ap gov final🥵
106. The Supreme Court established the incorporation doctrine when the Court a. Interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment as extending the most of the requirements of the Bill of Rights to the states as well as the federal government. b. Interpreted the Ninth Amendment as requiring national health and worker safety standards to protect the individual's implied right of personal safety. c. Stripped the armed forces of their discretionary powers regarding military service for gay men, lesbians, and married people. d. Strengthened local police forces by granting them the power to investigate and prosecute federal offenses.
A
*unlimited cash wave political cartoon* 179. Which of the following best describes the message in the political cartoon? (A) Contributions from special interests have undermined fair and competitive political campaigns. (B) Placing limits on special interest contributions would not diminish the role of money in elections. (C) Although money garners attention from the media and voters, it does not influence how people vote. (D) Special interests have a large amount of cash but a small number of votes to use to influence elections.
A
103. Which of the following is true of amicus curiae briefs? a. They are used by interest groups to lobby courts. b. They are used exclusively by liberal interest groups. c. They are used exclusively by conservative interest groups. d. They are now unconstitutional.
A
110. Supreme Court justices were given tenure subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that a. Justices are free from direct political pressures. b. Justices remain accountable to the public. c. Justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions. d. Cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured.
A
113. The act of following the principle of precedent or looking at prior Court decisions when settling similar cases. a. Stare Decisis, b. Litmus Test, c. Standing, d. Class-action suit.
A
118. The position of a Court nominee on Abortion has become a make or break issue for many Senators. This describes: a. Litmus Test, b. Class-action suit, c. Per Curiam, d. Standing.
A
12. Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments? a. Federalism b. The Bill of Rights c. Separation of powers d. Representation
A
131. Both Gitlow v. New York and New York Times v. Sullivan are United States Supreme Court cases that dealt with which of the following amendments to the United States Constitution? (A) 1st Amendment, (B) 2nd Amendment, (C) 4th Amendment, (D) 5th Amendment
A
139. The 1973 Roe v. Wade decision that upheld a woman's right to secure an abortion was based on the right to a. Privacy implied in the Bill of Rights. b. Equality guaranteed by the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Amendments. c. Due process of law enumerated in the Fifth and Sixth Amendments. d. Adequate medical care implied in the Preamble to the Constitution.
A
146. The "Miranda warning" represents an attempt to protect criminal suspects against a. Unfair police interrogation. b. Biased jury selection. c. Imprisonment without trial. d. Illegal wiretapping. e. Unjustified police surveillance.
A
21. Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The Federalist paper number 10? a. A system of republican representation helps to limit the excesses of factionalism. b. Small republics are better able to ensure individual liberty than are large republics. c. The presence of a few large factions helps to protect the rights of minorities. d. Participatory democracy is the surest way to prevent tyranny.
A
24. Of the following, which has been used most to expand the power of the national government? a. The Elastic Clause of the Constitution b. The Habeas Corpus clause of the Constitution c. The Bill of Attainder clause of the Constitution d. The First Amendment
A
3. Supporters of Hamilton's view that a bill of rights could be dangerous to liberty could point to which of the following cases? (A) Schenck v. United States (1919) (B) Engel v. Vitale (1962) (C) New York Times Co. v. United States (1971) (D) Tinker v. Des Moines Independent Community School District (1969)
A
31. Which of the following resulted from this Supreme Court decision? a. The power of the national government was strengthened. b. The power of the Supreme Court was weakened. c. The power of state governments to tax individual citizens was clearly limited. d. Congress was given the power to coin money.
A
32. In the Constitution as originally ratified in 1788, the provisions regarding which of the following most closely approximate popular, majoritarian democracy? a. Election of members of the House of Representatives b. Election of members of the Senate c. Election of the President d. Ratification of treaties
A
36. Members of the United States House of Representatives Committee on Veterans Affairs are concerned about the quality of services at hospitals run by the Department of Veterans Affairs. Which of the following is an action the committee can take to address the problem? (A) Holding a hearing and subpoenaing high-level officials in the Department of Veterans Affairs to testify (B) Impounding funding for veterans hospitals until problems are resolved (C) Placing a referendum on the ballot in each state to increase health-care funding for veterans (D) Appointing a new secretary of the Department of Veterans Affairs
A
35. Which of the following may the president do to limit the Supreme Court's power? (A) Fire and replace justices (B) Refuse to enforce a ruling by the Court (C) Adopt new constitutional amendments (D) Veto parts of the Court's decisions
B
132. The process of extending the protections of the Bill of Rights by means of the Fourteenth Amendment to apply to the actions of state governments is known as (A) judicial review, (B) incorporation, (C) broad construction, (D) federalism
B
133. In Plessy v. Ferguson, the United States Supreme Court ruled that state-imposed racial segregation is constitutional, based on the (A) "clear and present danger" doctrine (B) "separate but equal" doctrine (C) "dangerous tendency" doctrine (D) privileges and immunities clause
B
14. When independent regulatory agencies make rules, enforce those rules, and adjudicate (what does this even mean?) disputes arising under those rules, they risk violating the constitutional concept of a. equal protection of the laws, b. separation of powers, c. federal supremacy, d. due process of law
B
142. All of the following statements reflect positions the Supreme Court has taken with regard to the right of free speech EXCEPT a. A restriction on the right of free speech should always be viewed with skepticism. b. There are no acceptable governmental restrictions on free speech. c. Government has an obligation to try to ensure citizens the right to be heard. d. The right to free speech is a fundamental natural right.
B
143. The "separate but equal" referred to above had previously been upheld by which of the following? a. Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857) b. Plessy v. Ferguson (1896) c. Engel v. Vitale (1962) d. Youngstown Sheet and Tube Company v. Sawyer (1952)
B
147. Griswold v. Connecticut and Roe v. Wade are similar Supreme Court cases based on the a. Rights of gay men and lesbian women. b. Right of privacy. c. Right to an abortion. d. Right to freedom from cruel and unusual punishment
B
148. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the information in the line graph? (A) Defense spending has consistently been a larger part of the federal budget than entitlement spending. (B) Entitlement spending has steadily become a larger portion of the federal budget. (C) Between 1980 and 2000, defense spending increased faster than entitlement spending. (D) In 2000 entitlement spending passed defense spending as a share of the federal budget.
B
150. Since the early 1980s, the Republican Party platform has been increasingly influenced by (A) environmental activists (B) evangelical Christians (C) civil libertarians (D) labor unions
B
162. Which statement is a major reason for the increased use of public opinion polls by the media? a. The government assesses the validity of the polls. b. Elected officials pay attention to poll results. c. A smaller random sample can now be used to get accurate results. d. Polls are aimed exclusively at minority groups.
B
166. Which of the following statements is reflected in the data in the chart? (A) Younger people are more likely to be registered to vote than those who are older. (B) Among registered voters, there was a steep increase in social media usage to follow political figures across all age groups and party affiliations. (C) Registered voters in the 65+ age group did not increase their use of social media to follow political figures. (D) Of those using social networking sites, those registered as Republican were more likely to vote than those registered as Democrats.
B
167. Which of the following is a potential consequence of the trend illustrated in the bar chart? (A) Social media has led to more candidates running as independents rather than as members of political parties. (B) Elected officials and candidates running for office are increasingly using social media to reach out to voters and constituents. (C) Social networking sites such as Facebook or Twitter have been overrun with political content. (D) Social networking sites have led to increased political polarization in the general public.
B
171. Which of the following is an accurate conclusion based on a comparison of the trends in the line graph above and your knowledge of voter behavior? (A) More citizens vote in presidential elections because more citizens are eligible to vote in presidential elections than in midterm elections. (B) More citizens vote in presidential elections because there is more media coverage of presidential elections than midterm elections. (C) More citizens vote in midterm elections because midterm elections are more important than presidential elections. (D) More citizens vote in midterm elections because there is more money spent on campaigns in midterm elections than in presidential elections.
B
181. Which of the following is true of political action committees (PACs)? (A) They are a part of political party organizations. (B) They make campaign contributions to gain access to legislators. (C) They are allowed to contribute to only one candidate in a given contest. (D) They effectively control the presidential campaigns. (E) They may operate at the state level but not at the national level.
B
188. Which of the following describes a fundamental difference between political parties and interest groups? (A) Political parties are prohibited from sponsoring campaign advertisements, and interest groups are not. (B) Political parties represent broad arrays of issues, whereas interest groups are more likely to focus on narrow sets of issues. (C) Political parties are more likely to focus on national politics, whereas interest groups focus on local politics. (D) Political parties tend to have strength in particular regions, whereas the power of interest groups is more consistent across states. (E) Political parties are required to disclose their campaign finance activities, whereas interest groups are not.
B
193. The term "horserace journalism" refers to the tendency of the media to a. Cover Congress by focusing on committee chairs rather than on the work of the committees. b. Cover campaigns by emphasizing the relative standings of the candidates in the polls rather than the issues they discuss. c. Cover politics by concentrating on scandal and corruption rather than on instances of integrity and honorable action. d. Compete for access to sources rather than to cooperate in gathering the news.
B
197. An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called a. A majority election b. A plurality election c. A proportional election d. A simple election
B
65. Which of the following statements about Writs of Certiorari is accurate? (A) Cases appealed by the solicitor general are automatically granted certiorari. (B) The Supreme Court grants certiorari for less than 5% of the cases appealed to it. (C) The Supreme Court has historically granted certiorari to all separation of powers cases. (D) The Supreme Court does not grant certiorari to cases involving state laws.
B
164. Which of the following is a consequence of candidate-centered campaigns? (A) The electoral success of third-party candidates sharply increases. (B) Parties tighten their control over candidate fund-raising to ensure compliance with regulations. (C) Candidates have less accountability for their positions because the importance of the party platform increases. (D) Candidates' ability to appeal to voters can outweigh the importance of experience and policy positions.
D
95. Which of the following procedures results in the removal of the President from office? a. The House and Senate vote for impeachment and the Supreme Court reaches a guilty verdict. b. The House votes for impeachment, and the Senate conducts a trial and reaches a guilty verdict. c. The House and Senate both vote for a bill of impeachment. d. Only the House votes for a bill of impeachment.
B
165. Which of the following important functions of democracy would most likely be more difficult without political parties? (A) Eliminating corruption in the bureaucracy (B) Educating the public about upcoming elections (C) Ensuring that only eligible voters can vote (D) Reducing gridlock in Congress
D
201. All of the following are commonly used by interest groups to influence the political process EXCEPT a. Lobbying b. Contributing money to candidates c. Nominating candidates d. Filing lawsuits
C
203. Lobbyists try to influence legislators mainly through a. "Wining and dining" legislators. b. Orchestrating petition drives and letter writing campaigns. c. Providing legislators with information on technical issues. d. Threatening to help the legislator's opponent in the next election.
C
209. Interest groups and political parties both promote United States democracy by a. Expressing detailed, ideologically distinct programs. b. Centralizing public authority. c. Linking citizens to the political process. d. Increasing domination of the political process by elites
C
25. The procedure for formally amending the United States Constitution BEST illustrates a. The dominance of the national government over state governments b. The dominance of the state governments over the national government c. The federal structure of the United States government d. The Supreme Court's power to review constitutional amendments
C
26. Which of the following is NOT a core value of United States political culture? a. Legal equality, b. Political equality, c. Economic equality, d. Freedom of religion
C
59. Which of the following is an example of presidential use of Inherent Powers? (A) George H. W. Bush's appointment of Clarence Thomas. (B) Bill Clinton's line-item veto of some congressionally authorized funds to the states. (C) Thomas Jefferson's Louisiana Purchase. (D) Woodrow Wilson's signing of the Treaty of Versailles.
C
60. Which of the following is true about the pocket veto? (A) It is used to strike down a provision of a bill that the President finds disagreeable. (B) It may be overridden by a two-thirds vote in Congress. (C) It occurs when the President takes no action on a bill for ten days during which Congress is adjourned. (D) It is used when the President can to reach a compromise with Congress about a bill.
C
62. Which of the following best describes the primary formal role of the Attorney General? (A) Providing legal advice for the president and cabinet secretaries. (B) Serving as a liaison between the president and the Supreme Court. (C) Serving as the chief executive officer of the Department of Justice. (D) Directing the Government Accountability Office (GAO).
C
64. Which of the following best explains the principle of Stare Decisis? (A) It requires that at least four Supreme Court justices agree to hear a case. (B) It encourages presidents to take judicial experience into account when nominating judges. (C) It encourages judges to follow precedent when deciding cases. (D) It reinforces the philosophy of judicial activism. (E) It increases the number of cases judges are required to hear
C
68. The difference between an appellate court and a district court is that an appellate court (A) conducts trials by jury. (B) has original jurisdiction. (C) reviews previous court decisions. (D) hears civil cases but not criminal cases.
C
77. Most of the bills introduced in the House and the Senate are then a. Passed by both chambers. b. Passed by one chamber but not the other. c. Referred to committee but never sent to the full Congress. d. Voted down during the amendment stage of the floor debate.
C
88. Since the 1970s, Presidents have used executive orders at an increasing rate because executive orders a. Are noncontroversial measures that can be easily implemented? b. Are rarely defeated in Congress. c. Do not need to be passed by Congress. d. Avoid judicial review.
C
9. Which of the following scenarios would be considered an unconstitutional use of state power? (A) A state passes a law that increases the pay of state legislators. (B) A state enacts a law prohibiting smoking in all public places. (C) A state places a tax on furniture made overseas. (D) A state raises the drinking age to 25 years of age.
C
90. The President's veto power is accurately described by which of the following statements? I. A President sometimes threatens to veto a bill that is under discussion in order to influence congressional decision-making. II. A President typically vetoes about a third of the bills passed by Congress III. Congress is usually unable to override a President's veto a. I only b. III only c. I and III only d. II and III only
C
94. Which of the following is articulated in the War Powers Resolution? a. The President may declare war. b. The President must finance any war efforts from a special contingency fund. c. The President must bring troops home from hostilities within 60 to 90 days unless Congress extends the time. d. The President may not nationalize state militias without congressional consent
C
A society that puts equality—in the sense of equality of outcome—ahead of freedom will end up with neither equality nor freedom. The use of force to achieve equality will destroy freedom, and the force, introduced for good purposes, will end up in the hands of people who use it to promote their own interests. On the other hand, a society that puts freedom first will, as a happy by-product, end up with both greater freedom and greater equality. . . . A free society releases the energies and abilities of people to pursue their own objectives. It prevents some people from arbitrarily suppressing others. It does not prevent people from achieving positions of privilege, but so long as freedom is maintained, it prevents those positions of privilege from becoming institutionalized. —Milton Friedman, Free to Choose (1980) 153. Which of the following ideological perspectives is most consistent with the passage? (A) Liberal (B) Progressive (C) Libertarian (D) Socialist
C
A society that puts equality—in the sense of equality of outcome—ahead of freedom will end up with neither equality nor freedom. The use of force to achieve equality will destroy freedom, and the force, introduced for good purposes, will end up in the hands of people who use it to promote their own interests. On the other hand, a society that puts freedom first will, as a happy by-product, end up with both greater freedom and greater equality. . . . A free society releases the energies and abilities of people to pursue their own objectives. It prevents some people from arbitrarily suppressing others. It does not prevent people from achieving positions of privilege, but so long as freedom is maintained, it prevents those positions of privilege from becoming institutionalized. —Milton Friedman, Free to Choose (1980) 152. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the author's argument in this passage? (A) Equality is not an important outcome in society. (B) There should be more emphasis on governmental action to achieve equality. (C) Undermining freedom will extinguish both freedom and equality. (D) Individual freedom and equality are not compatible values.
C
158. Which of the following measures would a president adhering to Keynesian economic principles most likely employ during an economic recession? (A) An executive order to increase the amount of money in circulation in the economy (B) A budget with significant increases in spending for unemployment benefits and public works projects (C) Legislation to cut individual and corporate income tax rates and decrease regulation of the economy (D) A national budget with dramatic cuts in federal spending on entitlement programs like Social Security
D
28. Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787? a. The protection of free speech b. The guarantee of states' rights c. The establishment of direct democracy d. The creation of a strong national government e. The establishment of judicial review
D
34. Registered voters directly elect which of the following? I. The president of the United States II. Supreme Court justices III. Members of the Senate IV. Members of the House of Representatives a. I only b. IV only c. I and II only d. III and IV only
D
37. A member of the House of Representatives has introduced a bill to raise the minimum wage, but it has been in committee for 36 days and is unlikely to make it to the floor. Which of the following is the best course of action for the representative to take to get a vote on the bill? (A) Presenting a cloture motion (B) Placing a hold on the bill (C) Introducing a concurrent resolution (D) Filing for a discharge petition
D
38. Which of the following accurately describes the information presented in the pie chart? (A) The legislative, judicial, and executive branches employ more bureaucrats than does the Department of Veterans Affairs. (B) The number of federal employees working in Washington, D.C., outnumbers those working in the states. (C) Congress has allocated more money to the Department of Homeland Security than to the Department of Defense. (D) The United States Postal Service has the largest number of employees within the federal bureaucracy.
D
100. Senate confirmation is required for which of the following presidential appointments? I. Secretary of State II. White House Chief of Staff III. Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation IV. Attorney General a. I only b. II and III only c. II and IV only d. I, III, and IV only
D
11. The Constitution and its amendments expressly prohibit ALL of the following EXCEPT a. Slavery. b. Double jeopardy. c. Cruel and unusual punishment. d. Sex discrimination in employment.
D
112. Which of the following statements accurately describes the selection of the caseload for the United States Supreme Court? a. The United States Constitution spells out all of the categories of cases that the Supreme Court must hear. b. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the authority to select the cases that the Court will hear. c. The Solicitor General in the Department of Justice determines the Supreme Court's agenda. d. The Supreme Court is free to choose the cases it hears with only a few limitations.
D
117. Before someone can petition the court, they must prove they have been harmed by a law or practice that is to be challenged. This is called: a. Litmus Test, b. Class-action suit, c. Per Curiam, d. Standing.
D
119. Deciding court cases strictly on the basis of the language of laws or the Constitution is called? a. Judicial Activism, b. Judicial Opinion, c. Judicial Ruling, d. Judicial Restraint.
D
121. An issue that the Supreme Court would allow the executive and legislative branches decide: a. Litmus Test, b. Class-action suit, c. Per Curiam, d. Political Question.
D
122. This is how cases get to the Supreme Court: a. Per Curiam, b. Standing , c. Judicial Review, d. Rule of Four.
D
125. Based on previous rulings, the Supreme Court is most likely to view a case concerning which of the following as a right-to-privacy case? (A) A university whose admissions standards prevent women from attending the institution (B) A person who is licensed to carry a handgun and brings one to a political rally (C) A high school student who leaves class at a specified time during each school day for daily prayer (D) A woman who is prevented from an abortion
D
127. Which of the following actions by public school students would most likely be protected symbolic speech based on the precedent established by Tinker v. Des Moines Independent Community School District(1969)? (A) Leading prayers over the school's public address system (B) Publishing an editorial in the school newspaper (C) Protesting a school board decision by disrupting a school assembly (D) Wearing t-shirts objecting to a school board decision
D
13. Which of the following is a fundamental element of the United States Constitution? a. Recognition of the centrality of political parties in government b. Direct election of members of the executive branch c. An executive branch that is more powerful than the legislature d. Division of government authority across political institutions
D
137. In Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka, the Supreme Court established which of the following principles? a. A school official can search a student for drugs. b. Everyone must go to school at least until the age of 16. c. Tuition for private schools cannot be tax deductible. d. Separation of students by race, even in equally good schools, is unconstitutional.
D
138. In Miranda v. Arizona the US Supreme Court declared that a. Illegal aliens have the same right to an education as United States citizens. b. Evidence seized during an illegal search cannot be used in court. c. Affirmative action programs cannot employ numerical quotas. d. Police must inform criminal suspects of their constitutional rights before questioning suspects after their arrest.
D
144. The Supreme Court decision quoted above did which of the following? a. Brought a rapid end to school segregation in the South. b. Prohibited segregation in hotels and restaurants. c. Required desegregation of teaching staff. d. Initially affected only schools were segregation was mandated by law.
D
15. Unlike the Articles of Confederation, the Constitution does which of the following? a. Restricts the ability of Congress to tax. b. Restricts the ability of Congress to establish an army or navy. c. Establishes a unitary form of government. d. Emphasizes both national sovereignty and federalism.
D
154. Which of the following governmental policies would the author most likely support? (A) Restricting individuals from carrying guns in public (B) Requiring individuals traveling in cars to wear seat belts (C) Establishing minimum age requirements to access adult social media sites (D) Allowing individuals to purchase marijuana for recreational use
D
157. Which of the following policies is most likely to cause tension between the competing values of individualism and equality of opportunity? (A) Expanding the national defense system (B) Reducing environmental regulations (C) Decreasing funding for space exploration (D) Implementing affirmative action programs
D
159. Which of the following generalizations about group voting tendencies is true? a. Jewish voters tend to vote Republican. b. Protestant voters tend to be more liberal than Roman Catholics on economic issues. c. More women than men identify themselves as Republicans. d. African-American Democrats tend to support the more liberal candidates within their party.
D
200. Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement about political parties in the United States? a. Parties increasingly identify themselves with coherent ideologies to attract large blocs of voters. b. The percentage of voters identifying themselves as either Democratic or Republican has been declining since the 1970s. c. National party organizations are generally the strongest party organizations. d. Third parties are all but extinct.
B
204. Political action committees (PAC's) representing which of the following groups have increased in number most substantially since the mid-1970s? a. Labor b. Business c. Healthcare professionals d. Veterans groups
B
205. Which of the following groups would be LEAST likely to maintain a national lobbying organization in Washington, DC? a. Environmentalists b. Public housing tenants c. Nurses d. Automobile manufacturers
B
22. The Tenth Amendment to the Constitution has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to a. Prevent states from taxing agencies of the federal government. b. Reserve powers to the states. c. Restrict the application of judicial review. d. Allow for the burning of the flag as an expression of protest.
B
27. Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances? a. The Supreme Court can overrule the President's policy proposals. b. The Senate must ratify treaties negotiated by the President before they become law. c. A bill becomes law when the House and the Senate pass it, and the Supreme Court declares it constitutional. d. The Supreme Court can remove members of Congress, and Congress can impeach the President. e. The House appoints justices to the Supreme Court and the Senate approves the appointments.
B
80. The committee system is more important in the House than in the Senate because a. The seniority system plays no role in the House and therefore committees must play a larger role. b. The Constitution mandates the type of committee structure in the House. c. Committee members are appointed by the President. d. The House is so large that more work can be accomplished in committees than on the floor.
D
81. Congressional standing committees are best described as a. Specially appointed investigative bodies. b. Joint committees of the two houses of Congress. c. Committees created for each session. d. Permanent subject matter committees.
D
82. Debate of a bill in the House of Representatives under a "closed rule" means that a. The bill can only be amended by section. b. Debate on the bill will consist of five-minute speeches, pro and con. c. Only senior members are allowed to participate. d. Amendments to the bill cannot be offered.
D
83. In vetoing a bill, the President does which of the following? a. Rejects only a part of the bill without rejecting it entirely. b. Prevents any further action on the bill. c. Sends the bill back to conference committee. d. Rejects all sections of the bill.
D
86. The President can do which of the following without seeking the consent of either the House or the Senate? a. Ratify a treaty b. Appoint ambassadors c. Appoint district court judges d. Deploy troops
D
89. In US v. Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that a. The judicial branch should not intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress. b. Presidential power is not automatically extended during times of national emergency. c. Presidents must account to the Court for the way in which they implement policy. d. There is no constitutional guarantee of unqualified executive privilege.
D
149. Based on the information in the line graph, which of the following is the most likely implication of entitlement and defense spending as a portion of the federal budget? (A) Changes in entitlement spending put pressure on discretionary spending. (B) Discretionary spending levels are set by law and cannot be changed. (C) Congressional budget committees can ignore entitlement spending. (D) Democrats and Republicans generally agree on increasing entitlement spending.
A
151. A recent poll indicates that 60 percent of all people in the United States support a flat tax system. Which of the following supports the credibility of the poll result? (A) The poll reported a sampling error. (B) The poll was conducted online and open to anyone who wished to participate. (C) The poll was administered to several thousand people who were stopped while shopping in malls across the country. (D) Before the question was asked, respondents were told that a flat tax system is fairer than a progressive tax and will lead to economic growth.
A
16. The Americans with Disabilities Act, which provides protections for the disabled, is an example of a. a federal mandate, b. horizontal federalism, c. affirmative action, d. dual federalism.
A
161. Which of the following is the MOST important influence on the choice made by voters in presidential elections? a. Partisan identification. b. Party platform adopted at the national convention. c. Vice presidential running mate. d. Endorsement by political incumbents
A
169. A nonprofit advocacy group seeks to block an expensive subsidy to what it believes is an environmentally destructive project. Which of the following accurately depicts the free-rider problem in this scenario? (A) The public can expect to reap the benefits of blocking the subsidy without making any contribution to the nonprofit group. (B) The public will recognize that the cost of the project greatly outweighs the benefit, so they can expect their legislators to vote against the subsidy. (C) The advocacy group will be able to carry out activities at an unusually low cost because of discounts and tax breaks afforded to nonprofit organizations. (D) A company can purchase support from certain members of the public who will persuade their legislators to vote in favor of the subsidy.
A
17. Cooperative federalism can best be described by which of the following statements? (Work out the terms.) a. Different levels of government are involved in common policy areas. b. Government must have cooperation from the people in order to make legislative decisions. c. Local levels of government can make decisions on issues more efficiently than state and national governments can. d. The federal government must make regulations that can be applied across every state in the same way.
A
173. Which of the following Supreme Court cases involved the principle of "one person, one vote" and declared Malapportionment unconstitutional? (A) Baker v. Carr (B) Roe v. Wade (C) Mapp v. Ohio (D) Korematsu v. US
A
175. Based on the data shown in the table, which of the following statements is true about the electoral college? (A) It can work against the principle of popular sovereignty when a candidate wins without winning the most votes nationwide. (B) It creates a scenario in which electors frequently do not vote for the candidate they pledge to support. (C) It undermines the rights of states to determine their own method of electing the president. (D) It encourages independents and third-party candidates to run for office
A
184. Based on the infographic, which of the following claims would an opponent of state voter-ID laws most likely make? (A) Voter-ID laws are likely to decrease turnout among African American voters because they are less likely to have government-issued IDs. (B) (Voter turnout will likely decrease by 10% if voters are required to present a government-issued ID to vote. (C) Voter-ID laws will likely decrease election fraud, which will increase voter confidence in institutions and thereby increase turnout. (D) African American voters who do not have government-issued IDs are likely to participate at the grassroots level and exert influence through channels other than turning out to vote.
A
187. Compared to the general population, delegates to presidential nomination conventions are (A) more ideological (B) less educated (C) financially worse off (D) more likely to register as independent
A
19. Which of the following is the best example of a categorical grant? a. Money given to states for special education programs b. Money given to individuals in the form of tax rebates c. Money given to states unconditionally d. Money given to states to spend at their discretion on transportation
A
190. Which of the following describes a consequence of the growing concentration of ownership of the news media? (A) There is increased similarity of network news coverage. (B) Coverage of political events has gotten more liberal over time. (C) Prices for televised campaign ads have gone down. (D) Candidates get more free airtime.
A
192. During the past 50 years (and especially 1980s and 90s), all of the following changes in public opinion and political behavior have occurred in the US EXCEPT a. A decline in party competition in the South. b. A decline in the level of trust in government. c. A drop in voter turnout. d. An increase in ticket splitting
A
195. The largest amount of political coverage in newspapers during presidential campaigns is devoted to a. Day-to-day campaign activities. b. The platforms of the major parties. c. Candidates' policy stands on domestic issues. d. Candidates' stands on foreign policy issues. e. Candidates' experience and qualifications.
A
2. Which of the following constitutional provisions limits the power of the national government in Hamilton's argument? (A) Enumerated powers in Article I (B) Faithful execution of the laws in Article II (C) Judicial review in Article III (D) Supremacy Clause in Article VI
A
202. An interest group is most likely to have influence in Congress when the issue at stake a. Is narrow in scope and low in public visibility. b. Is part of the President's legislative package. c. Has been dramatized by the media. d. Engages legislators' deeply held convictions.
A
42. Which of the following is a consequence of the way the district is drawn on the map? (A) It will likely lead to a less competitive general election, which could lead to increased partisanship. (B) It will likely lead to a highly contentious and competitive election. (C) It will lead to a seat that will be occupied by a member of a third party. (D) It will lead to very high turnout in the election.
A
44. Senator Smith votes her conscience on bills that her constituents care little about, but she votes according to the wishes of the majority of her constituents on other bills. Which model of representation do her actions embody? (A) The politico model (B) The trustee model (C) The majoritarian model (D) The delegate model
A
53. Which of the following is an example of congressional oversight? (A) Holding hearings for review of an executive agency's activities. (B) Assisting constituents with particular problems. (C) Reporting campaign contributions to the Federal Election Commission. (D) Signing trade agreements with other countries without input from the president
A
6. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985 authorized the government to deny income tax deductions for employer health plans that did not offer employees the option of keeping their health insurance after leaving the job. Which enumerated power allowed Congress to make the law? (A) Regulating commerce among the states (B) Declaring laws unconstitutional (C) Borrowing money on the credit of the United States (D) Issuing copyrights and patents
A
66. Nominations to the Supreme Court must be approved by (A) simple majority vote in the Senate only. (B) simple majority vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate. (C) two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives only. (D) two-thirds vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
A
76. In the last fifty years (probably more), the single most important variable in determining the outcome of an election for a member of the House of Representatives has been a. Incumbency. b. Personal wealth. c. Previous political offices held in the district. d. Membership in the political party of the president.
A
84. Which of the following is true of a presidential veto of a piece of legislation? a. It is rarely overridden by Congress. b. It is not binding unless supported by the Cabinet. c. It can only be sustained on revenue bills. d. It is automatically reviewed by the United States Supreme Court.
A
93. All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT a. Hiring and firing Federal Court Judges. b. Addressing the Congress on the state of the union. c. Receiving ambassadors. d. Granting pardons for federal offenses.
A
96. The request of recent Presidents of the line item veto is a challenge to which of the following principles? a. Separation of Powers, b. Senatorial Courtesy, c. Eminent Domain, d. Executive Privilege
A
98. Which of the following did Congress move to regain powers previously lost to the executive branch? a. Budget and Impoundment Control Act b. Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act c. Presidential Disability Act d. Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
A
*unlimited cash wave political cartoon* 180. Which of the Supreme Court cases is most relevant to the topic of the cartoon? (A) Baker v. Carr (1962) (B) Citizens United v. Federal Elections Commission (2010) (C) New York Times Co. v. United States (1971) (D) Shaw v. Reno (1993)
B
1. Which of the following statements best summarizes Hamilton's argument? (A) Even though civil liberties are protected by a bill of rights, there are some reasonable exceptions. (B) Listing rights will lead some to assume that government may regulate those rights. (C) Freedom of the press is essential for a functioning democracy. (D) A bill of rights is necessary to protect civil liberties such as freedom of the press.
B
102. One of the formal tools used by Congress for oversight of the bureaucracy is a. The line item veto. b. Authorization of spending. c. Impoundment bills. d. Private bills.
B
104. A major reason why the majority of Supreme Court justices have had political experience prior to appointment to the Court is that a. Justices are expected to act like politicians in their decision-making. b. Presidents seek to place individuals on the Court whose policy views are similar to their own. c. The Senate will refuse to confirm any nominee to the Court who is not familiar with the political process. d. Appointment to the Supreme Court is a reward for political party loyalty.
B
105. The Supreme Court ruled the legislative veto unconstitutional on the grounds that such vetoes a. Were the province of the courts alone. b. Violated the principle of separation of powers. c. Would give the executive branch too much power. d. Would give too much authority to nonelected officials.
B
107. The doctrine of Original Intent holds that a. Supreme Court justices must emphasize independent and original thinking in considering constitutional matters. b. The meaning of the Constitution depends on the intention of the framers. c. Cases selected for review by the Supreme Court must address an original and new concern not previously addressed by the Court. d. Supreme Court justices should avoid bias by documenting their original impressions of a case
B
108. All of the following serve as checks on the power of the federal courts EXCEPT a. Federal judges can be impeached. b. The voters can oust federal judges in national elections. c. Congress can pass laws clarifying "legislative intent." d. Presidents, governors, and local executives can refrain from enforcing court rulings.
B
111. The most important source of the Supreme Court's caseload is a. Its original jurisdiction. b. Its appellate jurisdiction. c. Instruction from the solicitor general. d. The special master's certification of cases for review.
B
115. In 1954, the Court ruled that separate but equal was inherently unequal. Because this decision affected not only Linda Brown but all students in the same situation it is called: a. Litmus Test, b. Class-action suit, c. Per Curium, d. Standing.
B
116. About 50% of the petitions for a Cert are from poor people and have their $300 fee waived. This is called? a. Litmus Test, b. In Forma Pauperis, c. Political Question, d. Judicial Review.
B
123. All of these are checks on Judicial Power of the Federal Court system EXCEPT: a. need for Senate confirmation, b. term of office, c. nomination by the President, d. Congresses ability to set their agenda,
B
124. The application of the death penalty has been limited in recent decades and cannot be applied to minors and people who are found to be mentally incompetent. Which of the following is a reason for this? (A) The Supreme Court redefined what constitutes an unreasonable intrusion under the Fourth Amendment. (B) The Supreme Court changed its interpretation of what constitutes cruel and unusual punishment under the Eighth Amendment. (C) The Fifth Amendment's due process clause motivated state legislatures to limit the death penalty. (D) The right to an attorney guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment led to limited application of the death penalty
B
129. Which of the following is contained in the Fourteenth Amendment and was likely an inspiration for Martin Luther King, Jr.'s "Letter from a Birmingham Jail"? (A) The guarantee that citizens have the right to a speedy and public trial regardless of gender, race, or age (B) The principle that all people should be equal under the law, as embodied in the equal protection clause (C) The guarantee that all people, regardless of race, religion, gender, or sexual orientation, have the right to free speech (D) The due process clause, which implies the right to vote, shall not be denied on the basis of race
B
43. A new president has been elected and has a number of positions to fill within the federal bureaucracy. Which of the following is an example of filling a position based on political patronage? (A) Choosing a secretary of state to appease members from the opposition party (B) Nominating a high-level campaign fund-raiser to serve as an ambassador to New Zealand (C) Reappointing the secretary of defense even though he or she was appointed by the previous president, who is a member of the opposite party (D) Asking the chair of a prestigious university's economics department to serve as chair of the Council of Economic Advisers
B
46. Appointments to the federal judiciary are often contentious. Why? (A) The House of Representatives can undermine presidential authority by overriding judicial appointments. (B) Life terms for federal judges mean that presidential appointments will continue to have influence long after the president's term is over. (C) The president selects nominees based on political orientation, while the Senate focuses on the academic credentials of nominees. (D) Federal judges are given a platform to legislate from the bench, and the Senate is hesitant about relinquishing power to the judiciary.
B
47. Bureaucratic rule-making is best defined as (A) legally binding decisions made by Congress to constrain regulatory agencies (B) guidelines issued by government agencies, which provide specific details about how a policy will be implemented (C) directions given by the president to the bureaucracy regarding how a specific policy will be applied (D) review and supervision of departments and agencies conducted by congressional committees
B
48. The president is most likely to use an executive order to make important policy when (A) Congress is dominated by the president's party (B) a compromise cannot be reached with Congress (C) the Supreme Court is divided along ideological lines (D) a negotiation with foreign heads of state reaches an impasse.
B
5. The legislative process at the national level of government reflects the intent of the framers of the Constitution to create a legislature that would be (A) less powerful than the executive (B) slow and deliberate in the law-making process (C) able to involve as many citizens as possible in the law making process (D) able to ensure that all citizens are equally represented
B
55. The role Congress plays in ensuring that executive branch agencies are carrying out their legislated responsibilities is known as (A) judicial review (B) legislative oversight (C) bicameralism (D) federalism
B
57. Of the following, which is the most powerful figure in Congress? (A) The Chair of the House Ways and Means Committee. (B) The Speaker of the House. (C) The Minority Whip of the Senate. (D) The Majority Whip of the House.
B
58. Which of the following is a member of the White House Staff? (A) The chair of the Federal Reserve Board. (B) The National Security Advisor. (C) The Secretary of Commerce. (D) The ambassador to the United Nations.
B
69. All of the following contribute to the success of incumbent members of Congress in election campaigns EXCEPT a. Incumbents usually raise more campaign funds than do their challengers. b. Incumbents tend to understand national issues better than do their challengers. c. Incumbents are usually better known to voters than are their challengers. d. Incumbents can use legislatives staff to perform campaign services.
B
72. Congressional district boundaries are usually redrawn every ten years by the a. Bureau of the Census b. State legislatures c. President d. House Rules Committee
B
75. To which of the following congressional committees would a proposal to reform the national income tax system initially be sent? a. House Appropriations Committee b. House Ways and Means Committee c. House Budget Committee d. Senate Budget Committee
B
79. Which of the following statements about Congress is true? a. Members of Congress only occasionally are interested in and pay attention to constituents. b. The legislative process is frequently lengthy and characterized by compromise and bargaining. c. Lobbyists and political action committees (PACs) successfully induce most members of Congress to trade their votes for campaign contributions. d. The growth in the size of Congress as an organization is the principal cause of growth in the federal budget deficit.
B
85. Which of the following is NOT a presidential role authorized by the Constitution? a. To be commander in chief of the armed forces b. To lead the political party of the President c. To negotiate treaties with foreign nations d. To be chief executive
B
87. Which of the following is true about the line item veto? a. It is specifically granted to the President by the Constitution. b. It is used by many state governors. c. It is basically the same as a pocket veto. d. Its use was upheld by the Supreme Court.
B
92. When selecting a vice-presidential candidate, a presidential nominee is usually concerned primarily with choosing a running mate who a. Has significant personal wealth. b. Adds balance and appeal to the national ticket. c. Comes from the same ideological wing of the party as the President. d. Can serve as the most important domestic policy adviser to the President.
B
101. Congress has exerted the greatest influence on the operation of a federal agency by doing which of the following? a. Requiring the agency to participate in interagency task forces. b. Dismissing an agency head who disagrees with congressional priorities c. Reviewing the annual budget appropriations for the agency d. Passing sunset legislation that terminates programs after a certain period
C
109. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Supreme Court and public opinion? a. The Court assesses public opinion on a controversial issue and then tries to follow it. b. Court prestige is so high that its decisions become public opinions. c. The existence of a public consensus on an issue limits the extent to which the Court will render decisions contrary to that consensus. d. Public opinion has no bearing on the effective implementation of the Court's decisions
C
114. A short, unsigned decision of the Court. a. Litmus Test, b. Class-action suit, c. Per Curium, d. Standing.
C
120. The Constitution prohibits citizens from suing states without first getting the state governments' permission. This is called: a. Per Curiam, b. Standing , c. Sovereign Immunity, d. Litmus Test.
C
126. Based on previous court rulings, which of the following scenarios would most likely violate the equal protection clause of the Fourteenth Amendment? (A) A police officer inspects the contents of a computer hard drive without a warrant. (B) A mayor refuses to allow an unpopular group to hold a political rally. (C) A public school system uses race-based segregation. (D) The federal government passes a law prohibiting assault rifles.
C
128. Which of the following scenarios would most likely be considered a violation of the Fourth Amendment? (A) A suspect is interrogated without being informed of the right to an attorney. (B) A person is tried twice for the same crime. (C) A suspect's cell phone is analyzed by police before a warrant is issued. (D) A person is prosecuted for a federal crime without a jury.
C
130. During the Civil War, President Lincoln suspended the right of habeas corpus and detained thousands of citizens who protested the war. Which of the following statements best illustrates this scenario? (A) When the public does not support the rights of others, those rights tend to no longer be applied. (B) There is nothing in the Constitution that guarantees the right to a fair trial. (C) There is a tension between civil liberties and public order. (D) Freedom of speech is an absolute right.
C
134. Explanations for low voter turnout include all of the following EXCEPT (A) registration requirements (B) weak party affiliation (C) laws protecting voting rights for minorities (D) weekday elections
C
135. Which of the following is true of the Voting Rights Act of 1965? (A) It was unnecessary because the 15th Amendment guaranteed African Americans the right to vote. (B) It has never been applied to any group except southern African Americans. (C) It has been a major instrument for increasing the number of African American and other minority voters. (D) It was declared unconstitutional by the United States Supreme Court in Shaw v. Reno.
C
136. The "wall of separation" doctrine refers to the a. Division between levels of government. b. Unique powers possessed by each branch of government. c. Division of church and state. d. Barrier between legislative chambers.
C
140. Which of the following principles protects a citizen from imprisonment without trial? a. Representative government b. Separation of powers c. Due process d. Checks and balances
C
141. The US Constitution guarantees all of the following rights to a person EXCEPT the right to a. Remain silent. b. Be represented by a lawyer. c. Negotiate a plea bargain. d. Demand a writ of habeas corpus.
C
145. Discrimination in public accommodations was made illegal in the US as a direct result of the a. Supreme Court decision in Brown v. the Board of Education of Topeka, Kansas b. Supreme Court decision in Sweatt v. Painter c. Civil Rights Act of 1964 d. Montgomery bus boycott
C
160. Which of the following BEST explains why delegates to both the Republican and Democratic Conventions in 1996 were much more likely to have college and postgraduate degrees than was the rest of the voting population? a. College education increases the likelihood of holding liberal political positions. b. College education increases the likelihood of holding conservative political positions. c. Political activism increases with education levels. d. Education allows people to have more time to attend conventions.
C
163. Of the following, which BEST predicts the likelihood that citizens will vote? a. Their race b. Their religion c. Their educational level d. Their gender
C
168. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of iron triangles? (A) The tendency of interest groups to hire former legislators, lobbyists, and judges (B) The inability of third-party candidates to garner public attention through media coverage (C) The long-term relationships between agencies, congressional committees, and interest groups in specific policy areas (D) The practice of congressional leaders diverting PAC funds meant for certain popular candidates to those in more competitive races
C
170. Which of the following best describes a trend in the line graph above? (A) Voter turnout in midterm elections increased substantially between 1982 and 2010. (B) Voter turnout in presidential elections generally increased between 1940 and 1948. (C) Voter turnout in midterm elections generally decreased between 1966 and 2014. (D) Voter turnout in presidential elections consistently decreased between 1972 and 2008.
C
177. One reason for the persistence of a two-party system in the United States is (A) the lack of divisive issues in United States politics (B) the separation of powers (C) the single-member district electoral system (D) the lack of a strong labor movement (E) low voter turnout in most elections
C
178. Which of the following is the leading predictor of how an individual will vote in a congressional election? (A) Newspaper endorsements (B) Gender (C) Partisanship (D) Presidential endorsement
C
182. Which of the following statements about gerrymandering is true? (A) It has been banned by United States Supreme Court decisions beginning with Baker v. Carr. (B) It was used traditionally to maintain urban control of the House of Representatives. (C) Can be used by a political party to draw boundary lines to control as many district seats as possible. (D) It guarantees greater constituency control over elected representatives.
C
185. Based on the infographic, which of the following strategies would a group seeking to increase turnout likely pursue? (A) Use radio ads to advocate stricter voter-ID laws (B) Hold a voter registration drive in public high schools (C) Lobby state legislatures to overturn voter-ID legislation (D) Lobby Congress to eliminate the Voting Rights Act
C
186. Which of the following best describes the difference between an Open and Closed primary? (A) Voters must pay a poll tax to vote in a closed primary, but not in an open primary. (B) Voters are allowed to split their ticket in a closed primary but not in an open primary. (C) Only voters who register as members of a political party may vote in that party's closed primary, while independents and others may be eligible to vote in open primaries. (D) Open primaries require a run-off system, while closed primaries do not. (E) Candidates must seek the approval of the party organization to run in a closed primary, but anyone may be a candidate in an open primary.
C
194. A primary election in which voters are required to identify a party preference before the election and are not allowed to split their ticket is called a. An open primary. b. A blanket primary. c. A closed primary. d. A runoff primary.
C
196. A state has 10 electoral votes. In a presidential election, the Democratic candidate receives 48 percent of that state's popular vote, the Republican candidate receives 40 percent of the vote, and an independent candidate receives 12 percent of the vote. If the state is similar to most (48 out of 50) other states, how will the electoral votes be allocated? a. The Democratic candidate will receive 5 votes, the Republican 3, and the independent 2. b. The Democratic candidate will receive 6 electoral votes and the Republican will receive 4. c. The Democratic candidate will receive all 10 votes. d. The votes will not be allocated until there has been a runoff election between the Democratic and Republican. e. The House of Representatives will determine the allocation of the electoral votes.
C
20. The free-exercise clause protects a. the president from forcibly revealing private conversations with staff b. individuals who, for religious reasons, refuse to pay Social Security taxes c. voluntary prayer by student groups before school d. a person's right to burn the American flag
C
29. The importance of Shays' Rebellion to the development of the US Constitution was that it a. Revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances. b. Demonstrated the intensity of anti-ratification sentiment within the thirteen states. c. Indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order. d. Convinced the delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan
C
30. This decision of the Supreme Court upheld the principle that a. The federal government and the state governments are equal. b. Congress has only those powers specifically enumerated in the Constitution. c. Congress has the power to make laws to carry out the constitutional duties. d. Taxation without representation is unconstitutional.
C
33. Which of the following BEST defines the constitutional interpretation of federalism? a. The federal government and the states each have separate and mutually exclusive roles and responsibilities. b. The states have some powers reserved to them which they may exercise if the Supreme Court permits. c. The federal government and the states have separate but overlapping powers; where these powers conflict, the federal government prevails. d. The states may only exercise those powers delegated to them by Congress.
C
39. Which of the following best explains the difference in the number of bureaucrats employed by the Department of Education and the Department of Homeland Security? (A) The Department of Homeland Security was created before the Department of Education. (B) The Department of Education receives its funding from Congress, while the Department of Homeland Security works directly for the president. (C) The Department of Education primarily addresses state issues, whereas the Department of Homeland Security primarily addresses national issues. (D) The Department of Homeland Security hires more employees at the state level than the Department of Education.
C
4. Based on the text, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with? (A) The United States Constitution explicitly prohibits the government from restricting the press. (B) The amendment process would create confusion about the meaning of the United States Constitution. (C) The Bill of Rights could potentially be used to limit civil liberties. (D) The media ought to be held accountable for publishing untrue information about public figures.
C
40. Which of the following statements describes a difficulty presidents face in the policy implementation process? (A) Members of the bureaucracy often lack the expertise to carry out the president's preferred policies. (B) Members of the president's Cabinet can be removed at any time by Congress. (C) Because of civil service laws, it is not easy for the president to remove professional bureaucrats when they disagree with the president's agenda. (D) Congress generally gives specific details about how the laws they pass will be executed by members of the professional bureaucracy.
C
50. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of divided government? (A) Reorganization of the federal bureaucracy (B) Conflicts between states (C) Delays in confirmation of federal court nominees (D) Conflicts between national government and states
C
51. Which of the following statements about the Senate is true? (A) Each state is represented in the Senate according to its population. (B) The Senate, unlike the House, has a Rules Committee. (C) Individual senators can exercise substantial influence over the legislative process. (D) The Senate has a strict time limit on debates.
C
52. All of the are ways that the legislative branch can check the powers of the executive branch EXCEPT: (A) Congress may remove the president through its impeachment and conviction powers. (B) Congress may override a presidential veto. (C) Congress may pass a law declaring a presidential action unconstitutional. (D) The Senate may refuse to approve a presidential appointment.
C
172. Which of the following best describes the concept of political efficacy? (A) It is the belief that the average citizen can make little or no difference in an election. (B) It is the belief that an intelligent voting decision cannot be made without information. (C) It is the belief that the media must provide unbiased information for citizens to be able to make well-informed choices. (D) It is the belief that one can make a difference in politics by expressing an opinion and acting politically. (E) It is the belief that politicians must keep the electorate well-informed if they are to govern efficiently.
D
174. Based on the results shown in table, which candidate won the election? (A) The Democratic Party candidate (B) The Green Party candidate (C) The Reform Party candidate (D) The Republican Party candidate
D
176. Which of the following statements about political parties and the United States Constitution is true? (A) According to the Constitution, only two major political parties may exist at any time. (B) The Constitution requires political parties to be restricted by both federal and state law. (C) The Constitution indicates that political party leaders at the national level be elected by political party leaders at the state level. (D) The issue of political parties is not addressed in the Constitution
D
18. Giving state governments greater discretion in deciding how to achieve the specific goals of welfare reform is an example of a. an unfunded mandate, b. implied powers, c. dual federalism, d. devolution.
D
183. Which of the following is NOT a way in which the federal government regulates campaigns? (A) By requirements for disclosure of campaign donations (B) By establishment of federal agencies to regulate campaign finance activities (C) By limits on the distribution of soft money (D) By prohibitions on negative advertising
D
189. Interest groups engage in all of the following activities EXCEPT (A) testifying before congressional committees (B) sponsoring issue advocacy ads (C) lobbying federal agencies (D) using the franking privilege
D
191. The concept of "critical elections" is most closely associated with (A) The electoral college process (B) Elections during wartime (C) The nomination process (D) Party realignment
D
198. Political parties serve which of the following functions in the United States? I. Informing the public about political issues II. Mobilizing voters and getting them to the polls III. Organizing diverse interests within society IV. Establishing the rules governing financial contributions to political candidates a. II only b. I and II only c. III and IV only d. I, II, and III only
D
199. Which of the following were LEAST likely to have been part of the New Deal electoral coalition? a. Blue-collar workers b. Racial minorities c. Southerners d. Northern business leaders
D
206. Which of the following statements about political action committees (PACs) is true? a. PACs may give unlimited contributions to the election campaigns of individual candidates. b. PAC spending has not kept pace with inflation. c. PAC activity is limited to direct contributions to candidates. d. PAC spending makes up a higher percentage of congressional campaign funds than that of presidential campaign funds.
D
207. The primary function of political action committees (PACs) is to a. Serve as fundraising organizations for challengers. b. Provide members of Congress with unbiased information regarding proposed legislation. c. Consult with the President regarding domestic policy. d. Encourage broader participation in politics among the electorate. e. Raise campaign funds to support favored candidates.
D
208. A corporate lobbyist would be LEAST likely to have an informal discussion about a pending policy matter with which of the following? a. A member of the House in whose district the corporation has a plant. b. A member of the White House staff concerned about the issue. c. A member of the staff of the Senate committee handling a matter of concern to the corporation. d. A federal judge in whose court a case important to the corporation is being heard.
D
210. The major impact third political parties have on presidential elections has been to a. recruit leaders from the Democrats and Republicans to run for president b. draw enough votes from the major parties to throw the election into the House of Representatives c. generate increased party identification among the electorate d. develop issues that are later adopted by the major political parties
D
23. The terms "fiscal federalism" and "cooperative federalism" refer to situations in which? a. The federal government completely dominates state and local governments. b. States are forbidden any activity that has not been specifically approved by the Supreme Court. c. The federal judiciary uses its power of judicial review to ensure congressional dominance over state legislatures. d. Federal, state and local governments work together to complete a project, with the federal government providing much of the project funding.
D
41. The map shows the outline of a congressional district. Which of the following statements best explains the motivation behind the way in which it is drawn? (A) It has been drawn by a political party to group together moderate voters. (B) It has been drawn cooperatively by both political parties to ensure a fair election. (C) It has been drawn to group together diverse voters to foster highly competitive elections. (D) It has likely been drawn to pack together voters who are registered with the same party.
D
49. The term "pork barrel" refers to legislation specifically designed to the following issues? (A) encourage a balanced federal budget. (B) ensure the careful inspection of farm goods and other foodstuffs. (C) distribute excess produce to the poor. (D) provide funding for local projects that are intended to benefit constituents.
D
54. Which of the following statements about motions for cloture is true? (A) They force a bill out of committee so that the full House can vote on it. (B) They are applied to bills that failed in the previous session of Congress. (C) They are applied only to appropriation bills. (D) They are used by senators to end a filibuster and bring a bill to a vote.
D
56. The Constitution states that all revenue bills must originate in (A) a White House budget resolution. (B) the Congressional Budget Office. (C) the United States Senate. (D) the United States House of Representatives.
D
61. In the process and structure of public policymaking, "iron triangles" refer to the (A) bargaining and negotiating process between the President and Congress about the direction of domestic policy (B) dominance of corporate power in setting the national policy agenda for economic expansion (C) interrelationship among federal, state, and local levels of government in the policy process (D) networks of congressional committees, bureaucratic agencies, and interest groups that strongly influence the policy process
D
63. The Supreme Court's power of judicial review permits the Court to overrule all of the following EXCEPT (A) lower-court decisions (B) state legislation (C) acts of Congress (D) the Bill of Rights
D
67. Which of the following is true of most federal judges appointed by the president? (A) They serve ten-year terms. (B) They serve as long as the appointing. (C) They serve for life on good behavior unless removed by the President. (D) They serve for life on good behavior unless impeached and convicted by Congress.
D
70. The voting patterns of members of Congress correlate most strongly with a. The population density of their districts. b. Their economic background. c. Their education level. d. Their political party affiliation.
D
71. A member of the House of Representatives who wishes to be influential in the House itself would most likely seek a place on which of the following committees? a. Agriculture. b. International Relations. c. Transportation and Infrastructure. d. Rules.
D
73. Which of the following committees of the House of Representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation? a. Ways and Means b. Appropriations c. Judiciary d. Rules
D
74. An electoral system based on single member districts is usually characterized by a. Strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive. b. Higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems. c. Legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it receives proportion. d. Domination of the legislature by two political parties.
D
78. Which of the following actions can Congress take if the Supreme Court finds a federal law unconstitutional? a. Appeal the Court's decision to the District of Columbia's Court of Appeals. b. Formally request the President to veto the Court's decision. c. Remove certain members of the Court and replace them with new members. d. Try to amend the Constitution.
D
91. The usefulness to the President of having cabinet members as political advisors is undermined by the fact that a. The President has little latitude in choosing cabinet members. b. Cabinet members have no political support independent of the President. c. Cabinet members are usually drawn from Congress and retain loyalties to Congress. d. The loyalties of cabinet members are often divided between loyalty to the President and loyalty to their own executive departments.
D
97. Which of the following is a result of the Electoral College system? a. The winner of the presidency often lacks a majority of the popular vote. b. Candidates focus on one-party states in which they can win most of the electoral votes. c. The House of Representatives frequently chooses the President from the top three candidates. d. Candidates focus on large swing state.
D
99. The largest source of federal revenue is the a. Capital gains tax, b. Social security tax, c. Property tax, d. Income tax.
D
For 155 only: In a public opinion poll of a representative sample of a population, 1,200 people were asked to agree, disagree, or express neutrality toward the following statements. Statement A: The government should spend more money on welfare. Result: 35·percent of the respondents agreed. Statement B: The government should spend more money on helping the poor. Result: 60·percent of respondents agreed. 155. Which of the following most likely accounts for the different results? (A) The questions were not open-ended. (B) There were no welfare recipients in the sample. (C) The sample size was not large enough to be reliable. (D) The questions contained a difference in wording.
D
PARTISANSHIP AND THE VOTE: 1984 Percent Voting for Presidential Candidates, by Party Percent Democratic Independent Republican Voting for Strong Weak Independent Independent Weak Strong Mondale 89 68 79 28 7 6 3 Reagan 11 32 21 72 93 94 97 158. The table above supports which of the following statements about partisanship and the 1984 presidential election? (A) Democrats were more likely to vote their party identification than were Republicans. (B) The number of strong Democrats was less than the number of strong Republicans. (C) Independent Democrats and independent Republicans were the two groups most likely to vote for candidates of the other party. (D) Partisanship was a good predictor of the way a person voted.
D
