ARRT REVIEW x 3
A dorsal decubitus position of the chest may be used to evaluate small amounts of 1. fluid in the posterior chest. 2. air in the posterior chest. 3. fluid in the anterior chest. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
1. Fluid in the posterior chest
A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an) A Hill-Sachs defect. B Bankart lesion. C rotator cuff tear. D adhesive capsulitis.
A
A decrease in kilovoltage will result in A a decrease in optical density B a decrease in contrast C a decrease in recorded detail D a decrease in image resolution
A
A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with A pathology. B crepitus. C trauma. D metabolism.
A
All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except 1. radiation dose is considerable. 2. two x-ray photon energies are used. 3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A
Cells concerned with the formation and repair of bone are A osteoblasts. B osteoclasts. C osteomas. D osteons.
A
Decreasing field size from 14 × 17 into 8 × 10 inches will A decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. B decrease radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. C increase radiographic density and increase the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. D increase radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part.
A
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the A AP projection B lateral projection C medial oblique projection D lateral oblique projection
A
Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion of the body A in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface. B in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen. C passing through the center of gravity. D None of the above.
A
The primary center of ossification in long bones is the A diaphysis. B epiphysis. C metaphysis. D apophysis.
A
The source-to-table distance in fixed/stationary fluoroscopy must A be at least 15 in. B not exceed 15 in. C be at least 12 in. D not exceed 12 in.
A
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees A toward the affected side B away from the affected side C with the arm at the side in the anatomic position D with the arm in external rotation
A
To produce a just perceptible increase in radiographic density, the radiographer must increase the A mAs by 30% B mAs by 15% C kV by 15% D kV by 30%
A
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? Femur Tibia Patella A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A
Which of the following voltage ripples is (are) produced by single-phase equipment 1. 100% voltage ripple 2. 13% voltage ripple 3. 3.5% voltage ripple A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A
Which of the following systems function(s) to compensate for changing patient/part thicknesses during fluoroscopic procedures? A Automatic brightness control B Minification gain C Automatic resolution control D Flux gain
A. Automatic brightness control
In the CR reader, some of the laser light is redirected to a reference detector by way of a(n): A Beam splitter B Analog-to-digital converter C Photomultiplier tube D f-theta lens
A. Beam splitter
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is A hemoptysis B hematemesis C chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D bronchitis
A. Hemoptysis
An emetic is used to A induce vomiting B stimulate defecation C promote elimination of urine D inhibit coughing
A. Induce vomiting
The image intensifier's input phosphor differs from the output phosphor in that the input phosphor A is much larger than the output phosphor B emits electrons, whereas the output phosphor emits light photons C absorbs electrons, whereas the output phosphor absorbs light photons D is a fixed size, and the size of the output phosphor can vary
A. Is much larger than the output The image intensifier's input phosphor is 6 to 9 times larger than the output phosphor. It receives the remnant radiation emerging from the patient and converts it into a fluorescent light image. Very close to the input phosphor, separated only by a thin, transparent layer, is the photocathode. The photocathode is made of a photoemissive alloy, usually a cesium and antimony compound. The fluorescent light image strikes the photocathode and is converted to an electron image, which is focused by the electrostatic lenses to the small output phosphor. (Bushong, 8th ed., pp. 360-363)
In fluoroscopy, the automatic brightness control is used to adjust the A kVp and mA B backup timer C milliamperage (mA) and time D kilovoltage (kV) and time
A. KVP and mA
How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle? A The greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section. B The greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section. C The less the tomographic angle, the thinner the section. D The tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness.
B
Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability of the affected hand and wrist is known as A carpal boss syndrome B carpal tunnel syndrome C carpopedal syndrome D radioulnar syndrome
B
In the AP projection of the ankle, the plantar surface of the foot is vertical. fibula projects more distally than the tibia. calcaneus is well visualized. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
A 15% increase in kVp accompanied by a 50% decrease in mAs will result in a(n) A shorter scale of contrast. B increase in exposure latitude. C increase in radiographic density. D decrease in recorded detail.
B
A backup timer for the AEC serves to protect the patient from overexposure protect the x-ray tube from excessive heat increase or decrease master density A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
A quantity of medication introduced intravenously over a period of time is termed A an IV push. B an infusion. C a bolus. D a hypodermic.
B
Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? Bell-Thompson scale Bucky tray Cannula A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except A the right lung has three lobes. B the inferior portion of the lung is the apex. C each lung is enclosed in serous membrane. D the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum.
B
Compared with slow-speed screens, high-speed screens are often used to minimize patient dose keep exposure time to a minimum image fine anatomic details A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist? A Extend the fingers. B Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints. C Extend the forearm. D Oblique the metacarpals 45 degrees.
B
Which of the following requires two exposures to evaluate focal-spot accuracy? A Pinhole camera B Slit camera C Star pattern D Bar pattern
B. Slit camera
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the A thyroid gland B thyroid cartilage C vocal cords D pharynx
B. Thyroid cartilage
Graves disease is associated with A thyroid underactivity B thyroid overactivity C adrenal underactivity D adrenal overactivity
B. Thyroid overactivity
The electron beam in a television cathode ray tube (CRT) is projected onto the output phosphor in a: A Vertical pattern B Fixed direct beam C Broad field D Raster pattern
D. Raster pattern
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers A rest on the cassette for immobilization B must be supported parallel to the IR C are radiographed in natural flexion D are radiographed in palmar flexion
b
The unit of absorbed dose is the A roentgen (C/kg). B rad (Gy). C rem (Sv). D RBE.
b. RAD
All the following statements regarding three-phase current are true except A three-phase current is constant-potential direct current. B three-phase equipment produces more x-rays per milliampere-second. C three-phase equipment produces higher-average-energy x-rays than single-phase equipment. D the three-phase waveform has less ripple than the single-phase waveform.
A. Three-phase current is obtained from three individual alternating currents superimposed on, but out of step with, one another by 120 degrees. The result is an almost constant potential current, with only a very small voltage ripple (4%-13%), producing more x-rays per milliampere-second. (Bushong, 10th ed., p. 243)
Which of the following combinations would pose the most hazard to a particular anode? A 0.6 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs B 0.6 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs C 1.2 mm focal spot, 75 kVp, 30 mAs D 1.2 mm focal spot, 85 kVp, 15 mAs
A. 0.6 mm focal 75, KVP WHY not 85 KVP--- LOOK UP!!!
Deposition of vaporized tungsten on the inner surface of the x-ray tube glass window acts as additional filtration results in increased tube output results in anode pitting A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 Only
Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a 1. torn meniscus. 2. Baker's cyst. 3. torn rotator cuff. A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 and 2
Which of the following is/are components of the secondary, or high voltage, side of the x-ray circuit? Rectification system Autotransformer kV meter A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only
Which of the following tissues is (are) considered to be particularly radiosensitive? Intestinal mucous membrane Epidermis of extremities Optic nerves A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only
Photospot camera film used in fluoroscopy comes in which two sizes? A 70 mm and 105 mm B 35 mm and 100 mm C 18 mm and 35 mm D 15 cm and 30 cm
A. 70 mm and 105 mm
Which of the following is/are components of the secondary, or high voltage, side of the x-ray circuit? Rectification system Autotransformer kV meter A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only All circuit devices located before the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer are said to be on the primary or low-voltage side of the x-ray circuit. The timer, autotransformer, and (prereading) kilovoltage meter are all located in the low-voltage circuit. The secondary/high-voltage side of the circuit begins with the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer. The mA meter is connected at the midpoint of the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer. Following the secondary coil is the rectification system, and the x-ray tube. (Selman, 9th ed., pp. 150-151)
Capacitor-discharge mobile x-ray units use capacitors to power the x-ray tube machine locomotion braking mechanism A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only Mobile x-ray machines are smaller and more compact than their fixed counterparts in the radiology department. It is important that they be relatively easy to move, that their size allows entry into patient rooms, and that their locks enable securing of the x-ray tube into the required positions. Mobile x-ray machines are cordless and are either the battery-operated type or the condenser-discharge type. Condenser-discharge mobile x-ray units do not use batteries; this type of mobile unit requires that it be charged before each exposure. A condenser (or capacitor) is a device that stores electrical energy. The stored energy is used to operate the x-ray tube only. Because this machine does not carry many batteries, it is much lighter and does not need a motor to drive or brake it. The major disadvantage of the capacitor/condenser-discharge unit is that as the capacitor discharges its electrical charge, the kilovoltage gradually decreases throughout the length of the exposure—hence, the need for recharging between exposures. (Frank, Long, and Smith, 11th ed., vol. 3, p. 235)
Dorsal decubitus projections of the chest are used to evaluate small amounts of fluid in the posterior chest air in the posterior chest fluid in the anterior chest A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
A. 1 only Fluid in the posterior chest
The AP axial projection of the pulmonary apices requires the CR to be directed A 15 degrees cephalad B 15 degrees caudad C 30 degrees cephalad D 30 degrees caudad
A. 15 deg cephalad
Which of the following devices converts electrical energy to mechanical energy? A Motor B Generator C Stator D Rotor
A. Motor A motor is the device used to convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. The stator and rotor are the two principal parts of an induction motor. A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. (Selman, p 78)
A device used to ensure reproducible radiographs, regardless of tissue-density variations, is the A phototimer B penetrometer C grid D rare earth screen
A. Phototimer
Which of the following would be considered an advantage of using photospot camera film instead of cassette-loaded spot film to record conventional fluoroscopic images? A Reduced patient dosage B Larger anatomical image size C Reduced rate of exposures D No need for processing chemicals
A. Reduced patient dosage
The movement of the IP through the transport system of a CR reader is referred to as the: A Slow-scan direction B Charge-coupled direction C Nyquist direction D Fast-scan direction
A. Slow scan direction
All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except A the right lung has two lobes. B the uppermost portion of the lung is the apex. C each lung is enclosed in pleura. D the trachea bifurcates into mainstem bronchi.
A. The right lung has two lobes The trachea (windpipe) bifurcates into left and right mainstem bronchi, each entering its respective lung hilum. The left bronchus divides into two portions, one for each lobe of the left lung. The right bronchus divides into three portions, one for each lobe of the right lung (Fig. A). The lungs are conical in shape, consisting of upper pointed portions, termed the apices (plural of apex), and broad lower portions (or bases). The lungs are enclosed in a double-walled serous membrane called the pleura. (Bontrager and Lampignano, 6th ed., p. 80)
The line-focus principle refers to the fact that A the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot B the effective focal spot is larger than the actual focal spot C x-rays travel in straight lines D x-rays cannot be focused
A. the actual focal spot is larger than the effective focal spot
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges? A Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes B Tangential metatarsals/toes C 30-degree medial oblique foot D 30-degree lateral oblique foot
B
In which projection of the foot are the sinus tarsi, cuboid, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal best demonstrated? A Lateral oblique foot B Medial oblique foot C Lateral foot D Weight-bearing foot
B
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? A Closed B Compound C Compression D Depressed
B
Off-focus, or extrafocal, radiation is minimized by A avoiding the use of very high kilovoltages B restricting the x-ray beam as close to its source as possible C using compression devices to reduce tissue thickness D avoiding extreme collimation
B
Sources of natural background radiation exposure include 1. the food we eat. 2. air travel. 3. medical and dental x-rays. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the A AP shoulder external rotation radiograph. B AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph. C AP elbow radiograph. D Lateral elbow radiograph.
B
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the A median sagittal plane (MSP) B midcoronal plane C sagittal plane D transverse plane
B
The roentgen, as a unit of measurement, expresses A absorbed dose B exposure in air C dose equivalent D dose to biologic material
B
The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the 1. transverse arch. 2. longitudinal arch. 3. oblique arch. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
The term latitude describes an emulsion's ability to record a range of densities the degree of error tolerated with given exposure factors the conversion efficiency of a given intensifying screen A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
The term varus refers to A turned outward B turned inward C rotated medially D rotated laterally
B
The use of which of the following is (are) essential in magnification radiography? High-ratio grid Fractional focal spot Direct exposure technique A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
Using a short (25-30 in.) SID with a large (14 × 17 in.) IR is likely to A increase the scale of contrast B increase the anode heel effect C cause malfunction of the AEC D cause premature termination of the exposure
B
What is the most superior structure of the scapula? A Apex B Acromion process C Coracoid process D Superior angle
B
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa Supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? A Appendicitis B Intussusception C Regional enteritis D Ulcerative colitis
B
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of fluid in the pleural cavity? A Lateral decubitus, affected side up B Lateral decubitus, affected side down C AP Trendelenburg D AP supine
B
Which of the following terms refers to light being reflected from one intensifying screen, through the film, to the opposite emulsion and intensifying screen? A Reflectance B Crossover C Scatter D Filtration
B
Which of the following will result if developer replenishment is inadequate? A Images with excessively high contrast B Images with excessively low contrast C Images with excessively high density D Dry, brittle films
B
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? A Fifth metacarpal B First metacarpal C Distal radius D Distal ulna
B
In the lateral projection of the knee, the central ray is angled 5° cephalad to prevent superimposition of which of the following structures on the joint space? A Lateral femoral condyle B Medial femoral condyle C Patella D Tibial eminence
B For the lateral projection of the knee, the patient is turned onto the affected side. This places the lateral femoral condyle closest to the IR and the medial femoral condyle remote from the IR. Consequently, there is significant magnification of the medial femoral condyle and, unless the central ray is angled slightly cephalad, subsequent obliteration of the joint space
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? A Ewing sarcoma B Osgood-Schlatter disease C Gout D Exostosis
B Osgood-Schlatter disease is most common in adolescent boys, involving osteochondritis of the tibial tuberosity epiphysis. The large patellar tendon actually will pull the tibial tuberosity away from the tibia. Immobilization generally will resolve the issue. Ewing sarcoma is a malignant bone tumor most common in young children. It attacks long bones and presents a characteristic "onion peel" appearance. Gout is a type of arthritis that most commonly attacks the knee and first metatarsophalangeal joint, although other joints also can be involved. High levels of uric acid in the blood are deposited in the joint. Exostosis is a bony growth arising from the surface of a bone and growing away from the joint. It is a benign and sometimes painful condition. (Bontrager and Lampignano, 6th ed., p. 225)
Which of the following would be the safest interval of time for a fertile woman to undergo abdominal radiography without significant concern for irradiating a recently fertilized ovum? A The first 10 days following the cessation of menstruation B The first 10 days following the onset of menstruation C The 10 days preceding the onset of menstruation D About 14 days before menstruation
B The most hazardous time for abdominal irradiation is in the earliest stages of pregnancy, when many women are unaware that they are pregnant. For this reason, it is recommended that elective radiologic procedures be performed within the first 10 days following the onset of the menses. It is during this time that the danger of irradiating a recently fertilized ovum is most unlikely. About 14 days before the onset of menses is when the ovarian follicle ruptures and liberates an ovum.
Advantages of battery-powered mobile x-ray units include their ability to store a large quantity of energy ability to store energy for extended periods of time lightness and ease of maneuverability A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B There are two main types of mobile x-ray equipment—capacitor-discharge and battery-powered. Although capacitor-discharge units are light, and therefore fairly easy to maneuver, the battery-powered mobile unit is very heavy (largely because it carries its heavy-duty power source). It is, however, capable of storing a large milliampere-seconds capacity for extended periods of time. These units frequently have a capacity of 10,000 mAs, with 12 hours required for a full charge. (Carlton and Adler, 4th ed., pp. 558-561)
Which of the following is a vessel that does not carry oxygenated blood? A Pulmonary vein B Pulmonary artery C Coronary artery D Chordae tendineae
B. During ventricular systole, the blood is pumped through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery (the only artery to carry unoxygenated blood) to the lungs for oxygenation. Blood is returned via the pulmonary veins (the only veins to carry oxygenated blood) to the left atrium.
Components of digital imaging include computer manipulation of the image formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector formation of an x-ray image directly on the IR A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2
The following procedure can be employed to better demonstrate the carpal scaphoid: 1. elevate hand and wrist 20°. 2. place wrist in ulnar deviation. 3. angle CR 20° distally (toward fingers). A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2
Which of the following circuit devices operate(s) on the principle of self-induction? Autotransformer Choke coil High-voltage transformer A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2
Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration? X-ray tube glass envelope X-ray tube port window Aluminum between the tube housing and the collimator A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2
Which of the following information is necessary to determine the maximum safe kilovoltage using the appropriate x-ray tube rating chart? Milliamperage and exposure time Focal-spot size Imaging-system speed A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 2 Given the milliamperage and exposure time, a radiographic rating chart enables the radiographer to determine the maximum safe kilovoltage for a particular exposure. Because the heat load an anode will safely accept varies with the size of the focal spot and the type of rectification, these variables must be identified. Each x-ray tube has its own radiographic rating chart. The speed of the imaging system has no impact on the use of a radiographic rating chart. (Selman, 9th ed., p. 145)
In order to erase a CR PSP storage plate, it must be exposed to high-intensity: A Heat B X-radiation C Microwaves D Light
D. Light
What quantity of radiation exposure to the reproductive organs is required to cause temporary infertility?
B. 200 rad
What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing and imaging apparatus? A Output phosphor B Beam splitter C Spot-film changer D Automatic brightness control
B. Beam splitter
Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or a cardiac arrest? A Nitroglycerin B Epinephrine C Hydrocortisone D Digitoxin
B. Epinephrine Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is the vasopressor used to treat an anaphylactic reaction or cardiac arrest. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. Hydrocortisone is a steroid that may be used to treat bronchial asthma, allergic reactions, and inflammatory reactions. Digitoxin is used to treat cardiac fibrillation. (Adler and Carlton, 4th ed., p. 305)
Which of the following is a device that can be used in lieu of an image intensifier/charge-coupled device combination in digital fluoroscopy? A Charge-coupled device B Flat panel image receptor C photometer D photomultiplier tube
B. Flat panel image receptor
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? A AP B Lateral C Acute flexion D AP partial flexion
B. Lateral
An aspirated foreign body is more likely to enter the lower respiratory tract via the A left main stem bronchus. B right main stem bronchus. C bronchioles. D alveoli.
B. Right main stem bronchus
A dose of 25 rad to the fetus during the fourth or fifth week of pregnancy is more likely to cause which of the following: A Spontaneous abortion B skeletal anomalies C neurologic anomalies D organogenesis
B. Skeletal anomalies
Continuous rotation of the CT x-ray tube and detector array, with simultaneous movement of the CT couch, has been accomplished through implementation of A additional cables. B slip rings. C multiple rows of detectors. D electron beam CT.
B. Slip rings n the 1990s, the implementation of slip ring technology allowed continuous rotation of the x-ray tube (through elimination of cables) and simultaneous couch movement. Sixth-generation CT scanning is termed helical (or spiral) CT—permitting acquisition of volume multislice scanning. Today's helical multislice scanners, employing thousands of detectors (up to 60+ rows), can obtain uninterrupted data acquisition of 128 "slices" per tube rotation and can perform 3D multiplanar reformation (MPR). Fifth-generation CT is electron beam; ultra high-speed CT is used specifically for cardiac imaging. (Bushong, 9th ed., p. 375; Romans, pp. 50-51)
Which of the following is a type of television camera tube that converts a visible image on the output phosphor of the image intensifier into an electronic signal? A Ionization chamber B Vidicon C Charge-coupled device D Cathode ray tube
B. Vidicon The Vidicon (B) is a television camera tube used in television fluoroscopy. It is a cylindrical glass vacuum tube that contains a cathode and anode. A major change from conventional television fluoroscopy to digital fluoroscopy is the use of a charge-coupled device (CCD) (C) in lieu of a television camera tube. The CCD is mounted directly to the output phosphor of the image intensifier tube and is coupled through fiber optics or a lens system to receive the light from the output phosphor.
Star and wye configurations are related to A autotransformers B three-phase transformers C rectification systems D AECs
B. three-phase The terms star and wye (or delta) refer to the configuration of transformer windings in three-phase equipment. Instead of having a single primary coil and a single secondary coil, the high-voltage transformer has three primary and three secondary windings—one winding for each phase (Figure 5-13). Autotransformers operate on the principle of self-induction and have only one winding. Three-phase x-ray equipment often has three autotransformers. (Selman, 9th ed., p. 163)
A decrease from 90 to 77 kVp will result in a decrease in which of the following? Wavelength Scale of grays Optical density A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate a fracture a foreign body soft tissue A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only
C
A decrease from 200 to 100 mA will result in a decrease in which of the following? Wavelength Exposure rate Beam intensity A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3
According to the CDC, all the following precaution guidelines are true except A airborne precautions require that the patient wear a mask. B masks are indicated when caring for patients on MRSA precautions. C patients under MRSA precautions require a negative-pressure room. D gloves are indicated when caring for a patient on droplet precautions.
C
Central ray angulation may be required for magnification of anatomic structures foreshortening or self-superimposition superimposition of overlying structures A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
In the lateral projection of the ankle, the talotibial joint is visualized. talofibular joint is visualized. tibia and fibula are superimposed. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
Radiation output from a diagnostic x-ray tube is measured in which of the following units of measurement? A Rad B Rem C Roentgen D Becqueral
C
The device that receives the remnant beam, converts it into light, and then increases the brightness of that light is the A charge-coupled device (CCD) B spot-film camera C image intensifier D television monitor
C
The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage? A Endocrine B Integumentary C Skeletal D Muscular
C
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the A periosteum. B endosteum. C epiphysis. D diaphysis.
C
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture? Transverse fracture of the radial head Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid Posterior or backward displacement A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax? Manubrium Clavicles 24 ribs A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation? A AP B 90 degrees mediolateral C 45-degree internal rotation D 45-degree external rotation
C
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the coronoid process free of superimposition and the olecranon process within the olecranon fossa? A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique
C
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? AP humerus Lateral forearm Internal rotation shoulder A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C
Which part of an induction motor is located outside the x-ray tube glass envelope? A Filament B Focusing cup C Stator D Rotor
C
An exposure was made of a part using 300 mA and 0.06 second with a 200-speed film-screen combination. An additional radiograph is requested using a 400-speed system to reduce motion unsharpness. Using 400 mA, all other factors remaining constant, what should be the new exposure time? A 5 ms B 11 ms C 22 ms D 44 ms
C High-speed imaging systems are valuable for reducing patient exposure and patient motion. However, some detail will be sacrificed, and quantum mottle can cause further image impairment. In general, doubling the film-screen speed doubles the radiographic density, thereby requiring that the milliampere-seconds value be halved to maintain the original radiographic density. Changing from 200 to 400 screens requires halving the milliampere-seconds value to 9 mAs. The new exposure time, using 400 mA, is 400x = 9. Thus, x = 0.0225-s exposure using 400 mA and 400-speed screens (0.0225 = 22.5 ms). (Selman, 9th ed., p. 181)
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? Knee Intervertebral joints Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C Diarthrotic, or synovial, joints, such as the knee and the TMJ, are freely movable. Most diarthrotic joints are associated with a joint capsule containing synovial fluid. Diarthrotic joints are the most numerous in the body and are subdivided according to type of movement. Amphiarthrotic joints are partially movable joints whose articular surfaces are connected by cartilage, such as intervertebral joints. Synarthrotic joints, such as the cranial sutures, are immovable. (Bontrager and Lampignano, 6th ed., pp. 10-13)
All the following statements regarding CR IPs are true except A IPs do not contain radiographic film. B IPs use no intensifying screens. C IPs must exclude all white light. D IPs function to protect the PSP.
C Externally, IPs (Image Plates) appear very much like traditional film-screen cassettes. However, the main function of an IP is to support and protect the PSP (SPS) that lies within the IP. IPs do not contain intensifying screens or film and, therefore, do not need to be lighttight. The photostimulable PSP is not affected by light. (Shephard, p. 51)
Which of the following combinations would deliver the least amount of heat to the anode of a three-phase, 12-pulse x-ray unit? A 400 mA, 0.12 s, 90 kVp B 300 mA, ½ s, 70 kVp C 500 mA, 1/30 s, 85 kVp D 700 mA, 0.06 s, 120 kVp
C Radiographic rating charts enable the operator to determine the maximum safe milliamperage, exposure time, and kilovoltage for a particular exposure using a particular x-ray tube. An exposure that can be made using the large focal spot may not be safe when the small focal spot of the same x-ray tube is used. The total number of heat units an exposure generates also influences the amount of stress (in the form of heat) imparted to the anode. Single-phase heat units are determined by the product of milliampere-seconds and kilovoltage. A correction factor is required to determine the HU of three-phase equipment and high frequency equipment. Unless the equipment manufacturer specifies otherwise, three-phase and high frequency equipment heat units are determined by multiplying mA × second × kV × 1.4. In the examples given, then, group (A) produces 6,048 HU, group (B) produces 14,700 HU, group (C) produces 1,983 HU, and group (D) produces 7,056 HU. Therefore, group (C) exposure factors will deliver the least amount of heat to the anode. (Bushong, 10th ed p. 120).
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? The heads of the first row of phalanges The cuboid The cuneiforms A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C The metatarsals and phalanges are miniature long bones; each has a shaft, base (proximal), and head (distal). The bases of the first to third metatarsals articulate with the three cuneiforms. The bases of the fourth and fifth metatarsals articulate with the cuboid. The heads of the metatarsals articulate with the bases of the first row of phalanges. (Bontrager and Lampignano, 6th ed., p. 210)
Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail? A Anterior B Posterior C Medial D Lateral
C Think anatomical position
Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? Radiation dose is low. Only low-energy photons are used. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 1 and 3
Which of the following statements regarding film badges is (are) correct? 1. Film badges should be read quarterly. 2. Film badges must not leave the workplace. 3. Film badges measure quantity and quality of radiation exposure. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C 2 and 3
An automatic exposure control device can operate on which of the following principles? 1. A photomultiplier tube charged by a fluorescent screen 2. A parallel-plate ionization chamber charged by x-ray photons 3. Motion of magnetic fields inducing current in a conductor A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 2
he total brightness gain of an image intensifier is the product of flux gain minification gain focusing gain A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 Total brightness gain is equal to the product of minification gain and flux gain. (Bushong, 9th ed., p. 351)
Grid interspace material can be made of plastic lead aluminum A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3
Which of the following function(s) to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR? 1. Grid devices 2. Restricted focal spot size 3. Beam restrictors A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
C. 1 and 3
The voltage ripple associated with a three-phase, six-pulse rectified generator is about A 100% B 32% C 13% D 3%
C. 13% Voltage ripple refers to the percentage drop from maximum voltage each pulse of current experiences. In single-phase rectified equipment, the entire pulse (half-cycle) is used; therefore, there is first an increase to the maximum (peak) voltage value and then a decrease to zero potential (90-degree past-peak potential). The entire waveform is used; if 100 kV were selected, the actual average kilovoltage output would be approximately 70 kV. Three-phase rectification produces almost constant potential, with just small ripples (drops) in maximum potential between pulses. Approximately a 13% voltage ripple (drop from maximum value) characterizes the operation of three-phase, six-pulse generators. Three-phase, 12-pulse generators have about a 3.5% voltage ripple. (Selman, 9th ed., p. 162)
An exposure was made at a 36-in. SID using 12 mAs and 75 kVp with a 400-speed imaging system and an 8:1 grid. A second radiograph is requested with improved recorded detail. Which of the following groups of technical factors will best accomplish this task? A 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed system, 36-in. SID B 15 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 400-speed system, 40-in. SID C 30 mAs, 12:1 grid, 75 kVp, 200-speed system, 40-in. SID D 12 mAs, 8:1 grid, 86 kVp, 200-speed system, 36-in. SID
C. 30 mAs 40 in SID Look over the choices again, keeping in mind the factors that affect recorded detail. Looking first at SID, the options may be reduced to (B) and (C) because the increase to a 40-in. SID certainly will improve recorded detail. There is one other factor that will affect detail—the speed of the system (intensifying screens). Because a slower system will render better recorded detail, the best answer is (C). The technical factors such as milliampere-seconds, kilovoltage, and grid ratio have no effect on recorded detail. (Shephard, pp. 247, 310)
If 92 kV and 12 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, six-pulse equipment? A 36 B 24 C 8 D 6
C. 8 Single-phase radiographic equipment is much less efficient than three-phase equipment because it has a 100% voltage ripple. With three-phase equipment, voltage never drops to zero, and x-ray intensity is significantly greater. To produce similar density, only two thirds of the original mAs would be used for three-phase, six-pulse equipment (2/3 × 12 = 8 mAs). With 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment, the original mAs would be cut in half. (Saia, pp 329, 330)
Medical and dental radiation accounts for what percentage of the general public's exposure to human-made radiation? A 10% B 50% C 80% D 95%
C. 80%
Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior: 1. Trachea 2. Apex of heart 3. Esophagus A Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart B Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart C Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus D Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea
C. Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest? A Esophagus B Trachea C Cardiac apex D Superimposed scapular borders
C. Cardiac apex
Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except A the left lung has two lobes B the lower portion of the lung is the base C each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum
C. Each lung enclosed in peritoneum The trachea (windpipe) bifurcates into left and right main stem bronchi, each of which enters its respective lung hilum. The left bronchus divides into two portions—one for each lobe of the left lung. The right bronchus divides into three portions—one for each lobe of the right lung. The lungs are conical in shape, consisting of upper pointed portions, termed the apices (plural of apex), and broad lower portions (or bases). The lungs are enclosed in a double-walled serous membrane called the pleura. (Tortora and Derrickson, 11th ed., p. 857)
The condition in which pulmonary alveoli lose their elasticity and become permanently inflated, causing the patient to consciously exhale, is A bronchial asthma B bronchitis C emphysema D tuberculosis
C. Emphysema
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries? A Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. B Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained. C Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position. D Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID.
C. Include a lateral chest/dorsal decubitus
Blood is returned to the left atrium, from the lungs, via the A aorta. B superior vena cava. C pulmonary veins. D pulmonary artery.
C. Pulmonary veins
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the A T2-3 interspace B T9-10 interspace C T5 D costal margin
C. T5 Surface landmarks, prominences, and depressions are very useful to the radiographer in locating anatomic structures that are not visible externally. The fifth thoracic vertebra is at approximately the same level as the sternal angle. The T2-3 interspace is about at the same level as the manubrial (suprasternal) notch. The costal margin is about the same level as L3. (Frank, Long, and Smith, 11th ed., vol. 1, p. 63)
All the following x-ray circuit devices are located between the incoming power supply and the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer except A the timer B the kilovoltage meter C the milliamperage meter D the autotransformer
C. The milliamperage meter All circuit devices located before the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer are said to be on the primary or low-voltage side of the x-ray circuit. The timer, autotransformer, and (prereading) kilovoltage meter are all located in the low-voltage circuit. The milliampere meter, however, is connected at the midpoint of the secondary coil of the high-voltage transformer. When studying a diagram of the x-ray circuit, it will be noted that the milliampere meter is grounded at the midpoint of the secondary coil (where it is at zero potential). Therefore, it may be placed in the control panel safely. (Selman, 9th ed., pp. 150-151)
What is the function of the x-ray tube component numbered 2 in Figure 7-18? A To release electrons when heated B To release light when heated C To direct electrons to the focal track D To direct light to the focal track
C. To direct electrons to the focal track
A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed A just below the EAM B to the level of the mandibular angles C to the level of the laryngeal prominence D to the level of C7
C. To the level of the laryngeal prominence
The most common cause of x-ray tube failure is A a cracked anode. B a pitted anode. C vaporized tungsten on glass envelope. D insufficient heat production.
C. Vaporized tungsten on glass envelope
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? A AP B Lateral C Medial oblique D Lateral oblique
D
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by trauma or other pathology greater than 90-degree flexion less than 90-degree flexion A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 1 and 3 only
D
Differences between body habitus types are likely to affect all the following except A the size and shape of an organ. B the position of an organ. C the position of the diaphragm. D the degree of bone porosity.
D
Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the 1. subscapularis. 2. infraspinatus. 3. teres minor. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
Periodic equipment care includes evaluation of the 1. intensifying screens. 2. milliamperage. 3. timer. A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
Possible responses to irradiation in utero include spontaneous abortion congenital anomalies childhood malignancies A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 only
D
Synovial fluid is associated with the A brain. B spinal canal. C peritoneal cavity. D bony articulations.
D
Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions? 1. supine flexion 45° (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90° (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55° (Hughston) A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 only
D
The advantages of high-frequency generators over earlier types of generators include smaller size. nearly constant potential. lower patient dose. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3
D
The effect described as differential absorption is responsible for radiographic contrast a result of attenuating characteristics of tissue minimized by the use of a high peak kilovoltage A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the A distal radius. B distal ulna. C scaphoid. D trapezium.
D
The roentgen is the unit of A radiation dose B biologic dose C dose equivalent D ionization in air
D
The trend in spot filming in conventional fluoroscopy is to use a: A Cassette-loaded spot film B Flat panel image receptor C Cine film D Photospot camera film
D
What is the purpose of the thin layer of lead that is often located behind the rear intensifying screen in an IR? A To prevent crossover B To increase screen speed C To diffuse light photons D To prevent scattered radiation fog
D
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint? A Semilunar/trochlear notch B Radial head C Capitulum D Trochlea
D
Which of the following articulations participate in the formation of the elbow joint? 1. Between the humeral trochlea and the semilunar/trochlear notch 2. Between the capitulum and the radial head 3. The proximal radioulnar joint A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
Which of the following features of fluoroscopic equipment is (are) designed especially to minimize radiation exposure to the patient and/or personnel? Bucky slot cover Exposure switch/foot pedal Cumulative exposure timer A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
Which of the following is (are) valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm? The radius and the ulna should be superimposed distally. The coronoid process and the radial head should be partially superimposed. The humeral epicondyles should be superimposed. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones? A Distal interphalangeal joints B Proximal interphalangeal joints C Metacarpals D Radial styloid process
D
Which of the following is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm? A Bicipital groove projection B Superoinferior lateral C Inferosuperior axial D Transthoracic lateral
D
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? Scapular Y projection Inferosuperior axial Transthoracic lateral A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint? A 5 degrees caudad B 10 degrees caudad C 5 degrees cephalad D 0 degrees (perpendicular)
D The CR should be directed to ½ inch below patellar apex (knee joint). The direction of CR depends on distance between the ASIS and tabletop/IR. When this distance is up to 19 cm (thin pelvis), the CR should be directed 3 to 5 degrees caudad; when the distance is between 19 to 24 cm, the CR is directed vertically/perpendicular (0 degrees); when the distance is greater than 24 cm (thick pelvis), the CR is directed 3 to 5 degrees cephalad.
One advantage of digital imaging in fluoroscopy is the ability to perform "road-mapping." Road-mapping 1. keeps the most recent fluoroscopic image on the screen. 2. aids in the placement of guidewires and catheters. 3. reduces the need for continuous x-ray exposure to the patient. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
The total number of x-ray photons produced at the target is contingent on the tube current target material square of the kilovoltage A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
As the image intensifier's FOV is reduced, how is the resulting image affected? 1. Magnification increases 2. Brightness decreases 3. Quality increases A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 As voltage is applied to the electrostatic focusing lenses, the focal point moves back—closer to the input phosphor—and, as a result, the FOV decreases and magnification increases. At the same time, brightness is decreased requiring an increase in mA (therefore increased patient dose). This increase in mA increases image quality—it can be likened to an increase in signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), with mA being the signal. (Selman, 9th ed, pp 263-264)
Which of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry is (are) true? It is a low-dose procedure. Two x-ray photon energies are used. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 DXA imaging is used to evaluate bone mineral density (BMD). It is the most widely used method of bone densitometry—it is low-dose, precise, and uncomplicated to use/perform. DXA uses two photon energies—one for soft tissue and one for bone. Since bone is denser and attenuates x-ray photons more readily, their attenuation is calculated to represent the degree of bone density. Bone densitometry/DXA can be used to evaluate bone mineral content of the body or part of it, to diagnosis osteoporosis, or to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for osteoporosis. (Frank, Long, and Smith, 11th ed., vol. 3, pp. 454-455)
As the x-ray tube filament ages, it becomes progressively thinner because of evaporation. The vaporized tungsten is frequently deposited on the window of the glass envelope. This may 1. act as an additional filter. 2. reduce tube output. 3. result in arcing and tube puncture. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3 Through the action of thermionic emission, as the tungsten filament continually gives up electrons, it gradually becomes thinner with age. This evaporated tungsten is frequently deposited on the inner surface of the glass envelope at the tube window. When this happens, it acts as an additional filter of the x-ray beam, thereby reducing tube output. Also, the tungsten deposit may actually attract electrons from the filament, creating a tube current and causing puncture of the glass envelope. (Selman, pp 137-138)
To better demonstrate the interphalangeal joints of the toes, which of the following procedures may be employed? Angle the CR 15 degrees caudad. Angle the CR 15 degrees cephalad. Place a sponge wedge under the foot with the toes elevated 15 degrees. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3
If 84 kV and 8 mAs were used for a particular abdominal exposure with single-phase equipment, what milliampere-seconds value would be required to produce a similar radiograph with three-phase, 12-pulse equipment? A 24 mAs B 16 mAs C 8 mAs D 4 mAs
D. 4 mAs Single-phase radiographic equipment is much less efficient than three-phase equipment because it has a 100% voltage ripple. With three-phase equipment, voltage never drops to zero, and x-ray intensity is significantly greater. To produce similar density, only two-thirds of the original milliampere-seconds would be used for three-phase, six-pulse equipment ( 2 / 3 × 8 = 5.3 mAs). With three-phase, 12-pulse equipment, the original milliampere-seconds would be cut in half ( 1 / 2 × 8 = 4 mAs). (Bushong, 8th ed., p. 124)
Design characteristics of x-ray tube targets that determine heat capacity include the rotation of the anode diameter of the anode size of the focal spot A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. ALL
In which of the following procedures is quiet, shallow breathing recommended during the exposure to obliterate prominent pulmonary vascular markings? RAO sternum Lateral thoracic spine AP scapula A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. ALL
X-ray tubes used in CT differ from those used in x-ray, in that CT x-ray tubes must have a very high short-exposure rating be capable of tolerating several million heat units have a small focal spot for optimal resolution A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
D. ALL The CT x-ray tube must have a very high short-exposure rating and must be capable of tolerating several million heat units while still having a small focal spot for optimal resolution. To help tolerate the very high production of heat units, the anode must be capable of high-speed rotation. The x-ray tube produces a pulsed x-ray beam (1-5 ms) using up to about 1,000 mA. (Bushong, 8th ed., pp. 429-430; Bontrager and Lampignano, 6th ed., p. 731)
The positive electrode of the x-ray tube is the A capacitor B grid C cathode D anode
D. Anode
In which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? Supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) Prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) Prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston) A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 only
a
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula following inversion or eversion injuries to demonstrate a ligament tear A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
c
All of the following bones are associated with condyles except the A femur. B tibia. C fibula. D mandible.
c
Skeletal conditions characterized by faulty bone calcification include 1. osteoarthritis. 2. osteomalacia. 3. rickets. A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3
c
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? A Radial flexion/deviation B Ulnar flexion/deviation C AP (medial) oblique D AP (lateral) oblique
c