87) (yellow)

Supplying ammunition to the Fleet is accomplished by the preparation and submission of MILSTRIP documents such as requisitions, redistribution orders, and referral orders in accordance with what along with any tailoring required for ordnance material?

NAVSUP P-485 Vol. 1

Complete lists of applicable DICs are provided in what publication?

NAVSUP P-485 Volume II

ATR transactions are reported in accordance with the timeframes prescribed in Conventional Ordnance Inventory Accountability, OPNAVINST 8015.2 series and in accordance with the policies provided in what?

NAVSUP P-724

What provides guidelines to assist in the determination of the correct priority and lead time for ammunition requisitions?

NAVSUP P-724

What provides stock point receipt inspection procedures and criteria to identify ammunition physical condition and defect code (D/C) that supplement C/Cs by identifying specific reasons for C/C assignment?

NAVSUP P-805

What provides color photographic visual aids supplementing NAVSUP P-805 to assure consistency in the inspection and segregation process?

NAVSUP P-807

Stock points should follow guidance in what publication for Disposal/Demilitarize (DEMIL) of ammunition details?

NAVSUP-P 724

The service life or Serviceable in Service Time (SIST) of an AUR missile begins at a NAVWEPSTA or where else?

NAWMU

What is the total of all Navy—including Marine Corps aviation— non-nuclear ordnance items authorized for expenditure for training, testing, operations, and other peacetime uses?

NCEA

NETC is responsible for management and operation of NITRAS, per what?

NETCINST 1510.1

Which command publishes TRAMANs?

NETPDTC

What are the primary source of ETS for equipment operators and maintainers?

NETS

Lightning protection system down conductors shall meet the minimum requirements of what?

NFPA 780

What is an automated system designed to be responsive to demands for training information by NETC and other commands?

NITRAS

What should personnel consider using before using a Performance Information Memorandum in lieu of a Regular report?

NOB report

What provides fleet requisition processing, fleet interface, and coordination scheduling for ordnance movements through management offices located at NOLSCAMMOLANT, Norfolk, VA and NOLSC-AMMOPAC, San Diego, CA?

NOLSC-AMMO

What will assess the command's QUAL/CERT program for compliance and effectiveness during periodic ESIs and COSRs?

NOSSA

What shall be responsible for providing necessary planning, programming and budgeting for manpower and training resources to support fleet training requirements?

NPDC

All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course?

NSI

Which publication contains message precedence information?

NTP-3

What is the official statement of billets, personnel, and training input and resource requirements to support the introduction and operational use of aircraft, systems, subsystems, equipments, and other developments, including non-hardware related developments?

NTSP

Which uniform is not authorized for wear during commercial travel (e.g. airlines, railways, or bus, etc.) but is authorized on commuter transportation (e.g. Metrorail, metro bus, commuter bus, VRE, ferries)?

NWU

What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy?

Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS)

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for reporting substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and publications?

Naval Aviation Maintenance Discrepancy Reporting Program (NAMDRP)

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements to ensure SE/TMDE performance is compared to reference CALSTDs of known and sufficiently greater accuracy?

Naval Aviation Metrology and Calibration (METCAL) Program

Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy's individual training standards?

Naval Manpower Analysis Center

The safe storage of ammunition and explosives at DON shore activities, including tenant activities (Coast Guard, Federal Bureau of Investigation, etc.), regardless of ammunition and explosives ownership, is under the cognizance of what?

Naval Ordnance Safety and Security Activity (NOSSA)

Which 9-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment?

Naval Science Institute (NSI)

What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance?

Naval message

What are used to effectively defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages, and seaward coastal barriers?

Naval mines

Which uniform may not be worn when commuting to and from work?

Navy Blue Coveralls

What name is given to the in-service voluntary educational programs and the supporting services provided by the Navy to help you with your education?

Navy Campus

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?

Navy Oil Analysis Program (NOAP)

NETC manages the what to ensure adequacy of training, accuracy of curriculum, and effective use of instructional resources?

Navy Training Feedback System (NTFS)

What is charged by the CNO to continually review all Navy uniform matters?

Navy Uniform Board

Black, matching NWU Type I pattern, along with what else are the authorized backpack colors that may be worn with uniforms?

Navy blue

What is defined as material procured under contract from commercial or government sources or manufactured by an organic facility?

New material

How many hazard classes are contained in the UNO classification system?

Nine

What is the ingredient of medical concern in Otto Fuel II?

Nitrated ester

What aluminum alloys are the primary type of aluminum used on naval aircraft?

Nonclad

Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered spread oak leaf, placed on the sleeve, stem down?

Nurse corps

QA stamps are not required at what-level activities?

O

What prosign identifies Immediate message precedence?

O

What contains the minimum occupational requirements of a particular rate?

OCCSTDs

What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?

OCS

Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher?

OCS

What includes specially designed mechanical equipment used for assembling, disassembling, handling, transporting, lifting, positioning, rotating, or containing conventional weapons, ammunition, explosives and related components?

OHE

What is an integrated system of application software designed for retail ammunition asset management and reporting?

OIS-R/ROLMS

What consists of personnel performing maintenance tasks, by demonstration and simulation, under the supervision of designated, qualified personnel?

OJT

What type of training teaches personnel how to perform a duty or task by actually doing it?

OJT

What will ensure that personnel being trained achieve and maintain the level of expertise necessary to ensure an accident free explosives safety program?

OJT

Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance?

OPNAV

Nuclear-trained Sailors will submit HYT waiver requests to what?

OPNAV (N133)

The Parachute Record (what form) is designed to provide the current configuration and inspection record of a parachute assembly and its components?

OPNAV 4790/101

The Seat Survival Kit Record (what form) is designed to provide configuration and inspection information for an SSK and its components?

OPNAV 4790/137

The Aircrew Systems Record (what form) is designed to provide a continuous configuration and inspection record of ALSS components, kits, and assemblies?

OPNAV 4790/138

What form is used to request work or assistance, from an FRC overhaul point, that is beyond the activity capability?

OPNAV 4790/36A

What is used to schedule and record all corrosion maintenance actions?

OPNAV 4790/51

All routine technical publication deficiencies are reported on what form?

OPNAV 4790/66

What form ensures that changes and revisions to technical publications have been issued and incorporated in a timely manner?

OPNAV 5070/12

Document informal training, including OJT, using what?

OPNAV 8020/4

Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy?

OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (N097)

The Manual of Navy Total Force Manpower Policies and Procedures (what instruction) provides information, policies, taskings, and procedures for Navy manpower management?

OPNAVINST 1000.16

What provides information, policies, tasking, and procedures for Navy manpower management?

OPNAVINST 1000.16

Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?

OPNAVINST 1160.6A

What outlines the AMT Program and specifies CNO (N98) policy in aviation maintenance training at both the O-level and I- level?

OPNAVINST 1540.2

MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors?

OPNAVINST 3100.6

What contains the standards for organizing a ship/station/squadron's safety department and information on billet descriptions and responsibilities?

OPNAVINST 3120.32

Detailed ORM guidance is in what instruction?

OPNAVINST 3500.39

All EMI incidents shall be reported to higher authority via hazardous material report per this instruction and what other instruction?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Egress/explosive system devices involved in mishaps will be rendered safe and disposed of by Explosive Ordnance Disposal personnel only. This shall be done only after the mandatory investigation required by what instruction?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Per what instruction, the NAVSAFECEN may provide a representative to assist an AMB, and in certain special cases, conduct an independent safety investigation?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

QARs shall Review and investigate hazard reports, per what instruction, received from other activities which may apply to the unit?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

The purpose of what instruction is to preserve human and material resources?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

What contains instructions for maintenance personnel participation in command aviation safety programs?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

What contains the instructions for maintenance personnel participation in command aviation safety programs?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

COMNAVSEASYSCOM is the lead systems command for the Navy's METCAL Program. What instruction outlines the responsibilities of the lead systems command?

OPNAVINST 3960.16

According to what instruction, QARs should attend a Fleet Aviation Specialized Operational Training Group Detachment QA course?

OPNAVINST 4790.2

What requires SE shops to establish a maintenance schedule for each item of equipment?

OPNAVINST 4790.2

You should refer to what instruction for the format and content of the message and the procedures for filling out OPNAV 4790/66?

OPNAVINST 4790.2

Ensure work center supervisors maintain Uniform HAZWASTE Manifests and other required documents per what instruction?

OPNAVINST 5090.1

What contains safety precautions applicable to forces afloat?

OPNAVINST 5100.19

What contains safety precautions to be followed while aboard ship?

OPNAVINST 5100.19

Fall Protection is a critical safety requirement specified in what instruction for ashore activities?

OPNAVINST 5100.23

Which instruction provides policies and guidelines for administration of the NAVOSH program Navywide?

OPNAVINST 5100.23

Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information?

OPNAVINST 5510.1H

To determine reenlistment eligibility for members not in compliance with physical fitness assessment (PFA) refer to what instruction?

OPNAVINST 6110.1J

All naval activities are required to use either OIS-R or ROLMS to report to OIS-W in accordance with what instruction?

OPNAVINST 8015.2

What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories?

OPTAR Log

What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks?

ORM

What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits?

ORM

What is used to measure ORM implementation?

ORM evaluation

Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command?

ORM manager

What date did the Second Continental Congress create the United States Navy by authorizing the purchase of two vessels?

October 13, 1775

Enlistments are extended automatically in the case of members whose normal date of expiration of enlistment occurs while they are serving in what temporary capacity?

Officer appointment

Special FITREPs for superior performance or recommendations are specifically prohibited for what personnel?

Officers

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for monitoring aircraft equipment condition in an effort to detect impending failures without equipment removal or extensive disassembly?

Oil Consumption Program

Which preservatives must not be used around oxygen fittings or oxygen regulators since fire or explosion may result?

Oil-based

What nickname was earned by the USS Constitution when Captain Isaac Hull defeated the British frigate Guerriere with it on August 19, 1812?

Old Ironsides

How many communication devices may be worn at the same time on uniforms which can only be worn on the belt of the working and service uniforms aft of the elbow?

One

Maintain audit files for how long? These files shall include completed CSEC discrepancy sheets, corrective actions, QA follow- up annotations, and accompanying routing forms.

One year

Which manuals contain descriptions of weapons systems with instructions for their effective use?

Operational

Technical manuals are divided into two major types; What are they?

Operational and maintenance

Which type of uniform items are purchased at the wearer's expense which may be worn with the basic uniform but are not prescribable?

Optional

Which ammunition color code identifies ammunition used for tracking or recovery such as underwater mines and torpedoes?

Orange

What consists of a series of assessment displays that provide statistics regarding data integrity, readiness, and other stockpile profiles?

Ordnance Assessment Portfolio (OAP)

What is an integration of ordnance logistics systems used by the Navy and Marine Corps for ordnance asset management and accountability?

Ordnance Information System (OIS)

At which level are QA stamps to be used by QARs and CDQARs only?

Organizational

What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person's assigned billet within a particular command?

Organizational

Which type of maintenance includes servicing (loading and unloading), preflight, post flight, minor periodic maintenance, malfunction troubleshooting, and removal and installation of components on the aircraft?

Organizational

What is defined as any clothing loaned to an individual by a naval activity, for which there is a requirement above and beyond authorized Navy uniforms?

Organizational clothing

What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent?

Originator

Which type of propellant is used for the propulsion system of the Mk 46 Mods and Mk 54 Mods torpedo?

Otto Fuel II

Which skills and abilities can best be demonstrated (shown) by actual performance?

PARS

What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)?

PARs

Members being processed before a what shall not be released from active duty or discharged until the Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) has completed the final action on their cases and instructions received from NAVPERSCOM, Retirements Branch, (PERS-482)?

PEB

What contain high usage consumable material?

PEBs

The CO cannot cancel an extension that gained a significant benefit or has an approved Physical Fitness Assessment Separation Waiver without authority from what?

PERS-81

When COs do not have authority to cancel extensions of enlistment and early release warrants consideration (e.g., within force shaping initiatives), the member may consider requesting early release from what?

PERS-832

For specific aircraft, you should refer to what to locate corrosion- prone areas for that aircraft?

PMICs

What identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals?

PMICs

What formally ensures aeronautical equipment is maintained throughout its life cycle by controlling degradation resulting from time, operational cycles, use, or climatic exposure?

PMS

What is a written compilation of knowledge and skills, derived from a task analysis, required to maintain a specific equipment or system or qualify for a designated assignment?

PQS

What is in the format of specification guide and contains questions pertaining to a specific task?

PQS

What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record?

Page 13

What is the application of the final body coating to ammunition, ammunition components, or ammunition containers by authorized activities?

Painting

What is a wood or metal platform used to stack material for movement from one area to another?

Pallet

What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence?

Parallelism

When a TD is to be issued in parts, the first or basic issuance of the TD will always be what, even though it will not be identified as such in the TD number?

Part 1

Which element or part of the missile that does what a particular missile is launched to do?

Payload

A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what?

Performance Mark Average

What divide the total scheduled maintenance tasks into small packages of approximately the same work content, which are accomplished sequentially at specific intervals?

Phase MRCs

Which type of controls take the form of barriers to guard against a hazard?

Physical

Historically, uniforms have been the product of a sailor's environment: Which included what three factors?

Physical, geographical, and technical

The most common effect of corrosion on aluminum and magnesium alloys is called what?

Pitting

What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses?

Plain Language Address

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements to delineate the procedures and guidelines for the qualification, designation, recertification, and suspension/revocation of plane captains?

Plane Captain Qualification Program

Which type of sealants are called "one-part" sealants and are ready for use as packaged?

Pliable

Changes to illustrations, line drawings, and photographs are normally identified by a miniature what?

Pointing hand

What type of fabric is the optional gold long sleeve PTU shirt 100% made of with anti-microbial and moisture wicking materials and a crewneck collar?

Polyester

Which fabric makes up 100 percent of the dress white jumper?

Polyester

What is a condition where a foreign object is in a position to cause damage when a product or system is used?

Potential FOD

What are reciprocating engines, jet propulsion engines, jet propulsion/turboshaft engines, rocket-type jet engines and Auxiliary Power Units (APU)?

Power plants

High usage piece parts are available in the what?

Pre-Expended Bin (PEB)

What is considered preliminary technical manuals, interim manuals, interim maintenance support packages and redline manuals, to include technical publications, schematics, and drawings?

Pre-Final Technical Data

What inspection normally consists of oil filters, fuel filters, freedom of rotation, external visual, and in some cases, borescope inspections?

Pre-induction

What weapons have a means of guiding while in flight to an intended target?

Precision Guided Munitions (PGM)

What inspections shall be conducted on SE/AWSE prior to the first anticipated use each day and prior to each use as specified in applicable MRCs?

Preoperational

Which type of uniform items may be directed or authorized for wear with the basic uniform?

Prescribable

What are used after SE cleaning before ocean assignment when an extended period of SE storage is anticipated?

Preservatives

Spray guns are usually classed as either a suction-feed or what- feed type?

Pressure

What is a powerful tool that can control even the most difficult corrosion problem?

Preventive maintenance

What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages?

Priority

Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?

Priority

What govern requisition submission, material allocation, and depot/storage site processing?

Priority designators

What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual?

Privilege

What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called?

Probability

The person with the most direct concern for quality workmanship is the what?

Production supervisor

Which program provides undergraduate courses from accredited colleges or universities to shipboard personnel?

Program for Afloat College Education (PACE)

What are items used to expend a projectile out and away from a tube firing device?

Propelling charges

What is a preliminary listing of an initial shipfill allowance of service ordnance prepared and forwarded to the ship and the TYCOM by NOLSC-AMMO for validation of compatibility with armament systems and stowage capability?

Provisional Allowance List

Which action causes a fuze to detonate before impact when any substantial object is detected at a predetermined distance from the fuze?

Proximity (VT)

What is the process of removing air, water, solid particles, and chlorinated solvents from hydraulic fluids?

Purification

All signaling and marking devices not included in expendable counter-measures and paraflare families are known as what?

Pyrotechnics

A complete NAPI should be maintained by what division in its technical library?

QA

A member certified at what level must have detailed knowledge to manage applicable AE to include those personnel designated to determine AE material condition and be able to determine that the necessary work task procedures have been completed using applicable directives?

QA

What division determines deficiencies, analyzes discrepancy trends, prescribes inspection procedures, and determines the quality of maintenance accomplished?

QA

What division has overall management responsibility for the technical library?

QA

What division is assigned the overall responsibility for the maintenance department safety?

QA

What provides a systematic and efficient method for gathering, analyzing, and maintaining information on the quality characteristics of products, the source and nature of defects, and their immediate impact on the current operation?

QA

What shall establish minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI?

QA

What establishes policy, responsibilities, and requirements for evaluating performance throughout the Maintenance Department?

QA Audit Program

What are provided for certain maintenance tasks that, if improperly performed, could cause equipment failure or jeopardize the safety of personnel?

QA MRCs

Who shall designate, in writing via the MMP, a QAR (normally, a Power Plants QAR) as the Fuel Surveillance Program Monitor?

QA Officer

Who perform, administer, monitor, and review processes and practices to ensure the quality of maintenance performed for the DOD?

QA specialists

What are required in an intermediate maintenance activity/aircraft intermediate maintenance department (IMA/AIMD), but are optional at organizational-level maintenance?

QA stamps

The personnel assigned QA duties in O-level and I-level activities are known as CDIs, CDQARs, and what?

QARs

What are the maintenance personnel assigned to the QA division known as?

QARs

Who are the nucleus of the QA division?

QARs

What report provides maintenance activities with a method for reporting deficiencies in new or newly reworked material?

QDR

What Program is in-service training for aviation units designed to encompass and standardize technical training and quantify maintenance proficiency levels across all aviation platforms?

QPT

What QPT Certification level is generally for E-4 and below personnel, this syllabi includes general and rating specific items addressing flight-line and work place safety, basic aircraft servicing and inspection, SE licensing, basic maintenance documentation/NALCOMIS, minimal rating knowledge (typically limited to the identification and removal of components), the identification, use and handling of hazardous material, and any additional qualifications deemed appropriate for QPA certification?

Qualified and Proficient Apprentice (QPA)

What QPT Certification level is generally for E-5 and E-6 personnel, this syllabi includes incomplete QPA items for personnel new to the T/M/S, more in-depth technical data specific to the T/M/S aircraft (T/M/S specific PQS), advanced maintenance documentation/NALCOMIS, shop and shift workload management, and any additional qualifications deemed appropriate for QPJ certification?

Qualified and Proficient Journeyman (QPJ)

What QPT Certification level is generally for E-7 and E-8 personnel, this syllabi includes items appropriate for the efficient and safe management of aircraft maintenance/production and the administration of personnel?

Qualified and Proficient Master (QPM)

What is the degree of satisfaction in a product or service as determined by the customer?

Quality

What is a planned and systematic pattern of actions necessary to provide confidence that the product will perform satisfactorily in service?

Quality Assurance

What are independent reviews conducted to compare some aspect of performance with set quality standards for that performance?

Quality audits

What is a function of morale and other factors which affect personnel pride and motivation?

Quality of Work Life

A list of over-manned ratings by zone is updated how often?

Quarterly

Ensure ICRL reviews are completed by the due date assigned by the ICRL Program Manager at what intervals?

Quarterly

How often at a minimum must activity personnel test IDS systems after installation?

Quarterly

OPTAR is an estimate of the amount of money required by a unit to perform its mission and is distributed how often?

Quarterly

QA conducts work center audits how often to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center?

Quarterly

The central library audits dispersed libraries at least how often to ensure that their publications are current and in good material condition?

Quarterly

What war was the origin of the famous expression "Millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute"?

Quasi War

What is used to expedite the dissemination of urgent operation and maintenance change information?

RAC

The concept of what program is fleet self-help?

RAMEC

What is a message TD, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces?

RAMEC

To preclude unwarranted ISP recoupment action by Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS), commands separating Sailors in pay grades E-5 and below for HYT, who are otherwise fully retainable, shall enter a reentry code of what in Block 27 of member's DD-214 Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty?

RE-6

What is an address that either indicates the intended recipient of the document or indicates the actual consignor (shipper) on supply type release/receipt documents?

RIC

There are three types of atmospheric jet propulsion systems—the turbojet, pulsejet, and what else?

Ramjet engines

Changes are issued as either routine or what else?

Rapid Action Changes (RACs)

What officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with one 1⁄2 inch stripe above it on their sleeve?

Rear admiral

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe on their sleeve?

Rear admiral lower half

What lists all equipment scheduled into a laboratory, by due date; that is overdue for calibration, due calibration in the present month and the upcoming 2 months?

Recall Format 805

What TD category is assigned to Formal Change TDs issued to document configuration changes that have been incorporated in all affected equipment by the change designer/originator before the TD is issued?

Record Purpose

What is used to confirm a modification that has been completely incorporated by the contractor or in-house activity in all accepted equipment (before issuance of the TD)?

Record Purpose

What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message?

Reference lines

What is the only type of report that provides continuity?

Regular

Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM?

Releaser

What is generally defined as the probability that an item will successfully perform its designated function for a specified period of time under specified operational conditions?

Reliability

What is defined as articles of clothing worn as part of the doctrinal or traditional observance of the religious faith practiced by the member?

Religious apparel

Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy's suicide prevention program?

Reporting

What is a certified task or operation found to be deficient and not classified as in-process?

Reprocess

What is the process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated?

Rescission

How may a Performance Information Memorandum that only contains administrative or academic information be signed?

"By direction"

"It is" along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else?

"There are"

Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees?

$10,000

What is the act of permitting a motor carrier engaged in the transport of DoD AA&E and related hazardous material or other sensitive items to park an impacted motor vehicle in a designated parking area on a DoD activity in response to emergency conditions?

Safe Haven

What in seawater and in the air are the largest single cause of aircraft corrosion?

Salt

What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment?

Satisfactory medium

Which type of maintenance can be defined as maintenance that is required by hours, calendar periods (days or weeks), and starts?

Scheduled

Which type of vessel was characterized as a small, fast, flexible, flush-deck ship that carried smooth-bore cannons?

Schooner

What are brush- or spatula-applied compounds for SE corrosion prevention?

Sealants

What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the U.S. Marine Corps Reserve?

Second Lieutenants

Which location within an activity's restricted area is used for the temporary parking of commercially-owned motor vehicles with lading consisting of Government-owned AA&E materials?

Secure holding area

What must accompany off-station CAT I and CAT II movements under all FPCON conditions?

Security Escort Vehicle (SEV)

What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)?

Self-harm

In which type of homing system does the missile gets its target illumination from an external source, such as a transmitter carried in the launching aircraft?

Semi-active

Which type of missile is the AIM-7M/P missile?

Semi-active

How often should keys and locks be inventoried?

Semi-annually

The NAMP Policy Committee shall meet how often to review and resolve issues involving naval aviation performance improvement matters, revise or add long range goals and objectives, and provide direction for implementation?

Semiannually

What aid the planning and accomplishment of scheduled maintenance and unscheduled maintenance tasks during inspections?

Sequence Control Cards (SCCs)

What is ammunition intended for operational use classified as?

Service

Which type of missiles are fully operational and fully explosive loaded rounds, designed for service use in combat?

Service

Which uniform may be worn during any season when traveling on leave, TAD or transfer?

Service Dress Blues

What are the two categories that ratings are divided into?

Service and General

What along with other publications, such as maintenance digests, prepared by weapons systems and equipment manufacturers are neither authorized nor approved for distribution to naval personnel?

Service bulletins

Which type of uniform does not permit the wear of communication devices?

Service dress

Before performance improvement efforts can be successfully managed, all performance elements must be defined, how many elements are there?

Seven

The Aero 39C bomb skid adapter has an SWL of how many nitrogen bottles?

Seven

What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task?

Severity

What are used for diagrams and schematics to highlight the areas containing the changed information?

Shading and screening

The exposure of an aircraft to corrosion damage is greatest when the aircraft is dirty, inactive, or being what?

Shipped

Which ships were the largest of all the sailing warships carrying 64 to over 100 guns of various sizes during the revolutionary war and into the 19th century?

Ships-of-the-line

Which type of guided missiles are supersonic, air-to-air weapons with weapons with passive infrared target detection, proportional navigation guidance, and torque-balance control systems?

Sidewinder

Coveralls shall be embroidered in gold for officers and CPOs and what color for E6 and below?

Silver

What color are the ball earrings worn by E6 and below personnel?

Silver

Which ammunition color code identifies countermeasure ammunition?

Silver/Aluminum

What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information?

Single-address

How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of?

Six

How many programs are there for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher that lead to U.S. Naval Reserve commissions?

Six

Reserve officers, on active duty for periods less than how many months, need not have a sword, sword accessories, or Dinner Dress Jackets?

Six

The NAPI consists of how many sections which make it easier to locate and order specific publications and changes?

Six

The remaining how many characters of the PI are called the technical manual (TM) identifier?

Six

Up to how many months from the date of delivery based on medical officer diagnosis/recommendation may the Commanding Officer approve the wear of maternity uniforms?

Six

NAMP allocations are based upon competing requirements for the resources available in the what during the development of the POM?

Six Year Defense Plan

How many days prior to deployment, review METCAL requirements and annotate shortages and due dates of assets held by squadron or detachment?

Sixty days

What are lifting devices used to handle weapons?

Slings

Ships-of-the-line, Frigates, along with what else were the three major classes of vessels during the Revolutionary war and into the 19th century?

Sloops-of-War

What should be used when testing for leaks in a gas container?

Soapy water

What is a neutralizing agent for sulfuric acid battery electrolyte deposits?

Sodium bicarbonate

What neutralizes electrolyte spills from nickel-cadmium batteries?

Sodium phosphate

What are the two basic nose plugs used in GP bombs?

Solid and Ogive

Which type of rocket motor does the majority of air-launched guided missiles used by the Navy use?

Solid propellant

What are liquids that dissolve other substances?

Solvents

What audits provide a systematic, coordinated method of investigating known deficiencies, evaluating the quality of workmanship, and determining the adequacy of and adherence to technical publications and instructions?

Special

What type of reports are now considered to be regular reports for both officers and enlisted?

Special

What provide a systematic, coordinated method of investigating suspected or known deficiencies in specific maintenance work centers, programs, or personnel?

Special audits

What are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are optional for E1-E6 submitted as?

Special reports

What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports?

Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs)

PMS publications consist of checklists, MRCs, PMICs, SCCs, SPCs, and what specifications?

Standard rework

What are metal frameworks that are used to support a weapon that is being assembled or maintained?

Stands

What term means that a practice bomb is much smaller in size and weight than the service bomb it simulates?

Subcaliber

What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 0.8 classified as?

Subsonic

Which type of spray gun is designed for small jobs?

Suction-feed

What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of the intent to die?

Suicide

What is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors?

Suicide Plan

What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

Suicide Threat

What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non- fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die?

Suicide attempt

What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as?

Suicide-Related Ideations

What is the process by which interim changes are removed from active files after a formal TD has been issued?

Supersedure

What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 1.2 to Mach 5.0 classified as?

Supersonic

The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step?

Supervise

What can be defined as the act of guiding, directing, overseeing, evaluating, and controlling the activities of others in the accomplishment of an objective?

Supervision

Who is responsible for and directs the work of others?

Supervisor

Which type of officers are designated by a gold embroidered sprig of three oak leaves and three acorns, placed on the sleeve with the longer dimension parallel to the upper stripe, stem to the front (right and left)?

Supply corps

What includes all equipment used to make an aeronautical system or end item operational in its intended environment?

Support Equipment (SE)

What is any activity having the responsibility for shipping/receiving EI related material?

Support activity

Which type of maintenance includes regular cleaning of the aircraft as well as touch-up of protective paint coatings?

Surface

The purpose of a what is to provide a record for the administrative review of the condition of accountable SE, the cause of the condition, responsibility, and a recommendation for disposition?

Survey

Which PQS section deals with the major working parts of the installation, organization, or equipment that the PQS is concerned with?

Systems

Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems?

Systems (200 Series)

Which inventory control system supports traditional inventory management functions, as well as functions unique to Tomahawk Cruise Missiles (2D cognizance material), required for the worldwide management and control of TOMAHAWK All-Up-Round (AUR) missiles?

TAIMS

What is defined as a tool inventory or container layout diagram that is changed and is determined to have fleet-wide applications?

TCM change

What directives contain information that includes material requirements, tool inventories, and detailed instructions for the implementation and operation of the TCP for a specific type/model aircraft?

TCMs/local tool

What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level?

TCRM

What is the only authorized medium for directing the modification or the accomplishment of one-time inspections of naval aircraft and is associated per NAVAIRINST 5215.12?

TD Compliance Program

What is an important element designed to maintain equipment in a configuration that provides the optimum conditions of safety, operational, and material readiness?

TD system

What are electronic detecting devices similar to the detecting systems in VT fuzes that detect the presence of a target and determine the moment of firing?

TDDs

What system provides on-line configuration status accounting for naval aircraft, engines, SE, maintenance trainers, and serial numbered weapon system components?

TDSA

What is a receipt of ammunition by an ammunition support activity (ashore), from a Fleet unit (normally a ship), for temporary storage and return to the same unit?

TEMPSTOW

What includes incidents generally categorized in other areas, such as a foreign object damaged engine, which sheds parts, or a helicopter rotor blade pocket failure?

TFOA

A member who has sufficient knowledge and has demonstrated the proficiency to direct others in performing the work task safely and reliably is certified at what level?

TL

A member is aware of basic safety precautions for the task and AE concerned, has received either formal or informal training and/or OJT, and has been recommended by immediate supervisor at what certification level?

TM

Training at what level is not authorized using live ordnance?

TM/IT

What central repository is the authoritative source for CTPLs to validate the most current copies of technical manuals and associated records maintained in individual command ELMS accounts?

TMAPS

What numbering system is part of the effort to standardize technical manual numbers for all ships, aircraft, and equipment?

TMINS

AIRSpeed provides a set of tools to achieve cost-wise readiness using best business practices, such as Lean, Six-Sigma, and what?

TOC

What is used to improve the quality and accuracy of technical manuals?

TPDR

What serves as a centralized source of up-to-date information for all mechanics and technicians, and gives all personnel an excellent source of reference material to help with personal training and individual improvement?

TPL

Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems?

TPO

What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information?

TRACS

What is an on-line tool that supports life-cycle management related to the upkeep and revision of training procedures, training applications, software, and hardware for IMI items?

TTCMS

Who must authorize tan flight suits to be worn in CONUS in hot weather environments?

TYCOM

What provides information to the pilot and crew on how to "fight" the aircraft?

Tactical manual

What must be achieved before benefits can be obtained from QA?

Teamwork

What provide a simplified procedure for reporting safety hazards and routine deficiencies found in COMNAVAIRSYSCOM technical publications?

Technical Publications Deficiency Reports (TPDRs)

If you are to maintain complex weapons systems, you must be able to get the required information from what?

Technical manuals

Ensure corrective action and QA follow-up on discrepant areas are performed within a reasonable time frame (normally how many working days) and that the corrective action is adequate?

Ten

Review MEASURE Inventory Formats 310 and 311 monthly upon receipt and submit required corrections to the cognizant MOCC within how many working days?

Ten

Who (O-level, I-level, and FRC activities), with the assistance from the Tool Control Representative, shall etch tools contained with a container number identical to the container number assigned?

The TCP Coordinator

Ammunition and explosives are assigned to a storage compatibility group (SCG) when they can be stored together without significantly increasing either the probability of an accident—or for a given quantity—the magnitude of the effects from such an accident. How many groups have been established?

Thirteen

How many days prior to deployment, review METCAL requirements with Type Wing and supporting FCA Program Manager?

Thirty days

Accountable SE can be classified into one of how many major categories?

Three

Ensure aircraft on extended cross country flights have the last how many oil sample results annotated on reverse side of Oil Analysis Request (DD 2026) in case of potential sampling requirements at a transient station oil laboratory

Three

How many basic actions are there which ultimately lead to making informed risk decisions?

Three

How many cockpit selectable fuzing options for controlled lethality and minimizing collateral damage does the Griffin missile have?

Three

How many components make up STA-21?

Three

How many different levels of preservation are used on naval aircraft?

Three

How many different sizes does the ammunition pallet crate come in?

Three

How many modes of delivery are available for the fin assembly?

Three

How many of the top boot eyelets should be covered by the blouse from the NWU trouser legs?

Three

How many recoverable exercise torpedo (REXTORP) configurations can the Mk 46 Mods torpedo be assembled into?

Three

On the Dinner Dress Blue Jacket, how many 35-line, Navy eagle, buttons are there down each side of the front, with a front closure held in by buttons placed inside each front facing secured with an elastic closure (older style)?

Three

The IPB is divided into how many sections?

Three

The NAVAIR manual publication number is divided into how many parts, separated by a dash?

Three

The ORM process exists on how many levels?

Three

The magazine designator is a how many-group symbol, composed of numbers and letters?

Three

The usability of a manual has how many primary elements?

Three

Those activities with less than how many gas free engineering (GFE) requirements in a 6-month period may request the services of the supporting I-level AVGFE technician?

Three

When authorized, coverall sleeves will be rolled with the inside out, forming a roll approximately how many inches wide, and terminating at a point approximately 2 inches above the elbow?

Three

What concept provides classification and optimum assignment of SE maintenance functions consistent with an organiza-tion's capability to perform these functions?

Three-level maintenance

While in uniform, only one ring per hand is authorized, plus a wedding/engagement ring set. Rings are not authorized to be worn on what fingers?

Thumbs

Which type of headgear may be left on indoors?

Tiaras

In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on?

Time critical

What is often used in engine exhaust areas?

Titanium

What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing?

Titles

What establishes policy and responsibilities for implementing, maintaining, controlling, storing, replacing, and inventorying common hand tools?

Tool Control Program (TCP)

Who is responsible for shift change and semiannual inventories of tools assigned to the tool room?

Tool Room Supervisor

What is it called when personnel are taught skills that are directed toward specific tasks?

Training

For reporting purposes, what is any change in the reported asset posture of an ammunition item?

Transaction

What is the movement of assets from a Navy activity to an activity outside the Navy accounting system such as the Army, Air Force, Coast Guard, or a foreign government?

Transfer

What is a guided missile traveling at speeds up to Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 classified as?

Transonic

What is a nonflammable degreasing agent for cleaning oxygen systems equipment?

Trichloroethane

What is a general cleaner for avionic and electrical systems?

Trichlorotrifluoroethane

How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course?

Triennially

Who act as technical advisors to plane captains to ensure timely completion of turnaround and daily inspections and to determine the extent and depth of flight line discrepancies?

Troubleshooters

What was the name of the first warfare submarine?

Turtle

ACDU and FTS E-9 personnel receiving an HYT waiver will forfeit what eligibility?

Twilight tour

A maximum of how many extension agreements per enlistment contract are authorized?

Two

A report is considered "declining" when the promotion recommendation is reduced (other than due to summary group size change) or because of a reduction in at least how many trait grades in the same paygrade by the same reporting senior?

Two

All LOX/gaseous oxygen operations shall be performed by how many or more qualified persons, except for removal and replacement of aircraft LOX converters?

Two

All naval aircraft carry at least how many compass systems on board?

Two

Ammunition storage ashore applies to the storage of explosives, ammunition, and ammunition components in how many different types of environments and operational conditions?

Two

Approximately how many inches will the bulk of mens hair not exceed?

Two

Flight suits shall be clean and well kept. Sleeves will be worn full length with hook and pile (Velcro) sleeve cuffs closed or with a maximum of how many outward rolls when not engaged in flight operations?

Two

How many consecutive "good-low" final PRT scores prior to entry into the OCS program must applicants have?

Two

How many different types are guided missiles divided into?

Two

How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity or command for self-assessment?

Two

How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose?

Two

How many groups of technical manuals exist for the control and performance of engine repair?

Two

How many inches from the end of the sleeve is the lower end of the first service stripe?

Two

How many independent means of alarm signal transmission to the monitoring location must be provided if line supervision is unavailable?

Two

How many numbering systems are presently in use by NAVAIR?

Two

How many or more magazine or storage areas should be provided for each advanced base?

Two

Sleeve insignia stripes encircle the sleeve with the lower edge of the first stripe how many inches from the edge of the sleeve?

Two

Support System Mk 13 Mod 0 is used in sets of how many to store CCLS or CLS TOMAHAWK missiles during shore based magazine stowage?

Two

The Newer style Dinner Dress Blue jacket is without buttons placed inside each front facing and is secured with how many 28-line Navy eagle gilt buttons with a link chain closure?

Two

The POM is developed by fiscal year and is concentrated how many fiscal years in advance?

Two

The TOW Missile Launcher (TML) supports how many BGM- 71A (TOW) missiles and provides electrical interface with the TOW Missile System (TMS)?

Two

The standard TMINS number is made up of how many distinct parts?

Two

What is the maximum number of small barrettes, combs, or clips that are similar to the members hair color that may be used in womens hair?

Two

When authorized, NWU sleeves will be rolled (cuff right-side out) forming a 3 inch wide band covered by the cuff of the shirt (the outside digital camouflage pattern of the NWU will show). Approximately how many inches above the elbow will the termination point of the roll be?

Two

A command (Flag Officer) having the expressed and implied authority for enacting policy and procedural decisions over subordinate activities is known as what?

Type Command (TYCOM)

Only a D-level QA Specialist shall accomplish what verifications?

Type I

Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what?

UCMJ

Which classification system is used by the DoD for dangerous materials to identify the hazardous characteristics of ammunition and explosives?

UNO

Which publication should Navy personnel in a duty, leave, or liberty status consult when traveling on commercial international flights to determine what appropriate uniform or civilian clothing is required?

USAF Foreign Clearance Guide

What was the first U.S. Navy flagship that is said to be the first U.S. naval vessel where the "Flag of Freedom" was hoisted by John Paul Jones?

USS Alfred

What was the Navy's first deep diving vehicle?

USS Alvin

Only personnel permanently assigned to what ship may wear Navy-issued 1813 pattern uniforms?

USS Constitution

What was the first Navy warship to use steam?

USS Demologos

What was the first nuclear-powered carrier in the world?

USS Enterprise (CVN 65)

The USS Nicholson along with what other destroyer were the first U.S. ships to sink an enemy submarine on November 17, 1917?

USS Fanning

What was the name of the first operational submarine in the Navy?

USS Holland

The USS Texas along with which other vessel were the first two commissioned battleships?

USS Maine

What was the first nuclear submarine put to sea on January 17, 1955?

USS Nautilus

What was the first battleship to use oil?

USS Nevada (BB 36)

Which vessel has been labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. Fleet?

USS Newark

What was the first Trident submarine which was a nuclear powered fleet ballistic missile submarine?

USS Ohio (SSBN-726)

The USS Skipjack (SS 24) along with what else were the first vessels to have diesel engines installed?

USS Sturgeon (SS 25)

What TD category is assigned when factors of combat necessity, potential hazardous conditions which could result in personal injury or damage to valuable property, or unacceptable reductions in operational readiness exist; and such conditions, if uncorrected, would compromise safety or embody risks which are calculated to be acceptable within defined time/performance limits?

Urgent Action

What TDs are issued under the governing factors of combat necessity or hazardous conditions that could result in injury to personnel, damage to valuable property, or unacceptable reductions in operational efficiency?

Urgent action

As aircraft become more sophisticated, maintenance will be driven with advanced LUIs such as fatigue cycles and thermal cycles. Prior to defining maintenance based on these parameters, there must be a what established to define the usage data that is available for each equipment type in the Configuration Baseline?

Usage Baseline

The QA inspector who actually performs the inspection of the standards of the work signs the "INSPECTED BY" block on all what?

VIDS/MAFs

What provides details on requisitions and can track reports of excess material and the movement of those excesses to the destination disposal activity?

VLIPS

What oil is used to lubricate and protect piano-wire hinges and other critical surfaces?

VV-L-800

What is an engineering process by which the originator accomplishes all tasks required by a proposed change to ensure the modified items function as intended?

Validation

Guided missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission, and what else?

Vehicle type

What is a method of objective evaluation employed to determine and measure the effectiveness of the Certification Program?

Verification

What is the process for determining the accuracy and adequacy of a proposed TD and reporting results to the preparing activity?

Verification

Which officer rank is identified by one 2 inch stripe with two 1⁄2 inch stripes above it on their sleeve?

Vice Admiral

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/4 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

W-1

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, three breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

W-2

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with breaks 2 inches apart, two breaks centered symmetrically on outer face of sleeve?

W-3

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1⁄2 inch stripe with one break, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?

W-4

Which warrant officer rank is identified by one 1/2 inch stripe with 1/8 inch bluestrip broken by one hash mark, centered on the outer face of the sleeve?

W-5

What was the first Reserve classification for female officers?

W-V(S)

Manuals prepared in what format are compatible to microfilm and paper media?

WP

What manuals are divided by functions and tasks?

WP

What includes all equipment whose primary function is to support explosive ordnance components or weapons?

WSE

The physical act of breaking out, unpacking, inspecting, counting (inventory control), lifting, transporting, repositioning, or packaging of AE by hand or with the use of powered/pneumatic equipment is identified by what Work Task Code?

WTC 1

Physical act of stowing explosive/explosive devices in designated and approved locations, such as holding areas, explosive magazines, and ready service lockers is identified by what Work Task Code?

WTC 2

The physical act of mating/un-mating components to or from an AUR configuration is identified by what Work Task Code?

WTC 3

The physical act of mating an AUR with its launching device to include racks/launchers, fixed gun systems, automatic loading systems, torpedo tubes, etc., from which delivery/initiation can be accomplished is identified by what Work Task Code?

WTC 4

What WTC applies to those procedures contained in the arm/de- arm section of the applicable governing technical manuals, checklists, and MRC that places an explosive/explosive device or system in an armed or safe condition?

WTC 5

Physical act of installing/removing explosive devices, such as aircraft egress systems, cable cutters, fire extinguisher cartridges and non-aircraft support cartridges/cartridge actuated devices is identified by what Work Task Code?

WTC 6

Physical act of conducting a test on components. Built-in-test (BIT), programming, reprogramming, and presetting are included in what WTC?

WTC 7

What manual identifies assigned system-related equipment codes pertaining to various servicing and maintenance functions?

WUC

Trailers may be divided into three categories—weapon trailers, weight handling trailers, and which other category of trailers?

Warehouse

What refers to a procedure or practice that, if not currently followed, could result in injury, long term health hazard, or death?

Warning

Which PQS section tests the trainee's readiness to perform a designated task?

Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series)

Fundamentals, Systems, along with what else are the three sections that PQS standards are divided into?

Watch Stations

What is the commanding officer's summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called?

Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill

What cleaning method is the preferred method for cleaning naval aircraft?

Water-detergent

What checklists are abbreviated step-by-step procedures taken from the amplified procedures displayed in the weapons or stores loading manuals?

Weapons Loading

WSE is divided into two categories, weapons handling equipment and what else?

Weapons test equipment

Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often?

Weekly

Take fuel samples prior to first engine run of the day, or how often as a minimum?

Weekly

Mines are classified by intended use, method of delivery, position assumed when laid, method of actuation, or what else?

Weight

What area probably receives more punishment than any other area on the aircraft?

Wheel well

Under the AUR concept, missiles are received aboard ship in containers completely assembled except for which parts?

Wings and fins

Which type of dark blue fabric is the dress blue jumper made from?

Wool serge

Activities having no or only one PR assigned shall designate in writing a properly cross trained QAR or CDQAR to inspect work performed on ALSS equipment maintained by what?

Work Center 13A

What is responsible for managing and performing calibration and repair on selected TMDE?

Work Center 670

The primary job of whom is to be responsive to the hour by hour maintenance situation?

Work Center Supervisor

Who introduces trainee's to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual?

Work Center Supervisor

What are the two categories of audits?

Work center and special

Who shall ensure Plane Captain Qualification Program indoctrination and follow-on training is provided to personnel?

Work center supervisors

Which war did radar and sonar came into full use?

World War II

Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager?

XO

Thermally-protected bombs are identified by two bands of which color?

Y ellow

Which ammunition color code identifies high explosives?

Y ellow

Which three significant color codes are used on guided missiles and their components?

Yellow, brown, and blue

When in a thin layer, such as a spill, stain, or leak, Otto Fuel II is what color?

Yellow-orange

Which prosign identifies messages with Flash precedence?

Z

Task cards that contain major engine inspection requirements are identified by a what preceding the card title and the procedural steps within the cards?

Asterisk (*)

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM is the what and is responsible for creating, loading, and maintaining the aircraft or weapons systems baseline data that belongs to the respective program manager?

Baseline Manager

What is a graphic presentation that will program the accomplishment of CERR (third, second, and first-degree) in a logical order?

CERR SCC

What provide step-by-step procedures and instructions for engine disassembly to a controlled depth?

CERRC sets

All maintenance, supply handling, and accounting of communications security equipment will be performed using the procedures in what?

CMS-1

NTTP 1-03.3 and what else provide guidance for reporting Mission Area-Specific Resource ratings for personnel?

CNAFINST 3500.38

What provides material in support of the operation and maintenance of aeronautical equipment?

COMNA VSUPSYSCOM

The NAMP is sponsored and directed by CNO and implemented by what?

COMNAVAIRFOR

MRCs are issued by what and contain scheduled maintenance requirements applicable to O-level and I-level activities for the specific aircraft or equipment for which they are issued?

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

Recommendations to correct administrative discrepancies shall be submitted by naval letter or by email directly to what?

COMNAVAIRSYSCOM

What is the relationship between actual and planned resources?

Efficiency

To validate the ongoing disassembly and reassembly of equipment, what is required?

Equipment Configuration Baseline

The ORM process incorporates how many principles?

Four

Cross trained QARs/CDQARs shall use what series manuals for technical guidance?

NAVAIR 13-1-6

SPCs provide a ready reference for performing scheduled maintenance on a specific type of aircrew survival equipment and are an extension of what series manuals?

NAVAIR 13-1-6

What are responsible for providing augmentation personnel to IMAs/FRCs?

Navy squadrons

What refers to a procedure or condition that requires emphasis?

Note

The Aircrew Personal Equipment Record (what form) shall be initiated by the cognizant O-level activity upon the initial issue of personal equipment to the aircrew member?

OPNAV 4790/159

When any ALSS equipment has been involved in an aircraft mishap, the records shall be forwarded per what instruction and NAVAIR 13-1-6 series manuals?

OPNAVINST 3750.6

Changes affecting what will have the suffix "N" added to the Change Control Number?

OPNAVINST 8000.16

Funding for the NAMP, called a what, is allocated to squadrons by Type Wings and ACCs/TYCOMs?

OPTAR

What is a decision making tool applicable to the entire spectrum of naval activities?

ORM

What is the pivotal element of the seven performance elements in that it is highly interrelated with all of the elements?

Productivity

What is the maintenance required due to SE failures or as a result of discrepancies and deficiencies found during scheduled maintenance?

Unscheduled maintenance

Changes affecting software programming or report format/content will have a suffix of what added to the Change Control Number?

"P"

The methodology for achieving the spirit and intent of the NAMP objective is labeled what?

"Performance improvement"

Changes containing new or revised forms will have a suffix of what added to the Change Control Number?

"F"

When the deployment site does not have an ALSS pool, the supporting shore-based IMA/FRC is responsible for providing RFI assemblies equal to what percent of those required for full outfitting of the deploying squadron or detachment to the deployed site?

10%

O-level activities are not authorized to requisition or stock ALSS assemblies or parts beyond those to outfit what percent of assigned aircraft and aircrew?

100%

Shore-based Navy squadrons who have I-level billets authorized shall assign personnel to the supporting IMA/FRC for a minimum of how long?

12 months

When operational requirements dictate, PM may deviate plus or minus 3 days on calendar cycles and plus or minus what percent on meter times?

10%

To ensure positive control of inspection progress, individual inspection crew members normally should not be issued MRCs at any one time with task totals in excess of how long?

2 hours

Manpower requirements are included in the DOD planning, programming, and budgeting system. This system operates on a how many-month cycle and is repeated annually?

20 month

Acceptable comparison accuracy is +/- 2.0 degrees for flux valve compasses and +/- how many degrees for standby (wet) compasses?

5.0

What is NAVRIIP's architecture for operationalizing cost-wise readiness across the NAE?

AIRSpeed

What, by virtue of their unique function and responsibility, present inherently hazardous situations when approached improperly?

ALSS

Rotatable pools of ALSS spare assemblies (parachutes, life rafts, SSKs, life preservers, survival radios, and miniature regulators) shall be established by what?

IMAs ashore

Who publishes a list of threshold sampling candidates, quantities, and milestones for each engine?

ISSC

What performs O-level maintenance functions in assigned branches, such as Plane Captain, Troubleshooter, and SE (when established), as directed by the MO and in conjunction with other Production Divisions?

Line Division

The Aircraft Division shall supervise, coordinate, and complete scheduled maintenance and inspections using inspection crew supervisors and other permanently assigned personnel as designated by the what?

MO

Cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment shall be conducted using the policy established in what?

NAVAIR 01-1A-509

What is a cadre of bench operators and apprentice level IMA augmentation personnel who are assigned to a sea duty unit identification code in the ashore IMA?

SEAOPDET

The POM contains force and resource recommendations, with rationale and risk assessment, and must conform with the fiscal guidance issued by the what?

SECDEF

Command relationships and the exercise of command and support responsibilities for Navy and Marine Corps shore activities appear in what instruction?

SECNAVINST 5450.4

Recommendations to change NAMP policies or procedures shall be submitted by naval letter or email, via the chain of command, to the originators what?

TYCOM

What is an investigative procedure conducted on the high value, long lead time, and other critical parts for which little or no failure history is available?

Threshold sampling