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A clinic nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a suspected diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse anticipates that which diagnostic test will be prescribed by the client's primary health care provider? 1.Schilling test 2.Clotting time 3.Bone marrow biopsy 4.White blood cell differential

1 The Schilling test is used to determine the cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, which leads to pernicious anemia

A nurse is caring for a client who has metabolic alkalosis. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse monitor? (select all that apply.) 1. bicarbonate excess 2. kussmaul's respirations 3. flushing 4. circumoral paresthesia 5. lethargy

1, 4

During the intrapartum period, the nurse is caring for a client with sickle cell disease. The nurse ensures that the client receives adequate intravenous fluid intake and oxygen consumption to achieve which outcome? 1.Stimulate the labor process. 2.Prevent dehydration and hypoxemia. 3.Avoid the necessity of a cesarean section. 4.Eliminate the need for analgesic administration.

2 A variety of conditions, including dehydration, hypoxemia, infection, and exertion, can stimulate the sickling process during the intrapartum period. Maintaining adequate intravenous fluid intake and the administration of oxygen via face mask will help to ensure a safe environment for maternal and fetal health during labor. These measures will not stimulate the labor process, avoid the necessity of a cesarean section, or eliminate the need for analgesic administration.

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which findings would the nurse expect to note on assessment of this client? Select all that apply. 1.A low arterial PCo2 level 2.A hyperinflated chest noted on the chest x-ray 3.Decreased oxygen saturation with mild exercise 4.A widened diaphragm noted on the chest x-ray 5.Pulmonary function tests that demonstrate increased vital capacity

2,3 Rationale:Clinical manifestations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on exertion and at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-rays reveal a hyperinflated chest and a flattened diaphragm if the disease is advanced. Pulmonary function tests will demonstrate decreased vital capacity.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for home oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching 1. verify the oxygen flow rate every other day 2. check the cannula position on a regular basis 3. check the tops of the ears for the skin breakdown 4. post "no smoking" signs in a prominent location in the home 5. apply petroleum jelly

2,3,4

a nurse is admitting a client who reports flu-like symptoms with hyperactive reflexes and a new onset of confusion. The nurse should recognize that the client is experiencing which of the following conditions. 1. metabolic acidosis 2. metabolic alkalosis 3. Resp. acidosis 4. Resp. alkalosis

2.

The clinic nurse develops a plan of care for a client with emphysema who will be started on long-term corticosteroid therapy. Which specific instruction should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1.Instruct the client to maintain a low-potassium diet. 2.Encourage the client to consume a fluid intake of 3000 mL/day. 3.Encourage the client to increase the amount of sodium intake in the diet. 4.Instruct the client to return to the clinic for monitoring of blood glucose levels.

4 Corticosteroid therapy can cause calcium and potassium depletion, sodium retention, and glucose intolerance. The client should be monitored for hyperglycemia. Also, an increase in potassium and a decrease in sodium intake are recommended to prevent potassium depletion and sodium retention while taking the corticosteroid. Although increased fluids are important for the client with emphysema to maintain thin respiratory secretions, this action is not specific to the use of corticosteroids.

The nurse is providing care for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. When describing the process of respiration the nurse explains how oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli. The nurse is describing what process? A) Diffusion B) Osmosis C) Active transport D) Filtration

A

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and the health interview is suggestive of pica. Laboratory findings reveal a low serum iron level and a low ferritin level. With what would the nurse suspect that the patient will be diagnosed? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Pernicious anemia C) Sickle cell anemia D) Hemolytic anemia

A A low serum iron level, a low ferritin level, and symptoms of pica are associated with iron deficiency anemia. TIBC may also be elevated. None of the other anemias are associated with pica.

A 50-year-old man diagnosed with leukemia will begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy? A) Administer an antiemetic. B) Administer an antimetabolite. C) Administer a tumor antibiotic. D) Administer an anticoagulant.

A Antiemetics are used to treat nausea and vomiting, the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy. Antihistamines and certain steroids are also used to treat nausea and vomiting. Antimetabolites and tumor antibiotics are classes of chemotherapeutic medications. Anticoagulants slow blood clotting time, thereby helping to prevent thrombi and emboli.

The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient? A) These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory and x-ray studies. B) These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer. C) Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every patient feels this way after having radiation therapy. D) Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.

A Fatigue and weakness result from radiation treatment and usually do not represent deterioration or disease progression. The symptoms associated with radiation therapy usually decrease after therapy ends. The symptoms may concern the patient and should not be belittled. Radiation destroys both cancerous and normal cells.

A 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia resulting from chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnoses of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem? A) The patient requests that her family bring her makeup and wig. B) The patient begins to discuss the future with her family. C) The patient reports less disruption from pain and discomfort. D) The patient cries openly when discussing her disease.

A Requesting her wig and makeup indicates that the patient with alopecia is becoming interested in looking her best and that her body image and self-esteem may be improving. The other options may indicate that other nursing goals are being met, but they do not necessarily indicate improved body image and self-esteem.

A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation (HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this patients subsequent plan of care? A) Limit the time that visitors spend at the patients bedside. B) Teach the patient to perform all aspects of basic care independently. C) Assign male nurses to the patients care whenever possible. D) Situate the patient in a shared room with other patients receiving brachytherapy.

A To limit radiation exposure, visitors should generally not spend more than 30 minutes with the patient. Pregnant nurses or visitors should not be near the patient, but there is no reason to limit care to nurses who are male. All necessary care should be provided to the patient and a single room should be used.

You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer? A) Palliative B) Reconstructive C) Salvage D) Prophylactic

A When cure is not possible, the goals of treatment are to make the patient as comfortable as possible and to promote quality of life as defined by the patient and his or her family. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are at increased risk to develop cancer.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has sickle cell anemia and the nurses assessment reveals the possibility of substance abuse. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Encourage the patient to rely on complementary and alternative therapies. B) Encourage the patient to seek care from a single provider for pain relief. C) Teach the patient to accept chronic pain as an inevitable aspect of the disease. D) Limit the reporting of emergency department visits to the primary health care provider.

B

The nurse is admitting an oncology patient to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the patient has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem? A) Cognitive deficits B) Impaired wound healing C) Cardiac tamponade D) Tumor lysis syndrome

B Combining other treatment methods, such as radiation and chemotherapy, with surgery contributes to postoperative complications, such as infection, impaired wound healing, altered pulmonary or renal function, and the development of deep vein thrombosis.

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs? A) Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV B) TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter C) Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds D) Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

B If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.

A medical nurse educator is reviewing a patients recent episode of metabolic acidosis with members of the nursing staff. What should the educator describe about the role of the kidneys in metabolic acidosis? A) The kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. B) The kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. C) The kidneys react rapidly to compensate for imbalances in the body. D) The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the intracellular fluid.

B The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. In respiratory and metabolic alkalosis, the kidneys retain hydrogen ions and excrete bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The kidneys obviously cannot compensate for the metabolic acidosis created by renal failure. Renal compensation for imbalances is relatively slow (a matter of hours or days).

maybe A patients blood work reveals a platelet level of 17,000/mm3. When inspecting the patients integumentary system, what finding would be most consistent with this platelet level? A) Dermatitis B) Petechiae C) Urticaria D) Alopecia

B When the platelet count drops to less than 20,000/mm3, petechiae can appear. Low platelet levels do not normally result in dermatitis, urticaria (hives), or alopecia (hair

A pt. with renal failure has decreased erythropoietin production. Upon analysis of the pt. complete blood count, the nurse will expect which of the following results A) an increased hgb and decreased hct B) an decreased hgb and hct C) a decreased mcv and red cell distribution width (RDW) D) an increased MCV and RDW

B) The decreased production of erythropoietin will result in a decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit. The patient will have normal MCV and RDW because the erythrocytes are normal in appearance.

A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity? A) Disease prophylaxis B) Risk reduction C) Secondary prevention D) Tertiary prevention

C

The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a patient with cancer who is preparing for HSCT. What is a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A) Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes B) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia C) Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response D) Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

C A priority nursing diagnosis for this patient is risk for infection related to altered immunologic response. Because the patients immunity is suppressed, he or she will be at a high risk for infection. The other listed nursing diagnoses are valid, but they are not as high a priority as is risk for infection.

The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery? A) Salvage surgery B) Palliative surgery C) Prophylactic surgery D) Reconstructive surgery

C Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.

The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer? A) Smoked salmon and green beans B) Pork chops and fried green tomatoes C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli D) Liver, onions, and steamed peas

C Fruits and vegetables appear to reduce cancer risk. Salt-cured foods, such as ham and processed meats, as well as red meats, should be limited.

A young man with a diagnosis of hemophilia A has been brought to emergency department after suffering a workplace accident resulting in bleeding. Rapid assessment has revealed the source of the patients bleeding and established that his vital signs are stable. What should be the nurses next action? A) Position the patient in a prone position to minimize bleeding. B) Establish IV access for the administration of vitamin K. C) Prepare for the administration of factor VIII. D) Administer a normal saline bolus to increase circulatory volume.

C Injuries in patients with hemophilia necessitate prompt administration of clotting factors. Vitamin K is not a treatment modality and a prone position will not be appropriate for all types and locations of wounds. A normal saline bolus is not indicated.

A nurse is a long-term care facility is admitting a new resident who has a bleeding disorder. When planning this residents care, the nurse should include which of the following? A) Housing the resident in a private room B) Implementing a passive ROM program to compensate for activity limitation C) Implementing of a plan for fall prevention D) Providing the patient with a high-fiber diet

C To prevent bleeding episodes, the nurse should ensure that an older adult with a bleeding disorder does not suffer a fall. Activity limitation is not necessarily required, however. A private room is not necessary and there is no reason to increase fiber intake.

The nurse is assessing a new patient with complaints of overwhelming fatigue and a sore tongue that is visibly smooth and beefy red. This patient is demonstrating signs and symptoms associated with what form of what hematologic disorder? A) Sickle cell anemia B) Hemophilia C) Megaloblastic anemia D) Thrombocytopenia

C a red, smooth, sore tongue indicates magaloblastic anemia

A nurse is admitting a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura to the unit. In completing the admission assessment, the nurse must be alert for what medications that potentially alter platelet function? Select all that apply. A) Antihypertensives B) Penicillins C) Sulfa-containing medications D) Aspirin-based drugs E) NSAIDs

C,D,E

The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize? A) Adjust the dose to the patients present symptoms. B) Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration. C) Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication. D) Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

D

You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results? A) Respiratory acidosis with no compensation B) Metabolic alkalosis with a compensatory alkalosis C) Metabolic acidosis with no compensation D) Metabolic acidosis with a compensatory respiratory alkalosis

D A low pH indicates acidosis (normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45). The PaCO3 is also low, which causes alkalosis. The bicarbonate is low, which causes acidosis. The pH bicarbonate more closely corresponds with a decrease in pH, making the metabolic component the primary problem.

An oncology patient has begun to experience skin reactions to radiation therapy, prompting the nurse to make the diagnosis Impaired Skin Integrity: erythematous reaction to radiation therapy. What intervention best addresses this nursing diagnosis? A) Apply an ice pack or heating pad PRN to relieve pain and pruritis B) Avoid skin contact with water whenever possible C) Apply phototherapy PRN D) Avoid rubbing or scratching the affected area

D Rubbing and or scratching will lead to additional skin irritation, damage, and increased risk of infection. Extremes of hot, cold, and light should be avoided. No need to avoid contact with water.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client with sickle cell anemia. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction? 1."I'm going to take a painting class." 2."I've learned to knit and sew my own clothes." 3."When I'm feeling better, I'm returning to the soccer team." 4."I'm using a schedule to maintain my increased fluid intake."

3 Clients with sickle cell anemia are advised to avoid strenuous activities. Quiet activities as tolerated are recommended when the client is feeling well. Increasing fluid intake is encouraged to assist in preventing sickle cell crisis.

A client is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, and ferrous sulfate is prescribed. The nurse should tell the client that it would be best to take the medication with which food? 1.Milk 2.Boiled egg 3.Tomato juice 4.Pineapple juice

3 Ferrous sulfate is an iron preparation, and the client is instructed to take the medication with orange juice or another vitamin C-containing product or a product high in ascorbic acid to increase the absorption of the iron. Among the options presented, tomato juice is highest in vitamin C and ascorbic acid. Milk and eggs inhibit absorption of iron.

The nurse reviews the plan of care for a woman at 37 weeks' gestation who has sickle cell anemia. The nurse determines that which problem listed on the nursing care plan will receive the highest priority? 1.Pain 2.Disturbed body image 3.Insufficient fluid volume 4.Inability to tolerate activity

3 Rationale:In a client with sickle cell anemia, dehydration will precipitate sickling of the red blood cells. Sickling can lead to life-threatening consequences for the pregnant woman and for the fetus, such as an interruption of blood flow to the placenta. Although the remaining options may also be appropriate problems for the client with sickle cell anemia, they are not the priority.

The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program. What principle guides hospice care? A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family. B) Care is focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally. C) The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient. D) The care team prioritizes the patients physical needs and the family is responsible for the patients emotional needs.

A The focus of hospice care is on the family as well as the patient. The family is not solely responsible for the patients emotional well-being

A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis has been prescribed a combination of isoniazid and rifampin for treatment. The nurse teaches the client to perform which action? 1.Report any change in urine color. 2.Take both medications with food. 3.Take both medications together once a day. 4.Expect to take the medications for 2 to 3 weeks.

3 Rifampin in combination with isoniazid prevents the emergence of medication-resistant organisms. This combination, taken together daily, eliminates the tubercle bacilli from the sputum and improves clinical status. Rifampin produces a harmless red-orange color in all body fluids and should be taken along with the isoniazid 1 hour before or 2 hours after eating to maximize absorption. The treatment regimen is maintained for at least 6 months for effectiveness, and the therapeutic effect may be evident in 2 to 3 weeks.

The nurse is planning to obtain blood for arterial blood gas analysis from a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse should plan time for which activity after the arterial blood specimen is drawn? 1. Holding a warm compress over the puncture site for 5 minutes 2.Encouraging the client to open and close the hand rapidly for 2 minutes 3.Applying pressure to the puncture site by applying a 2 × 2 gauze for 5 minutes 4.Having the client keep the radial pulse puncture site in a dependent position for 5 minutes

3. Applying pressure over the puncture site reduces the risk of hematoma formation and damage to the artery. A cold (not warm) compress would aid in limiting blood flow. Keeping the extremity still and out of a dependent position will aid in the formation of a clot at the puncture site

The home care nurse is making a monthly visit to a client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia who has been receiving a monthly injection of cyanocobalamin. Before administering the injection, the nurse evaluates the effects of the medication and determines that a therapeutic effect is occurring if the client makes which statement? 1."I feel really lightheaded." 2."I no longer have any nausea." 3."I have not had any pain in a month." 4."I feel stronger and have a much better appetite."

4 -your med card says headache, but saunders says naw Cyanocobalamin is essential for DNA synthesis. It can take up to 3 years for the vitamin B12 stores to be depleted and for symptoms of pernicious anemia to appear. Symptoms can include weakness, fatigue, anorexia, loss of taste, and diarrhea. To correct deficiencies, a crystalline form of vitamin B12, cyanocobalamin, can be given intramuscularly. The client statements in options 1, 2, and 3 do not identify a therapeutic effect of the medication.

A client with a documented exposure to tuberculosis is on medication therapy with isoniazid. The nurse is monitoring laboratory results and determines that which laboratory value indicates the need for follow-up? 1.Platelet count 325,000 mm3 (325 × 109/L) 2.Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (88.3 mcmol/L) 3.Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) 4.Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 55 U/L (55 U/L)

4 Because isoniazid therapy can cause elevated hepatic enzymes and hepatitis, liver enzymes are monitored when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. They may be monitored longer in the client who is older than 50 years of age or who abuses alcohol. The normal AST level is 0 to 35 U/L (0 to 30 U/L). The other options are not monitored routinely and are also normal.

A client is prescribed a liquid iron preparation that has the potential to stain the teeth. The nurse should instruct the client to take which action to prevent staining of the teeth? 1.Brush the teeth before drinking the iron. 2.Drink the iron undiluted for maximal effect. 3.Dilute more than the amount prescribed to obtain the correct dosage. 4.Dilute the iron in juice, drink it through a straw, and rinse the mouth afterward.

4 Liquid iron preparations will stain the teeth. The best advice for the client who needs liquid iron is to dilute the iron in juice or water, drink it through a straw, and rinse the mouth well afterward. Brushing before taking the liquid iron would not be of any benefit. The nurse would not instruct a client to take more than the prescribed amount.

The nurse is assessing a client with the typical clinical manifestations of tuberculosis (TB). During history-taking the nurse anticipates that the client will report presence of cough and fatigue for what period of time? 1.1 or 2 days 2.1 to 2 weeks 3.Almost 1 week 4.Several weeks to months

4 The client with TB may report signs and symptoms that have been present for weeks or even months. These may include fatigue, lethargy, chest pain, anorexia and weight loss, night sweats, low-grade fever, and cough with mucoid or blood-streaked sputum. It may be the production of blood-tinged sputum that finally forces some clients to seek care.

The nurse is teaching a client with tuberculosis about nutrition and foods that should be increased in the diet. The nurse should suggest that the client increase which food items? 1.Potatoes and fish 2.Eggs and spinach 3.Grains and broccoli 4.Meats and citrus fruits

4 The nurse teaches the client with tuberculosis to increase intake of protein, iron, and vitamin C. Foods rich in vitamin C include citrus fruits, berries, melons, pineapple, broccoli, cabbage, green peppers, tomatoes, potatoes, chard, kale, asparagus, and turnip greens. Food sources that are rich in iron include liver and other meats. Less than 10% of iron is absorbed from eggs, and less than 5% is absorbed from grains and vegetables.

A nurse is caring for a patient with severe anemia. The patient is tachycardic and complains of dizziness and exertional dyspnea. The nurse knows that in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue, the workload on the heart is increased. What signs and symptoms might develop if this patient goes into heart failure? A) Peripheral edema B) Nausea and vomiting C) Migraine D) Fever

A Cardiac status should be carefully assessed in patients with anemia. When the hemoglobin level is low, the heart attempts to compensate by pumping faster and harder in an effort to deliver more blood to hypoxic tissue. This increased cardiac workload can result in such symptoms as tachycardia, palpitations, dyspnea, dizziness, orthopnea, and exertional dyspnea. Heart failure may eventually develop, as evidenced by an enlarged heart (cardiomegaly) and liver (hepatomegaly), and by peripheral edema. Nausea, migraine, and fever are not associated with heart failure.

A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect? A) Respiratory acidosis B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Respiratory alkalosis D) Metabolic acidosis

A The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.

The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply. A) Rate of growth B) Ability to cause death C) Size of cells D) Cell contents E) Ability to spread

A B E Benign and malignant cells differ in many cellular growth characteristics, including the method and rate of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects, destruction of tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many sizes, both benign and malignant. Cell contents are basically the same, but they behave differently.

You are caring for an adult patient who has developed a mild oral yeast infection following chemotherapy. What actions should you encourage the patient to perform? Select all that apply. A) Use a lip lubricant. B) Scrub the tongue with a firm-bristled toothbrush. C) Use dental floss every 24 hours. D) Rinse the mouth with normal saline. E) Eat spicy food to aid in eradicating the yeast.

A,C,D Stomatitis is an inflammation of the oral cavity. The patient should be encouraged to brush the teeth with a soft toothbrush after meals, use dental floss every 24 hours, rinse with normal saline, and use a lip lubricant. Mouthwashes and hot foods should be avoided.

A night nurse is reviewing the next days medication administration record (MAR) of a patient who has hemophilia. The nurse notes that the MAR specifies both oral and subcutaneous options for the administration of a PRN antiemetic. What is the nurses best action? A) Ensure that the day nurse knows not to give the antiemetic. B) Contact the prescriber to have the subcutaneous option discontinued. C) Reassess the patients need for antiemetics. D) Remove the subcutaneous route from the patients MAR.

B Injections must be avoided in patients with hemophilia. Consequently, the nurse should ensure that the prescriber makes the necessary change. The nurse cannot independently make a change to a patients MAR in most cases. Facilitating the necessary change is preferable to deferring to the day nurse.

A patients most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patients cancer cells spread? A) Hematologic spread B) Lymphatic circulation C) Invasion D) Angiogenesis

B Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism of metastasis.

A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe? A) Pruritis (itching) B) Nausea and vomiting C) Altered glucose metabolism D) Confusion

B Nausea and vomiting, the most common side effects of chemotherapy, may persist for as long as 24 to 48 hours after its administration. Antiemetic drugs are frequently prescribed for these patients. Confusion, alterations in glucose metabolism, and pruritis are not common adverse effects.

A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients? A) Encourage several small meals daily. B) Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity. C) Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed. D) Assess the integrity of the patients oral mucosa regularly.

B Nursing care for patients with skin reactions includes maintaining skin integrity, cleansing the skin, promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and preventing and managing infection. Malnutrition in oncology patients may be present, but it is not the leading cause of infection-related death. Poor hygiene does not normally cause events that result in death. Broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is not the leading cause of death in an oncology patient.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pernicious anemia. The nurse should prepare to administer which of the following medications? A) Folic acid B) Vitamin B12 C) Lactulose D) Magnesium sulfate

B Pernicious anemia is characterized by vitamin B12 deficiency. Magnesium sulfate, lactulose, and folic acid do not address the pathology of this type of anemia.

A patient with poorly controlled diabetes has developed end-stage renal failure and consequent anemia. When reviewing this patients treatment plan, the nurse should anticipate the use of what drug? A) Magnesium sulfate B) Epoetin alfa C) Low-molecular weight heparin D) Vitamin K

B The availability of recombinant erythropoietin (epoetin alfa [Epogen, Procrit], darbepoetin alfa [Aranesp]) has dramatically altered the management of anemia in end-stage renal disease. Heparin, vitamin K, and magnesium are not indicated in the treatment of renal failure or the consequent anemia.

A 54-year-old has a diagnosis of breast cancer and is tearfully discussing her diagnosis with the nurse. The patient states, They tell me my cancer is malignant, while my coworkers breast tumor was benign. I just dont understand at all. When preparing a response to this patient, the nurse should be cognizant of what characteristic that distinguishes malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type? A) Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells B) Different proteins in the cell membrane C) Differing size of the cells D) Different molecular structure in the cells

B The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens (e.g., carcinoembryonic antigen [CEA] and prostate-specific antigen [PSA]), which develop over time as the cells become less differentiated (mature). These proteins distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type.

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite? A) Malignant cells contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. B) Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. C) Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells. D) The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

B The cell membranes are altered in cancer cells, which affect fluid movement in and out of the cell. The cell membrane of malignant cells also contains proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Malignant cellular membranes also contain less fibronectin, a cellular cement. Typically, nuclei of cancer cells are large and irregularly shaped (pleomorphism). Fragility of chromosomes is commonly found when cancer cells are analyzed.

A group of nurses are learning about the high incidence and prevalence of anemia among different populations. Which of the following individuals is most likely to have anemia? A) A 50-year-old African-American woman who is going through menopause B) An 81-year-old woman who has chronic heart failure C) A 48-year-old man who travels extensively and has a high-stress job D) A 13-year-old girl who has just experienced menarche

B The incidence and prevalence of anemia are exceptionally high among older adults, and the risk of anemia is compounded by the presence of heart disease. None of the other listed individuals exhibits high-risk factors for anemia, though exceptionally heavy menstrual flow can result in anemia.

The nurse on the pediatric unit is caring for a 10-year-old boy with a diagnosis of hemophilia. The nurse knows that a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with hemophilia is what? A) Hypothermia B) Diarrhea C) Ineffective coping D) Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements

C Most patients with hemophilia are diagnosed as children. They often require assistance in coping with the condition because it is chronic, places restrictions on their lives, and is an inherited disorder that can be passed to future generations. Children with hemophilia are not at risk of hypothermia, diarrhea, or imbalanced nutrition.

Traditionally, nurses have been involved with tertiary cancer prevention. However, an increasing emphasis is being placed on both primary and secondary prevention. What would be an example of primary prevention? A) Yearly Pap tests B) Testicular self-examination C) Teaching patients to wear sunscreen D) Screening mammograms

C Primary prevention is concerned with reducing the risks of cancer in healthy people through practices such as use of sunscreen. Secondary prevention involves detection and screening to achieve early diagnosis, as demonstrated by Pap tests, mammograms, and testicular exams.

You are caring for a 65-year-old male patient admitted to your medical unit 72 hours ago with pyloric stenosis. A nasogastric tube placed upon admission has been on low intermittent suction ever since. Upon review of the mornings blood work, you notice that the patients potassium is below reference range. You should recognize that the patient may be at risk for what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Metabolic acidosis C) Metabolic alkalosis D) Respiratory acidosis

C Probably the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis is vomiting or gastric suction with loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. The disorder also occurs in pyloric stenosis in which only gastric fluid is lost. Vomiting, gastric suction, and pyloric stenosis all remove potassium and can cause hypokalemia. This patient would not be at risk for hypercalcemia; hyperparathyroidism and cancer account for almost all cases of hypercalcemia. The nasogastric tube is removing stomach acid and will likely raise pH. Respiratory acidosis is unlikely since no change was reported in the patients respiratory status.

A 58-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray shows carcinoma. The patient is anxious and asks if he can smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic? A) Smoking is the reason you are here. B) The doctor left orders for you not to smoke. C) You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping? D) Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.

C Stating You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping? acknowledges the patients feelings and encourages him to assess his previous behavior. Saying Smoking is the reason you are here belittles the patient. Citing the doctors orders does not address the patients anxiety. Sanctioning smoking would be highly detrimental to this patient.

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patients family and friends? A) Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case theres a negative outcome. B) Make sure she doesn't eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure. C) Wear a hospital gown when you go into the patients room. D) Do not visit if youve had a recent infection.

D Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patients contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to

A nurse is planning care for a nephrology patient with a new nursing graduate. The nurse states, A patient in renal failure partially loses the ability to regulate changes in pH. What is the cause of this partial inability? A) The kidneys regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. B) The kidneys buffer acids through electrolyte changes. C) The kidneys regenerate and reabsorb bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH. D) The kidneys combine carbonic acid and bicarbonate to maintain a stable pH.

C The kidneys regulate the bicarbonate level in the ECF; they can regenerate bicarbonate ions as well as reabsorb them from the renal tubular cells. In respiratory acidosis and most cases of metabolic acidosis, the kidneys excrete hydrogen ions and conserve bicarbonate ions to help restore balance. The lungs regulate and reabsorb carbonic acid to change and maintain pH. The kidneys do not buffer acids through electrolyte changes; buffering occurs in reaction to changes in pH. Carbonic acid works as the chemical medium to exchange O2 and CO2 in the lungs to maintain a stable pH whereas the kidneys use bicarbonate as the chemical medium to maintain a stable pH by moving and eliminating H+.

A nurse is providing education to a patient with iron deficiency anemia who has been prescribed iron supplements. What should the nurse include in health education? A) Take the iron with dairy products to enhance absorption. B) Increase the intake of vitamin E to enhance absorption. C) Iron will cause the stools to darken in color. D) Limit foods high in fiber due to the risk for diarrhea.

C The nurse will inform the patient that iron will cause the stools to become dark in color. Iron should be taken on an empty stomach, as its absorption is affected by food, especially dairy products. Patients should be instructed to increase their intake of vitamin C to enhance iron absorption. Foods high in fiber should be consumed to minimize problems with constipation, a common side effect associated with iron therapy.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient with a diagnosis of sickle cell disease who has been admitted for the treatment of an acute vaso-occlusive crisis. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize in the patients plan of care? A) Risk for disuse syndrome related to ineffective peripheral circulation B) Functional urinary incontinence related to urethral occlusion C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to thrombosis D) Ineffective thermoregulation related to hypothalamic dysfunction

C There are multiple potential complications of sickle cell disease and sickle cell crises. Central among these, however, is the risk of thrombosis and consequent lack of tissue perfusion. Sickle cell crises are not normally accompanied by impaired thermoregulation or genitourinary complications. Risk for disuse syndrome is not associated with the effects of acute vaso-occlusive crisis.

A woman who is in her third trimester of pregnancy has been experiencing an exacerbation of iron deficiency anemia in recent weeks. When providing the patient with nutritional guidelines and meal suggestions, what foods would be most likely to increase the woman's iron stores? A) Salmon accompanied by whole milk B) Mixed vegetables and brown rice C) Beef liver accompanied by orange juice D) Yogurt, almonds, and whole grain oats

C vitamin c is high in iron Food sources high in iron include organ meats, other meats, beans (e.g., black, pinto, and garbanzo), leafy green vegetables, raisins, and molasses. Taking iron-rich foods with a source of vitamin C (e.g., orange juice) enhances the absorption of iron. All of the listed foods are nutritious, but liver and orange juice are most likely to be of benefit.

A patient has been living with a diagnosis of anemia for several years and has experienced recent declines in her hemoglobin levels despite active treatment. What assessment finding would signal complications of anemia? A) Venous ulcers and visual disturbances B) Fever and signs of hyperkalemia C) Epistaxis and gastroesophageal reflux D) Ascites and peripheral edema

D A significant complication of anemia is heart failure from chronic diminished blood volume and the hearts compensatory effort to increase cardiac output. Patients with anemia should be assessed for signs and symptoms of heart failure, including ascites and peripheral edema. None of the other listed signs and symptoms is characteristic of heart failure.

An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do? A) Periodically apply ice to the area. B) Keep the area cleanly shaven. C) Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area. D) Avoid using soap on the treatment area.

D Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage. Soaps, petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema. Ice is also contraindicated.

An adult patient has been diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. What nursing diagnosis is most likely to apply to this patients health status? A) Risk for deficient fluid volume related to impaired erythropoiesis B) Risk for infection related to tissue hypoxia C) Acute pain related to uncontrolled hemolysis D) Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity

D Fatigue is the major assessment finding common to all forms of anemia. Anemia does not normally result in acute pain or fluid deficit. The patient may have an increased risk of infection due to impaired immune function, but fatigue is more likely.

The nurse is caring for a patient has just been given a 6-month prognosis following a diagnosis of extensive stage small-cell lung cancer. The patient states that he would like to die at home, but the team believes that the patients care needs are unable to be met in a home environment. What might you suggest as an alternative? A) Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital. B) Panel the patient for a personal care home. C) Discuss a referral for acute care. D) Discuss a referral for hospice care.

D Hospice care can be provided in several settings. Because of the high cost associated with free-standing hospices, care is often delivered by coordinating services provided by both hospitals and the community. The primary goal of hospice care is to provide support to the patient and family. Patients who are referred to hospice care generally have fewer than 6 months to live. Each of the other listed options would be less appropriate for the patients physical and psychosocial needs.

A patient comes into the clinic complaining of fatigue. Blood work shows an increased bilirubin concentration and an increased reticulocyte count. What would the nurse suspect the patient has? A) A hypoproliferative anemia B) A leukemia C) Thrombocytopenia D) A hemolytic anemia

D In hemolytic anemias, premature destruction of erythrocytes results in the liberation of hemoglobin from the erythrocytes into the plasma; the released hemoglobin is converted in large part to bilirubin, and therefore the bilirubin concentration rises. The increased erythrocyte destruction leads to tissue hypoxia, which in turn stimulates erythropoietin production. This increased production is reflected in an increased reticulocyte count as the bone marrow responds to the loss of erythrocytes. Hypoproliferative anemias, leukemia, and thrombocytopenia lack this pathology and presentation.

An oncology patient will begin a course of chemotherapy and radiation therapy for the treatment of bone metastases. What is one means by which malignant disease processes transfer cells from one place to another? A) Adhering to primary tumor cells B) Inducing mutation of cells of another organ C) Phagocytizing healthy cells D) Invading healthy host tissues

D Invasion, which refers to the growth of the primary tumor into the surrounding host tissues, occurs in several ways. Malignant cells are less likely to adhere than are normal cells. Malignant cells do not cause healthy cells to mutate. Malignant cells do not eat other cells. 26. The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has

The medical nurse is aware that patients with sickle cell anemia benefit from understanding what situations can precipitate a sickle cell crisis. When teaching a patient with sickle cell anemia about strategies to prevent crises, what measures should the nurse recommend? A) Using prophylactic antibiotics and performing meticulous hygiene B) Maximizing physical activity and taking OTC iron supplements C) Limiting psychosocial stress and eating a high-protein diet D) Avoiding cold temperatures and ensuring sufficient hydration

D Keeping warm and providing adequate hydration can be effective in diminishing the occurrence and severity of attacks. Hygiene, antibiotics, and high protein intake do not prevent crises. Maximizing activity may exacerbate pain and be unrealistic.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has a diagnosis of hemophilia A. When addressing the nursing diagnosis of Acute Pain Related to Joint Hemorrhage, what principle should guide the nurses choice of interventions? A) Gabapentin (Neurontin) is effective because of the neuropathic nature of the patients pain. B) Opioids partially inhibit the patients synthesis of clotting factors. C) Opioids may cause vasodilation and exacerbate bleeding. D) NSAIDs are contraindicated due to the risk for bleeding.

D NSAIDs may be contraindicated in patients with hemophilia due to the associated risk of bleeding. Opioids do not have a similar effect and they do not inhibit platelet synthesis. The pain associated with hemophilia is not neuropathic.

A patient is being treated on the medical unit for a sickle cell crisis. The nurses most recent assessment reveals an oral temperature of 100.5F and a new onset of fine crackles on lung auscultation. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Apply supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula. B) Administer bronchodilators by nebulizer. C) Liaise with the respiratory therapist and consider high-flow oxygen. D) Inform the primary care provider that the patient may have an infection.

D Patients with sickle cell disease are highly susceptible to infection, thus any early signs of infection should be reported promptly. There is no evidence of respiratory distress, so oxygen therapy and bronchodilators are not indicated.