BCH605 Exams 1-4
9. Immediately after transcription initiation: A.a methylated guanine cap is added to the 5' end of the transcript B.a methylated guanine cap is added to the 3' end of the transcript C.both (a) and (b) D.a poly adenylation signal is added
A.a methylated guanine cap is added to the 5' end of the transcript
20. The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA transcript is called A. transcription bubble B. replication bubble C. translation bubble D. none of these
A. transcription bubble
1. Which one of the following factors significantly contributes to the ability of eukaryotic cells to complete DNA replication during the short window of time offered by S (synthesis) phase of mitosis? A. The next round of replication begins before the cell exits S phase. B. Eukaryotic DNA polymerases have dramatically increased processivity compared to DNA polymerases in organisms with smaller genomes .C. Multiple origins of replication are used per chromosome. D. Origins of replication can initiate again after they have been replicated and before mitosis.
.C. Multiple origins of replication are used per chromosome.
22. In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with A. euchromatin only. B. heterochromatin only. C. very tightly packed DNA only. D. highly methylated DNA only .E. both euchromatin and histone acetylation
.E. both euchromatin and histone acetylation
21. Which of the following is not a non-coding RNA? A. mRNA B. piwiRNA C. lncRNA D. miRNA
A. mRNA
2. Which of the following enzymes is directly responsible for sliding DNA along the surface of an assembled nucleosome, or transferring a nucleosome from one DNA helix to another? A. nucleosome-remodeling complexes B. histone chaperones C. histone acetyltransferases D. Topoisomerase II
A. nucleosome-remodeling complexes
20. Monozygotic (MZ) twins have identical genotypes and, at birth, epigenetic patterns are similar in MZ twins. Given your understanding of epigenetics, what do you hypothesize will happen to these epigenetic patterns as the twins age? A. Become more different B. Remain similar
A. Become more different
30. The original strand of DNA looks like this ACGTCTCGA, the mutated strand looks like this ACGTTCGA. What type of mutation is this? A. nucleotide base deletion B. nucleotide base insertion C. nucleotide base substitution D. nonsense mutation
A. nucleotide base deletion
4. Bacteria have developed a system that ensures termination will occur within a restricted terminus region. How is this achieved? A. By a combination of a DNA motif called the ter sequence, and a termination protein (tus) that recognizes ter sites and binds to them tightly. B. By the presence of oriC site C. By the clockwise fork D. By formation of a catenated DNA molecule
A. By a combination of a DNA motif called the ter sequence, and a termination protein (tus) that recognizes ter sites and binds to them tightly.
25. In the process of homologous recombination, DNA molecules are regenerated by the process of genetic exchange. This is known as resolution. Which of the following events happen during resolution? A. Cleavage and dissolution of the Holliday junction B. Degeneration of duplex DNA molecule C. Exchange of DNA fragments (strand invasion) D. Heterochromatin structure formation
A. Cleavage and dissolution of the Holliday junction
30. The............... enzyme is encoded by phage P1 and acts by binding to two sites in the recombining DNA. A. Cre recombinase B. DNA polymerase C. Transcriptase D. DNA recombinase
A. Cre recombinase
24.Which of the following involves remarkable capacity of short segment of DNA to move from one place to another place in the genome? A. DNA transposition B. DNA replication C. Translation D. Transcription
A. DNA transposition
19. In eukaryotes DNA methylation is carried out by DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) enzymes. What enzyme is responsible for maintaining methylation marks from the parental to the daughter strand of DNA during replication? A. DNMT1 B. DNMT3a C. DNMT3b D. DNMT3L
A. DNMT1
33. If the Mut H cuts the DNA at the 5' side of the mismatch then which nuclease is activated? A. Exonuclease VII B. Exonuclease VIII C. Exonuclease I D. Exonuclease IX
A. Exonuclease VII
7. For poly-A retrotransposons, where does cDNA formation occur? A. In the nucleus B. In the cytoplasm. C. In the cytoplasm, but only if reverse transcriptase "out competes" ribosomes for the RNA. D. At the nuclear pore because that is where the transposase localizes.
A. In the nucleus
3. Which of the following answer choices represents the correct evolutionary relationship between complexity of organisms and gene density (genes/Mb)? A. Less complex organisms have higher gene density. B. Less complex organisms have lower gene density .C. Most organisms have a similar gene density. D. There is no relationship between organismal complexity and gene density.
A. Less complex organisms have higher gene density.
15. Which one is the progressive order of chromatin structure? A. Naked DNA, Nucleosomes, Solenoid, Loop domain, Minibands B. Naked DNA, 30nm fiber, beads on string, loop domain, minibands C. Naked DNA, minibands, 30 nm fiber, loop domain D. Naked DNA, solenoid, nucleosome, minibands, loops
A. Naked DNA, Nucleosomes, Solenoid, Loop domain, Minibands
23. Which of the following binds to ssDNA and does not code for an enzyme having both helicase and nuclease activity? A. Rec-A B. Rec-B C. Rec-C D. Rec-D
A. Rec-A
12. Which of the following statements regarding splicing in eukaryotes is correct? A. Several reactions in the splicing process involve hydrolysis of ATP B. Exons are spliced out and introns are retained in the mature mRNA transcript C. Splicing takes place in the cytosol D. mature mRNA transcript consists of exons and introns
A. Several reactions in the splicing process involve hydrolysis of ATP
11. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is known as a A. Silent mutation B. Frame shift mutation C. Substitution mutation D. Insertion mutation
A. Silent mutation
28. The enzyme (made of proteins and RNA) that elongates chromosomes in some cells by adding TTAGGG sequences to the end of existing chromosomes is : A. Telomerase B. Exonuclease C. Endonuclease D. Amylase
A. Telomerase
14. The supercoils are produced in front of a growing DNA chain during DNA replication are positive supercoils, resulting from overwinding of the helix. True or False?A. True B. False
A. True
16. During translation RF1 recognizes the stop codon UGA and translation come to a halt as RF3 is called in. A. True B. False
A. True
29. The arrest of replication fork motion at Ter sites require the action of ____________ protein. A. Tus protein (Tus-Ter complex) B. Ter sites only C. Helicase D. Topoisomerase
A. Tus protein (Tus-Ter complex)
18. HAT and HDAC are important for: A. adding and removing acetyl group on histone tails B. adding and removing methyl group on histone tails C. adding acetyl group on ssDNA D. Removing acetyl and methyl groups from ssDNA
A. adding and removing acetyl group on histone tails
17. What is the final factor in eukaryotes that dissociate the ribosome? A. eRRF B. EF2 C. EF3 D. RF4
A. eRRF
31. Which of the following is not paired with its correct function? A. 9 mer = binding site for Dna A B. 13 mer = binding site for replication initiator protein C. AT rich DNA = unwinding site D. Dna A = replication initiator protein
B. 13 mer = binding site for replication initiator protein
2. Three enzymes present during a Gibson assembly reaction are: A. 3' exonuclase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase B. 5' exonuclase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase C. reverse transcriptase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase D. 5' exonuclease, DNA polymerase, recombinase
B. 5' exonuclase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
2. Peptide bond formation is catalyzed by ribosomal RNA and occurs between the __________ sites of the ribosome. A. E and P sites B. A and P sites C. P and S sites D. B and E sites
B. A and P sites
7. During translation, the role of enzyme aminoacyl tRNA synthetases is: A. Transfer of phosphate group B. Amino acid activation C. Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids D. Binding of ribosome subunits to mRNA
B. Amino acid activation
26. Direct repeats in the transposable element are present __________ A. Within the transposon B. Either side of the inverted repeat C. Only downstream the inverted repeat D. Only upstream the inverted repeatWhich enzyme catalyzes the excision and insertion events condu
B. Either side of the inverted repeat
28. Adenylyl cyclase is an enzyme that is active in absence of: A. Allolactose B. Glucose C. Lactose D. ATP
B. Glucose
24. A ssRNA shows inverted tandem repeat. What would be its secondary structure?A. Linear B. Hair pin C. Stem-loop structure D. Crucifix
B. Hair pin
23. With respect to X-chromosome inactivation, which of the following statements are not correct?A. X-chromosome inactivation in mammals begins in the pre-implantation embryo. B. In humans all diploid cells that carry two normal X-chromosomes are subject to a random pattern of X-inactivation. C. Once a decision has been made to inactivate an X chromosome (either the paternal or maternal X), all descendant cells show the same pattern of X-inactivation. D. The inactivated X chromosome becomes a highly condensed Barr body in which genes are silenced across the length of the chromosome.
B. In humans all diploid cells that carry two normal X-chromosomes are subject to a random pattern of X-inactivation.
21. A diphtheria toxin leads to cell death because of lack of translation. Which of these might be responsible for cell death by diphtheria toxin? A. Formation of an ion channel in the cell membrane B. Inactivation of a translational elongation factor resulting in no protein synthesis C. Induction of apoptosis D. None of the above
B. Inactivation of a translational elongation factor resulting in no protein synthesis
15. The eukaryotic initiation codon recognizes________ A. f-Met-tRNA-f-Met B. Met-tRNAi-Met C. f-Met-tRNAi-Met D. f-Met-tRNA-Met
B. Met-tRNAi-Met
14. One of the following best describes the cap modification of eukaryotic mRNA A. Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 3' end of the transcript B. Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5' end of the transcript C. String of adenine nucleotides added to the 3' end of the transcript D. String of adenine nucleotides added to the 5' end of the transcript
B. Modified guanine nucleotide added to the 5' end of the transcript
22. In mismatch repair mechanism, which of the following protein recognizes DNA mismatches in the genomic DNA? A. MutH B. MutS C. MutL D. UvrD
B. MutS
10. In bacterial promoters, which of the following describes the 'Pribnow box'? A. The 5' untranslated region B. The -10 box C. The -35 box D. The termination sequence
B. The -10 box
21. In bacterial promoters, which of the following describes the 'Pribnow box'? A. The 5' untranslated region B. The -10 box C. The -35 box D. The termination sequence
B. The -10 box
5. Which of the following is true regarding the direction of new DNA synthesis during replication? A. The lagging strand DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the same direction that the replication fork is moving. B. The leading strand DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the same direction that the replication fork is moving. C. The leading and lagging strand DNA polymerases synthesize DNA in the 5 to 3direction, which is in the same direction that the replication fork is moving for either strand. D. The leading strand DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the 5 to 3 direction, while the lagging strand DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the 3 to 5direction.
B. The leading strand DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the same direction that the replication fork is moving.
2. Dam methylase plays a role in mismatch repair in E. coli. Which of the following statements is true if Dam methylase is absent? A. There would be no effect on DNA repair. B. The newly synthesized daughter strand containing the incorrect base and the parental strand will both be unmethylated and, therefore, either strand can serve as the template strand for mismatch repair. C. All DNA would remain methylated and therefore either strand can serve as the template strand for mismatch repair .D. Replication will halt
B. The newly synthesized daughter strand containing the incorrect base and the parental strand will both be unmethylated and, therefore, either strand can serve as the template strand for mismatch repair.
4. Why would the absence of DNA primers in PCR cause the reaction to fail? A. The reaction lacks template DNA when primers are absent. B. The reaction lacks a primer: template junction, and thus a free 3-hydroxyl group, when primers are absent. C. The reaction lacks a free 2-hydroxyl when primers are absent .D. The reaction lacks single-stranded DNA when primers are absent.
B. The reaction lacks a primer: template junction, and thus a free 3-hydroxyl group, when primers are absent.
6. Which of the following statements about transposon target site duplications is NOT true? A. They are generated during recombination. B. They are recognition sequences for transposases. C. They result from the transposase-mediated strand transfer reaction. D. They are organized as direct repeats
B. They are recognition sequences for transposases.
18. Photolyase enzyme involved in the photoreactivation can remove........... A. UV induces double strand breaks B. UV induced thymine dimers C. Mismatches in DNA D. Single strand breaks in DNA
B. UV induced thymine dimers
22. The hypothesis that some tRNA molecules can pair with more than one mRNA codon, tolerating some variations in the third base, as long as the first and second bases are correctly matched is called: A. 2nd genetic code B. Wobble hypothesis C. promiscuity D. adaptor hypothesis
B. Wobble hypothesis
19. The anti-codon A. contains a sequence the same as the codon B. contains a sequence complementary to the codon C. contains the base thymine D. Does not contain any sequence
B. contains a sequence complementary to the codon
1. Which one of the following significantly contributes to the specificity of base pairing in double-stranded DNA, i.e., limits base pairing to cytosine-guanine (C:G) or adenine-thymine (A:T)? A. base-stacking interactions B. hydrogen bonding between bases C. the phosphodiester bonds between phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugar molecules D. the right handedness of double-stranded DNA
B. hydrogen bonding between bases
1. Nonsense-mediated decay leads to degradation of mRNA that __________. A. does not include a stop codon (It should be nonstop mediated decay) B. includes a premature start codon C. includes secondary structures or rare codons that induce ribosome stalling D. has not been properly spliced
B. includes a premature start codon
6. Two genes with similar sequences in different organisms are called: A. paralogs B. orthologs C. alleles D. epistatics
B. orthologs
16. The key element of the Sanger sequencing method is the use of dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) in in vitro DNA synthesis mixtures. Figure 1 compares the structure of a regular dNTP and that of a ddNTP. There is a single difference between them: ddNTPs lack an OH‐group at the 3′ position of the pentose.What can be the consequence of this? A. There is no effect. ddNTPs will be incorporated in the growing chain. B. stop elongation of the DNA chain by not being able to form a phosphodiester bond with their 3′‐carbon atom C. stop elongation of the DNA chain by not being able to form a phosphodiester bond with their 2′‐carbon atom D. None of the above
B. stop elongation of the DNA chain by not being able to form a phosphodiester bond with their 3′‐carbon atom
3. As a measure of quality control in translation, which component of the translation machinery is capable of proofreading and editing amino acids? A. the ribosome B. tRNA synthetases C. tRNAs D. RNA polymerase
B. tRNA synthetases
17. Based on the above experiment (Q16), what would happen in an in vitro DNA synthesizing mixture containing the four ddNTPs and no dNTPs? A: No new phosphodiester bonds would be formed B: All the products would be one nucleotide longer than the primer C: All the products would be four nucleotides longer than the primer D: Products of various sizes would be synthesizedE: All the products would have the same size as the template strands
B: All the products would be one nucleotide longer than the primer
5. In prokaryotes, the first amino acid in the polypeptide chain is A.Phenylalanine B.Methionine C. N-methyl methionine D. N-formyl methionine
D. N-formyl methionine
16. Transcription occurs along a ____ template forming an mRNA in the ____ direction. A. 5' to 3'; 5' to 3' B. 5' to 3'; 3' to 5' C. 3' to 5'; 5' to 3' D. 3' to 5'; 3' to 5'
C. 3' to 5'; 5' to 3'
27. The role of small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs) is : A. To bind intronic sites and exon segments B. Facilitate the looping of two exons into the correct alignment for splicing C. All of the above D. None of the above
C. All of the above
13. Which of the following is not involved in the post transcriptional processing of t-RNA? A. Attachment of CCA arm B. Splicing of intron from the anticodon loop C. Attachment of poly-A tail
C. Attachment of poly-A tail
30. Elongation of peptide chain involves all except: A. mRNA B. GTP and peptidyl transferase C. Formyl met tRNA D. EF-Tu
C. Formyl met tRNA
8. Deamination of cytosine produces uracil. If uracil is incorporated into the daughter strand, what type of mutation will happen after second round of DNA replication? A. C-to-T transversion B. C-to-T transition C. G-to-A transition D. C-to-A transversion
C. G-to-A transition
29. In prokaryotes, the initiation factors are involved in initiation of protein synthesis. Which of the following factors facilitates the ribosomal subunit dissociation? A. IF-1 B. IF-2 C. IF-3 D. All of the above
C. IF-3
12. The most fundamental components of NHEJ are: A. Exonuclease and ligase .B. Artemis C. Ku70 and Ku80 D. Phosphokinases
C. Ku70 and Ku80
32. In E. coli mismatches are detected by which repair protein? A. Mut H B. Mut L C. Mut S D. Mut D
C. Mut S
14. Which of the following process occurs in regions where no large -scale sequence similarity is apparent? A. Homologous genetic recombination B. Site specific recombination C. Non-homologous recombination D. Replicative recombination
C. Non-homologous recombination
6. During translation, the role of enzyme peptidyl transferase is: A. Transfer of phosphate group B. Amino acid activation C. Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids D. Binding of ribosome subunits to mRNA
C. Peptide bond formation between adjacent amino acids
3. In an experiment you use RNA polymerase without its sigma factor for transcription. What will be the result that you observe?A. Increased expression B. Specific transcription C. Random transcription D.No effect on transcription
C. Random transcription
17. DNA glycosylases are responsible for base excision repair by: A. Addition of correct base B. Addition of correct nucleotide C. Removal of incorrect base D. Removal of phosphodiester bond
C. Removal of incorrect base
28. Which category of transposons accomplishes transposition through a process that involves the insertion of copies of an element that were synthesized from the element's RNA? A. Cut and paste transposons B. Replicative transposons C. Retrotransposons D. Cut and paste transposons and Replicative transposonsE. All of these
C. Retrotransposons
18. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal binding site (sequence) on mRNA is called A. Hogness sequence B. Kozak sequence C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence D. TATA box
C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
10. How many molecules of polymerase core enzyme are found in a prokaryotic replication fork? A. One: it switches between leading and lagging templates B. Two: one for each template C. Three: one for the leading strand, two for the lagging strand D. Four: two for the template strands, and two for the daughter strands
C. Three: one for the leading strand, two for the lagging strand
26. Analysis of the human genome has revealed that about half (or maybe more) of the human genome seems to be composed of A. Protein-coding genes. B. Ribosomal RNA genes. C. Transposons or transposon-like elements. D. Satellite sequences.
C. Transposons or transposon-like elements.
9. Which type of post-translational modification to histones is associated with translationally-active genes (higher gene expression)? A. methylation B. proteolysis C. acetylation D. tetomerization E. farnesylation
C. acetylation
8. Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli A. requires ATP B. requires rho protein/factor to complex C. both (a) and (b) D. removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
C. both (a) and (b)
11. In prokaryotes, when can basal level (constitutive) expression of a gene occur? A. only when an activator binds B. when an activator and repressor bind C. in the absence of activator and repressor binding D. only if the expression of the gene is regulated by a repressor
C. in the absence of activator and repressor binding
11. Which of the following is not a part of DNA pol III holoenzyme A. β B. γ C. primase D. τ
C. primase
12. Since the first nucleotides cannot be linked in a newly synthesized strand in DNA replication, ___________ is required to synthesize an RNA primer A. DNA polymerase B. ligase C. primase D. helicase
C. primase
20. Negative regulation of protein synthesis is accomplished by A. allosteric inhibition B. the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter C. the binding of a repressor to the DNA D. the binding of a repressor to the RNA polymerase
C. the binding of a repressor to the DNA
1. Catenated DNA can be physically separated by the activity of: A. DNA ligase B. telomerase C. topoisomerase D. histone acetyltransferase
C. topoisomerase
3. Which of the following is an example of a "suicide enzyme"? A. helicase B. DNA photolyase C. dam methylase D. O6 methyl-guanine transferase
D. O6 methyl-guanine transferase
3. Given the DNA sequence 5'-AGCCTA-3', which of the following represents the complementary strand of DNA? A. 5'-ATCCGA-3' B. 5'-TCGGAT-3' C. 5'-AGCCTA-3' D. 5'-TAGGCT-3'
D. 5'-TAGGCT-3'
23. Which of the following defines an open reading frame (ORF)? A. Genome of bacteriophage B. The sequence of a complete genome C. A plasmid vector used in genome sequencing D. A continuous stretch of codons that begins with a start codon (usually AUG) and ends at a stop codon, has the ability to be translated.
D. A continuous stretch of codons that begins with a start codon (usually AUG) and ends at a stop codon, has the ability to be translated.
19. What are the main differences between replication and transcription? A. Strand melting is transient in transcription B. Unlike DNA, RNA does not remain H-bonded to template C. RNA Pol does not need a primer D. All of the above
D. All of the above
26. Transcription of DNA results into RNA that have multiple functions including: A. Messenger RNA serves as a template for protein synthesis B. Transfer RNA serves as the adapter molecule for addition of amino acids and elongates peptide chain C. Ribosomal RNA serves as a machinery for protein synthesis D. All of the above
D. All of the above
8. What are the main differences between replication and transcription? A. Strand melting is transient in transcription B. Unlike DNA, RNA does not remain H-bonded to template C. RNA Pol does not need a primer D. All of the above
D. All of the above
29. Which of the following is a transposable element found in the human genome? A. LINES B. SINES C. Retrovirus-like elements D. All of these E. None of these
D. All of these
10. In prokaryotes, strong promoters can stimulate higher transcription levels (high expression) by: A. Recruiting histone acetyltransferase to destabilize histone binding B. Reducing interactions between the non-template strand and σ C. Attracting proteins that destabilize H bonding near the -35 box D. Binding the α CTD of RNA polymerase to upstream promoter (UP element)
D. Binding the α CTD of RNA polymerase to upstream promoter (UP element)
4. Which of the following eukaryotic transcription events is directly related to the de-phosphorylation of a molecule? A. Formation of a 5' RNA cap B. Recruitment of capping factors to the CTD tail of RNA polymerase C. Recruitment of splicing factors D. Promoter escape
D. Promoter escape
13. Which of the following process generates a new copy of the transposable element at a new location of DNA? A. Homologous genetic recombination B. Site specific recombination C. Non-homologous recombination D. Replicative recombination
D. Replicative recombination
15. What are the two families of conservative site specific recombinases? A. Alanine and phenylalanine B. Threonine and valine C. Arginine and lysine D. Serine and tyrosine
D. Serine and tyrosine
27. One reason that yeast are useful as model organisms is that A. yeast are prokaryotes B. yeast are very useful for developmental biology studies C. there are absolutely no introns in the yeast genome D. Yeast can be grown as either haploid (a or α) or diploid cells (a and α).
D. Yeast can be grown as either haploid (a or α) or diploid cells (a and α).
2. What is Cas9 and what is it responsible for? A. an RNA molecule that binds to target DNA via complementary base pairing B. a DNA sequence that binds the Cas9 protein C. a viral protein that disrupts bacterial membranes D. a protein enzyme that cuts both strands of DNA at sites specified by an RNA guide
D. a protein enzyme that cuts both strands of DNA at sites specified by an RNA guide
25. The term "chromatin remodeling" refers to A. a process that only bacteria perform since they contain no nucleus. B. a process that is exclusively associated with transcription by RNA polymerase III in eukaryotes. C. alteration in chromatin structure to facilitate loading and translation by ribosomes and, thus, enhance protein production. D. alteration of chromatin structure to facilitate binding of regulatory proteins/ expose promoter region of DNA to allow transcription.
D. alteration of chromatin structure to facilitate binding of regulatory proteins/ expose promoter region of DNA to allow transcription.
24. SWI-SNF proteins contain bromodomain and are involved in: A. basal transcription/ gene regulation through activating transcription B. RNA interference C. repression D. chromatin remodeling/ part of nucleosome remodeling complex
D. chromatin remodeling/ part of nucleosome remodeling complex
7. DNA polymerase ensures that the correct nucleotide is incorporated into the growing strand of DNA by ------------- A. Using different binding sites for all four incoming nucleotide B. specifically binding only the correct nucleotide in separate active sites designated for each nucleotide C. selecting the correct nucleotide in a exonuclease active site in the DNA polymerase D. monitoring the ability of the incoming nucleotide to form either an AT or GC base pair
D. monitoring the ability of the incoming nucleotide to form either an AT or GC base pair
25. Which of these interactions is the weakest?A. rC-dG B. rG-dC C. rA-dT D. rU-dA
D. rU-dA
13. Which enzymes remove supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of the replication fork? A. Helicases B. DNA polymerases C. primases D. topoisomerases
D. topoisomerases
5. SOS repair in prokaryotes involves: A. Proteolytic activity that activates a specialized DNA polymerase .B. An error -prone DNA polymerase that can process across unusual structures. C. Switching DNA pol III holoenzyme for DNA pol V. D. Coping with damaged DNA but not necessarily repairing the damage. E. All of the above are true.
E. All of the above are true.
9. Which transcription factor hydrolyzes ATP to force open promoter complex formation in E. coli? A. TFIIH B. eIF5b C. Pribnow box D. PAP E. Prokaryotic initiation does not require ATP hydrolysis to form the open promoter complex
E. Prokaryotic initiation does not require ATP hydrolysis to form the open promoter complex
1. What is the name of the site where Cre enzyme acts? a) COX b) LOX c) AOX d) XOP
b) LOX
27. Which enzyme catalyzes the excision and insertion events conducted by transposons? a) Transformase b) Transposase c) Ligase d) Helicase e) Polymerase
b) Transposase
4. In an experiment you mutate the C terminal domain of alpha subunit of the RNA polymerase. What will you expect to see? a) Transcription is absent b) Transcription is at random sites c) Transcription is less d) Transcription is more
c) Transcription is less