BBK Final Exam
True
19. Donor centers are authorized to release positive test results to their state health department if the donor signs a consent form. T/F
D
19. What is the correct order of centrifugation in the preparation of platelets from a unit of whole blood? a. hard spin followed by hard spin b. light spin followed by light spin c. hard spin followed by light spin d. light spin followed by hard spin
D
2. Syphilis tests on donors are usually performed by which method or methods? b. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory c. hemagglutination d. both a and c a. RPR
A
2. Why is it difficult to find compatible blood for patients with autoimmune disease? a. potential of underlying alloantibodies b. positive DAT c. reactive eluate d. hemolysis in the serum
False
20. According to the FDA, prospective donors with a history of cancer are not permitted to donate blood. T/F
C
20. What are minimum temperature and maximum storage time for a unit of frozen RBCs? a. -65° C for 5 years b. -85° C for 10 years c. -65° C for 10 years d. -80°C for 10 years
D
21. How many platelets must be obtained in a plateletpheresis in order to meet acceptance criteria? a. 5.5 x 1010 b. 3.3 x 1011 c. 5.0 x 1011 d. 3.0 x 101
D
22. How are sterile connecting devices used? a. connecting a leukocyte removal filter to RBCS b. preparing small aliquot transfusions for infants C. connecting platelets for pooling d. all of the above
B
23. What are the temperature limits for shipping RBCS? a. 1° C to 6°C ab. 1° C to 10° C c. 2° C to 8° Cd. 20° C to 24° C
B
24. Th e pH and platelet count of four bags of platelets were tested at the end of the allowable storage period. Which of the following results is an acceptable product? a. 5.5 x 10' and pH of 6.5 b. 6.0 x 101 0 and pH of 7.0 c. 4 .2 x 1 011 and pH of 5.9 d. 3.0 1010 and pH of 6.2
B
25. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility is acceptable for which of the following components? a. PF24 b. cryoprecipitated AHF c. apheresis granulocytes d. apheresis platelets
Both A and B
Rh antibodies are important to identify because they can cause: Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn Both A and B None of the above
IgG and react at 37 degrees
Rh antibodies are: IgM and react at RT IgM and react at 37 degrees IgG and react at RT IgG and react at 37 degrees
C+, D-, E+, c+, e- C-, D-, E-, c+, e+
Rh negative
C-, D-, E-, c-, e-
Rh null
c+, D+, E-, c+, e- C+, D+, E+, c-, e+
Rh positive
screening cells
Select the reagent to use for detection of unexpected red cell antibodies in a patient's serum sample. A1 and B cells panel cells IgG sensitized cells screening cells
all of the above
Signs of adverse reaction to blood donation are: sweating fainting dizziness all of the above
the end point is more clearly defined
Solid phase red cell adherence used for antibody detection has an advantage over tube testing because there is no washing involved the end point is more clearly defined incubation time is not necessary indicator cells are not necessary
all of the above
Sources of antibody for immunohematology testing include: antisera serum from the patient plasma from the patient all of the above
3 days
The accepted age of a sample for compatibility testing is: 24 hours 2 days 4 hours 3 days
fetal/maternal/maternal
The administered RHIG attaches to the _____________________RH positive RBC in ______________ circulation and are then removed by the macrophages in the ________________ spleen. -maternal/maternal/maternal -maternal/fetal/fetal -fetal/fetal/fetal -fetal/maternal/maternal
to activate the immune cells
What is the function of T-cells? serves as the parent cell from which all cells descend in the bone marrow to produce antibodies to activate the immune cells antigen processing
LW
What is the name of the blood group system that was originally identified as the Rh blood group system? Kell Lutheran Lewis LW
false negative
What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? false negative false positive hemolysis no effect
to detect false positive agglutination reactions
What is the purpose of including a reagent control when interpreting group AB, D positive red cells after testing with a low protein anti D reagent? to detect false positive agglutination reactions to detect false negative agglutination reactions to identify a mix up with a patient's sample to confirm ABO typing results
Dolichos biflorus
What is the source of the anti-A1 lectin? Ulex europeaus Arachis hypogae Dolichos biflorus Salvia sclaera
hemolysis (red cell destruction)
What is the ultimate result of complement activation in the immune response? agglutination phagocytosis elution hemolysis (red cell destruction)
binding to cells or antigens
What process is described by opsonization? lysis of cells binding to cells or antigens ingestion of cells phagocytosis
A, B, and H
What soluble antigen forms are detectable in saliva based on the flooloing genotype: AB, HH, SeSe? none (nonsecretor) only H A, B, and H A and B
commercial reagent red cell
What source of antigen is selected to determine the presence of a red cell antibody in a patient sample? commercial reagent red cell patient serum commercial antisera patient red cells
unreliable because of immunoglobulins already on the cell
What statement is true relative to the results of a weak D test performed on a patient with positive direct antiglobulin test? accurate as long as the check cells were positive unreliable because of immunoglobulins already on the cell reliable if a high albumin anti D was used false negative because of antibody neutralization
forward grouping
What term describes using known sources of reagent antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on patient's red cells? Rh typing reverse grouping direct anti globulin test forward grouping
1-10 degree Celsius
When shipping RBC or whole blood, the temperature must remain at: 0-5 degree Celsius 1-10 degree Celsius 10-15 degree Celsius 20-24 degree Celsius
all of the above
Where can false-negative reactions occur in both the gel and solid phase testing? -failing to centrifuge -not mixing reagent red cells sufficiently -incubation time was too short -all of the above
on the red cell membrane
Where is the antigen located in a hemagglutination test on the red cell membrane secreted by the red cell in the red cell nucleus in the plasma or serum
AABB
Which agency is voluntary but has served as the principal guidelines for blood bank and transfusion services since 1958? It is recognized for its high standards for blood banks. FDA OSHA CLIA AABB
Which antibody class is produced rapidly and in the highest amounts during a secondary immune response? IgG IgM IgA IgD IgE
Which antibody class is produced rapidly and in the highest amounts during a secondary immune response? IgG IgM IgA IgD IgE
B-Lymphocyte (plasma cell)
Which cell is responsible for antibody production? T-Cell erythrocyte monocyte/macrophage B-Lymphocyte (plasma cell)
plasma and platelets
Which component is tested for bacterial contamination? RBC platelets plasma plasma and platelets
IgM
Which immunoglobulin class is largest and a pentamer? IgG IgM IgD IgE IgA
hemagglutination in a microwell
Which method is used in the automated Immucor and Bio-Rad systems for ABO and D phenotype? -solid phase red cell adherence assay -enzyme linked immunosorbent assay -reverse passive hemaggluination -hemagglutination in a microwell
anti-JkB
Which of the following antibodies is commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions? anti-LuA anti-S anti-JkB anti-M
anti-U
Which of the following antibodies requires the antiglobulin test for in vitro detection? anti-M anti-P1 anti-U anti-I
anti-E
Which of the following antibody reactions may show dosage? anti-A anti-B anti-I anti-E
LeB
Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells? K M LeB D
IgG
Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is capble of crossing the placenta and causing hemolytic disease of the newborn? IgM IgG IgE IgA
Normal Saline
Which of the following is not an enhancement media that may be used in antibody screening and identification? Normal Saline Albumin Low ionic strength solution Polyethylene glycol none of the above
hhOO
Which of the following phenotypes would be termed Bombay? hhOO HHOO HhAO HhOO
DTT
Which of the following reagents destroys the Kell system antigens? ficin albumin PEG DTT
granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 ml of RBCs
Which of the following require a crossmatch? -Plasma -Platelets -granulocyte concentrates that have more than 2 ml of RBCs -cryoprecipitate
all of the above
Which of the following situations may produce ABO discrepancies in the serum testing? newborn patient with hypogammaglobulinemia cold alloantibody all of the above
Patients being treated for bacteremia are ineligible to be autologous donors.
Which one of the following true regarding autologous donations? -The blood can be used in general supply. -The physical requirements are the same as allogenic donation. -Blood can be collected 24 hours before surgery. -Patients being treated for bacteremia are ineligible to be autologous donors.
all of the above
Which patient population would be at risk if they received CMV positive blood? immunosuppressed neonates transplant recipient all of the above
Standard operating procedures
Written procedures to ensure the complete understanding of a process and to achieve consistency in performance from one individual to another Quality assurance Quality control Standard operating procedures not needed in the lab
no agglutination or hemolysis
You record your observation as a "O". This indicates you observed: small agglutinates several large agglutinates (clumps) no agglutination or hemolysis one solid aggregate (clump)
blood recovery
_______________________ is the collection and reinfusion of shed blood. -blood recovery -normovolemic hemodilution -preoperative collection -directed donation
Cold autoantibodies
can be related to PCH, CLL, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia IgM
warm autoantibodies
can use an elution to identify IgG Generally directed toward the Rh system-sometimes "e"
PEG
concentrates the antibody in the test environment-can only be used in IAT-IgM antibodies do not react well with this potentiator
LISS
increases rate of antibody uptake
BSA
reduces the repulsion between cells but does not shorten the incubation time
Proteolytic enzymes
removes negative charges from the red cell membrane, which reduces the zeta potential; denatures some red cell antigens
sensitivity
the ability of an assay to identify samples from infected individuals as positive
specificity
the ability of an assay to identify samples from noninfected individuals as negative
Indirect Antiglobulin Test (IAT)
this test confirms the presence of an antibody in vitro-indicates a specific reaction between an antibody in the serum/plasma and an antigen present on the red cells
Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
this test confirms the presence of an antibody in vivo-detects IgG or complement proteins bound to patient cells which is a consequence of a clinical event
anti-B
yellow
a red cell apheresis
A donor has a HCT of 42%, weighs 155 and has not donated any blood for 16 weeks. What is the best choice for donation options for this donor? -not to donate because the HCT is too low -a red cell apheresis -he is only eligible for a single unit of whole blood not a red cell apheresis -he is only eligible for a single unit of platelets
D positive
A donor tested D negative using commercial anti-D reagent. The weak D test was positive. How should the RBC unit be labeled? D positive D negative D variant D mosaic
Negative
A donor was tested for syphilis, the screening test was positive. The sample was duplicate repeat tested. It was negative on the repeat testing. What is the sample considered? Negative or Positive? Negative Positive
rouleaux
A false positive reaction on the antibody screen can be caused by: -alloantibodies -autoantibodies -rouleaux -decreased incubation temperature
20
A patient is scheduled to have a liver transplant. How many units of blood should the blood bank be prepared with for the surgery? 20 2 15 10
Plasmapheresis
A patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome may require a: Plasmapheresis cytapheresis photopheresis WBC transfusion
therapeutic phlebotomy
A patient with hemochromatosis will require which type of phlebotomy? therapeutic phlebotomy allogeneic phlebotomy autologous phlebotomy directed donation phlebotomy
this must be resolved before a blood group determination can be made
A person forward types as a group A and reverse types as a group O. this is reported as group A this is reported as group O this is reported as group AB this must be resolved before a blood group determination can be made
Rh positive
A positive weak D reaction would indicated the donor is: Rh positive Rh negative Rh null none of the above
A, AB
A type A patient can receive what types of FFP (fresh frozen plasma)? A, O A, AB A only A, B, AB
B, AB
A type B patient can receive what types of FFP (fresh frozen plasma)? -O only -B only -B, O -B, AB
O, A, B, AB
A type O patient can receive what types of FFP (fresh frozen plasma)? O only O, A, B, AB A, O B, O
A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting during or within 24 hours of transfusion.
An acute transfusion reaction is defined as: -A transfusion reaction with signs or symptoms presenting during or within 24 hours of transfusion. -A transfusion with signs or symptoms presenting after 24 hours of transfusion. -a complete transfusion -a transfusion in which the IV fails and the unit is returned to the blood bank.
foreign molecules that bind specifically to an antibody or a T cell receptor
An antigen is defined as: IgM a substance that binds complement foreign molecules that bind specifically to an antibody or a T cell receptor a result from the unique structures of heavy and light chains
patient serum and patient red cells
An auto control consist of: patient serum and patient red cells donor serum and patient red cells patient serum and donor red cells control serum and patient red cells
none of the above
An individual has the genotype AO, hh. What antigens would be present on the red cells of this individual? A only A and H A and O none of the above
Indirect antiglobulin test
Another name for the antibody screen is: Indirect antiglobulin test Direct antiglobulin test RH test ABO forward test
missing antigen epitope
Anti D was detected in the serum of a D positive person. What is a possible explanation? the antibody is really anti-G compound antibody was formed regulator gene failure missing antigen epitope
crossmatch c and e-negative units
Anti-F was identified in a patient. Because commercial antisera are not available, what is the best course of action to locate compatible RBC units? crossmatch E-negative units contact the rare donor registry release O, D negative units crossmatch c and e-negative units
True
Autologous units that are not used cannot be crossed over to the general inventory because they do not meet the same donation and testing requirements as allogeneic donations. True False
Both A and B
Both 1 and 2
all of the above
Factors that affect the sensitization or first stage of agglutination are: Temperature incubation time pH Ionic strength all of the above
True
For a neonate, ABO and D typing does not need to be repeated for the duration of the current admission our until the neonate reaches the age of 4 months. True False
False
For an autologous donation, it is acceptable for the patient to be undergoing treatment for bacteremia. True False
4 hours
From start to finish blood transfusion should take no more than: 4 hours 2 hours 6 hours 3 hours
Both A and C
Heterozygous expression of a gene is: AO AA BO Both A and C None of the above
antigen expression in double dose (Ex: AA)
Homozygous expression of a gene is: antigen expression in single dose (Ex: AO) antigen expression in double dose (Ex: AA) phenotype none of the above
all of the above
How do patients become sensitized to HLA antigens? pregnancies blood transfusions previous transplants all of the above
RzR2
How is the Rh genotype CDE/cDE written in Wiener notation? R0R1 RyR2 R2R1 RzR2
unable to determine without further testing
How would you interpret the results is both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? D positive D negative unable to determine without further testing depends on whether the sample is from a patient or donor
Plasma Platelets the unit is not used-the entire unit is disposed of.
If a unit is found to have a clinically significant antibody, which components are not used? Choose all that are not used. RBC Plasma Platelets the unit is not used-the entire unit is disposed of.
it could be a false positive, due to the enhancement media and the panel should be repeated with a different enhancement media
If the autocontrol is positive and the DAT is negative, what step is next? -those are expected results -it could be a false positive, due to the enhancement media and the panel should be repeated with a different enhancement media -it could be a false negative due to the enhancement media and the panel should be repeated with a different enhancement media -it could be a false positive and nothing should be done
Classical
IgG and IgM antigen-antibody complexes can cause red cell destruction by the ____________ method of complement activation. Alternate Classical Lectin DAT
anti-D anti-e anti-s anti-K anti-Fy(a) anti-Jk(a)
IgG, 37 C/AHG
anti-I anti-Le(b) anti-N anti-M anti-A
IgM, Room Temp
AO and BO
In a family study, all four siblings in the family had a different blood type: A, B, O and AB. What is the most likely genotypes of the parents? AA and BB AO and BO OO and AB AA and BO
O negative
In an emergency situation where there is not enough time for a type or screen, which type of RBC is BEST for release? -AB negative -O negative -A positive -AB positive
not issuing blood
In order to improve blood inventory management all of the following are used except: -not issuing blood -statistical information about actual blood usage for certain surgeries -completing the type and screen prior to surgery and then only crossmatching units when needed -all of the following are used
3+ or greater
In order to prove specificity, potency and to ensure the reagents are not deteriorating, the quality control agglutination results should be: 3+ or greater only 4+ any agglutination is acceptable 2+ or greater
all of the above
In sickle cell patients, some hematologist recommend giving the patient units of blood negative for which antigens? C E K all of the above
primer
In the PCR reaction, what is the term for the short pieces of single stranded DNA that are complementary and mark the sequence to be amplified? nucleotides polymerase primer amplicons
negative reaction
In the gel test, what is a button of cells at the bottom of the well called? 4+ positive reaction 1+ positive reaction negative reaction invalid reaction
False
Once a donor has screened negative for all of the screening for donation of blood, they never test the donor again. True False
ABO typing only
One group B, D positive unit of RBCs is received in the transfusion service. What repeat testing is required on this donor unit? ABO typing only ABO and D typing ABO, D, and weak D typing ABO and D typing, antibody screen
anti-A
blue
False
Parents who both phenotype group A cannot have a group O child. True False
TRALI
Patient ABC received 1 unit of blood. One hour later the patient's oxygen saturation dropped to 80% without any other causes of acute lung injury. This is an example of: -Transfusion Associated Graft vs. Host disease -Iron Overload -TRALI -Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload
False
Quality assurance is the same as quality control. True False
Rh null
Rare individuals who lack all Rh antigens on their erythrocytes are group O Rh+ Rh- Rh null
False
Reports of transfusion reactions can be discarded after 5 years. True False
False
17. Autologous units may be given to other patients if they are not used for the patient who donated the units. T/F
C
17. What fluid is administered with the transfusion of blood components? a. Ringer's lactate b. 5% dextrose c. 0.9% saline d. All of the above
False
18. A unit donated therapeutically from a person with hereditary hemochromatosis cannot be used for transfusion purposes. T/F
B
18. Eight units of platelets were pooled in an open system without the use of a sterile connecting device. What is the new time of expiration of the pooled product? a. 2 hours b. 4 hours c. 6 hours d. 24 hours
__3__ anti A __2__ anti B __1__ anti D
1. Clear 2. Yellow 3. Blue
A
1. What disease has been treated effectively using plasmapheresis? a. TTP b. hemolytic disease of the newborn c. sickle cell diseased. renal disease
D
1. Which disease has the highest potential for transmission through a transfusion? a. AIDS b. syphilis c. CMV d. hepatitis
C
10. In aa lower absorbance value indicates the detection of the viral marker. a. RIBA b. sandwich ELISA C. competitive ELISA d. Western blot
C
10. What colony-stimulating factor can reduce infection while undergoing chemotherapy? a, erythrocytes b. megakaryocytes c. granulocytes d. lymphocytes
D
13. Which of the following is a cause for temporary deferral of a whole blood donor? a. intranasal influenza vaccine b. antibiotics taken for acne c. oral polio vaccine 4 weeks ago d. rubella vaccine 2 weeks ago
B
14. A donor with a physician's request to donate for planned surgery in 3 weeks has ahemoglobin value of 10 g/ dL. What is her eligibility status? a. permitted to donate as an autologous donor b. deferred because of low hemoglobin c. permitted to donate with the approval of the blood bank's medical director d. permitted to donate a smaller unit of blood
C
15. What is the maximum number of donations for platelet pheresis donors in the period of a year? a. 6 b. 12 c. 24 d. 48
True
16. Viral marker tests are not required on autologous blood intended for use within the collection facility. T/F
A
16. What is the minimum amount of fibrinogen required in 1 unit of cryoprecipitated AHF? a. 150 mg b. 250 mg c. 80 IU d. 1000 mg
D
3. What characteristic is associated with HTLV-1/II? a. an oncornavirus b. found in patients with tropical spastic paraparesis c. associated with adult T-cell leukemia d. all of the above
A
3. What infant age period does not require a crossmatch procedure before transfusion? a. the first 4 months b. the first 6 months c. the first year d. an indefinite period if a parent's blood is used
C
4. Select the example of a crystalloid solution used to treat hypovolemia. a. PPF b. albumin c. Ringer's lactate d. HES solution
B
4. What marker demonstrates a previous exposure to hepatitis B that remains in convalescence? a. anti-HCV b. anti-HBc c. anti-HAV d. HB sAg
D
5. How are hemophilia A patients treated for bleeding? a. cryoprecipitated AHF b. FFP c. RBCS d. factor VIII
A
5. Which of the following is the confirmatory test for a positive anti-HIV screen? a. HIV RNA b. RIBA c. PCR d. Southern blot
D
6. Select common complications of chemotherapy from the list. a. bleeding b. infection c. anemia d. all of the above
B
6. Which of the following conditions requires a thorough donor history because it is nota routinely tested disease? a. syphilis b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease c. hepatitis C d. HTLV-1
C
7. Where is erythropoietin produced in the adult for stimulation of red cell proliferation? a. bone marrow b. liver c. kidneys d. spleen
D
7. Why is HAV transmission through a blood transfusion unusual? a. transmitted enterically b. an acute hepatitis C. not infective after 2 weeks d. all of the above
D
8. What factors are compensated for in the transfusion of RBCs to a neonate? a, iatrogenic blood loss b. hemoglobin F c. insufficient erythropoiesis d. all of the above
B
8. What is the donation status of a donor who is positive for H B sAg? a. temporarily deferred b. permanently deferred c. deferred if the antibody to HBc is also present d. deferred if ALT is elevated
D
9. ABO-compatible organ transplants are not critical in which of the following transplants? a. kidneys b. liver c. heart d. bone marrow
A
9. Which of the following was a surrogate test for hepatitis and is no longer required? a. ALT b. CMV c. anti-HBC d . HBsAg
several large agglutinates (clumps); clear background
A 3+ reaction is: small agglutinates several large agglutinates (clumps); clear background no agglutination or hemolysis one solid aggregate (clump)
AB only
A AB person can receive what type of FFP (fresh frozen plasma)? AB only AB, B AB, A AB, O, A, B
two regular dose vials plus one
A Kleihauer-Betke test or flow cytometry indicates 10 fetal cells per 1,000 adult cells. For a woman with 5,000 mL blood volume, the proper dose of RHIG is: -One regular dose vial -two regular dose vials plus one -one regular dose vial, plus one -two microdose vials
True
A blood group system is composed of antigens that are produced by alleles at a single genetic locus or at loci so closely linked that genetic crossing over rarely occurs. True False
The units would be discarded and look back procedures would be initiated.
A donor gave 2 units of blood in December of 2013. In August of 2015, the same donor gave 2 more units of blood. In the August donation the donor tested positive for HCV. What protocol would be followed? -The units would be discarded and look back procedures would be initiated. -The units would be used since the patient previously tested negative. -The units would be discarded. -The patient would be notified of the findings and would be able to decided if he/she wanted to give again.
False
All potentiators are the same and can be used interchangeably. True False
antibodies with specificities other than self; stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy
Alloantibodies are: antigens antibodies with specificities other than self; stimulated by transfusion or pregnancy not clinically significant antibodies with self specificities
reverse type
An A2 individual has an anti-A1 in her serum. In which test would this be detected? antibody screen reverse type weak D testing Rh typing
ABO antigens are poorly developed in the fetus
ABO HDFN is usually mild because: -ABO antigens are poorly developed in the fetus -ABO antibodies prevent disease -ABO antibodies readily cross the placenta -ABO incompatibility is rare
IgM and react at RT
ABO antibodies are: IgM and react at RT IgM and react at 37 degrees IgG and react at RT IgG and react at 37 degrees
one solid aggregate (clump)
Agglutination reactions are graded from 0 - 4+, a 4+ reaction is: small agglutinates several large agglutinates (clumps) no agglutination or hemolysis one solid aggregate (clump)
True
All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor. True False
type A
All of the following are examples of amorphs except? Rhnull Lua-b- type A type O
the sample does not have to be labeled at the bed side
All of the following are required for proper identification for compatibility testing except: -the sample does not have to be labeled at the bed side -patient identifiers can be: first and last name, a unique identification number, birthdate, driver's license or photographic ID -there must be two identifiers on the sample -the patient must have an armband and state their name without prompting from the phlebotomist.
the screening cells are type A
All of the following are true about IAT screening cells except: -they are tested with the patient's serum -the screening cells are type O -a reaction to one or more of the IAT screening cells demonstrates the presence of an atypical antibody -the screening cells are type A
formed from prior transfusions
All of the following are true about autoantibodies except: are directed against "self" formed by a disease process formed by medication formed from prior transfusions
1, 2, and 3 above
Characteristics of the ABO antibodies are/is:1. naturally occurring2. predominantly IgM3. react best at room temperature4. predominantly IgG all of the above 1, 2, and 3 above 1, 3, and 4 above 1 only
all steps in the identification and testing of a potential transfusion recipient and donor blood before transfusion in an attempt to provide a blood product that survives invivo and provides it therapeutic effect in the recipient.
Compatibility testing is: -just the actual crossmatch -just ABO/Rh -all steps in the identification and testing of a potential transfusion recipient and donor blood before transfusion in an attempt to provide a blood product that survives invivo and provides it therapeutic effect in the recipient. -the requisition for the blood product
True
Donor units are that initially test D negative are tested for weak D and labeled according to the weak D result. True False
needs investigation before reporting
Interpert these results: anti A: 0 anti B: 0 A1 cells: 0 B cells: 0 Rh cells: 0 O negative AB negative A negative needs investigation before reporting
B negative
Interpert these results: anti A: 0 anti B: 4+ A1 cells: 3+. B cells: 0 anti D (RH): 0 A negative B negative needs investigation before reporting O positive
AB positive
Interpert these results: anti A: 4+ anti B: 4+ A1 cells: 0 B cells: 0 anti D (RH): 4 + AB positive O negative AB negative O negative
blood vessels
Intravascular destruction of the blood cells occurs in the lymph nodes spleen thymus blood vessels
True
It is important to have a complete patient history to adequately evaluate a possible antibody. True False
reagents derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells
Lectins are: reagents derived from plants used to distinguish group A1 from group A2 red cells reagent used to detect the specificity of a red cell antibody reagent used to detect the presence of red cell antibodies reagents used to determine the D type of a patient's cells
agglutination and hemolysis
List method(s) by which antigen-antibody reactions may be visually detected in the traditional laboratory testing. agglutination and hemolysis precipitation fluorescence fluorescence and agglutination
contains either anti IgG or anti C3d
Monospecific AHG reagents: contains both anti IgG and anti C3D antibodies contains either anti IgG or anti C3d
codominant
Most blood group gene expression is considered to be: dominant recessive codominant predominant none of the above
a road map that is specific for each lot of antibody panels
The antibody panel consist of 10-20 type O cells with phenotypes for the most common antigen specificities. The antigram is: -a road map that is specific for each lot of antibody panels -reactions do not have to be graded consistently -any antigram can be used with any lot of panel cells -the technologist does not have to use the abbreviations accepted in the laboratory procedure manual.
both a & b above
The antiglobulin procedures performed in the blood bank lab are: DAT IAT PEG both a & b above
13 g/dL
The correct hemoglobin for an allogeneic donation is: 10 g/dL 11 g/dL 12 g/dL 13 g/dL
computer crossmatch
The crossmatch procedure that uses a computer to make the final check of ABO compatibility in the selection of appropriate donor units. serologic crossmatch major crossmatch computer crossmatch minor crossmatch
True
The dosage effect is demonstrated by stronger agglutination when a red cell antigen is expressed from homozygous genes. True False
syphilis
The first infectious disease screened for was HIV HCV HBV syphilis
stop the transfusion
The first step in a transfusion reaction is: call the laboratory check the patient identification call the doctor stop the transfusion
patient serum and donor cells
The major crossmatch consists of a mixture of -donor serum and patient cells -donor serum and donor cells -patient serum and patient cells -patient serum and donor cells
8-12 minutes
The normal time limit of donation is: 5-8 minutes 8-12 minutes 5-10 minutes 5-12 minutes
irradiated
To reduce graft vs. host disease in transplant patients, their blood products should be washed leukoreduced irradiated given through a warmer
neonates
The only group of patients that REQUIRE fresh blood are elderly neonates immunocompromised teenagers
Both 1 and 2
The patient is A negative. The patient may receive: A negative O negative Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 or 2
O negative
The patient is O negative. The patient may recieve: O negative A negative B negative O positive
All of the above
The patient is type: AB positive. The patient may receive which type of RBC unit: O positive units A positive units B negaive units All of the above
IgM
The primary antibody found in a first exposure primary antibody response is: IgG IgM IgA IgD
True
The primary bag used for blood collection, all attached satellite bags, sample tubes and the donor registration form must be labeled with a unique identification number. True False
False
The removal of leukocytes from a unit of RBC prevent graft verses host disease. True False
up to 5 days at 20-24 degree Celsius with continuous agitation
The storage of platelets is: -up to 5 days at 20-24 degree Celsius with continuous agitation -up to 7 days at 20-24 degree Celsius with continuous agitation -up to 5 days at 1-6 degree Celsius with continuous agitation -up to 5 days at 20-24 degree Celsius without continuous agitation
all of the above
The transfusion reaction workup can include what testing: -ABO/RH/antibody screen of both a pre transfusion and post transfusion sample -frequent hemoglobin checks -all of the above -Recrossmatch using pretransfusion and post transfusion samples
AB, A, B, O
Type AB people can receive what types of RBC? O only AB, A, B, O AB only A, B
B, O
Type B people can receive what types of RBC? -B only -A, B, O -B, O -O only
O
Type O people can receive what type of RBC? A, B O, A, B O, A, B, AB O
All of the above.
Unacceptable quality control results for the antiglobulin test performed in test tubes may be noticed if: Preventive maintenance has not been performed on the cell washer. The technologist performing the test was not trained. The reagents were not stored properly. All of the above.
both A and B
Unexpected alloantibodies are made in response to: -transfusion of red cells -pregnancy and delivery -both A and B -neither A or B
anti-IgG and anti-C3d
What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent? anti-IgG anti-IgM and anti IgG anti-IgG and anti-C3d anti-C3d
sensitization and agglutination (lattice formation)
What are two stages of agglutination? agglutination and lysis sensitization and agglutination (lattice formation) sensitization and precipitation precipitation and fluorescence
all of the above
What criteria apply to the correction of manual records? the original entry is neither obliterated nor deleted the person making the correction dates and initials the change the item to be corrected is crossed off with a single line all of the above
Se
What gene controls the presence of soluble H substance in saliva? H A Se B
D-galactose
What immunodominant sugar confers B blood group specificity? D-galactose L-fucose N-acetylgalactosamine L-glucose
IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum
What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch? -IgM alloantibodies in recipient's serum -ABO incompatibilites -IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum -room-temperature incompatibilities
I
What is the common specificity of cold autoantibodies? I M P1 S
