Bacte pre and post exam
A. Staphylococcus spp.
Mannitol salt agar is selective and differential for which group of organism? A. Staphylococcus spp. B. Enterococcus spp. C. Gram positive cocci D. Streptococcus spp.
B. Polysaccharide capsule
Which of the following antigenic structure is considered the major virulence factor in the pathogenesis of Neisseria meningitidis? A. Pili B. Polysaccharide capsule C. Porin D. Opa protein
C. Eikenella corrodens
Illustrated in this photograph are colonies growing on the surface of a chocolate agar plate. The colonies were recovered from a subcutaneous infection of the forearm and had a bleach odor. The most likely identification is: A. Moraxella lacunata B. Haemophilus aphrophilus C. Eikenella corrodens D. Capnocytophaga canimorsus
A. 10% KOH
In performing Whiff test, which of the following reagent is added? A. 10% KOH B. 10% NaOH C. 10% H2SO4 D. 10% BaCl
B. Sheep
In preparing blood agar plates for determining hemolytic patters of streptococci, what is the first choice of whole blood? A. Horse B. Sheep C. Rabbit D. Human
A. Latent
In which stage of syphilis is characterized by the absence of any signs and symptoms and it is diagnosed only performed by using serological tests? A. Latent B. Primary C. Secondary D. Tertiary
A. vulnificus
It is only lactose positive member of Vibrio. A. vulnificus B. alginolyticus C. parahaemolyticus D. mimicus
B. Neisseria elongata
It is the only catalase negative specie of Neisseria. A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria elongata C. Neisseria meningitidis D. Neisseria animaloris
A. oxytoca
It is the only indole positive specie of Klebsiella. A. oxytoca B. pneumoniae C. ozonae D. rhinoscleromatis
C. bronchiseptica
It is the only motile species of Bordetella: A. pertussis B. parapertussis C. bronchiseptica D. tularensis
A. VP test
KESH tribe are biochemically similar in terms of: A. VP test B. Citrate test C. Decarboxylase test D. Dnase test
A. ETEC
Transient diarrhea is associated to which of the following E. coli strains? A. ETEC B. EPEC C. EIEC D. All of the choices E. None of the choices
B. Glucose
Members of shigella group react to produce an alkaline slant and acid butt when grown on TSI medium because they ferment: A. Sucrose B. Glucose C. Lactose D. Sorbitol
A. Yersinia pestis
Non motile, non sporulating, pleomorphic, gram negative rods having bipolar staining are: A. Yersinia pestis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Hafnia alvei
C. nitrate reduction
Pantoea agglomerans differs from other members of Enterobacteriaceae in terms of: A. glucose fermentation B. gram reaction C. nitrate reduction D. catalase test
B. Weil-felix
Rickettsial infection can be detected by which of the following serological test? A. Widal B. Weil-felix C. Typhidot D. Dick's
C. Clostridium difficile
A recto-sigmoidoscopy revealed pseudomembranes in a patient with severe diarrhea following prolonged treatment with ampicillin. Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to be isolated? A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium difficile D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Rejected
A throat swab is submitted for anaerobic culture. This specimen must be: A. Set up immediately B. Rejected C. Inoculated into thioglycolate broth D. Sent to a reference lab
C. Enterobacteriaceae
A unidentified colony was inoculated to the surface of a filter paper strip impregnated with cytochrome oxidase reagent (dimethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride) as shown in the picture on the right. The family of bacteria ruled out by the reaction seen is: A. Pasteurellaceae B. Neisseriaceae C. Enterobacteriaceae D. Pseudomonadaceae
B. Pyridoxal
Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are deficient in: A. Hemin B. Pyridoxal C. Vitamin B12 D. Thiopene-2-carboxylic hydrazide
D. All of the choices
All are true in the biochemical result of Hafnia alvei except: A. Dnase positive B. Citrate positive C. Lipase positive D. All of the choices E. None of the choices
A. Motile
All are true of Eikenella corrodens except: A. Motile B. does not ferment carbohydrates C. oxidase positive D. catalase negative
A. M protein
All of the following are NOT pathogenic determinants of Group A Streptococcus except: A. M protein B. Protein A C. Slime layer D. Polysaccharide capsule
C. Scalded Skin Syndrome
All of the following are disease associated with Group A streptococcus except: A. Scarlet fever B. Septic Sore Throat C. Scalded Skin Syndrome D. Rheumatic Fever
A. Clostridium difficile
All of the following are facultative anaerobe except: A. Clostridium difficile B. Pasteurella multocida C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
A. bite of a vector
All of the following are mode of acquisition of syphilis except: A. bite of a vector B. blood transfusion C. vertical transmission D. direct sexual contact
A. sodium bicarbonate
All of the following may be added to the media to be used for the isolation of anaerobes to absorb oxygen except: A. sodium bicarbonate B. cystine C. thioglycolate D. thioglycolic acids
B. Bacillus anthracis
All of the following organism contain a polysaccharide capsule except: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Bacillus anthracis C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Q fever
All of the following rickettsial infection is transmitted via vector except: A. Ehrlichiosis B. Q fever C. Scrub typhus D. Spotted Fever
B. ducreyi
All of the following species of Haemophilus requires NAD except: A. influenzae B. ducreyi C. aegyptius D. haemolyticus
B. Only Beta-galactosidase
An organism that is ONPG positive possesses: A. Beta-galactosidase and lactose permease B. Only Beta-galactosidase C. Only lactose permease D. Cytochrome oxidase
B. Bactericidal
Antimicrobial agents that kill the microbe, leading to cell lysis are categorized as: A. Bacteriostatic B. Bactericidal C. Narrow-spectrum antibiotics D. Super antibiotics
B. Beta-hemolysis
Complete hemolysis of blood is known as: A. Alpha-hemolysis B. Beta-hemolysis C. Gamma-hemolysis D. Synergistic hemolysis
A. Bacteroides fragilis
Cultures from a post-abdominal cellulitis specimen grew Gram-negative pleomorphic rods with the following characteristics: Grows on KV agar but does not show fluorescenceProduces black colonies BBE agarResistant to penicillin Which of the following is the MOST likely identification? A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Fusobacterium nucleatum C. Prevotella species D. Veillonella species
A. Hanging drop
Two methods which may be used to determine motility are: A. Hanging drop and motility medium B. Hanging drop and gram stain C. Motility medium and simple stain D. Gram stain and motility medium
C. III
Type/Class of BSC that provides the highest level of safety; all air entering and leaving the cabinet is sterilized by a HEPA filter A. I B. II C. III D. IV
B. Clostridium botulinum
What organism is responsible for a potentially lethal type of food poisoning caused by improperly canned food? A. Bacillus cereus B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Absence of motility
When an unknown member of the Enterobacteriaceae family is recovered in primary culture, which key characteristics would lead you to suspect Klebsiella pneumoniae? A. Indole production B. Absence of motility C. Positive ornithine decarboxylase D. Positive phenylalanine deaminase
D. Vibrio mimicus
Which of following microorganism is not salt-tolerant? A. Staphylococcus epidermidis B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Vibrio mimicus
A. lactose
Which of the following carbohydrate is incorporated in MacConkey agar that is specifically used for differentiating grown isolate? A. lactose B. glucose C. sucrose D. dextrose
C. Lacks a cell wall
Which of the following characteristics uniquely describes genus Mycoplasma? A. Does not contain RNA B. Lacks cell membrane C. Lacks a cell wall D. Requires living cells for growth
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which of the following is a non-fermenter? A. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Yersinia enterocolitica D. Serratia marcescens
A. Erythema migrans
Which of the following is considered as the hallmark of Lyme disease and is described as the presence of a "bull's eye skin lesion" A. Erythema migrans B. Erysipelas C. Carbuncles D. Furuncles
A. Ingestion of contaminated food or water
Which of the following is not classified as a direct route of infection? A. Ingestion of contaminated food or water B. Sexual contact C. Hand to Hand contact D. Congenital transmission
A. Western blot
Which of the following is the gold standard for the identification of agent causing Lyme disease? A. Western blot B. ELISA C. Thick smear D. Culture
A. Mycobacterium kansasii
Which of the following is the most likely identification of an acid fast bacilli recovered from an induced sputum with these culture findings? Slow growth at 37o C; Niacin test = negative; Pigmented photochromogenic; Nitrate test = positive; Catalase = positive A. Mycobacterium kansasii B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Mycobacterium similae D. Mycobacterium chelonei
B. Bacillus subtilis
Which of the following is used as a biological indicator for dry heat oven? A. Bacillus stearothermophilus B. Bacillus subtilis C. Bacillus cereus D. Bacillus anthracis
B. 1 and 3
Which of the following is/are general characteristic/s of Staphylococci1. Catalase positive2. Motile, non-spore forming3. Aerobic, facultative anaerobe4. Gram negative cocci in pairs or clusters A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
D. Gardnerella vaginalis
Which of the following organisms shows a presumptive identification which can be made when vaginal discharge shows "clue cells"? A. Bacillus cereus B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. Escherichia coli D. Gardnerella vaginalis
D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
Which of the following organisms typically produces star-shaped colonies? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Proteus mirabilis D. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
D. Food
Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning? A. Blood B. Rectal Swab C. Stool samples D. Food
B. Growth at 42C
Which of the following test would differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other Pseudomonads (P. fluorescens, P. putida and P. stutzeri? A. Oxidase B. Growth at 42C C. Motility D. Glucose oxidate
C. Catalase production
Which of the following test/characteristics best separates Bacillus spp and Clostridium spp? A. Spore formation B. Gram reaction C. Catalase production D. All of the choices E. None of the choices
A. midstream, clean-catch, random urine
Which of the following urine specimen is recommended for analysis and culture? A. midstream, clean-catch, random urine B. first morning urine, clean-catch, first portion of voided urine C. first morning urine, clean-catch, mid portion of voided urine D. last drops of voided urine, clean-catch
A. Lag phase
Which of the terms of the normal growth cycle best describes a stage when bacteria are adapting to a new environment? A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary D. Decline
B. Corynebacterium spp
Which one of the following organisms is commonly cultured from the nasopharynx of healthy people but is RARELY pathogenic? A. Beta hemolytic streptococci B. Corynebacterium spp C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Fails to grow at 42C
Which reaction is incorrect for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A. Pyocyanin production B. Pyoverdin production C. Alkalizes acidamine D. Fails to grow at 42C
B. serotype A
Which serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with Trachoma? A. serotype D B. serotype A C. serotype L1 D. serotype K
A. abortus
Which species of Brucella does produce hydrogen sulfide? A. abortus B. mellitensis C. suis D. canis
A. Salmonella
Widal test is a serological test for antibodies against this bacterium. A. Salmonella B. Escherichia C. Shigella D. Klebsiella
C. Listeria monocytogenes
This organism commonly causes abortion and is recovered from still-born fetus: A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Campylobacter spp C. Listeria monocytogenes D. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Glander's
Burkholderia mallei is the causative agent of: A. Glander's B. Melidiosis C. Neontal sepsis D. Onion bulb rot
B. Anaerobes
85% N2, 10% H2, , 5% CO2 is the environmental condition? A. Aerobes B. Anaerobes C. Capnophiles D. Microaerophiles
A. Pasteurella multocida
A bacterial colony that produces musty odor resembling the smell of mushrooms is associated with ________. A. Pasteurella multocida B. Eikenella corrodens C. Proteus vulgaris D. Clostridium difficile
C. Salmonella
A blood culture yielded an organism with the following reactions: TSIA: K/A, gas (+), H2S (+); Citrate: Positive; Indole: Negative; Lysine: Positive; Ornithine: Positive; Motility: Positive; Phenylalanine: Negative; ONPG: Negative; Urease: Negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism? A. Citrobacter B. Proteus C. Salmonella D. Enterobacter
A. C.trachomatis
A glycogen containing inclusion is seen in which of the following Chlamydial species? A. C.trachomatis B. C.psittaci C. C.pneumoniae D. All of the choices E. None of the choices
A. Micrococcus
A gram positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant and modified oxidase positive is best identified as a member of the genus ______: A. Micrococcus B. Lactococcus C. Pediococcus D. Staphylococcus
C. Gram's iodine
A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is which of the following? A. Safranin B. Crystal violet C. Gram's iodine D. Acetone Alcohol
A. lactose
A purple colonies in Eosin Methylene Blue agar means that the bacteria ferments which of the following carbohydrates? A. lactose B. glucose C. sucrose D. dextrose
B. Actinobacillus spp.
After a prolonged incubation, the colonies exhibits four to six star-like configuration in the center of the colony resembling "crossed cigar". This colonial feature is characteristic of _______. A. Haemophilus spp. B. Actinobacillus spp. C. Pasteurella spp. D. Eikenella spp.
C. Oxidase
All Neisseria species are positive for the enzyme: A. Coagulase B. DNase C. Oxidase D. Penicillinase
A. Requires short exposure time
All are true about Dry heat as a physical means of sterilization except: A. Requires short exposure time B. has higher temperature than moist heat C. Temperature is about 160-180C D. Use to sterilize items such as glassware, powders, etc.
D. Hard chancre
Darkfield microscopy is most often used to study: A. Candida albicans B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Parasitic nuclei D. Hard chancre
D. Borrelia burgdorferi
During motility examination, the bacteria exhibits a corkscrew/oscillating movement. It is most likely _______. A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Capnocytophaga orcharaceae C. Proteus vulgaris D. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Clostrium noyvi
From the choices listed below, which organism is classified as an obligate anaerobe? A. Mycobacteria B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria spp D. Clostrium noyvi
B. Mesophilic
Most pathogenic bacteria are characterized as: A. Psychrophilic B. Mesophilic C. Thermophilic D. Thermoduric
A. 1:10
Recommended ratio of blood to anticoagulant for blood culture bottles in adults is _______. A. 1:10 B. 1:5 C. 1:20 D. 1:15
. resistant, susceptible
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is ________ to kanamycin and _____ to carbenicillin. A. resistant, resistant B. resistant, susceptible C. susceptible, susceptible D. susceptible, resistant
B. Vi antigen
Salmonella typhi possesses an antigen that is equivalent to K antigen known as ______. A. O antigen B. Vi antigen C. H antigen D. A antigen
C. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination
Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess: A. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area B. Skin snip of the surface tissue C. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination D. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement
A. Spores are resistant to heat, cold, drying, more chemicals and boiling
Spores are found in selected groups of bacteria. Which of the following statements best describes the major advantage to the bacteria that possess these structures? A. Spores are resistant to heat, cold, drying, more chemicals and boiling B. Spores allow an organism to better control in local environment C. Spores allow bacteria to attach or adhere to host tissue D. Organisms with spores have a more efficient exchange of genetic material
D. Mycoplasma sp.
The "fried egg-like" growth - colonies with dense centers surrounded by a less dense periphery - seen here on PPLO agar is most likely caused by: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mycobacterium sp. D. Mycoplasma sp.
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
The Frei antigen test is used as an aid in the diagnosis of: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Bacillus anthracis
A. beta-galactosidase
The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as a lactose fomenter by testing for which of the following? A. beta-galactosidase B. phosphatase C. lactose permease D. beta-lactamase
B. Proteus vulgaris strain OX-19
The Weil-Felix test which serologically helpful for identification of Rickettsial infection uses: A. Proteus mirabilis strain OX-19 B. Proteus vulgaris strain OX-19 C. Antibody to a variety of Rickettsial infection D. A cross-reaction with Mycoplasma isolates
C. Nasopharyngeal aspirates
The best specimen for isolation of Bordetella pertussis is which of the following? A. Throat swab B. Sputum C. Nasopharyngeal aspirates D. Anterior nose swabs
C. Differentiation of Staphylococcus from Streptococcus
The catalase test is useful for: A. Identification of E.coli from other Enterobacteriaceae B. Selection of Beta-hemolytic streptococcus C. Differentiation of Staphylococcus from Streptococcus D. Comparison of Staphylococcus and Micrococcus
C. Pseudomonas aerugiosa
The colonies shown in the blood (BAP) agar (upper) and MacConkey (MAC) agar (lower) biplate are a 24 hour growth from an aerobic blood culture bottle that became positive at 12 hours after inoculation. The appearance of the colonies on MAC agar rules out the following bacterial species: A. Escherichia coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aerugiosa D. Enterobacter aerogenes
C. Urine
The culture of which sample routinely uses quantitation or counting of bacterial cells present to assist in the interpretation? A. Blood B. Sputum C. Urine D. Abscess
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
The etiologic agent most commonly associated with septicemia and meningitis of newborns is _______. A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus bovis group C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
The etiologic agent of the disease erysipelas is: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptobacillus moniliformis C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Phenol Red
The indicator employed in the biochemical media Triple Sugar Iron Agar is _______. A. Neutral Red B. Bromocresol purple C. Bromothymol blue D. Phenol Red
B. Heat
The mordant used in Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique is: A. Gram's iodine B. Heat C. Acid-alcohol D. Tergitol
A. Rabbit
The plasma of choice for coagulase test is derived from: A. Rabbit B. Sheep C. Human D. Horse
C. Voges-Proskauer
The production of acetelymethylcarbinol from dextrose constitutes the basis for which of the following tests? A. Neufeld-Quellung B. Cholera red C. Voges-Proskauer D. Oxidase
A. Tryptophan
The red ring at the top of the media in this tube indicates a positive indole reaction. The precursor substance in the medium from which the indole is produced is: A. Tryptophan B. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde C. Pyruvic acid D. Peptone
A. Vibrio
The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar is especially formulated for isolating which pathogen from stool cultures? A. Vibrio B. Salmonella C. Shigella D. Plesiomonas
C. Cording factor
The tendency for the cells of Mycobacterium tuberculosis to assemble in linear aggregates as seen in this image of an acid-fast stained preparation is caused by production of: A. Lysozyme B. Niacin C. Cording factor D. Oleic acid
D. Peritrichous
The term that best describes the location of the flagella which entirely surrounds the bacteria is: A. Atrichous B. Monotrichous C. Amphitrichous D. Peritrichous
A. thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar
Vibrio parahaemolyticus can be isolated best from feces on: A. thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose agar B. eosin methylene blue agar C. salmonella shigella agar D. hektoen enteric agar
