B
Rapid assessment of the oxygenation status of a new patient is best achieved by A. CBG analysis. B. pulse oximetry. C. ABG analysis. D. transcutaneous monitoring.
B. pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry will provide the most rapid assessment of oxygenation status.
The use of respiratory accessory muscles is frequently the result of an increase in A. alveolar ventilation. B. lung compliance. C. airways resistance. D. cardiac output.
C. airways resistance. Increased airways resistance requires the use of accessory muscles to move air.
Which of the following can result in an increase in PVR? A. hyperoxia B. hypovolemia C. excessive PEEP D. decreased cardiac output
C. excessive PEEP Excessive PEEP can compress the pulmonary vessels and obstruct blood flow, resulting in an increase in PVR.
The major component of pulmonary surfactant is A. protein. B. glucose. C. phospholipid. D. polysaccharide.
C. phospholipid. Phospholipid is 85% of surfactant
A new blood gas analyzer was calibrated by the manufacturer at sea level. On receiving the analyzer at a higher altitude, a respiratory therapist should A. proceed to quality control assessment. B. set the barometric pressure at sea level. C. replace the electrodes. D. recalibrate the blood gas analyzer.
D. recalibrate the blood gas analyzer. Regardless of where they are manufactured, new blood gas analyzers must be calibrated at the site of use before analyzing blood.
A 168-cm (5-ft 6-in), 72-kg (159-lb), 26-year-old female was injured in a motor vehicle crash. She is intubated at the scene with a 6.0-mm ID endotracheal tube. On arrival to the ED, VC, A/C ventilation is initiated, and the following data are noted: FI O2 0.40 Mandatory rate 12 VT 375 mL Inspiratory flow 40 L/min PEEP 5 cm H2O PIP 40 cm H2O Pplat 28 cm H2O The patient is exhibiting increased work of breathing, and is breathing dyssynchronously with the ventilator. A respiratory therapist should recommend A. increasing the set inspiratory flow. B. raising the tidal volume. C. performing a bronchoscopy. D. reintubating with a larger endotracheal tube.
D. reintubating with a larger endotracheal tube. The small size of the endotracheal tube causes an increase in airway resistance causing an increase in the work of breathing. Using a larger diameter endotracheal tube will decrease the airway resistance, which will make the work of breathing easier.
When performing a chest physical examination on a patient receiving mechanical ventilation, a respiratory therapist notes the right side of the patient's chest is not moving and the trachea is deviated to the left. These findings are most consistent with A. left tension pneumothorax. B.X left mainstem intubation. C. right-sided atelectasis. D. right tension pneumothorax.
D. right tension pneumothorax. A right tension pneumothorax will cause a decrease in movement of the right hemithorax and the increased pressure from the pneumothorax will shift the trachea to the left.
Following an emergent C-section, a 35 year old is receiving VC, A/C ventilation. The following pressure-volume loop is observed: Which of the following ventilator settings should be adjusted? A. PEEP B. flow rate C. tidal volume D. trigger sensitivity
D. trigger sensitivity The patient is having difficultly triggering the breath, which is shown by the significant negative force created before the breath is delivered. The trigger should be adjusted to be more sensitive to improve the patient's ability to trigger a breath.
A respiratory therapist is calibrating a helium analyzer. What should the analyzer read when calibrated in air? A. 0% B. 79% C. 100% D. 21%
A. 0% Air contains essentially no helium; therefore, it should read zero.
A respiratory therapist is asked to review a newborn's history. The following information is available: 1 minute 5 minutes Appearance: central cyanosis central cyanosis Pulse: 105/min 80/min Reflex: sneeze grimace Tone: some flexion limp RR: irregular slow Which of the following APGAR scores should the therapist expect to see for this neonate? 1-minute 5-minute 1. 6 3 2. 5 3 3. 4 2 4. 3 2 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 1 The score for 1 minute is 6: central cyanosis = 0, pulse of 105 = 2, sneeze = 2, some flexion = 1, irregular respiratory rate = 1. The score for 1 minute is 3: central cyanosis = 0, pulse of 80 = 1, grimace = 1, limp = 0, slow respiratory rate = 1.
5. Given a normal oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, an SpO2 of 75% should be associated with a PaO2 of A. 47 mm Hg. B. 61 mm Hg. C. 55 mm Hg. D. 36 mm Hg.
A. 47 mm Hg. Based on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, an SpO2 of 75% is approximately a PaO2 of 47 mm Hg for a patient with a normal pH.
A 170-cm (5-ft 7-in), 69-kg (152-lb) male with ARDS has the following ABG analysis results: pH 7.37 PCO2 43 mm Hg PO2 95 mm Hg HCO3 - 25 mEq/L BE -1 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 97% The patient is receiving VC, A/C ventilation with the following settings: FI O2 0.70 Mandatory rate 12 VT 450 mL PEEP 8 cm H2O Which of the following is most appropriate? A. Decrease the FI O2 to 0.60. B. Change the PEEP to 5 cm H2O. C. Increase the minute ventilation. D. Maintain the current settings.
A. Decrease the FI O2 to 0.60. A. Since the PaO2 is adequate, it is now appropriate to decrease the FI O2.
A 54-year-old woman who is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 65 kg (143 lb) is brought to the ED following a motor vehicle crash. VC, A/C ventilation is initiated. Eight days later, ventilator settings are: FI O2 0.40 Mandatory rate 10 VT 350 mL PEEP 5 cm H2O ABG analysis reveals the following: pH 7.37 PCO2 39 mm Hg PO2 86 mm Hg HCO3 - 23 mEq/L BE -2 mEq/L SaO2 (calc) 96% The patient is alert and oriented. She is hemodynamically stable and initiating inspiratory efforts. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend FIRST? A. Initiate a spontaneous breathing trial. B. Extubate the patient. C. Decrease the mandatory rate to 8. D. Decrease to 3 cm H2O PEEP.
A. Initiate a spontaneous breathing trial. The blood gas values are acceptable for initiating a spontaneous breathing trial.
Which of the following best describes VC ventilation? A. Inspiration ends after delivery of a preset volume. B. Inspiration ends after the patient exhales a targeted volume. C. Pressure is held constant during inspiration until a preset volume is delivered. D. Pressure is held constant during inspiration until the patient exhales a targeted volume.
A. Inspiration ends after delivery of a preset volume. VC ventilation terminates inspiration after delivering a preset volume.
A patient who is morbidly obese is receiving aerosol by tracheostomy collar 48-hours post-tracheotomy. A respiratory therapist notices the patient is experiencing acute respiratory distress after being turned to the right side for a bath. Which of the following should the therapist do NEXT? A. Place the patient supine before assessing tube position. B. Remove and replace the tracheostomy tube. C. Irrigate the airway with normal saline. D. Attempt to suction the airway.
A. Place the patient supine before assessing tube position. Repositioning may have caused displacement of the tracheostomy tube. Placing the patient supine will allow better access and ability to evaluate and correct the problem.
An adult patient is receiving an FI O2 of 0.28 and PS of 5 cm H2O with a PEEP of 5 cm H2O. The patient is alert and oriented. Vital signs and ABG analysis results are: HR 86/min RR 24/min pH 7.43 PCO2 32 mm Hg PO2 91 mm Hg HCO3 - 21 mEq/L BE -2 mEq/L SO2 (meas) 97% Which of the following is a respiratory therapist's most appropriate action? A. Recommend extubation of the patient. B. Assess pulmonary mechanics. C. Titrate the FI O2 to an SO2 of 93% D. Maintain current settings
A. Recommend extubation of the patient. This patient is alert and ready for extubation.
The preferred suction device to remove large amounts of secretions from the oral cavity of an adult patient is a A. Yankauer device. B. DeLee suction trap. C. whistle-tip catheter. D. Coudé catheter.
A. Yankauer device. Yankauer suction devices are designed specifically to suction secretions from the mouth in an efficient way.
A patient lost an unknown quantity of blood as a result of a motor vehicle crash. To fully assess oxygen delivery, a respiratory therapist should recommend A. a CBC. B. exhaled nitric oxide. C. crossmatch of the patient's blood type. D. serial blood pressure assessment.
A. a CBC. A CBC will provide a hemoglobin value that is used to calculate oxygen delivery
A 19-year-old female with a history of moderate, persistent allergic asthma is adherent to a home regimen of budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort) and albuterol prn. She presents to an outpatient clinic with increases in frequency and severity of asthma symptoms over the last several months. She reports daily asthma symptoms with nighttime awakenings 3 times in the last week. Her daily activities are limited by her symptoms, even though she uses an albuterol inhaler several times per day. According to NAEPP, which of the following should be added to her regimen NEXT? A. a leukotriene modifier B. short-acting anticholinergic C. an antibiotic D. systemic corticosteroid
A. a leukotriene modifier Due to the allergic component to this patient's disease, NAEPP guidelines recommend the addition of a leukotriene receptor antagonist, such as montelukast (Singular), as part of the step-up approach to therapy in an uncontrolled patient, especially those with an allergic component.
A 26-year-old female is brought to the ED with a flail chest injury following a motor vehicle crash. Mechanical ventilation is initiated. The patient exhibits hypotension, worsening tachycardia, and increased work of breathing. Breath sounds on the right side are virtually absent. A respiratory therapist should FIRST recommend A. a needle decompression. B. an echocardiogram. C. an increase in analgesia. D. a chest CT scan.
A. a needle decompression. In the presence of a flail chest, the findings most likely indicate a pneumothorax requiring needle decompression.
An ABG analysis shows the following: pH 7.32 PCO2 49 mm Hg PO2 56 mm Hg HCO3 - 25 mEq/L BE -2 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 89% Which of the following best describes these results? A. acute respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia B. acute respiratory alkalosis with mild hypoxemia C. compensated metabolic acidosis with mild hypoxemia D. compensated metabolic alkalosis with moderate hypoxemia
A. acute respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia The pH is less than 7.35, which indicates acidemia. The PCO2 is elevated, which indicates respiratory acidosis. The PO2 is in the 40 to 59 mm Hg range, which indicates moderate hypoxemia.
Which of the following is the most effective aerosolized bronchodilator for a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation? A. albuterol B. ipratropium (Atrovent) C. salmeterol (Serevent) D. tiotropium (Spiriva)
A. albuterol Albuterol is a fast-acting beta2-agonist and is the appropriate treatment for acute bronchospasm
A patient presents with a history of loud snoring and daytime sleepiness. Which of the following is most important for a respiratory therapist to evaluate while the patient is sleeping? A. breathing pattern B. peripheral perfusion C. breath sounds D. cardiac rate
A. breathing pattern A patient with obstructive sleep apnea typically has an irregular breathing pattern.
A premature neonate with RDS receives the first dose of surfactant replacement therapy. Two hours later, the neonate's FI O2 requirement has increased from 0.35 to 0.70. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend FIRST? A. chest radiograph B. second dose of surfactant C. high-frequency ventilation D. inhaled nitric oxide
A. chest radiograph With increasing oxygen requirements and the recent administration of surfactant, a chest radiograph will aid in determining the cause of deterioration.
A patient with multiple traumatic injuries is receiving VC ventilation. The following data are documented: 1000 1200 1400 BP 130/76 124/70 116/62 SpO2 96 91 89 PIP 29 33 38 Breath sounds over the right thorax are diminished and the trachea is deviated to the left. A respiratory therapist should recommend obtaining a A. chest radiograph. B. fiberoptic bronchoscopy. C. CT scan of the chest with contrast. D. ventilation/perfusion scan.
A. chest radiograph. The evidence suggests a pneumothorax. A chest radiograph is a quick test to identify the presence of pneumothorax.
Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to paralyze a sedated 30- year-old patient in status asthmaticus who is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation? A. cisatracurium (Nimbex) B. morphine C. midazolam HCl (Versed) D. succinylcholine chloride (Anectine)
A. cisatracurium (Nimbex) Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is a nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant that may be administered to patients prior to endotracheal intubation or during mechanical ventilation
A 59-year-old man who is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 65 kg (143 lb) is receiving VC ventilation after abdominal surgery. Ventilator settings and blood gas analysis results are: FI O2 0.40 Mandatory rate 14 Total rate 14 VT 500 mL pH 7.47 PaCO2 31 mm Hg PaO2 117 mm Hg HCO3 - 23 mEq/L BE 0 mEq/L SaO2 (calc) 98% A respiratory thera pist should: A. decrease the tidal volume. B. change to PC ventilation. C. increase the peak flow setting. D. administer bicarbonate IV.
A. decrease the tidal volume. This patient has a respiratory alkalosis. Decreasing the tidal volume will reduce the overall minute ventilation and help reduce the pH.
A 58-year-old male presents to the ED with a chief complaint of acute chest pain. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be done FIRST? A. electrocardiography B. chest radiograph C. CT scan of the chest D. cardiac ultrasound
A. electrocardiography An ECG is required to rule out an acute myocardial infarction or arrhythmia before considering other diagnoses.
An adult patient who requires mechanical ventilation will be transported to another hospital in a helicopter. Prior to transport, a respiratory therapist should A. estimate the duration of the oxygen supply. B. ensure the endotracheal tube cuff is deflated. C. set the FI O2 to 1.0. D. attach a heated humidifier to the ventilator circuit
A. estimate the duration of the oxygen supply. An adequate oxygen supply is necessary to complete the trip
A 52-year-old male with a history of CHF and generalized weakness is returned to his hospital room from radiology. Five minutes later, he is observed in the supine position and experiencing severe shortness of breath. The medical emergency team is called. A respiratory therapist should place the patient in which of the following positions? A. high Fowler B. Trendelenburg C. prone D. left lateral
A. high Fowler Many patients with known CHF suffer from orthopnea. Sitting them upright in the high Fowler position is the best initial intervention to decrease pulmonary venous return and improve respiratory mechanics.
A 28-year-old female patient with a burn injury is being monitored in the ICU. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 61 kg (134 lb). A respiratory therapist notes the following data: Pv̄O2 43 mm Hg PCWP 4 mm Hg PPA 11 mm Hg CVP 4 cm H2O Urine output 6 mL/hr The therapist should conclude the patient is A. hypovolemic. B. fluid overloaded. C. clinically stable. D. acidotic.
A. hypovolemic. Low PCWP and CVP coupled with a low urine output is characteristic of hypovolemia.
A fixed-wing medical transport with an unpressurized cabin has ascended to 10,000 ft while transporting a patient with COPD. The patient is receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/min and becomes agitated and confused. A respiratory therapist should: A. increase oxygen flow. B. initiate mask CPAP. C. recommend a diuretic. D. recommend a sedative.
A. increase oxygen flow. The patient is experiencing hypoxemia associated with altitude and a lower inspired alveolar PO2. Increasing the oxygen flow will increase the inspired FI O2
A respiratory therapist is performing oxygen titration with exercise for a patient with interstitial lung disease. At the beginning of the test, the patient is receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula at 2 L/min and has an SpO2 of 92%. Three minutes after exercise begins, the patient's SpO2 is 87%. The patient has not complained of dyspnea. The therapist should A. increase the oxygen to 3 L/min. B. let the patient rest for 5 minutes. C. switch to a simple mask. D. stop the test.
A. increase the oxygen to 3 L/min. This is a commonly performed method for oxygen titration.
Which of the following factors will influence the oxygen concentration delivered by a self-inflating manual resuscitator? A. oxygen flow and reservoir size B. PEEP setting and oxygen flow C. bag size and PEEP setting D. reservoir size and bag size
A. oxygen flow and reservoir size FI O2 is impacted by both the flow into the bag and the presence of a reservoir. With oxygen flow set at 15 L/min and a reservoir attached, the concentration approaches 100%. When a reservoir is not attached, the concentration is approximately 40% less.
5. An adult patient requires frequent blood sampling and medication administrations through an IV for 1 month. The preferred vascular access is a A. peripherally inserted central catheter. B. subclavian central vascular line. C. standard peripheral IV line. D. internal jugular catheter.
A. peripherally inserted central catheter. A PICC is the best choice for long-term IV access and allows for blood sampling.
Extreme weather conditions have caused extended and widespread power outages. Many patients who depend on respiratory devices at home are seeking care in the ED. The hospital is overwhelmed with patients who ran out of supplemental oxygen at home or have depleted ventilator batteries. According to CDC guidelines, a respiratory therapist should FIRST A. prioritize patients showing signs of acute respiratory distress. B. refer patients with a chronic disease to other facilities. C. set up oxygen tanks and regulators in the waiting room. D. centralize a charging station for medical devices.
A. prioritize patients showing signs of acute respiratory distress. Per CDC guidelines, an initial step in managing disasters is to initiate a triage process.
Which of the following is typically associated with bilateral, fluffy infiltrates on a chest radiograph? A. pulmonary edema B. neoplasm C. pleural effusion D. hemothorax
A. pulmonary edema Fluffy-appearing infiltrates in both lungs are consistent with the increased interstitial and alveolar fluid in pulmonary edema.
A gas is saturated with 100% relative humidity at 32º C (89.6º F). After the gas cools to 27º C (80.6º F), which of the following is the best estimate of the relative humidity? A. 90% B. 100% C. 70% D. 80%
B. 100% Relative humidity increases as a gas cools. When the relative humidity is at 100%, the gas is unable to hold more water vapor and it condenses into liquid. condenses into liquid.
A patient complaining of dyspnea has a heart rate of 112/min and a respiratory rate of 28/min. The following ABG analysis results are obtained while the patient is receiving oxygen at 5 L/min by nasal cannula: pH 7.47 PCO2 33 mm Hg PO2 48 mm Hg HCO3 - 24 mEq/L BE +1 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 83% Which of the following should be done FIRST? A. Increase the oxygen flow to 7 L/min. B. Switch to a nonrebreathing mask. C. Initiate mechanical ventilation. D. Initiate 3 cm H2O CPAP.
B. Switch to a nonrebreathing mask. The patient's SaO2 of 83% indicates that a nonrebreathing mask is needed to provide a high FI O2.
Which of the following indicates a physical conditioning program has been effective for a patient with COPD after 2 months of therapy? A. Resting pulse rate is unchanged. B. The 6-minute walk distance is increased by 60 meters. C. Vital capacity has increased by 5%. D. FEV1 has improved by 10%.
B. The 6-minute walk distance is increased by 60 meters. An important part of physical conditioning is an increase in exercise tolerance, easily measured by increased walking distance.
A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician who will perform a percutaneous tracheotomy on a patient who is receiving PC ventilation. Following placement of a tracheostomy tube, the therapist observes increasing heart rate, decreasing exhaled tidal volume, and increasingly distant breath sounds over the right chest. The therapist should anticipate treatment for A. cardiac tamponade. B. a pneumothorax. C. a lacerated blood vessel. D. an anteriorly displaced tube.
B. a pneumothorax. A pneumothorax will result in tachycardia, decreased ventilation, and decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
Which of the following techniques is preferred for a quadriplegic patient having difficulty expectorating secretions? A. pursed lip breathing B. abdominal thrust C. PEP therapy D. inspiratory muscle training
B. abdominal thrust An abdominal thrust is used to assist patients with decreased respiratory muscle function, such as quadriplegics, to more forcefully cough out secretions.
When administering dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) with a hand-held nebulizer, a respiratory therapist notes a patient is developing marked congestion with copious sputum production. The therapist's most appropriate action is to pause the treatment and A. dilute dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) with saline. B. allow the patient to clear secretions. C. increase the dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) dose. D. contact the physician.
B. allow the patient to clear secretions. Secretions have been mobilized and the airway must be cleared before continuing treatment.
Which of the following values are needed to determine a patient's physiologic dead space? A. expired PCO2 and Pv̄CO2 B. arterial PCO2 and expired PCO2 C. Pv̄CO2 and arterial PO2 D. arterial PO2 and arterial PCO2
B. arterial PCO2 and expired PCO2 Physiological dead space is calculated from the Bohr equation [(VD/VT = (PaCO2 - PeCO2)/PaCO2]. Thus, it is necessary to know the values for the arterial and expired values for carbon dioxide
A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician in performing cardioversion on a 61-year-old patient. Which of the following should the therapist have available? A. nasogastric tube B. bag-valve-mask resuscitator C. end-tidal CO2 monitor D. point-of-care blood gas analyzer
B. bag-valve-mask resuscitator bag valve mask is required for patient safety, as the patient will be sedated and may have a post/event that requires resuscitation
Which of the following should a respiratory therapist use to confirm the presence of auto-PEEP during VC ventilation? A. square-wave inspiratory flow B. end-expiratory hold C. plateau pressure D. PSV mode
B. end-expiratory hold Auto-PEEP is detected at the end of the expiratory phase. Expiratory hold permits pressure to be equilibrated throughout the ventilator circuit and the patient's airway, allowing estimation of alveolar pressure.
In a patient with postoperative atelectasis, PEP therapy is likely to A. increase arterial carbon dioxide tension. B. increase functional residual capacity. C. decrease airway resistance. D. decrease ventilation-perfusion matching
B. increase functional residual capacity. PEP therapy acts similar to PEEP/CPAP and increases function residual capacity by exhaling through resistance.
A patient with a PBW of 55 kg (121 lb) is receiving VC, A/C ventilation. Ventilator settings and blood gas analysis results are: FI O2 0.70 Mandatory rate 14 VT 350 mL PEEP 5 cm H2O pH 7.35 PaCO2 35 mm Hg PaO2 40 mm Hg HCO3 - 19 mEq/L BE -6 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 74% A respiratory therapist should recommend: A. changing to SIMV mode. B. increasing to 10 cm H2O PEEP. C. changing to 5 cm H2O CPAP. D. increasing to 400 mL VT.
B. increasing to 10 cm H2O PEEP The increase in PEEP will increase FRC, decrease the intrapulmonary shunt, and address the hypoxemia.
Apnea testing is ordered to determine brain death for a 75-year-old patient. An ABG analysis prior to the apnea testing reveals a PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg. After 8 minutes of 100% oxygen administered to the carina and no respiratory movements observed, the patient's PaCO2 is 64 mm Hg. A respiratory therapist should conclude the test A. is not supportive of a diagnosis of brain death. B. is supportive of a diagnosis of brain death. C. should be extended. D. is inconclusive.
B. is supportive of a diagnosis of brain death. A PaCO2 greater than 60 mm Hg or an increase in PaCO2 of 20 mm Hg or greater from baseline with no respiratory movement supports a diagnosis of brain death.
Which of the following best maintains airway patency during bag-mask ventilation in an unconscious patient? A. cricoid pressure B. oropharyngeal airway C. Trendelenburg position D. neck hyperflexion
B. oropharyngeal airway The oropharyngeal airway can help restore airway patency and maintain adequate ventilation by pulling the tongue forward in an unconscious patient, where the tongue would otherwise obstruct the oropharynx.
The primary purpose of cleaning and sterilizing nondisposable respiratory care equipment after each use is to A. extend the life of the equipment. B. prevent patient infections. C. prevent contamination of other equipment. D. protect the personnel handling the equipment.
B. prevent patient infections. Cleaning and sterilization are essential to limiting the transmission of organisms related to reusable respiratory care equipment.
A patient's V̇ /Q̇ scan indicates an excess of ventilation compared to perfusion in the left lower lobe. These results suggest: A. right-to-left shunt. B. pulmonary embolism C. pneumonia. D. hemothorax.
B. pulmonary embolism This is the classic description of a pulmonary embolism where the alveolar unit is normally ventilated, but pulmonary capillary blood flow is impeded by the presence of a clot.
A 168-cm (5-ft 6-in), 62-kg (136-lb) 39-year-old female is receiving PC, A/C ventilation. The following data are available: FI O2 0.40 Mandatory rate 15 Total rate 15 Set inspiratory pressure 20 cm H2O Exhaled VT 620 mL I:E 1:4 PEEP 10 cm H2O pH 7.52 PaCO2 26 mm Hg PaO2 110 mm Hg HCO3 - 21 mEq/L BE 0 mEq/L SaO2 (calc) 98% A respiratory therapist should recommend decreasing the A. FI O2. B. set inspiratory pressure. C. mandatory rate. D. inspiratory time.
B. set inspiratory pressure. Decreasing the set inspiratory pressure should result in a decreased tidal volume and minute ventilation, resulting in an improvement of the respiratory alkalosis. Additionally, the current exhaled tidal volume is greater than 8 mL/kg of ideal body weight and may be potentially harmful
While administering an IPV treatment at 20 cm H2O to a patient with cystic fibrosis, a respiratory therapist notes the patient has suddenly become very short of breath and cyanotic. The therapist's most appropriate action is to A. suction the patient. B. terminate the treatment. C. decrease the peak pressure to 10 cm H2O. D. stop the treatment for 10 to 20 minutes.
B. terminate the treatment. The treatment should be discontinued because the patient is demonstrating severe respiratory distress of unknown etiology. Determining the cause of the distress is of the utmost importance.
A respiratory therapist is caring for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation and observes the following waveform: The therapist should conclude the waveform shows A. evidence of auto-PEEP. B. the presence of airway secretions. C. a leak in the system. D. inadequate inspiratory flow rate.
B. the presence of airway secretions. The sawtooth pattern of the flow-volume waveform indicates secretions in the airway.
A 74-year-old female patient is admitted for management of community-acquired pneumonia. The patient's chest radiograph and CT scan show an RLL infiltrate with a nonloculated, significant pleural effusion on the right side. Which of the following should the therapist anticipate? . A. echocardiogram B. thoracentesis C. V̇ /Q̇ scan D. bronchoscopy
B. thoracentesis Thoracentesis is indicated based on the patient's chest radiograph and clinical findings
A patient with recently diagnosed cystic fibrosis is admitted due to an exacerbation. A respiratory therapist reviews the home care plan: albuterol q.i.d. HFCWO t.i.d. dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) b.i.d. A sputum culture was positive for mucoid pseudomonas. Which of the following inhaled medications should the therapist recommend? A. hypertonic saline B. tobramycin (TOBI) C. budesonide (Pulmicort) D. n-acetylcysteine
B. tobramycin (TOBI) Tobramycin (TOBI) is an inhaled antibiotic, and is the standard of care to treat lung infections in patient with cystic fibrosis.
An adult patient's heart rate drops from 82 to 40/min immediately after a suction catheter is inserted into the trachea and before suction is applied to the airway. Which of the following is the most probable cause? A. hypoxemia B. vagal reflex C. mucosal trauma D. hypercapnia
B. vagal reflex Stimulation of vagal receptors in the tracheobronchial tree may cause a rapid slowing of the heart rate.
The following data are obtained while a 48-year-old patient receives VC ventilation with an FI O2 of 0.50: 1300 1315 1330 1345 PEEP 5 10 15 20 BP 140/90 130/90 120/80 110/80 SpO2 75 90 94 95 Static CL 20 40 60 55 Which of the following levels of PEEP should a respiratory therapist choose? A. 5 cm H2O B. 10 cm H2O C. 15 cm H2O D. 20 cm H2O
C. 15 cm H2O This change will lead to the highest compliance with acceptable systemic blood pressure and SpO2. In the absence of cardiac output measurements; compliance, blood pressure, and SpO2 are the only useful data for determining optimal PEEP.
A patient's blood pressure is monitored by an appropriately positioned arterial catheter transducer. The transducer is mounted on an IV pole that is not attached to the bed. The bed is lowered to permit routine patient care. How will this affect the measured blood pressure? 1. increased systolic 2. decreased systolic 3. increased diastolic 4. decreased diastolic A. 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only A fluid-filled transducer catheter system is zeroed to the patient's position. Lowering the patient relative to the height of the transducer will result in both a lower systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading proportionate to the change in patient position.
The following data is available for an adult male receiving VC, A/C ventilation: Exhaled VT 500 mL PEEP 5 cm H2O PIP 25 cm H2O Pplat 15 cm H2O What is the static compliance in mL/cm H2O? A. 25 B. 30 C. 50 D. 75
C. 50 500 mL tidal volume divided by 10 cm H2O (plateau pressure - PEEP) equals 50 mL/cm H2O static compliance.
The following data are obtained for an adult patient: FI O2 1.0 VD/VT 0.45 Respiratory exchange rate 0.8 PB 747 mm Hg pH 7.42 PaCO2 38 mm Hg PaO2 152 mm Hg HCO3 - 25 mEq/L BE +1 mEq/L SaO2 (meas) 99% What is the P(A-a)O2 (mm Hg)? A. 550 B. 350 C. 500 D. 200
C. 500 PAO2 = FI O2 (PB - PH2O) - PaCO2 R PAO2 = 1.0 (747 - 47) - 38 0.8 PAO2 = 700 - 48 PAO2 = 652 mm Hg P(A-a)O2 = 652 - 152 P(A-a)O2 = 500 mm Hg
When instructing a patient on the administration of umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta), which of the following is most important to emphasize? A. Gargle immediately after use. B. Inhale slowly with a breath hold. C. Breathe in fast and deep. D. Shake medication vigorously before use.
C. Breathe in fast and deep Umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta) is a DPI that requires rapid inhalation.
When reviewing progress notes for a patient, a respiratory therapist observes that a provider has recommended changes to the patient's treatment plan. Which of the following should the therapist do NEXT? plan. A. Initiate the changes immediately. B. Confer with the patient's nurse about when to implement the changes. C. Check for new respiratory care orders. D. Review the planned changes with the shift supervisor.
C. Check for new respiratory care orders. Despite notation in the provider's progress notes, treatment changes require a provider's order
A respiratory therapist determined a patient receiving mechanical ventilation developed auto-PEEP due to dynamic airflow obstruction. Which of the following should the therapist do? A. Add an inspiratory plateau. B. Add mechanical deadspace. C. Decrease the mandatory rate. D. Decrease the inspiratory flow.
C. Decrease the mandatory rate. Decreasing the mandatory rate will increase expiratory time. Allowing more time to exhale will reduce air trapped in the lungs at the end of exhalation, or the auto-PEEP.
A 79-year-old female in the hospice care unit of a hospital is experiencing an acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient has an advance directive including a DNI order. She is assessed and appears to be near the end of life. The family members who are present would like care to continue until the rest of the patient's family arrives in 4 hours. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend? A. invasive mechanical ventilation B. continuous nebulized albuterol C. NPPV D. nutritional supplementation
C. NPPV Noninvasive positive pressure ventilation is preferred as an initial mode for treating an acute respiratory failure in patients with acute exacerbations of COPD. As the patient has indicated she does not want to be intubated, this would provide the necessary ventilation while also respecting her wishes.
A 28-year-old patient is being evaluated by a respiratory therapist after a trauma. The patient is receiving VC ventilation with the following settings: FI O2 0.65 Mandatory rate 14 VT 450 mL PEEP 8 cm H2O The therapist notes the following pressure-volume tracing: (Bird beak) The therapist should recommend decreasing the: A. mandatory rate. B. PEEP. C. VT. D. expiratory time.
C. VT. "Bird-beak" patterns are a result of hyperinflation. Decreasing the tidal volume will correct the hyperinflation.
An unconscious adult male with a reported head and neck injury is receiving bag-mask ventilation with a self-inflating resuscitation bag. The patient's airway becomes intermittently obstructed by the tongue. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist use to provide effective ventilation? A. percutaneous tracheostomy kit B. the head-tilt maneuver C. an oropharyngeal airway D. a flow-inflating resuscitator
C. an oropharyngeal airway An oropharyngeal airway can be inserted using a limited amount of neck movement and it moves the tongue off the posterior wall.
A physician will be sedating a patient for a procedure and asks a respiratory therapist to monitor the patient's ventilation. The therapist should select a A. pulse oximeter. B. colorimetric CO2 detector. C. capnometer. D. transcutaneous oxygen monitor
C. capnometer. Capnometry can be performed noninvasively through a cannula to monitor the patient's ventilatory status.
A patient with neuromuscular disease has been receiving ventilatory support for 4 months through a tracheostomy. The patient uses a speaking valve during the day, but receives VC, A/C ventilation at night. Which of the following should be used? A. tracheostomy button B. foam cuff tracheostomy tube C. cuffed tracheostomy tube D. cuffless tracheostomy tube
C. cuffed tracheostomy tube When using a speaking valve, the cuff can be deflated and then reinflated for mechanical ventilation.
Which of the following should a respiratory therapist instruct a patient to use when cleaning the home CPAP mask and connecting tubing? A. acetic acid B. hydrogen peroxide C. dishwashing soap D. isopropyl alcohol
C. dishwashing soap Dishwashing soap is recommended for cleaning home CPAP masks and tubing.
In addition to chest tightness and nausea, an adult male who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction will most likely have which of the following clinical findings? A. hypotension B. pedal edema C. elevated ST interval D. cardiac murmur
C. elevated ST interval An elevated ST interval is a classic sign that a male patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction.
A 35-year-old patient with asthma is being evaluated 1 week after discharge for an acute exacerbation. The patient's home regimen is albuterol MDI 2 puffs q.i.d. The patient continues to have wheezing throughout the day. A respiratory therapist should recommend changing to A. levalbuterol (Xopenex). B. umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta). C. fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair Diskus). D. azithromycin (Zithromax).
C. fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair Diskus). According to national asthma guidelines, a LABA/ICS, such asfluticasone/salmeterol (Advair Diskus), should be initiated as the next step in this patient's asthma treatment.
A patient with a history of hypertension was awakened by cough and shortness of breath. He has fine inspiratory crackles bilaterally. Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend? A. prednisone B. albuterol C. furosemide (Lasix) D. guaifenesin (Mucinex)
C. furosemide (Lasix) Nocturnal dyspnea and coarse crackles are indications of CHF. Hypertension can be an etiologic factor for heart failure. A diuretic, such as furosemide (Lasix), is useful in controlling water retention that can lead to fluid accumulation and narrowing in airways.
Common complications associated with arterial punctures include A. fistula formation and hematoma formation. B. pulmonary embolism and fistula formation. C. hematoma formation and spasm of the vessel. D. spasm of the vessel and pulmonary embolism.
C. hematoma formation and spasm of the vessel. Hematomas, or large extravascular blood accumulations, will result when post-puncture pressure has not been applied adequately. Vessel spasm is a common complication associated with needle trauma.
A respiratory therapist is doing a home evaluation for an 11-month-old infant with congenital central hypoventilation syndrome. The infant has a 3.5-mm ID, cuffed tracheostomy tube and requires PC, A/C ventilation during sleep. The therapist observes water pooled in the ventilator circuit. Ventilator parameters are: Mandatory rate 25 Total rate 44 Set inspiratory pressure 18 cm H2O Inspiratory time 0.5 sec PEEP 5 cm H2O Sensitivity 2 L/min The therapist should: A. decrease the mandatory rate. B. adjust the sensitivity. C. modify the humidifier output. D. deflate the tracheostomy tube cuff.
C. modify the humidifier output. The patient is dyssynchronous with the ventilator likely due to condensation in the circuit causing auto-triggering. No ventilator setting changes are indicated without having more details.
A male patient who is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 80 kg (176 lb) is orally intubated with a 7.0-mm ID endotracheal tube. Mechanical ventilation was initiated with an HME in the circuit. After 7 days, the patient's secretions are more difficult to suction. A respiratory therapist should FIRST A. use a smaller suction catheter. B. recommend changing to a larger endotracheal tube. C. replace the HME with a heated humidifier. D. administer dornase alfa (Pulmozyme).
C. replace the HME with a heated humidifier. A heated humidifier can deliver more humidity than an HME, which may help with thick secretions.
An ABG sample is requested for a 62-year-old female who is undergoing dialysis. The patient has a surgical shunt in her left arm. Blood flow through the right ulnar artery is absent. A respiratory therapist should obtain the sample from which of the following arteries? A. right radial B. left radial C. right brachial D. left brachial
C. right brachial The right brachial artery is the appropriate alternative site from which to obtain an arterial blood gas sample
A respiratory therapist is evaluating a 43-year-old female who reports a history of nausea and insomnia since she started using 21 mg nicotine (Nicoderm CQ) patches 1 week ago. The most appropriate action for a respiratory therapist is to A. suggest the patient try an equivalent dose of oral nicotine replacement. B. explain these effects are expected for nicotine replacement therapy. C. suggest switching to a lower-dose nicotine patch. D. recommend the patient begin taking an antiemetic.
C. suggest switching to a lower-dose nicotine patch. Switching to a lower-dose nicotine patch should be the first step to address the common side effects of nausea and insomnia.
An HME is most appropriate for a patient A. who is receiving NPPV. B. with ARDS who is receiving mechanical ventilation. C. who is receiving mechanical ventilation in the PACU. D. with a bronchopleural fistula who is receiving mechanical ventilation.
C. who is receiving mechanical ventilation in the PACU. An HME should be considered for short-term mechanical ventilation like that used for a patient in PACU
A 25-year-old, female patient in an ICU has been receiving mechanical ventilation for the past 4 days. She has severe anxiety issues regarding ventilatory support. She panics each time an SBT is initiated despite a respiratory therapist providing reassurance and coaching. The patient requires maximal doses of anxiolytics and VC, A/C ventilation is reinitiated. Which of the following should the therapist recommend? A. Increase PS, and perform a percutaneous tracheostomy. B. Maintain current settings, and transfer the patient to long-term acute care. C. Discontinue SBTs, and administer an IV infusion of midazolam HCl (Versed). D. Administer dexmedetomidine (Precedex) and repeat an SBT.
D. Administer dexmedetomidine (Precedex) and repeat an SBT. Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) can provide effective anxiolysis without suppressing the respiratory drive. This may be used to overcome failure of SBTs due to anxiety when the patient is otherwise physiologically ready for extubation
A 56-year-old male with a recent diagnosis of OSA presents for CPAP titration. CPAP of 5 cm H2O is initiated with a nasal mask. Fifteen minutes after the patient falls asleep, a respiratory therapist observes the patient snoring, decreased inspiratory flow measurement, and an AHI of 15. Which of the following should the therapist do NEXT? A. Terminate CPAP titration. B. Continue to monitor for another 15 minutes. C. Add 2 L/min of supplemental oxygen. D. Increase the CPAP level to 8 cm H2O.
D. Increase the CPAP level to 8 cm H2O. Airway patency needs to be re-established by increasing the CPAP level.
A 175-cm (5-ft 9-in) tall, 65-kg (143-lb) male with COPD and pneumonia is receiving VC, SIMV with the following settings: FI O2 0.28 Mandatory rate 8 Total rate 16 VT 500 mL Spontaneous VT 275 mL Pressure support 5 cm H2O PEEP 4 cm H2O Vital signs have been stable for 48 hours and the following ABG analysis results are available: pH 7.35 PCO2 52 mm Hg PO2 82 mm Hg HCO3 - 29 mEq/L BE +2 mEq/L SO2 (calc) 96% Which of the following should a respiratory therapist recommend? A. Change to PC ventilation. B. Titrate PS to achieve VT of 500 mL. C. Extubate to an FI O2 of 0.40 with an aerosol mask. D. Initiate a spontaneous breathing trial.
D. Initiate a spontaneous breathing trial. With the information provided, this patient qualifies for a spontaneous breathing trial
Which of the following is a characteristic of pulse-dose oxygen-conserving devices? A. Flow is constant regardless of tubing length. B. Gas delivery is synchronized with the beginning of exhalation. C. It is preferred for patients who need more than 2 L/min of oxygen. D. Most of the oxygen delivery occurs during the first quarter of inhalation.
D. Most of the oxygen delivery occurs during the first quarter of inhalation. With continuous oxygen delivery, most oxygen is delivered during the first half of inspiration with the remainder being wasted. With pulse-delivered oxygen, most of the oxygen is delivered during the first quarter of the inspiration and no waste occurs.
A 26-year-old male with a PBW of 60 kg is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a heroin overdose. A chest radiograph reveals bibasilar infiltrates. The patient is intubated and receiving VC, A/C ventilation with the following settings: FI O2 1.0 Mandatory rate 16/min VT 400 mL PEEP 14 cm H2O PIP 39 cm H2O Pplat 33 cm H2O. An ABG analysis shows the following: pH 7.37 PCO2 43 mm Hg PO2 44 mm Hg HCO3 - 25 mEq/L BE -1 mEq/L SO2 (meas) 79% A respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following FIRST? A. Initiate high-frequency oscillatory ventilation. B. Decrease PEEP to 12 cm H2O. C. Obtain a new ABG sample for analysis. D. Perform a lung recruitment maneuver.
D. Perform a lung recruitment maneuver. Patients with severe refractory hypoxemia and high plateau pressures will benefit from lung recruitment.
Which of the following is used to monitor the partial pressure of transcutaneous carbon dioxide? A. red-light absorption sensor B. electromechanical transducer C. infrared analyzer D. Stow-Severinghaus electrode
D. Stow-Severinghaus electrode A Stow-Severinghaus blood gas electrode is used in transcutaneous monitors.
A patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation is scheduled for a fiberoptic bronchoscopy. Which of the following is the primary threat to adequate ventilation during the procedure? A. secretion production B. elevated airway pressure C. loss of consciousness D. airway obstruction
D. airway obstruction Placing the scope in the artificial airway may obstruct the tube, especially if the scope is too large for the artificial airway
A male patient who is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 82 kg (180 lb) was receiving VC, A/C ventilation with a tidal volume of 600 mL. The patient's pH was normal. The patient was switched to PC, A/C ventilation at the same mandatory rate. Exhaled tidal volume is averaging 750 mL. A respiratory therapist should conclude the patient is most at risk for A. desaturation. B. dyssynchrony. C. atelectasis. D. alkalosis
D. alkalosis The increased VT will increase the patient's minute ventilation and may decrease the PaCO2. Respiratory alkalosis may result.
A patient receiving continuous mechanical ventilation needs a 7.0-mm ID endotracheal tube replaced with an 8.0-mm ID tube. To reduce the risk of losing airway access, a respiratory therapist should change the tube using A. an LMA. B. a fiberoptic bronchoscope. C. Magill forceps. D. an airway exchange catheter.
D. an airway exchange catheter. An airway exchange catheter allows the therapist to maintain a tract while exchanging the endotracheal tube. This decreases the risk of malposition of the new endotracheal tube, especially if the intubation is difficult or if there is upper airway swelling. In addition, many exchange catheters allow oxygenation by jet ventilation or manual bag-mask ventilation if there is difficulty replacing the tube in order to temporize until a more definitive solution can be achieved.
A respiratory therapist is reviewing the plan of care for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. The patient uses an albuterol HFA as needed, inhales nebulized 7% NaCl- 2 times daily, and uses an HFCWO vest 3 times daily. The patient was hospitalized 3 times in the past year due to pneumonia. Which of the following should the therapist recommend be added to the care plan for the patient? A. postural drainage with percussion B. n-acetylcysteine C. PEP therapy D. dornase alfa (Pulmozyme)
D. dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) has been shown to decrease viscosity of sputum in persons with cystic fibrosis and to decrease the frequency of exacerbations requiring hospitalization.
PEEP is increased from 5 cm H2O to 15 cm H2O for an adult patient receiving VC, A/C ventilation. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of this change? A. increased peripheral perfusion B. bradycardia C. increased FRC D. hypotension
D. hypotension Hypotension can occur with increasing PEEP as the increase in intrathoracic pressure results in decreased venous return and, in turn, decreased preload.
A 178-cm (5-ft 10-in), 80-kg (176-lb), 23-year-old male is admitted to an ICU following a drug overdose. VC, A/C ventilation is initiated with the following settings: FI O2 0.30 Mandatory rate 16 Total rate 18 VT 550 mL Inspiratory flow 25 L/min Pressure limit 45 cm H2O The high pressure alarm is sounding frequently, and wide fluctuations in pressure are noted. A respiratory therapist's most appropriate action is to A. sedate the patient. B. decrease the tidal volume. C. increase the pressure limit. D. increase the flow.
D. increase the flow. Increasing the flow will more adequately meet the patient's inspiratory flow demand.
. A 19-year-old patient with muscular dystrophy is seen in the ED following a 2- day history of increasing shortness of breath. Blood gas analysis results obtained while the patient is breathing air are: pH 7.32 PaCO2 62 mm Hg PaO2 56 mm Hg HCO3 - 32 mEq/L BE +4 mEq/L SaO2 (calc) 89% A respiratory therapist should recommend: A. initiating invasive mechanical ventilation. B. measuring vital capacity. C. performing airway clearance. D. initiating noninvasive ventilation.
D. initiating noninvasive ventilation. Blood gas analysis results indicate a need to provide ventilatory assistance. NPPV will address the ventilation problem.
An oxygen titration with exercise is performed for a 62-year-old female with COPD. The baseline SpO2 is 92% while breathing air. The results of the trials are: Trail O2 (L/min) SpO2 HR (/min) 1 0 84% 94 1 0 84% 94 2 1 86% 100 3 2 93% 98 A respiratory therapist should recommend orders for A. continuous oxygen at 1 L/min. B. oxygen at 1 L/min with exercise. C. continuous oxygen at 2 L/min. D. oxygen at 2 L/min with exercise.
D. oxygen at 2 L/min with exercise. The patient's SpO2 is adequate with 2 L/min during exercise, and is adequate at rest without O2 supplementation.
A 188-cm (6-ft 2-in), 87-kg (192-lb) male is receiving PC ventilation and the following data are noted: 12:00 PM 12:08PM PIP 40 cm H2O 42 cm H2O Exhaled VT 700 mL 300 mL I:E 1.5:1.0 1.5:1.0 PEEP 10 cm H2O 10 cm H2O HR 105/min 175/min SpO2 96 79 The patient has become agitated and a tympanic percussion note is heard on the left side. A respiratory therapist should recommend A respiratory therapist should recommend A. initiating VC ventilation. B. administering nitric oxide. C. obtaining an ABG analysis. D. performing needle decompression.
D. performing needle decompression. The onset of agitation, tachycardia, oxygen desaturation, and left chest tympany are suggestive of a tension pneumothorax. Needle chest tympany are suggestive of a tension pneumothorax. Needle decompression is recommended.
A respiratory therapist examines a patient and notes coarse crackles over both lung fields. Which of the following does this most likely indicate? A. subcutaneous emphysema B. pleurisy C. bronchospasm D. secretions
D. secretions Secretions in the airway produce low-pitched, discontinuous lung sounds described as coarse crackles upon auscultation.
Following placement of a tracheostomy tube for long-term mechanical ventilation, which of the following patient positions best prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia? A. prone B. Trendelenburg C. supine D. semi-Fowler
D. semi-Fowler Routine use of semi-Fowler positioning with the head of the bed elevated at an angle of 30-45 degrees has been shown to decrease rates of ventilator-associated pneumonia.
A 31-year-old female who is a victim of a residential fire is brought to the ED and is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula at 8 L/min. SpO2 is 100%. The following data are observed: pH 7.31 PCO2 32 mm Hg PO2 205 mm Hg HCO3 - 16 mEq/L BE -9 mEq/L SO2 (meas) 99% O2Hb 78% COHb 21% Hb 14.5 g/dL A respiratory therapist should recommend A. changing to 0.50 with an air-entrainment mask system. B. administering an FI O2 of 0.60 with an HHFNC. C. maintaining current oxygen therapy. D. switching to a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min.
D. switching to a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. The treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning is a high concentration of oxygen (as close as possible to 100%) administered by nonrebreathing mask.
A respiratory therapist is administering an aerosol treatment by small-volume nebulizer to a 46-year-old patient with bacterial pneumonia. The nebulizer solution contains 2.5 mg albuterol with 0.5 mg ipratropium (Atrovent). The following data are obtained: Pre-treatment 5 minutes into treatment HR 78/min 130/min RR 22/min 24/min SpO2 97% 94% The patient is receiving O2 at 2 L/min by nasal cannula. The therapist's best response is to A. finish and document the treatment. B. increase the FI O2 delivery to the patient. C. encourage the patient to take slower breaths. D. terminate the treatment, and report these results.
D. terminate the treatment, and report these results. Given the significant increase in heart rate, the treatment should not be continued
The following capnography tracing is observed following intubation: A. cardiac arrest. B. normal exhalation. C. air leak. D. airflow obstruction.
airflow obstruction Obstructive lung disease shows impaired expiratory air flow with a more rounded ascending phase that never reaches the plateau.
