Assessment, Treatment Planning, and Outcome Evaluation

B. An attorney who has a good understanding of the IRS 501 (c) (3) code. Believe it or not, it's the IRS - the Internal Revenue Service - that sets the standards for non-for-profit charitable agencies. Agencies/organizations that meet the code can receive tax-deductible contributions and tax-exempt status. However, the IRS will hit you with a filing fee for the 501 (c) (3) application. This will set you back either $400 or $850, depending on the projected income of the agency.

11. You want to start a new charitable human services agency for clients who need shoes and clothes. You should contact A. the state committee for licensed social workers. B. an attorney who has a good understanding of the IRS 501 (c) (3) code. C. the state committee for licensed professional counselors D. an attorney who sports JD, MSW after her name.

B. The client's son has a rather high IQ and should be able to pass high school unless he has a learning disability. 100 is the average IQ and the average range is from 85 to 115. Clearly, his lack of intellectual prowess is not the issue.

19. Your new client tells you that her son is flunking nearly every subject in high school. The client's chart indicates that her son's IQ is 123. Based on this, you would assume that A. the client's son is mentally challenged and does not have a high enough IQ to graduate. B. the client's son has a rather high IQ and should be able to pass high school unless he has a learning disability. C. you cannot trust a single IQ test. Several IQ tests need to be administered. D. the client's son's IQ is normal and high school might be very easy or it could be difficult. His motivation is the only issue.

C. Ted's son's birthday has consciously or unconsciously raised unresolved issues related to his own sexual abuse as a child. A psychotic individual is out of touch with reality. Certainly, based on the minimal amount of information given, we gave no reason to believe Ted is psychotic. Pica occurs when a client ingests non-nutritive items. The take away message is: Often, a victim of sexual abuse has feeling resurface when a child or stepchild reaches the age when their own sexual abuse occurred.

18. Ted was sexually abused by a Catholic priest when he was 11 years old. His stepson just had his 11th birthday and Ted is feeling tremendous emotional insecurity. He stopped taking his son to church and pulled him out of the Catholic school he was attending. His son was very fond of the school and he had many friends there. He does not want to switch schools. The most likely diagnosis is A. Ted is having a psychotic break from reality. B. Ted is using mind altering drugs and has not admitted this to you. C. Ted's son's birthday has consciously or unconsciously raised unresolved issues related to his own sexual abuse as a child. D. Ted has a severe case of pica.

C. Report it to the child abuse hotline since NOHS ethics stipulate you should do so and it is a law in every state in the US. First, the difference between absolute and relative confidentiality. Absolute implies that no matter what's occurred, the human services worker will not break confidentiality. Relative, on the other hand, dictates that there are times that you will be expected to break confidentiality. To be sure, the National Organization of Human Services (NOHS) Ethical Guidelines would champion the idea of making a child abuse report, so choice D is not a bad answer. Nevertheless, since 1974, child abuse reporting has been the law - Public Law 93-247 or the Child Abuse Prevention and Treatment Act (CAPTA), later updated in 2003 to the Keeping Children and Families Safe Act. Therefore the bottom line: Choice C is the best answer.

10. You are working as a food stamp worker for the state. One of your clients tells you that she has physically abused her 5-year-old son and he has marks on his face. You should A. tell no one, as human service practitioners practice relative confidentiality. B. tell no one because human service practitioners adhere to the policy of absolute confidentiality. C. report it to the child abuse hotline since NOHS ethics stipulate you should do so and it is the law in every state in the US. D.report it to the child abuse hotline since NOHS ethics stipulate you should do so.

D. The area where your agency is allowed to provide services. For example, if a homeless shelter is only allowed (or funded) to provide services to city clients, and your client lives in the country, the shelter could not provide services to this client. Catchment could even be based on postal zip codes. Eligibility refers to whether the client qualifies to receive the service. The catchment area can be a part of this determination. Income and means tests (looking at assets, equity in an auto, mutual funds, a bank account, or other resources) can also be utilized.

100. Catchment area refers to A. clients who wish to change. B. clients who don't wish to change, but you can still help them. C. a place where clients can pick up communicable diseases. D. the area where your agency is allowed to provide services.

C. Harold McPheeters. Psychiatrist Dr. Harold L. McPheeters. Yes, a psychiatrist, and not a social worker, created human services. Sigmund Freud was the founder of psychoanalysis - also called analysis - which is a personality theory and type of treatment. Anna Freud, his daughter, helped popularize child analysis and ego defense mechanisms. Jane Addams has been dubbed the mother of social work and was the first American woman to snare the Nobel Peace Prize. She's often praised for starting Hull House in Chicago, IL - the first settlement house in the US.

1. The founder of human services was A. Sigmund Freud B. Anna Freud C. Harold McPheeters D. Jane Addams

A. Refer him to a child psychologist you do not know personally who is listed in your resource and referral list for your agency. Board members should not make profit from their work on the board. Thus, even if the board member is the best child psychologist in the world, you should opt for choice A. Reality check: A psychologist on your board of directors should not be listed and you should speak with your supervisor about having the board member removed from the referral bank. And just for the record, choice C is so inappropriate. Human service workers can, do, and should make referrals on a regular basis.

12. You are working as a case manager at a human services agency. Last year, you received your Associate of Applied Science (AAS) degree in human services. Your first client of the day is Sally, a 37-year-old mother of three children. Her youngest son, Andy, who is in third grade, needs help with his anxiety. You should A. refer him to a child psychologist you do not know personally who is listed in your resource and referral list for your agency. B. refer him to a child psychologist who is on your board of directors and has an excellent reputation. She is listed in your resource and referral list for your agency. C. refuse to make the referral since you only have a two year degree and this would clearly be unethical. D. all of the above could be correct. More information is necessary to answer the question.

A. Write the family court and ask that the children be removed. Do not leap to the conclusion that children are in imminent danger and the police should be called, there are two problems with that logic. First, the question does not say that, and second, you're not given the option to call the cops as an answer choice. Family courts rule on decisions related to the family and children, including custody. A human services worker (with supervisor approval) can write the court for action any time - no license necessary. A home visit to a client's house where the children were removed previously might reveal the opposite of the situation delineated in this question: Although the children are currently in placement, the parent is now ready to take the children back and the worker could write the court asking for this action. Civil courts deal with cases where an individual or company feels they have been financially or physically hurt by another individual or company.

13. You have secured a job with the children's division as a child abuse treatment worker. Child abuse and neglect workers are often called protective service workers. After your home visit to Mr. Clifford's house, you complete your initial assessment. You are convinced the kids should be removed, as the house is not fit for the children to live in. You should A. write the family court and ask that the children be removed. B. refer the client to a licensed social worker, since human service workers cannot ethically write the court and ask that the children be removed. C. write the civil court and ask that the children be removed. D. choices A and C are both correct.

D. A licensed professional counselor (LPC). In general, a professional counselor would have more training in vocational and career counseling than the others listed.

14. Melissa is a college graduate who is currently out of work and has never been satisfied with any job. Melissa would like career counseling and you tend to agree this would be beneficial. The best referral would be A. a board certified psychiatrist. B. a licensed clinical social worker (LCSW). C. a masters level sociologist. D. a licensed professional counselor (LPC).

A. A psychiatrist. The best answer is choice A, a psychiatrist is a medical doctor armed with a DO or MD degree who's an expert in medication management for emotional disorders. Choice B is correct in the sense that any family doctor or internist can indeed prescribe these medicinals. However, since a psychiatrist prescribes psychiatric drugs all day, and has specialized training in this area, he or she would be the best option. Also, I/O is simply an abbreviation for industrial organizational. Choice C is not correct because in about 99 out of 100 cases, you're best off going with the answer that most mainstream textbooks would support. The mental health establishment views bipolar disorder (previously known as manic depression or manic depressive illness) as a condition that is best treated with prescription medications. Exam hint: Client's symptoms may be caused by side effects of medications and, thus, a worker would do well to investigate this when assessing a client.

15. Terry is caring for her grown daughter. After you complete an initial assessment on the family, you firmly believe that Terry's grown daughter is suffering from bipolar disorder which was once called manic depression. In this situation, the best referral for her treatment would be A. a psychiatrist B. her personal physician, because any family doctor or internist can prescribe psychiatric medicine C. an I/O (also abbreviated I-O) psychologist. D. a social worker with the MSW or PhD degree.

C. Prescription lithium, often accompanied by an antidepressant medication. Lithium is a trace mineral, or so-called rare earth, which helps treat and possibly prevent mania seen in clients with bipolar disorder. Unlike most psychiatric medicines, a physician will often require blood tests since very high lithium levels can be dangerous. Although lithium has been the treatment of choice for years, it is becoming common to prescribe it along with an antidepressant. CBT, choice D, is a powerful form of talk therapy that's especially valuable for clients with depression; although, it can be used with virtually any problem. In reality, any of these choices might be beneficial for the client, however, choice C is the one most textbooks would recommend.

16. Terry's daughter would best be treated by A. Rogerian therapy. B. natural colloidal lithium, available at some health food stores and Internet sites without a prescription. C. prescription lithium, often accompanied by an antidepressant medication. D. cognitive behavioral therapy, also known as CBT.

D. Her husband's behavior will generally get worse before it gets better so she needs to keep ignoring him until it gets a lot better or goes away totally. The phenomenon of response burst or extinction burst is when behavior escalates before it gets better or goes away. You must explain to the client that if she gives up during the phase where the behavior has escalated, the teasing may remain at a level that is higher than at the beginning of treatment. Ethically you should never guarantee that a treatment will always work as in choice A. If the technique does fail, then by all means you can make a referral to a marriage counselor as in choice C.

17. Karen's husband teases her and this upsets her greatly. Based on your knowledge of behavior modification and extinction, you explain to Karen that the best way to handle this is to ignore him. You should mention that A. this technique is guaranteed to always work. B. this technique works in about one out of five cases. C. if this doesn't work, you will need to send Karen and her husband to couple's counseling, since counseling is very helpful. D. her husband's behavior will generally get worse before it gets better so she needs to keep ignoring him until it gets a lot better or goes away totally.

A. To investigate the home health care agency in town to find out about their services. Since home health care is the only option where the client can remain in the home - and all you know from the question is that the client prefers to stay in her home - choice A makes the most sense.

20. You are working with a 72-year-old woman who is having a difficult time taking care of herself. She is adamant that she loves her home and does not want to be placed in a nursing home. Your best course of action would be A. to investigate the home health care agency in town to find out about their services. B. to investigate the assisted living facility down the street. C. either choice A or B. D. to place her in a nursing home despite her wishes, since her well-being is the real issue.

A. To perform a baseline. The group down the street might be a good option as an adjunct to your behavior modification, but in behavior modification the first step is always the same: take a baseline. Since you're assigned to do the intervention, choice D would not be the desired answer.

21. Bret's physician reports that his smoking is threatening his life. You are assigned as his human services worker to use behavior modification to help him quit. Your first step would be A. to perform a baseline. B. to spend more time talking about the exact reasons he began smoking to look cool as a teenager. C. to put him through a series of deep relaxation exercises. D. to refer him to a group down the street for clients who wish to quit smoking.

C. Ask Bret to chart the number of cigarettes he smokes everyday for a week. A baseline measure is best achieved by charting the incidence of the behavior without treatment or behavior modification for a reasonable period of time. Although the MMPI is a powerful personality test, it will not provide a baseline.

22. The best way to take a baseline is simply to A. ask Bret how many cigarettes he smokes in a day. B. tell Bret not to smoke under any conditions. Abstinence is necessary for all addiction treatments. It doesn't matter if it is alcoholism, cocaine, or smoking. C. ask Bret to chart the number of cigarettes he smokes everyday for a week. D. refer Bret for MMPI or Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. It is one of the finest personality tests ever created.

A. Show anger. The order of the stages is denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. The model can be applied to any situation where there's a major loss involved. Not all of the research supports this model or the sequences of the stages, and some people never make it to the final stage.

47. Your new client, Bella, was told she only had a year to live. When you saw her for the last visit, she seemed to be in total denial. Now her mood has changed markedly. According to the five-stage Elisabeth Kubler-Ross model, she would A. show anger. B. show acceptance C. engage in bargaining such as saying, "God please. I'll never yell at my grandkids again if you let me live." D. be in a deep psychological depression.

A. Ask her forthrightly if she is suicidal. When conducting a comprehensive psychosocial history, sometimes known as an initial assessment or evaluation, you'll examine the client's perception of the problem; her emotions and behavior; he goals, support systems, social functioning, family interaction, medical issues, environmental and cultural factors, stressors, coping strategies, and motivations and resources to help her. Basically, you'll take a tour of the client's circumstances. The aforementioned information will be amasses from interviews and observations with the client and family members. the client's chart (also called a record) can be helpful since it could contain feedback from other agencies and might even have psychological or diagnostic tests. The fact that she has two children ages 3 and 9 has nothing to do with the answering the question and is irrelevant information. If you believe that there is ANY chance a client is suicidal, you should forthrightly ask the client if he or she is contemplating hurting or harming themselves. As for choices C and D, they mean the same thing, they both refer to a style of helping where the helper is not likely to as a lot of direct questions. Although the nondirective style is excellent, most experts feel it is not the best choice in a suicidal crisis. If a client has multiple problem but has thoughts or feelings related to hurting himself/herself or others, the suicidal/homicidal urges should always be addressed first.

2. During your first visit, you will conduct a psychosocial history. This can also be called an intake interview or an initial assessment. A psychosocial history includes information about the past, as well as the present, that could have impact on the client and your approach to treatment. You discover that Victoria is a 29-year-old married female who has two children, Lauren, 3, and Lydia, 9. She is crying throughout the entire interview and you can never recall seeing the client this depressed. You should A. ask her forthrightly if she is suicidal. B. not ask her if she is suicidal since this could put the idea in her head. C. use a person centered interview approach to conduct the psychosocial assessment. D. us a Rogerian client-centered interview approach.

B. 75. To compute the range, you merely take the highest score and subtract the lowest score.

64. Compute the range for a set of scores of 21, 21, 21, 32, 33, 36, 44, 44, 44, and 96. A. 21 B. 75 C. 36 D. 39.2

D. Thank her for the offer, but politely turn it down because you know it could be in violation of human services worker/client boundary issues. This is one of the big issues in human services work: Dual relationships. A dual or multiple relationship occurs when a human services worker has a relationship with the client which goes beyond the professional one.

23. Mindy lost her mother to cancer a month ago and is experiencing intense grief. She indicates that she really likes and respects you as her caseworker. She asks you to go to the zoo with her because she feels it might cheer her up. You should A. agree to go to the zoo in as much as it could be beneficial for the client. B. tell her there is a good chance the answer will be yes, but you do need to ask your supervisor. C. agree to go with her, but bring a fellow caseworker along, so she could never make sexual or romantic accusations against you that could ruin your career. D. thank her for the offer, but politely turn it down because you know it could be in violation of human services worker/client boundary issues.

D. You drive the client to the museum of transportation because you both enjoy looking at antique autos and trains and she needs a break from the stress of her family. Experts frown on dual relationships because they get in the way of objectivity. In choice A, a PPRT meeting is simply meetings composed of a team of multidisciplinary experts that are intended to abate foster care drift.

24. An example of a dual relationship would be A. you meet a client at a permanency planning and review team (PPRT) meeting held at another agency because her three children are in foster care. B. you drive the client to another agency because she needs energy assistance help to get her gas heat turned on in her apartment. C. you drive the client to her counseling session because she cannot afford public transportation. D. you drive the client to the museum of transportation because you both enjoy looking at antique autos and trains and she needs a break from the stress of her family.

A. A clinical psychologist. In general, clinical psychologists have more training in psychological personality testing than any of the other choices. Indeed a licensed counselor could be trained to perform these tests, but in most instances, counselors are not as well trained in personality testing as clinical psychologists. As far as choice C goes, most social workers have no training in psychological testing and MSW programs typically have no courses devoted to administering psychological measures. An LMFT (or LMT) is simply a licensed marriage and family therapist.

25. Armand is worried that his 10-year-old son, Quinn, has attention deficit disorder, also known as ADHD. Armand tells you he "wants Quinn tested." During some of your home visits, you have noticed that the child could be displaying some psychotic behavior. You should refer Quinn to __________ for a complete psychological evaluation. A. a clinical psychologist. B. a licensed counselor C. a social worker with experience in behavioral problems. D. an LMFT or LMT.

D. Send a letter to your donor list asking for a contribution. A sliding scale (or income sensitive scale) is used to give clients who can't afford the full rate a discount. Your sliding scale might dictate that if the family income is below $50,000 a year, they can secure the service for just $25 per hour, instead of the average $50 per hour. Sliding/income sensitive scales vary from agency to agency. Choice B is considered unethical. The going rate (i.e., the full fee) is the maximum you can charge. Choice C is incorrect because it's harder (and often more expensive) to get people who have never given before to donate than it is to get people who have donated to open their wallets again. A donor list is a term for the people who have made contributions to your agency in the past.

26. You are a case management supervisor for a non-for-profit agency which is in serious financial trouble. The organization is doing wonderful work, but your executive director, who is the head of the agency, has confided in you that she is unsure "how long she can keep the agency doors open to clients." Your supervisor has asked you to try to raise money. You share the situation with your case manager and tell her to take some positive action to help the financially struggling agency. Her best course of action would be to A. eliminate the sliding scale for poor clients as soon as possible. B. charge some of the wealthier clients who use your service a fee that exceeds the going rate for services. After all, these clients can certainly afford it. C. send a letter asking for a contribution to people in the neighborhood who have never contributed. D. send a letter to your donor list asking for a contribution.

C. You should praise his use of the P.S. in the letter. Medium and large agencies typically have fundraisers or directors of development who are experts at writing letters like these. They may even hire outside experts to draft the letter. Most of the time, short letters with short paragraphs or even a lot of bullet points work well, and the P.S. is a must with research showing it is often one of the most-read portions of the letter.

27. Based on the situation in question #26, you, as the supervisor, instruct your case manager to create a letter aimed at securing contributions. A. You would reject the letter because your case manager used a P.S. at the end. You explain that this looks foolish and very unprofessional. B. You would reject the letter because it was extremely short; less than a page to be exact. C. you should praise his use of the P.S. in the letter. D. Choices A and B are correct.

D. Explain to the client the reason why you have asked the question. When you ignore a behavior, as in choice A, it is indeed a type of behavior modification called extinction. However, a lot of practitioners don't know that the behavior usually gets worse before it gets better. The final choice generally works the best.

28. You ask a client a question during an initial interview. She becomes quite angry and says, "Why do you keep asking me these silly questions?" The best way to respond would be to A. use the behavior modification technique of extinction and ignore her so she won't say it again. Just go on to the next question. B. be honest with her and tell her that you don't agree with all the questions the agency requires, but you must ask them. C. respond with, "You have some serious anger issues. Would you like to talk about them?" D. explain to the client the reason why you have asked the question.

D. All of the above. It is also acceptable to ask members what the leader could have done differently.

65. Appropriate measures for evaluating a group include A. securing information on member satisfaction. B. informally asking members after a given session what they liked or did not like about it. C. showing a video account of the group to your supervisor. D. all of the above.

A. A hospice program. Hospice programs deal with terminally ill clients who the physicians are reasonably sure will die. Hospice care can be provided in the home or at a facility such as a hospital. Hospice attempts to keep the patient comfortable and as pain free as possible, rather than trying to cure the individual.

29. Mrs. Rather has been going through years of treatment and now her physician has explained she is terminally ill. When a patient is going to die,the words "terminally ill" are often used to describe the situation. The doctor states she will no longer be providing any medical care intended to actually treat Mrs. Rather, but mentions that Mrs. Rather will be in dire need of medication to deal with the pain. The best referral would be A. a hospice program. B. a home health care nurse. C. a hospital critical care unit. D. a hospital ER, since ER units can handle end of life pain issues.

C. Mrs. Parsons would need to take a complete psychological test battery consisting of IQ tests and personality inventories to receive services. According to the Association for the Advancement of Retired People (AARP), the village notion attempts to support the medical, social, spiritual, and functional needs of older adults who wish to remain in their own residences. This approach is viewed as an alternative to traditional institutional care. Community networks often provide the necessary services.

42. All the statements regarding aging in place village model are correct except A. individuals living in their own homes may receive shopping discounts. B. individuals living in their own homes may have a list of community volunteers ready to assist them. C. Mrs. Parsons would need to take a complete psychological test battery consisting of IQ tests and personality inventories to receive services. D. individuals living in their own homes may receive transportation services.

D. A reality therapist. Reality therapy pioneer Robert Wubbolding created a paradigm called WDEP that's very popular right now. Wubbolding asserts that the model helps therapists and clients understand the nature of reality therapy better. In WDEP, the W stands for wants. The D addresses what the client is doing and if it is taking him or her in the right or wrong direction. the E is a placeholder for evaluation. Finally, the P stands for the plan for changing behavior. The emphasis is on responsible actions here, not what the client will eliminate.

43. Your supervisor wants you to follow the WDEP approach to assess the client's treatment needs. Your supervisor is A. a strict Freudian. B. a strict behaviorist. C. a strict Rogerian. D. a reality therapist.

C. Ask her if she has a plan to commit suicide. The next crisis intervention step is always the same: inquire about the suicide plan. This can be referred to as conducting a lethality assessment. The more specific the plan, the greater the likelihood that the client will make an attempt.

3. Victoria says "yes" when you ask her if she has thought about killing herself. Your next step would be to A. spend the next 15 minutes of the interview showing her accurate empathy. B. spend the next 15 minutes of the interview showing her sympathy. C. ask her if she has a plan to commit suicide. D. open your resource guide and give her the name of the reputable psychiatrist since psychiatrists prescribe psychotropic medications.

A. The Department of Justice. The Department of Social Services generally deals with public assistance such as TANF (Temporary Assistance for Needy Families), food stamps, Medicare, and child abuse services. The Department of Mental Health logically deals with mental health services. Choice D is not a bad answer, suicide and crisis help lines often have a terrific data bank full of resources and referrals. Nevertheless, the Department of Justice runs the Immigration and Naturalization service.

30. During your first visit, your client, who is from a foreign country, expresses a desire to become a US citizen. A person who is in the country but was born in another country might be called a foreign national on your exam. The process of becoming a US citizen is known as naturalization. Neither you nor your supervisor (who is also the executive director) is very knowledgeable about the process of attaining US citizenship. An executive director - who can also be called a president - is the top employee at an agency. To secure information, it would be best to contact A. the Department of Justice. B. the State Department of Social Services. C. the State Department of Mental Health. D. the local suicide prevention hotline, because they often have a large resource and referral bank.

B. An intake worker. The best fit would be the intake worker. In some organizations, the intake worker completes the psychosocial assessment or initial evaluation and the client moves on to a different worker for treatment services (assuming the intake worker decides the client's case should remain open). A program or clinical director would typically be supervising intake and treatment workers, or even their supervisors. And, logically, the resource and referral employee is trying to find other services which might be appropriate to help the client.

31. You are the type of helper who like to intervene in a situation then move on to another situation. You should secure a job as A. a treatment worker. B. an intake worker. C. a program or clinical director. D. a resource and referral coordinator.

C. Choices A and B. Crisis intervention works best when a practitioner is more active directive than he or she would be in a situation that is not crisis oriented. The focus is centered primarily on the current crisis.

32. Key mistakes when engaging in crisis intervention include A. focusing primarily on the past or spending a lot of time on small talk. B. being nondirective. C. choices A and B. D. none of the above.

C. Difficulty remembering how to drive home. Alzheimer's disease is not the leading cause, but the most common form of dementia. It's a progressive degenerative condition that isn't a normal part of aging. Mania, in choice A, is characterized by racing thoughts, over-activity, delusions, and euphoria.

33. Cary's dad has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. All of these are signs of Alzheimer's disease except A. frequent bouts of mania. B. memory loss that is negatively impacting the client's life. C. difficulty remembering how to drive home. D. confusion with dates and and the passage of time.

C. Cary reading a book you recommend on Alzheimer's disease and how it impacts family members. Bibliotherapy consists of reading books and pamphlets that can be therapeutic.

34. Your supervisor recommends you implement bibliography with Cary. This would consist of A. Cary and her dad seeing a neurologist together. B. Cary and her dad seeing and audiologist. C. Cary reading a book you recommend on Alzheimer's disease and how it impacts family members. D. having Cary's dad take an IQ test to see if his intellect has been compromised.

D. The unemployment rate for individuals who are disabled is higher than the rate of unemployment for those who are non-disabled. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, the average unemployment rate for individuals who were non-disabled in 2011 was 8.7%. In that same year, the average unemployment rate for individuals who were disabled was 15%. However, while it would be correct to say that it could be more difficult to help Nelson find a job than it would be for a client who isn't disabled, it certainly isn't impossible.

35. Nelson is disabled and is having trouble finding employment. You explain to Nelson that A. the unemployment rate for individuals who are disabled would be the same as for those who are non-disabled. B. the unemployment rate for individuals who are disabled would be lower than it is for those who are not disabled. Finding Nelson a job should prove extremely easy. C. the unemployment rate is over 90% for persons who are disabled. It is nearly impossible to find work and you should explain this to Nelson in the first session. D. the unemployment rate for individuals who are disabled is higher than the rate of unemployment for those who are non-disabled.

D. Choices A and B describe situations that don't necessarily present a difficult problem. Using computer equipment is typically not an issue because it is not uncommon for individuals who use wheelchairs to have fine motor skills that are completely intact. Choice B illuminates the fact that using a wheelchair does not mean the client has a mental or intellectual impairment. Choice C could present some issues since a person using a wheelchair somewhere new will nearly always require investigation for access.

36. During your initial assessment of Nelson, it is obvious that he uses a wheelchair. Which of the following may not be difficult for an individual such as Nelson who uses a wheelchair? A. Accessing standard computer equipment. B. Understanding question that are being asked during an intake interview or psychological assessment. C. Navigating novel environments. D. Choices A and B describe situations that don't necessarily present a difficult problem.

C. Blindness. An invisible disability is a disability that is hidden or not readily apparent. If a person has an anxiety disorder, ADD, or PTSD, you'd most likely not know this unless you knew the person well or the person told you. Blindness is the correct answer because you can usually tell if a person is blind. Although there are times when you cannot readily tell a person is blind, the other choices are all diagnoses that you can virtually never identify at first glance. This leaves choice C as the best, though possibly not perfect, answer.

37. "Invisible" disabilities include all of the following except A. an anxiety disorder. B. attention-deficit disorder (ADD) C. blindness. D. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

A. Depression. Currently substance abuse is not considered a disability. Color blindness doesn't limit someone's life and a broken leg is temporary. Clinical depression, on the other hand, could be so debilitating, depending on the situation, that it's considered a disability by the ADA.

38. You are conducting an initial evaluation. Which of the following could be considered a disability under the ADA? A. Depression. B. Alcoholism/Drug addiction. C. Color blindness. D. A broken leg.

D. All of the above. Very few entities would not be held to the ADA.

39. The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability for which of the following? A. State and local government. B. Commercial facilities. C. Employment. D. All of the above.

C. Focus mainly on the past. In reality therapy, when the past is discussed, it's generally focused on your successes and not your failures or traumatic memories.

44. When you do reality therapy created by psychiatrist William Glasser, you do all of these except A. you accept no excuses when the client does not carry out the plan. B. make friends with the client. C. focus mainly on the past. D. focus primarily on the present.

D. Hold the door with your hand and ask the client to secure the pet. You never know, so take the safe route.

45. As you approach the client's home for your first visit to do your first assessment, you see a dog barking very loudly and jumping into the front glass door as if the animal is trying to get to you. The dog appears angry. The best plan of action would be to A. call the police. They deal with this routinely. B. call animal control. Keep the number handy for situations like this. C. call the humane society. Keep the number handy for situations like this. D. hold the door with your hand and ask the client to secure the pet.

A. Be in denial. Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross, a Swiss-born US psychiatrist, came up with her ideas while working with terminally ill people. Denial is the first stage, and according to the theory, this helps the individual survive the loss.

46. You are seeing Miss. Riley for the first time. She was very close to her mother who just passed away the night before. According to the Elisabeth Kubler-Ross model that posits stages of grief, you would expect Miss. Riley to A. be in denial. B. display anger. C. be in a stage of acceptance. D. show several different emotions ranging from laughing to crying.

D. Have her sign a no-suicide agreement and create a safety plan. The next crisis intervention step is always the same: Inquire about the suicide plan. Some experts refer to this step as conducting a lethality assessment (i.e., how likely is it that the client will try to harm herself). The ore specific the plan, the greater the likelihood that the client will make an attempt. Although none of the answer stems are totally wrong in this case, these are called best-answer questions, so read the question carefully. You'll note that it says immediate plan of action. Thus, the best answer would be D: to have the client sign a no-suicide agreement or contract. Some state ethical bodies require this step.

4. Victoria mentions that she has a plan, but the lethality level seems low and her plan indicates that she will not try to hurt herself for another 6 weeks. Your best immediate plan of action would be to A. refer her to a competent clinical psychologist. B. Refer her to a competent licensed counselor. C. refer he to a competent licensed clinical social worker. D. Have her sign a no-suicide agreement and create a safety plan.

B. Even though you are securing an entry position, you should secure malpractice liability insurance. Some places would not let you get within 50 feet of your first client until you show them your malpractice policy. Also, don't expect your agency to pick up the tab for your malpractice policy - a few agencies do and just as many, if not more, do not.

40. You just landed your first job in the field. Most experts would agree that A. for an entry level position, you don't really need malpractice liability insurance. B. even though you are securing an entry position, you should secure malpractice liability insurance. C. you might need malpractice liability insurance for a hospital, but not for a hotline. D. you might need malpractice for a hotline, but not for a hospital.

C. Discuss services available in which providers could come into her home to help. The aging in place movement champions strategies that allow the individual to stay in one's own residence or remain in one's own home.

41. You are seeing Ms. Parsons for the first time. She is 88 years of age. Your supervisor recommends aging in place. You should A. take her to visit a traditional senior care facility. B. give her brochures from several senior care facilities. C. discuss services available in which providers could come into her home to help. D. give her brochures from several assisted living facilities.

C. You should explain that some research indicates that some antidepressant medications can cause side effects. He should speak with his doctor immediately. Do not tell the client to stop taking their medication. The latest research has concluded that some antidepressants can abet suicidal feelings in young adults ages 18 to 24 years and that it can occur as early as the first or second month of usage. However, it is the prescribing doctors decision to continue or stop the medication.

48. As you are conducting an assessment on your 23-year-old client, he tells you that he began taking an antidepressant medication because he was moderately depressed. Now, after taking the medicine for a month, he is having serious thoughts of suicide. A. You should tell him that his suicidal feeling have nothing to do with the medication. B. You should explain that all clients have suicidal feelings from time to time and you are glad to hear he is normal. C. You should explain that some research indicates that some antidepressant medications can cause side effects. He should speak with his doctor immediately. D. You should explain to him that he is trying to be very manipulative and although that approach may have worked with this last human services practitioner, it won't work for you.

C. Should explain that the most ethical bodies and professional organizations do not believe in reparative therapy. Reparative therapy (also known as conversion therapy) attempts to change the individual's sexual orientation. Since homosexuality isn't considered a mental disorder, it should not be treated or cured by reparative or conversion therapy, or a client given referrals for such services. Gay affirmative therapy, on the other hand, or helping clients to become comfortable with their current or preferred sexual orientation, is generally considered ethical.

49. Harvey is a 29-year-old gay male. He explains that he has been gay as long as he can remember. He wants you (a heterosexual male practitioner) to "make him straight so he can marry a good woman." You A. should work with him to help him obtain his goal. The client is always right. B. would need a wealth of additional information before you can answer this question. C. should explain that the most ethical bodies and professional organizations do not believe in reparative therapy. D. should refer him to a female therapist who understands the female mind.

D. Choices A and C. Always give clients the number of the suicide prevention helpline/hotline in your area. Also, although any contract or agreement is better than none, written agreements are generally considered superior to oral ones. Give the client a copy of the agreement whenever possible. When a client is even moderately suicidal, it's best if another individual can stay with that particular client.

5. When you write up Victoria's no-suicide agreement, you should A. give her the number of the suicide prevention hotline. B. Not give her the number of the suicide prevention hotline since it is unethical to burden them with your client's problems. C. Use a written rather than an oral agreement if you are seeing her face-to-face. D. Choices A and C.

C. Send them the assessment, if and only if your client signs a release of information form to them provided by your homeless shelter. Before you give out or receive any information in any form, you'll need a signed release of information sheet (also known as a disclosure form at some organizations) that your agency will provide and your client will sign. You need a separate release for each source requesting information. Hence, if a local mental health clinic wanted a copy of your assessment, an additional disclosure form make out to them would have to be signed by your client.

50. You are working at a homeless shelter. You completed your assessment on a new client. The client is also working with a career counseling center. The career counseling center would like to see your assessment. A. Be polite, but explain to the career counseling center that this would be a violation of confidentiality. B. Send them the assessment. They are working with you to help the client. C. Send them the assessment, if and only if your client signs a release of information form to them provided by your homeless shelter. D. Ask them for a detailed list of reasons why they want the assessment and then discuss it with other workers at your agency for case conference.

A. Cannot give them this report. Sorry, but if your agency did not collect the information, then you can't give it away, even with the client's signature. The career counseling center can ask the client to sign a release that goes directly to the university psychological center if they want that information.

51. While your client was staying at your homeless shelter, she went to the local university psychological center and received a complete psychological evaluation which is now part of your record. The career counseling center believes the psychological center report could help them assist this client. You A. cannot give them this report. B. you can give them the report, but remember that your client's signature on a release of information or disclosure form is necessary. C. can discuss the university psychological report, but cannot actually give it to the career counseling center. D. should write in your record why the psychological evaluation would be helpful to the career center and then invite a representative from the career center to come read the report in your presence.

A. Usually at the beginning of the record or in the inside cover. The face sheet, most likely near the beginning of the chart, provides the client's name, address, contact information, gender, names of household members, and other basic information that can be found very easily. It's sometimes dubbed a family face sheet.

52. In terms of the record, the face sheet is A. usually at the beginning of the record or in the inside cover. B. usually at the end of the record or attached to the back cover. C. not a legitimate part of the record. D. is part of the termination summary.

C. An order of protection would be the most valuable. The order of protection is helpful if the client is being threatened or stalked. a subpoena orders a recipient to make a court appearance on a given time/date. A subpoena duces tecum takes things a step forward and orders that you bring records or documents to court.

53. Lulu is being physically beaten by her husband. In terms of legal document, A. a subpoena duces tecum would be the most valuable. B. a subpoena would be the most valuable. C. an order of protection would be the most valuable. D. all of the above would be extremely helpful and therapeutic.

D. The doll is merely a transitional object and this behavior is totally normal. A toddler is usually defined as a child between the ages of 1 and 3. A transitional object is a common term in child development and psychology. It refers to objects that curb anxiety and comfort the child. Some parents refer to them as security objects that calm the child down. these objects are predictable and are helpful when a child is physically separated from the parent, as well.

54. During you psychosocial assessment, a client mentions that her 2-year-old toddler brings her doll with her everywhere and insists on sleeping with the doll. The most likely explanation is A. the child is autistic and cannot relate to people. B. the child is mentally challenged and is not stimulated by normal stimuli. C. the child is having abnormal separation anxiety from her mother (your client). D. the doll is merely a transitional object and this behavior is totally normal.

A. A geriatrician. A geriatrician is a doctor who specializes in geriatrics and working with older adults. They generally are family practitioners or internists who receive at least an additional year of specialization related to working with elderly patients. The problem: We just don't have enough geriatricians to meet the need. While it has been said that the fastest growing segment of the population is 65 years of age and older, it's also been noted that the number of geriatricians appears to be decreasing.

55. Mrs. Leonard is 96 years of age and has numerous health challenges and needs a doctor. Ideally, you should refer her to A. a geriatrician. B. a psychiatrist, since older adults often experience blue moods and depression. C. an internist. D. a physician who specializes in family practice.

D. All of the above. Sexually transmitted diseased may be called STDs or STIs (sexually transmitted infections). Chlamydia is now classified as the most common STD. Treatment for the disease usually consists of a course of antibiotics. Steroids (choice A), as everybody knows in this day and age, are used to increase muscle size, strength, and athletic prowess, but can have serious side effects.

56. Pick the choice that could cause sterility. A. The use of anabolic steroids for men. B. Untreated Chlamydia. C. Untreated gonorrhea. D. All of the above.

A. Catharsis. Catharsis coveys the notion that just talking about your problems can make you feel better about them. Choice B, counter transference, refers to a situation where the helper has a psychological problem that is getting in the way of efficacious treatment.

57. A client talks to you for nearly 10 minutes. She is speaking so rapidly, you barely uttered a "go on" or "tell me more." At the end of the session, she thanks you and says she feels 100% better and you are a terrific helper. This can be explained by A. catharsis. B. counter transference. C. cognitive behavior therapy, which is very effective. D. solution focused therapy, which is very effective.

B. Generally have a chart for each of the seven clients and write something in each individual client's chart after each session. It may sound a lot like work but normally each client has a chart, and when he or she attends a group or an individual one-on-one session with you, you'll record/document the session.

58. You are running a group to help clients struggling with anxiety issues. There are seven clients in the group. You would A. generally keep one master chart with write-ups for everybody in the group. B. generally have a chart for each of the seven clients and write something in each individual client's chart after each session. C. only chart on the client if he or she says something significant. It is way too much work to keep a chart on each client in the group. D. only need to write something if the client says she is going to hurt herself or hurt someone else, or both.

C. Mean. The mean is the arithmetic average. You simply add up the sum of the scores and divide by the number of scores. Although the mean is the most useful average, it is impacted by extreme scores, also called outliers.

59. The __________ is the most useful average when assessing clients or programs. A. median B. mode C. mean D. standard error of measurement

B. Should refer her to a licensed therapist and a psychiatrist. In our field, it is often assumed that the client's problems are caused only by psychological, social, and environmental factors, but this is often wrong. Thus, for the well-being of the client and to cover yourself ethically, a referral should always be made to a psychiatrist (a medical doctor, an MD or DO) or, at the very least, a general medical doctor.

6. After you have Victoria sign a no-suicide agreement, you A. should refer her to a licensed clinical social worker for psychotherapy B. should refer her to a licensed therapist and a psychiatrist C. should refer her to a licensed marriage and family counselor so the children can be helped, as well. D. could perform any of the choices above. They are all ethical and appropriate.

C. It is 46. The median is the middle score when you rank order the data from lowest to highest.

60. In your human services class, the scores on the final exam are 21, 21, 46, 89, and 99. The top score in the class was 99 out of a possible 100 points. Find the median. A. It is 89. B. It is 21. C. It is 46. D. It cannot be computed without additional information.

D. 21. The mode is simply the more frequently occurring score or category. A distribution is simply a set or collection of scores or numbers.

61. Your outcome data for your program yielded scores of 21, 21, 46, 89, and 99. When you compute the mode, it would be __________. A. 150 B. 87 C. 46 D. 21

A. Highest point. The mode is the highest point on a graph. If it's a bar graph (also called a histogram), it will be the highest category or longest bar.

62. The mean, median, and most might be called measures of central tendency on your exam. Measures of central tendency are different ways of describing the average score in a distribution of numbers. Your exam shows you a complex graph and asks you to find the mode, or modal point. it would be the __________ on the graph. A. highest point B. lowest point C. exact middle D. point you could not see

C. A bi-modal distribution. By definition, a bi-modal distribution has two modes. If we graph a bi-modal distribution, it will look something like a camel's back because it will have two peaks. The term multi-modal is sometimes used when several modes are evident. All these statistics could be used for outcome evaluations.

63. In a batch of outcome data, the scores were 21, 21, 21, 32, 33, 36, 44, 44, 44, and 96. Since 21 and 44 both occur three times, this would be a A. a mistake. The data could not come out like this. B. another example where 21 is the mode. C. a bi-modal distribution. D. a set of numbers where there is no mode because two numbers (21 and 44) both occur more than once.

B. Heinz had an ego syntonic condition or reaction. Ego alien or ego dystonic condition (choice A) occurs when a client has thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are unacceptable. When thoughts, feelings, behaviors, and impulses don't bother the client, they are often referred to as ego synotic, so choice B is the best answer. Pica, choice D, occurs when clients eat non-nutritive substances. This usually occurs in young children and could be caused by a lack of nutrients in the diet, such as iron. If the child has ingested a paint, a lead test should be performed since this can have serious damaging effects.

66. During you psychological assessment, Heinz reveals that he hears the voices of Abe Lincoln and George Washington in his head telling him what to do and how to make important decisions. Heinz notes that this does not bother him and he feels this is normal. A. Heinz has an ego alien/ego dystonic condition. B. Heinz had an ego syntonic condition or reaction. C. Heinz has a rather typical ADHD or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder pattern. D. Heinz has pica.

C. The perpetrator was somebody he knew as a child. Over 90% of juvenile sexual abuse victims know the perpetrator.

67. Lance reveals during his initial assessment that he was sexually abused as a young child. The chances are A. the perpetrator was an adult who was a total stranger. B. the perpetrator was a child from the local high school he never met prior to the incident. C. the perpetrator was somebody he knew as a child. D. A and B are the best answers.

D. She places the medicine in her cheek and never swallows it. The patient or client could be cheeking to stockpile pills to get high at a later date, or might even be selling them. Other individuals will just wait until the staff leaves the room and then spit them out and simply throw them away.

68. You are working in a hospital setting. The client's record indicates she is cheeking the medicine. This means A. she is chewing the pills before swallowing and this is not appropriate for some medicines. B. she is taking twice as many pills as she should to get a buzz off the medicine. C. she refuses to open her mouth to swallow the pill. D. she places the medicine in her cheek and never swallows it.

D. A school system that has children with disabilities. IEP stands for Individualized Education Plan. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act, or IDEA, stipulates that students with disabilities should be evaluated and given a unique educational plan. The term is usually multidisciplinary and could consist of teachers, speech therapists, human services practitioners, parents, psychotherapists, nurses, and school counselors, to name a few.

69. An IEP team would most likely work with A. prisoners in a half-way house. B. abused women in a shelter. C. a drug treatment center. D. a school system that has children with disabilities.

D. An autoplastic approach. All of these answers describe the decisions the human services worker must make when working with diversity. The terms alloplastic (also called alloplasty) and autoplastic (also called autoplasty) are very common in multicultural circles. Autoplastic means the client must change himself or herself. Thus, in an autoplastic approach, Patrick would need to change his own thinking and coping skills.

7. Patrick is a 33-year-old construction worker who came to the states form the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Africa. His presenting complaint, voiced during the initial assessment it that his current employer is discriminating against him. In human services, the presenting complaint is also known as the presenting problem, and is the reason the client gives you for wanting treatment. Your supervisor tells you that you should help Patrick improve his cognitive skills to better cope with this situation. Your best course of action would be to use A. an alloplastic approach. B. an emic approach. C. an etic approach. D. an autoplastic approach.

A. Is 50%. The return rate (or response rate) is the percentage of surveys you received completed after you distributed all the surveys. Since 125 is half of 250, your return rate is 50%.

70. You are thinking of creating a task force to determine whether your community should build a homeless shelter. You give out 250 surveys to the members of the community and local human services personnel to see if they feel a homeless shelter might be useful. You receive 125 back by your required date. Your return rate A. is 50%. B. is 100%. C. cannot be calculated without a lot more data. D. is a desirable 5%.

A. "You were sexually abused at age 14, and heated your father; therefore, the fact that your daughter has turned 14 is intensifying your own anxiety and depression." An interpretation occurs when you help the client see the true or real meaning of a behavior that is not obvious. Interpretations often link a client's current situation with the past. Interpretations are popular with psychoanalytic or so-called psychodynamic helpers.

71. A client says, "I am feeling very anxious and depressed now that my daughter turned 14." The best example of an interpretation would be A. "You were sexually abused at age 14, and heated your father; therefore, the fact that your daughter has turned 14 is intensifying your own anxiety and depression." B. "Tell me more." C. "I hear you are saying you are nervous and down in the dumps." D. "That's very interesting. Please go on."

C. "You are getting hit with problems from your career, your children, and your marriage, and it just seems like too much to cope with at one time." There are a lot of different ways you could respond to this client using the technique of paraphrasing. Paraphrasing takes place then you state, in your own words, what the client has said. This lets the client know you're listening and it helps him understand his feelings better. This technique is very popular with nondirective, client-centered or person-centered Rogerian helpers. Choice D would be another example of an interpretation.

72. The client says, "I feel like the whole world is coming down on me. I lost my job, my kids are in trouble, and now my husband has left me." An example of paraphrasing would be A. "Go on please." B. "Tell me more." C. "You are getting hit with problems from your career, your children, and your marriage, and it just seems like too much to cope with at one time." D. "Maybe this goes back to that thing with your childhood where you always felt your mom never gave you the attention you needed."

D. An alcoholic can control his or her drinking using self-control, and no support. AA promoted the idea that support groups and sponsors are highly beneficial.

80. You refer a client to an Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) group, also called a 12-step program. AA seems to work best with clients who are motivated to recover. AA teaches all these principles except A. alcoholism is a disease. B. alcoholism is a disease that, without treatment, will kill you. C. total abstinence on a day-to-day basis is advocated since alcoholism cannot be cured, but it can be controlled via social support and spiritual changes. D. an alcoholic can control his or her drinking using self-control, and no support.

A. "Losing a loved one is very painful." Here, like the question says, the helper was able to reflect although the client hasn't said a single word. Words and phrases like "please continue," "go on," "umhmm," "I see," "yes, I understand," and even a nod of the head, are known as minimal encouragers. Minimal encouragers, just as the term implies, encourage the client to continue speaking and sharing information. If the helper doesn't rely on minimal encouragers enough, the client might feel she's being ignored. On the other hand, if the helper injects minimal encouragers at the speed of light, the client might feel his helper is being impatient. Choice C is an example of personal disclosure. Like minimal encouragers, personal disclosure shouldn't be overused.

73. A client begins crying when she prepares to speak about her mother's death. Reflection (a technique where the helper restates or paraphrases the client's feelings) can be used even when the client has not said a single word. An example would be if the helper said A. "Losing a loved one is very painful." B. "Please continue." C. "I lost my mother three years ago." D. "Why not explain to me precisely why you are crying right now."

C. "I wonder how your life would be different if you sought treatment for your gambling addiction and began attending the gambler anonymous group." In a tentative suggestion, we buffer the suggestion or an interpretation so the client is more likely to accept it.

74. The best example of a tentative suggestion would be A. "Look dude, let's get serious. You have a gambling problem. Now do something about it." B. "I hear you saying that your gambling addiction is causing you a lot of problems." C. "I wonder how your life would be different if you sought treatment for your gambling addiction and began attending the gambler anonymous group." D. "I gambled a lot years ago, but then i decided I needed inpatient treatment."

D. Her son is probably using inhalants. This can also be described as huffing, dusting, or sniffing. Huffing fumes can even cause Sudden Sniffing Death Syndrome, in which the person can actually die (generally from cardiac arrest), even if this is the first time the substance is used. Air conditioning products, aerosol gas food sources, cements, and computer keyboard cleaners can be easily abused.

75. Mrs. Busch tells you during the interview that her son's room always smells like gasoline, glue, paint, or cleaning fluid. She found soaked rags under his bed with a strong chemical odor. He has watery eyes and his nose runs, though her pediatrician can find no medical reason for his symptoms. Her son is too young to work on cars and she has never seen him work on small engines, such as lawnmowers. His behavior seems strange and he seems like he is "high." A. Her son is drinking vodka or addicted to video games. B. The most likely scenario is her son is smoking marijuana, often called pot, dope, weed, or a joint. C. Her son is definitely in a gang. D. Her son is probably using inhalants. This can also be described as huffing, dusting, or sniffing.

C. Both choices A and B are good ways to evaluate the client's progress, or lack of it. The baseline, mentioned in choice B, means you measure the behavior without treatment. Also, a pre-test is simply a test you give prior to helping, teaching, or treating somebody. A post-test is given after the process is completed. They can be used to determine how much you did or didn't learn.

76. You want to evaluate a client after treatment. A. Use a pre-test and post-test. B. Use a baseline chart and continue to chart until the treatment ends, and perform a second baseline. C. Both choices A and B are good ways to evaluate the client's progress, or lack of it. D. All you need is a valid post-test.

C. The DSM. The official diagnostic guide for mental health professionals is the DSM, which stands for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual. It's published by the American Psychiatric Association, also known as the APA.

77. A client in your caseload has an official psychiatric diagnosis. That diagnosis came from A. the National Organization of Human Services (NOHS) official diagnosis list. B. the official diagnosis list for Human Services-Board Certified Practitioners (HS-BCP). C. the DSM. D. the official diagnosis list published by the American Psychological Association (APA).

C. A classical structured interview. In a structured interview, you ask the same questions for every client. This is great for continuity and research purposes. In an unstructured interview, you create the interview based on what you personally feel is necessary to ask. This means that if you're doing unstructured interviews, the order of the questions and even the questions themselves can change from client to client.

78. Your agency stipulates the exact questions you will ask to evaluate each client. This constitutes A. a nondirective or person-centered interview. B. a classical unstructured interview. C. a classical structured interview. D. a psychodynamic interview based on psychoanalytic principles.

B. A psychologist who performs therapy with a psychoanalytic slant. Psychoanalysis emphasizes insight (understanding something about yourself that you didn't truly understand before), often based on incidents which occurred in childhood. When an individual practices classical psychoanalysis and he or she isn't a physician, the analyst is often classified as a lay analyst. CBT, or cognitive behavioral therapy, attempts to change thinking patters. Person-centered therapy lets the client guide the topic of the therapy and champions the power of the client/helper relationship. Solution focused therapists try to change the client in a minimal number of sessions without promoting insight. Or, to put it a different way, you don't need to now why you're behaving in a certain way in order to change.

79. A client who seems to benefit most from insight oriented therapy should be referred to A. a person-centered social worker. B. a psychologist who performs therapy with a psychoanalytic slant. C. a counselor who believes in CBT. D. a counselor who believes in solution focused therapy.

A. An alloplastic approach Alloplastic means that instead of trying to change the client, the client should work to change the environment, such as an unfair policy.

8. The next day, you are assigned to a new supervisor who disagrees with your previous one. She vehemently believes that Patrick's assessment indicates that he should not try to change himself, but rather attempt to change the policies of the company who is discriminating against him. You would use A. an alloplastic approach. B. an emic approach. C. an etic approach. D. an autoplastic approach.

A. Contacting the client's family physician and her physical therapist for information. Collateral contacts can literally be defined as any person, agency, or organization that could share beneficial information or provide services for the client. Interaction with collateral contacts should be documented in the clients record; and remember that since you're getting the information from another source, it may or may not be accurate.

81. __________ is/are an example of collateral contact. To interact with a collateral contact, you will need the client to sign a release of information form. Some agencies call this a signed consent document or form. A. Contacting the client's family physician and her physical therapist for information B. Asking your client to show you a copy of her psychological test report C. Asking a client about his or her childhood D. None of the statement above

D. "Am I correct that you hated your father for turning his back on you and your family?" Leading questions can often alter the client's response, especially if you're working with young children.

82. __________ is an example of a leading question. A. "How may I help you today?" B. "Are you currently attending the community college?" C. "How are you feeling about your brother's decision to try inpatient treatment?" D. "Am I correct that you hated your father for turning his back on you and your family?"

A. "Look at your life. The evidence is clear; you must have been sexually abused as a child." False memory syndrome occurs when you put an idea in a client's mind that may not be true. Avoid statements that could abet FMS like the plague. They are poor treatment/diagnosis and could result in an ethical violation.

83. __________ is an example of a statement or question which could abet False Memory Syndrome (FMS). A. "Look at your life. The evidence is clear; you must have been sexually abused as a child." B. "You just said you were physically abused by your mother at the age of 9. Can you tell me about your feelings toward your mom at the time?" C. "I hear what you are saying. What do you think the trigger for your bouts of severe depression?" D. "Would you like a referral for counseling?"

D. All of the above. Of course, you also want to know the client's goals. What does he or she wish to achieve? The presenting problem - a very common term in human services - is what brings the client to treatment.

84. A good psychosocial history or initial assessment/evaluation of the client should include A. a discussion of the presenting problem, the client's symptoms, and who will be involved in the treatment. B. the client's current life situation (married, divorced, attending school, housing, job status, public assistance status, etc.). C. the history of the client's background, as well as the history of the presenting problem. D. all of the above.

A. "You claim the breakup with your boyfriend is not having an impact on you, yet you are tearful each time we talk about it." Confrontation occurs when a helper points out differences between what a client says and what she does, or the way she thinks. In this case, the difference is revealed by her nonverbal behavior.

85. The client remarks, "I am no longer bothered by the fact that my boyfriend and I broke up." __________ is a good example of confrontation. A. "You claim the breakup with your boyfriend is not having an impact on you, yet you are tearful each time we talk about it." B. "Tell me some specifics about the breakup with your boyfriend." C. "Was your boyfriend attending school or did he have a job?" D. "What was it that was so special about the relationship?"

C. "I hear you, but just yesterday, child protective services removed your children because you left them alone while you were out using drugs and partying." In this question, the confrontation focuses on the difference between the client's verbalizations and her behavior.

86. The client remarks, "I love my children. They always come first in my life and I would never do a single thing to harm them." __________ is a good example of confrontation. A. "That's wonderful. Can you share some examples with me?" B. "I hear you. My children have always come first in my own life," C. "I hear you, but just yesterday, child protective services removed your children because you left them alone while you were out using drugs and partying," D. "Go on, this is very helpful to have you talk about this issue,"

A. Is generally not a legal document, but they can be very helpful. The contract is not a legal document (e.g., the state police won't be arresting the client if they don't do it) and his behavior has nothing to do with having thoughts of killing himself (choice C). Contracts are often used with kids of all ages (choice D) and some agencies require them.

87. A behavioral contract with a client A. is generally not a legal document, but they can be very helpful. B. is always a legal document, and they can be very helpful. C. can ethically be used only if the client is genuinely suicidal. D. could be ethically used with an adult, but never with an adolescent or a child.

D. Uncontrollable laughter that never appeared prior to the robbery. The symptoms mentioned in choices A, B, and C are not just transient (meaning something that lasts for a short period of time) but can persist for a very long period (e.g., over a year). Initially, in a situation like this, crisis intervention would be the intervention of choice.

88. Your client was the victim of a robbery at gun point. All of these are common reactions except A. increased feelings of anxiety and anger. B. fear that wasn't present prior to the robbery. C. withdrawal, depression, and, in many cases, nightmares. D. uncontrollable laughter that never appeared prior to the robbery.

B. Alcoholism. Delirium tremens can occur when a client who has a high consumption of alcohol stops drinking and experiences withdrawal. If this is going to take place, it will generally happen within about 3 or 4 days after the final drink. Symptoms include tremors, convulsions, paranoia, fear, and agitated state, fever, and hallucinations (seeing/hearing/tasting something that isn't there). DTs can be life threatening and immediate medical attention is recommended.

89. Delirium tremens (DTs) is associated with A. eating disorders. B. alcoholism. C. post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). D. learning disabilities.

A. Construct a transfer summary. The summary includes a discussion of what services you've provided thus far, suggestions for additional intervention, and a prognosis.

99. If your supervisor decides to transfer the client to another worker, you will need to A. construct a transfer summary. B. just hand the case record to the new worker. No special write-up is necessary. C. keep it a secret from the client until the transfer is complete to keep anxiety at a low level. D. discuss the transfer in detail with the client; however, no formal transfer summary in the record is generally required.

A. You will assess and treat Lee just like you would a client of any race, creed, color, or background. When using the etic approach to multicultural intervention, you treat all clients in the same manner. Choice C, strategies that focus on the present moment, the the here-and-now are called ahistoric approaches.

9. Lee is a new client from the People's Republic of China. Your supervisor teaches multicultural courses at the local community college. She insists you rely on an etic approach. In essence, this means A. you will addess and treat Lee just like you would a client of any race, creed, color, or background. B. you would study as much as you can about Chinese culture and use that knowledge to assess and treat the client. C. you will only focus on present moment issues. D. you will rely on an ahistoric form of treatment regardless of what the assessment reveals.

A. A vitamin B1 deficiency. The syndrome is named after the Russian neurologist Sergei Korsakoff, who first described it in 1887. The primary symptom is amnesia, which is the inability to remember or recall.

90. Korsakoff's syndrome can be caused by chronic or long term alcohol use. The cause is A. a vitamin B1 deficiency. B. a vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. C. a simple vitamin C deficiency. D. lack of sunshine resulting in a vitamin D deficiency.

A. A protein deficiency. Kwashiorkor is typically present in third-world countries where there's a lack of foods which supply protein. Some experts feel the problem starts with breast milk that lacks amino acids (the building blocks of protein). This type of malnutrition can stunt growth; induce weakness; alter hair and skin color; and cause liver damage, apathy, and stomach swelling (often called abdominal distension).

91. Your chart indicates your new client was adopted from a third-world country. She is suffering from Kwashiorkor. This is A. a protein deficiency. B. a carbohydrate deficiency. C. a common calcium deficiency. D. a deficiency of omega-3 fatty acids.

C. The family is emotionally cold and the child is doing poorly in school. Family intervention would be necessary. A juvenile offender, defined in most states as a youth under the age of 18 who perpetrates one or more legal violations, is often a substance abuser from an emotionally cold family who's doing poorly in school.

92. You are dealing with a juvenile offender and his family. The chances are good A. the child is from a loving family and no family intervention is necessary. Parenting has little to do with the child's behavior. B. the, surprisingly, he is doing quite well in school. Juvenile offenders, formerly called juvenile delinquents, generally like school and have unusually high grades. C. the family is emotionally cold and the child is doing poorly in school. Family intervention would be necessary. D. that, surprisingly enough, the child is most likely not using drugs or alcohol so no addiction treatment is necessary.

B. Subjective. Any time a record says "the client reports," "the client shared," "the client indicated," or "the client described," it would fall into the subjective category since these statements are not proven, objective facts. SOAP notes are also popular in medical and health care settings.

93. According to SOAP (subjective, objective, assessment, and plan) case report writing format, when you see the phrase "client reports" in the chart, this would be A. objective. B. subjective. C. an assessment. D. a plan.

A. The client shares, "I believe I did great in the job interview." An objective statement is something you saw, heard, counted, or measured. It could even be a smell. Note that the A in SOAP stands for assessment, such as a DSM diagnosis or the client's progress or lack of it. An assessment summarizes the human services worker's clinical impressions about the situation.

94. In terms of the SOAP case report writing format, an objective statement could be any of these except A. the client shares, "I believe I did great in the job interview." B. "The client did not have shoes on." C. "The client's front window was broken and there was glass on the floor." D. "The client's toddler was crying throughout the interview."

D. Any of the above statements. Biofeedback is a behavioral technique where sensitive electronic instruments (including computers) are used to give the client biological feedback. Once an individual has this feedback, he or she can often change seemingly unchangeable behavior, such as blood pressure or muscle tension.

95. In the SOAP method of documentation, the P stands for a description of the plan. Examples of this would be A. "I will refer the client to the university psychology center for biofeedback." B. "I will need to build a better rapport with this client and refer her for medication management." C. "I will use a VR reinforcement scale to change the client's behavior." D. any of the above statements.

D. All the above actions. The follow-up process allows you to check whether the client's changes are still evident. Follow-up also help the worker evaluate the services that were provided. In addition, it opens the door if additional services with you or another worker might be helpful.

96. An important part of case management is follow-up services. Examples of good practice in this area include A. sending an email to the client after treatment ends. B. making a phone call to the client after all services have been provided. C. sending a letter to the client following the final interaction with him or her. D. all the above actions.

C. Is an educated guess concerning the outcome of the situation (e.g., the client will be employed within 6 months). Prognosis is actually an attempt by a human services practitioner to predict the client's future related to the treatment process.

97. Prognosis A. is essentially the same as diagnosis. B. means the same thing as recidivism/relapse. C. is an educated guess concerning the outcome of the situation (e.g., the client will be employed within 6 months). D. is a type of schizophrenia.

C. Whether sitting too close to your client is making her uncomfortable. Proxemics is the study of how the distance between people impacts behavior. Indeed, sitting too close to a client may make him or her feel very cramped and uneasy.

98. An issue relating to proxemics and treatment would be A. whether to refer to a psychologist for treatment or a psychiatrist who will likely believe the cause of the mental disorder is biological. B. how many sessions are needed. C. whether sitting too close to your client is making her uncomfortable. D. whether to use a personality test or not.