BIG ****ING TEST 2- PSYCH

By the age of ______________, babies can discriminate between fearful and happy faces. 2 years 3 months 1 year 7 months

7 months

Altered visual perceptions such as seeing the tracks that your hand makes when you move it through the air usually happens when one ingests: A. lysergic acid diethylamide-25. B. methamphetamine. C. methylenedioxymethamphetamine. D. amphetamine sulfate.

A. lysergic acid diethylamide-25.

How does cocaine induce a sense of exhilaration?

By increasing the availability of dopamine and serotonin in synapses

Prescription cough medicines today often include _______, a safer alternative to heroin. A. amphetamine B. barbital C. codeine D. diazepam

C. codeine

The world's most commonly consumed psychoactive drug is: A. barbiturate. B. cocaine. C. caffeine. D. opium.

C. caffeine.

Which of the following is true of the functions of sleep? A. It inhibits neural growth. B. It consolidates memory. C. It enhances cellular damage. D. It resists metabolic cleanup.

B. It consolidates memory.

Information can make its way into consciousness through the unattended ear if it is: A. monotonous. B. meaningful. C. random. D. trivial.

B. meaningful.

_____ is an unpleasant side effect that alcohol withdrawal creates for an alcoholic.

Delirium tremens

Psychoactive drugs are only found in Western cultures. True False

F

The brain is not very active during sleep. True False

F

When we choose to be aware of as much of the world around us as possible, we are engaging in selective attention. True False

F

AIM stands for Awake, Images and Movement. True False

F (activation, input, mode)

Which of the following conditions is a predominant feature of amphetamine psychosis?

Hallucination

Which of the following are sets of bones from the middle ear that vibrate and amplify sound waves from the tympanic membrane? Cochlea, anvil, and stirrup Pinnae, stirrup, and anvil Anvil, cochlea, and, pinnae Hammer, anvil, and stirrup

Hammer, anvil, and stirrup

HW 6

Even though he cannot yet speak, 10-month-old Mikey understands what his father means when he says to Mikey, "You're a good boy!" Which part of Mikey's brain is involved in this language comprehension? Wernicke's area Which of the following speech sounds is baby Lola likely to make first? cooing Which of the following correctly states the sensitivity period hypothesis for language acquisition? Children who are not exposed to human language before a certain age will never fully develop language skills. Sociocultural theorists suggest which of the following with respect to language development? Children learn language by hearing other people speak and interpreting it within context. The pioneering linguist who argued that humans are born with a language acquisition device (LAD) is __________. Noam Chomsky Which of the following provides evidence in favor of the nativist view of language acquisition? -Even babies who are born deaf engage in babbling. -Children learn language with ease. -Language develops in the same way at the same time for children worldwide. Athena, one of the zoo's most popular chimpanzees, will never learn to speak language as humans do because __________. chimps do not have the vocal apparatus that humans do and therefore cannot produce the same speech sounds. Which of the following correctly summarizes the Whorf-Sapir hypothesis? The language we speak shapes our thoughts and our understanding of ideas. "All cars sold by this dealership come with satellite radio. This car was sold by the dealership. Therefore, it must have satellite radio." This line of thinking is known as __________. deductive reasoning Jamal said, "Every time there is an event at the nearby stadium I am late getting home because of all the traffic. Today there is an event at the stadium, so I told my wife I will be late getting home." Jamal has engaged in __________ reasoning. inductive Where does language comprehension occur in the brain? Wernicke's area The entire set of rules for combining symbols and sounds to speak and write a particular language is known as grammar ______ is the science of how people think, learn, remember, and perceive. Cognitive psychology What percentage of the population cannot engage in visual imagery at all? 2% Sam is wearing a polo shirt, khakis, and shoes with cleats. More people judge that Sam is more likely going golfing than going bowling, but Sam just couldn't find his tennis shoes and was running late. This is an example of estimating the probability of one event based on how typical it is of another event, which is known as the representative heuristic. Although no one knows for sure, it is estimated that grammatical and syntactical language is less than 150,000 to 200,000 years old. Which of the following is not an environmental influence on language? language acquisition device Which of the following theories of language acquisition captures the interaction between nature and nurture? innately guided learning The view that language creates thought as much as thought creates language is also known as the Whorf-Sapir hypothesis. The word ______ means "to know." cognition A ______ is a structure in our mind that stands for something else, such as the external object or thing. mental representation Considering that babies respond to picture books before they learn how to talk, the visual system is probably older, in evolutionary terms, than the verbal system. The process of imagining an object rotating in three-dimensional space is known as mental rotation. Which of the following statements about testosterone, gender, and spatial ability is true? Men with low levels of testosterone and women with high levels of testosterone perform best on spatial skills. What is a concept hierarchy? A concept hierarchy lets us know that certain concepts are related in a particular way, with some being general and others specific. Melissa and Kristin are arguing about the right answer to a question on their practice quiz. Melissa says that the right answer requires them to consider all of the facts before making a conclusion. Kristin says the correct answer is on page 74 and they should just copy it. Is Melissa using critical thinking to support her position? Yes, because she is considering the facts before drawing a conclusion. Robyn is writing a research paper and she is frustrated because she can't find some of the information she needs to finish writing it. Her awareness that she is missing some information is an example of metacognition Sarah claims that most people are happy; she knows this because she read it on Wikipedia. Jake concludes that Sarah does not have enough evidence to make the claim that most people are happy. What two elements of critical thinking is Jake demonstrating? Evaluating the argument and forming a conclusion based on the evidence Analyzing the facts is a first step in critical thinking. _______is the ability to recognize when you do or don't know something. Metacognition An important step in critical thinking is evaluating the________. argument A cognitive shortcut that speeds decision making is called a(n) heuristic The availability heuristic suggests that we base the frequencies of events on the ease to which information regarding that event comes to mind. People use heuristics because -they save us time. -they save us cognitive energy. -they often lead to correct responses. Ellen's best friend won the lottery with the numbers 4, 8, 15, 16, 23, 42. Now, Ellen buys a lottery ticket every day choosing these same numbers, because she is convinced that she too will win. What error in judgment is Ellen making? Rare but highly memorable events that come to mind easily act so as to increase our beliefs they will happen again even when they don't. Which of the following is an example of the availability heuristic? Bill's brother is injured in the bathtub, so Bill will only take showers, because he is afraid that bathtubs are unnecessarily dangerous. By what age does learning a second language become more difficult? 7 Elka is a bilingual German/English speaker. Her college roommate, Christa, a monolingual English speaker, tells her one night, "You are driving me up a wall." Because they are in their dorm room and not driving anywhere, Elka has no idea what Christa means. Christa's sentence is an example of an idiom. In tests of deductive reasoning, bilingual speakers perform better in their native language. Which of the following is a hallmark of metacognition? -accurately knowing what you know -accurately knowing what you do not know -being able to monitor your thinking as you work on a problem In a meta-analysis of a large body of research, Ricciardelli reported that 20 out of 24 published studies found that bilingual students scored higher on ______ tasks than did monolingual students. creativity

According to new research, which drug is found to be effective for treating post-traumatic stress disorder?

MDMA

Chapter 4 Quiz 2

Sadness According to recent research, emotions like ______ could worsen the experience of pain. bottom-up processing Ruth is at a junkyard looking for spare parts for her car. As she wanders through the rows of cars, she happens upon a particular car which has a familiar set of wheels, windshield, doors, hood, and trunk, and she realizes she is looking at her own model of car. This type of visual perception is known as _______. experience of synesthesia According to recent research, the ______ occurs because two different parts of the brain, which are normally kept separate, get activated simultaneously by the same stimulus. top-down processing Lincoln is pretty sure he sees his niece far off in a crowd. When he gets closer, he sees her familiar hair style and unmistakable nose, and knows it is her. This type of visual perception is called _______. purities Luli, who is in a rock band, can distinguish the sound of the guitar from the sound of the bass even though they are both playing the same note—a low E. She has no trouble telling them apart because they give off wavelengths of different _______. Sound waves must travel through some medium or we cannot hear them. Which of the following statements regarding sound waves is true? tympanic membrane Once inside the auditory canal, sound vibrations travel to the _______. Opponent process theory Which of the following is a theory of color vision that can account for the color afterimage of the American flag as well as help explain some instances of color blindness? Hammer, anvil, and stirrup Which of the following are sets of bones from the middle ear that vibrate and amplify sound waves from the tympanic membrane? Oxycodone Sasha has a severe back pain. Which of the following is an opioid that the doctor is likely to prescribe as an analgesic? are strongly connected to specific memories and emotions. Because some fibers of the olfactory bulb are directly connected to the amygdala, some smells we encounter: gate control According to the ________ theory of pain, acupuncture should successfully alleviate pain. closure The Gestalt law of ________ occurs when we perceive a whole object in the absence of complete information. closure Lillian sees a store sign that says CL_ ED. Due to the Gestalt law of _______, Lillian knows the store is closed even though the sign is missing a letter. the combination of taste and smell The experience of the flavor of food results from _______. Pain ________ is a complex emotional and sensory experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage. the perception of bodily sensations Interoception is: Synesthesia ________ occurs when a person experiences sensations in one sense when a different sense is stimulated. They contain no taste cells and therefore can taste nothing. Which of the following is true of the papillae at the center of the human tongue? cilia The olfactory sensory neurons contain hairlike projections called _______, which are similar to the hair cells in the inner ear.

ch 4 vocab

Sensation the stimulation of our sense organs by the outer world. Eye are sensitive to light waves, ears to sounds, skin to touch and pressure, tongues to taste, and noses to odors. Perception the act of organizing and interpreting sensory experience. Sensory adaptation the process by which our sensitivity diminishes when an object constantly stimulates our senses. Transduction the conversion of physical into neural information. Cells in the retina change light waves to neural energy, when hair cell in the inner ear change sound waves to neural energy, when chemicals in the air bind to receptors in the nose, when food chemicals stimulate taste buds on tongue, and when pressure and temperature stimulate nerve cells in skin. Absolute threshold the lowest intensity level of a stimulus we can detect half of the time. Signal detection theory the viewpoint that both stimulus intensity and decision-making processes are involved in the detection of stimulus. Difference threshold the smallest amount of change between two stimuli that a person can detect half of the time. Weber's law the laws of just noticeable differences in sensory perception go back Ernst Weber, who in 1834 discovered that the size of the JND is a constant fraction of the intensity of the stimulus. Cornea a clear, hard covering that protects the lens. Pupil the opening in the iris through which light enters the eye Iris the colored part of the eye, adjusts the pupil to control the amount of light entering. Function of the eye -sense visual stimuli. -transduce physical energy into neural information. Lens the structure that sits behind the pupil: it bends the light rays that enter the eye to focus image on the retina. Rods play a key role in night vision, as they are most responsive to dark-and-light contrast. They work well at low illumination. Cones responsible for color vision and are most functional in conditions of bright light. Fovea a spot on the back of the retina, contains the highest concentration of cones in the retina. We see images with the greatest clarity when they are focused on the fovea. Visual acuity our ability to see clearly, depends on our cones. Ganglion cells the axons of which make up the optic nerve. Optic nerve transmits signals from the eye to the brain. Optic chiasm the point at which strands of the optic nerve from half of each eye cross over the opposite side of the brain. Feature detectors neurons analyze the retinal image and respond to specific aspects of shapes, such as angles and movements. Perceiving motion we perceive movement when an image moves across the retina. Apparent motion tricking our retinas that thinking something is moving when it is not. Depth perception the ability to see things in three dimensions and to discriminate what is near from what is far. Binocular depth cues aids to depth perception that rely on input from both eyes. One key binocular cue to depth comes from the fact that the eyes are separated by few inches, so images from each are separated by few inches, so the images from each eye provide slightly different viewpoints. The difference, or binocular disparity in these retinal images plays a key role in our ability to perceive depth Monocular depth cues aids to depth of perception that do not require two eyes (allow one eye to perceive some depth). Linear perspective involves parallel lines that converge, or some together, the farther away they are from viewer. The more they converge, the greater distance we perceive. Atmospheric perspective comes from looking across a vast space into the distance in the outdoors. Perceptual constancy the brain's ability to preserve perception of objects in spite of changes in retinal image when an object changes in position or distance from the viewer. Size constancy we see things as the same size regardless of the changing size of the image on the retina, because we know what the size of the object is. Similarity a Gestalt law that says we tend to group like objects together in visual perception. Continuity a Gestalt law that says we see points or lines in such a way that they follow a continuous path. Proxmity a Gestalt law that says we tend to group objects together that are near one another. Law of closure the tendency to perceive a whole object in the absence of complete information. Bottom-up procssing the idea that perception is a process of building a perceptual experience from smaller pieces. Top-down processing perception on the whole based on our experience and expectations, which guide our perception of smaller elemental features of stimulus. Color spectrum the spectrum of color visible to humans ranges from 350, which most of us perceive to be the color violet, to 750 nm, which most of us perceive as red. Light that we perceive as green is at 550 nm. Afterimages visual images that remain removal of the stimulus. Color blindness a weakness or deficiency in the perception of certain color, usually resulting from an inherit pigment deficiency in the photoreceptors. Sound's loudness in descibels (dB), starting with 0, which is the threshold for normal human hearing. The scale has no upper limit but sounds above 150 to 170 dB are seldom registered anywhere. Frequency measured in units called hertz (Hz), which is how many times the wave cycles per second. Range of human pitch perception ranging from 20 Hz to about 20,000 Hz, but most people can not hear sounds at either extreme. Tympanic membrane eardrum, sounds vibration travel though it. the sound waves on the tympanic membrane set into motion the bones of the middle ears; the hammer, anvil, and stirrup. These bones do more than just vibrate, however: they amplify the waves, so that they have more than 20 times the energy they had entering the ear. Semicircular canals the structures of the inner ear involved in maintaining balance. Cochlea a bony tube, curled like a snail's shell and filled with fluid. Bodily senses senses based in the skin, body, or any membrane surface, which include knowing where our body part are. Mechanorecptors receptor cells in the skin that are sensitive to different tactile qualities, such as shape, grooves, vibrations, and movements. Nociceptors pain receptors from the skin that are sensitive to heat, cold, chemical irritation, and pressure. Gate control theory of pain the spinal cord regulates the experience of pain by either opening or closing neural channels, called gates, which transmit pain sensations to the brain. Controlling pain in addition to thought and feeling that control the experience of pain, our bodies have natural pain killer call endorphins (stimulating the release of neurotransmitters that interfere with pain messages in the spinal cord and brain. Olfactory bulb a forebrain structure that send information either directly to the smell-processing areas in the cortex or indirectly to the cortex by way of the thalamus. Paillae texture structures on surface of the tongue; they contain thousands of taste buds. Taste buds structures inside the paillae of the tongue; they contain taste receptor cells. Taste receptors cells sensory receptors for taste that reside in the taste bud. Synesthesia occurs when a person experiences sensation in one sense when a different sense is stimulated.

Weeks 5&6

Sensation (a physical process) we can measure it stimulation of our sense organs by features of the outer world the activation of sensory receptors by external physical stimulus energy conversion of that energy into a neural impulse Perception (a mental process) differ bc personal experiences and beliefs how your brain org and interprets sensory info in a meaningful way meaning that our brain creates the human brain is designed to find meaningful patterns our sensory and perceptual processes work together to help us make sense of what we are experiencing Depth Inversion Effect our visual system assumes objects are convex, especially for more familiar things, like faces Sensory Receptors specialized neurons( transduce environmental energy into impulse) in the PNS sense organs that send messages to the CNS via sensory pathways eyes, ears, nose, skin, taste buds take info but doesn't introduce meaning into it. puts pieces together but doesn't translate it Bottom-Up Processing Physical no-brainer process analysis begins with sense receptors that send pieces info up to the brain, which then puts all the pieces together to create meaning sensation TRANSDUCES a physical signal into a neural impulse the brain can understand and interpret Transduction conversion of environmental energy into neural impulses the brain can understand Sensory Adaptation (TEST) BRAIN NOT INVOLVED bottom-up process in which sensitivity decreases when an object constantly stimulates our senses sensory receptors become physically exhausted allows us to use selective attention efficiently *YOUR PERCEPTION FOLLOWS YOUR ATTENTION IF NOT PAYING ATTENTION TO SOMETHING YOU WILL NOT PERCEIVE IT* Top-Down Processing (Perception) existing expectations (biases) influence the interpretation of sensations to happen in a personally meaningful way not always the same for everyone Construction our brains construct our perceptions using our personal experiences, expectations, beliefs and the context (framing) based on the context perception is abt meaning Habituation (TEST) it is a perceptual process of adaptation BRAIN stops paying attention to consistently present or consistently repeated stimuli ALWAYS HAPPENS AFTER SENSORY ADAPTATION can happen bc brain says so or bc adaptation Perceiving Light visual stimuli Brightness (wave's amplitude) dim light = low amplitude bright light = high amplitude Colors (wave's length) reds = long wavelength blues = short wavelength perceptual women see color better than men bc gatherers in the past Psychology of Color Vision human eye = 7,000,000 colors color can affect your productivity and your mood yellow = irritable bc fatiguing for receptors green = relaxation bc easier on the eyes red = appetite blue = suppresses appetite pink = associated with fragility Color Perception Simplified sunlight ( visible light) shines on the apple the apple's surface absorbs all of the wavelengths except red; those are reflected to the human eye the eye receives the reflected wavelengths and sends a red color message to the brain black absorbs all of the colors. no colors reflected the colors you see are the wavelengths that are reflected white means all the colors are reflected sunlight contains all the wavelengths of all colors equally Visual Accommodation the process by which the lens changes shape to help focus near versus far objects onto the retina as you get older the lens gets harder look far = lens relaxes look close = it tightens Retina light sensitive surface on the back of the eye where light gets focused. sends neural impulses to the brain Photoreceptor Layer transduces the light stimuli into neural impulses visual sensory receptor account for nearly 3/4 of all human sensory receptors Rods (sensory receptor) photoreceptors responsible for noncolor and dim light vision Amplitude = process brightness Cones (Color Cone sensory receptor) photoreceptors responsible for color and acuity (sharpness). doesn't work in the dark. wavelength Iris colored muscle arnd the pupil Pupil hole that admits light into the eye Lens accommodation supplies fine focus Fovea area of maximum acuity, cone concentration, center of focus, on the retina where all the cones gathered up rods= on edge What happens? 1. pupil admits light into the eye 2. retina receives light and light gets focused 3. fovea in retina is what has rods and cones.get to work. is it amplitude or wavelength? Optic Nerve bundle of retinal cell axons that carries the neural impulses from the retina to the visual cortex in the brain (and what happens there?) Receptor in the Human Retina Number: Cones = 6 million Rods = 120 million Location in Retina: Cones= center rods= periphery sensitivity in dim light: Cones= low rods= high color sensitive: cones= yes rods= no The "Blind Spot" hole in the retina where photoreceptor axons exit the eye to form the optic nerve insensitive to light (no rods or cones- it's a hole) a small object that falls on the blind spot is "invisible" what do you see instead? brain makes up stuff based on context. it's in the periphery with the rods Trichromatic Theory (TEST) says that the patterns of neural activity in 3 different cone types in the retina create normal color perception takes place in retina red green blue each cone fires at different frequencies to make a color if perfect color it fires with more frequency Afterimage if stare at red afterimage will be green bc exhausted red sensory adaptation means fatiguing message (reason of afterimages) adaptation plus opponent process= afterimages! Opponent Process Theory FOUR primary colors red-green blue-yellow HAPPENS IN THE BRAIN 2nd place once light in retina brain divides them into pairs LGN cell sends info of color to brain and tells red not green or blue not yellow when one color is activated, the opponent is inhibited in that cell's point in visual space OP happens in the LGN of the thalamus, NOT in the retina LGN Cell The lateral geniculate nucleus is a relay center in the thalamus for the visual pathway. It receives a major sensory input from the retina. The LGN is the main central connection for the optic nerve to the occipital lobe, particularly the primary visual cortex. Perceptual Organization organization the visual world into separate entities object discrimination foraging, adaptive survival, natural selection sex-linked inheritance Colorblindness can't see any colors Monochromats either have no cones, cones that aren't working, or damage to neural pathways for color-processing Color Deficiency red-green or blue-yellow deficiency can't see brightness differences cannot distinguish opponent pairs Change Blindness a phenomenon of selective attention we can only pay attention to a fraction of sensory input at any given moment recall that unattended stimuli never enter awareness only what we ATTEND gets stored in memory Wavelength Frequency pressure waves in air measured in hertz (Hz) - waves per second Pitch- frequency of wave high pitches= high frequency low pitch= low frequency High amplitude= high volume Threshold the smallest amount of stimulus needed for you to hear it above 80 decibels= damage to hearing Pinna Captures Waves part of ear sticking outside of the head acts like funnel captures pressure waves in air and funnels then into the auditory canal which = rest auditory system Auditory Canal funnels waves that come from the Pinna Tympanic Membrane in the eardrum tightly stretched skin that vibrates when air pressure waves strike it. Vibration sets middle earlobes into movement. They amplify it. Ossicles amplify waves Cochlea snail-shaped structure filled with fluid; transduction happens in here. Organ of Corti on the basilar membrane inside the cochlea pressure waves set basilar membrane in motion Hair Cells on the basilar membrane bend and fire with the motion Auditory Nerve collection of hair cell axons that takes signals to brain Taste (Gustation) taste buds (receptors) papillae (house the taste buds) 5 primary tastes: 1. umami (MSG)- protein 2. sour - ripeness 3. salty - minerals 4. bitter - poison avoidance? 5. sweet - calories Olfaction airborne molecules dissolved in mucus in the nose then attach to the olfactory receptors then trigger a neural impulse Olfactory Pathway olfactory receptors = neural impulse = olfactory nerve = olfactory bulbs (brain) signals don't go to thalamus instead reach olfactory bulbs which part of limphic system. Also associated with memory. Sensory Interaction "flavor" includes both taste and smell. Why does this happen? food selection quality reduces food poisoning recruits odor memory Somesthetic Senses "body senses" skin sense kinesthetic sense vestibular senses Skin Sense touch pain temperature pressure all of these have receptors in the skin Pain Receptors receptors for pain (nociceptors) free nerve endings networked in the skin respond to intense pressure, heat, acids send neural impulses through sensory pathways to CNS brain created "pain" perception Gate-Control Theory addresses both sensory(physical) and cognitive(comes from brain) factors of pain pain involves an emotional, top-down component spinal cord contains pain "gates" "gate" opens when small fibers are activated nociceptor signals (tissue damage) - nociceptor up to brain cognitive signals from unpleasant emotions- from brain down open pain gates emotions can increase pain gates with fear Stopping Pain "gate" closes when large fibers are activated sensory signals other than nociceptors cognitive signals from pleasurable emotions and thinking chemicals- endorphins and their agonists "kill" pain by blocking the pain signals from entering the brain endorphins naturally decrease brain WHOLE BRAIN PROCESSES PAIN Kinesthetic Sense your "activity" sense tells you the location of your individual body parts in relation to the ground and each other mostly located in joint tissues proprioceptors Vestibular Sense "whole body" sensations of motion, balance, position arise from fluid motion in inner ear vestibular canals Sensory Conflict Theory when visual info conflicts with vestibular info, dizziness, nausea, etc., may happen. Perceptual Organization Again top-down process (individualized by experience) how your brain makes sense of sensations makes the world meaningful sometimes "hides" certain changes in stimuli so that they continue to appear constant to you (and therefore make sense) Perceptual Constancy the tendency to perceive objects as unchanging even when they actually change at the sensation level works only when the entire scene (context) changes simultaneously ex: blind spot if everything I see affected the same way then I wouldn't know change happened Color Constancy in sunlight all wavelengths are approximately equal in intensity in fluorescent light, blue wavelengths are more intense perceptually? stays constant but actual physical sensation change sensationally? change perceiving familiar objects as having a consistent color, even when a changing light source changes the wavelengths that are reflected TERM Purkinje Shift (TEST) DEFINITION when getting dark you lose long waves first and then short waves last one lose is blue cones quit working and rods take over LOCATION TERM Brightness Constancy DEFINITION the apparent brightness of an object stays the same even when the luminance(intensity of reflected light) changes perception doesn't change when intensity changes. sensational change. LOCATION Size constancy size constancy is the tendency to interpret a familiar object as always being the same actual size, regardless of its retinal size (which gets smaller with distance) Perceptual Size brain magnifies things it thinks are far away Shape Constancy the tendency to perceive the shape of a familiar object as being constant, even when its retinal shape changes Perception of Depth images on the retina are 2-D so how do we perceive 3-D (depth)? Answer: CUE Approach CUE Approach we learn the connection between cues and depth through experience, yileding 3-D perceptions Depth Perception divided into 2 types binocular and monocular Binocular depth cues that involve comparing the left and right eye images (2 eyes) Monocular depth cues that appear in the image in either the left or right eye Monocular Cues (pictorial depth cues) cues for perceiving depth based on one eye Ponzo Illusion (TEST) capitalizes on the brain's use of distance cues to distort size perception *brain magnifies objects based on context Muller-Lyer Illusion culture more common in industrialized societies Moon Illusion (TEST) comparison with horizon objects leads to the subjective magnification of moon the higher it is, the smaller it looks when the brain sees something distant it magnifies it Binocular Cues cues for perceiving depth based on both eyes 1.retinal disparity- images from the two eyes differ closer the object, the larger the disparity disparity contributes to depth perception 2.convergence neuromuscular cue your eyes turn inward (converge) to view a close object brain converts muscular tension in eye into depth perception Perceptual Set (perceptual expectancy) the tendency to perceive things a certain way because previous experiences influence that peception Linear Perspective the perception that parallel lines converge Relative Size looking at 2 objects we expect to be a similar size, the one that looks smaller will be judged to be farther away Interposition objects closer to us may block part or our view of more distant objects (skyscrapers) Aerial Perspective "relative clarity." we can see nearby objects more clearly than one far away Texture Gradient texture or grain of an object appears finer as distance increases Motion Parallax perceptions of objects in motion where close objects appear move faster than far objects Remember (TEST) all sensory info goes to the thalamus first except for smell sensory conflict theory when visual info conflicts with vestibular info, dizziness, nausea, etc., may happen. why would your brain do this to you?

________ takes into account both stimulus intensity and the decision-making processes people use in detecting a stimulus. Bottom-up processing Stimulus process theory Trichromatic color theory Signal detection theory

Signal detection theory

Which of the following fetal reactions indicates attention, interest, or orienting response on the part of the fetus? Increased rate of neuron development Slowed heart rate Turning over of the fetus Greater frequency of kicking

Slowed heart rate

An example of a "loss of consciousness" is "fainting." True False

T

Attention refers to the "focusing of conscious." True False

T

Beta waves are dominant during wakeful periods. True False

T

Depressants slow down central nervous system activity. True False

T

Each cycle of REM-nonREM sleep periods last about 90 minutes. True False

T

LSD is a hallucinogen. True False

T

Most people dream numerous times each night, but typically we do not remember our dreams on awakening. True False

T

When a blood vessel that serves the brain is blocked, the brain tissue served by that vessel does not receive the oxygen and nutrients it needs, and so the tissue dies. This is referred to as _____________. Parkinson's disease a bipolar disorder a stroke Alzheimer's disease

a stoke

Which of the following is true of the papillae at the center of the human tongue? They contain no taste cells and therefore can taste nothing. They are responsible for processing sweet taste. They are responsible for processing sour taste. They are responsible for processing umami.

They contain no taste cells and therefore can taste nothing.

Which of the following is the correct order of prenatal development—from the earliest stage to the latest stage? Zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage Embryonic stage, germinal stage, fetal stage, zygote Germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage, zygote Fetal stage, zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage

Zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage

ch 5 cont

______________ intelligence involves raw mental ability, pattern recognition, and abstract reasoning and is applied to a problem that a person has never confronted before. A. Crystallized B. Alternative C. Fluid D. Amorphous C. Fluid Problems that require finding relationships, understanding implications, and drawing conclusions all require ______________ intelligence. A. fluid B. alternative C. crystallized D. amorphous A. fluid Knowledge that one has gained from experience and learning, education, and practice, is called ______________ intelligence. A. amorphous B. crystallized C. alternative D. fluid B. crystallized Which of the following statements is true regarding crystallized intelligence? A. Crystallized intelligence involves raw mental ability, pattern recognition, and abstract reasoning. B. Neither culture nor vocabulary influence crystallized intelligence. C. Typically, crystallized intelligence is applied to a problem that a person has never confronted before. D. Crystallized intelligence is strengthened in middle adulthood. D. Crystallized intelligence is strengthened in middle adulthood. Nathan's uncle asks him whether Chihuahua is to dog as flamingo is to bird. Which of the following statements is true about this scenario? A. This is an example of a problem for which Nathan requires crystallized intelligence. B. This problem can be answered by Nathan using raw mental ability and abstract reasoning. C. Neither culture nor vocabulary influence Nathan's ability to answer this problem. D. Nathan's ability to answer this problem does not depend on his learning and education. A. This is an example of a problem for which Nathan requires crystallized intelligence. Which of the following is most likely to reduce cognitive decline with aging? A. Reading in early childhood B. Sleeping for more than 8 hours every day C. Exercising D. Playing a musical instrument C. Exercising One cognitive benefit of aging is ____________, the ability to live well, know what is important, and use good judgment. A. fluid intelligence B. wisdom C. bodily-kinesthetic intelligence D. crystallized intelligence B. wisdom _______________ is an unusual degree of loss in cognitive functions and includes memory problems and difficulty reasoning, solving problems, making decisions, and using language. A. Bipolar disorder B. Cerebral palsy C. Huntington's disease D. Dementia D. Dementia Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for dementia? A. Age B. Gender C. Ethnicity D. Social class A. Age Which of the following is true about dementia? A. Aging is a necessary and sufficient cause of dementia. B. Neurological conditions such as strokes can lead to dementia among the elderly. C. Dementia can lead to multiple strokes among the elderly. D. Pruning in early childhood is a significant cause of dementia in late adulthood. B. Neurological conditions such as strokes can lead to dementia among the elderly. When a blood vessel that serves the brain is blocked, the brain tissue served by that vessel does not receive the oxygen and nutrients it needs, and so the tissue dies. This is referred to as _____________. A. Parkinson's disease B. a bipolar disorder C. a stroke D. Alzheimer's disease C. a stroke ________________ is a degenerative disease marked by progressive cognitive decline with symptoms including confusion, memory loss, mood swings, and eventual loss of physical function. A. Down's syndrome B. Alzheimer's disease C. Schizophrenia D. Bipolar disorder B. Alzheimer's disease _______________ accounts for 60-70 percent of the cases of dementia among the elderly. A. Bipolar disorder B. Schizophrenia C. Down syndrome D. Alzheimer's disease D. Alzheimer's disease The defining anatomical feature of Alzheimer's is ____________. A. the presence of bromelain in the brain B. the absence of synapses in the frontal cortex C. the presence of patches of dead tissue in the brain D. the absence of neurons in the posterior cortex C. the presence of patches of dead tissue in the brain Which of the following statements is true about Alzheimer's disease? A. Early-onset of Alzheimer's affects people younger than 35. B. Currently, the only way Alzheimer's can be diagnosed definitively is by examining brain tissue after death. C. Alzheimer's accounts for only 10%-20% of the cases of dementia among the elderly. D. Alzheimer's is non-progressive, and hence its fatality level is low. B. Currently, the only way Alzheimer's can be diagnosed definitively is by examining brain tissue after death. Low levels of the neurotransmitter ________________ inhibit memory formation in people with Alzheimer's disease. A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. serotonin D. norepinephrine A. acetylcholine Some evidence suggests that ______________ might offset or even prevent the kind of neural degeneration seen in Alzheimer's and other age-related brain disorders. A. pruning B. neurogenesis C. neural migration D. individuation B. neurogenesis According to Erik Erikson's theory of personality development, the conflict of old age is between _________________. A. intimacy and isolation B. career and family C. integrity and despair D. generativity and stagnation C. integrity and despair Which of the following statements is true about aerobic exercising? A. Such brisk physical activity is usually dangerous to the heart and lungs and can cause death among adults and aged people. B. Research suggests that it can actually make the brain grow. C. It fails to meet the body's increased need for oxygen. D. It results in decline in higher mental processing of an individual. B. Research suggests that it can actually make the brain grow. According to Erik Erikson's theory of personality development, the core strength of old age is ________________. A. emotional intelligence B. exuberance C. lack of fear D. wisdom D. wisdom Which of the following is true about integrity in of the context of Erik Erikson's theory of personality development? A. Integrity is the sense that all of one's life decisions are coming together. B. Integrity is being informed and knowledgeable about life. C. Integrity is the creation of new ideas, products, or people. D. Integrity is the ability to fuse one's identity with another's without the fear of losing it. A. Integrity is the sense that all of one's life decisions are coming together. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross (1969) detailed the stages people may move through after learning they are going to die and found their first stage in dealing with the end of life is ___________. A. bargaining B. depression C. anger D. denial D. denial Elizabeth Kübler-Ross (1969) detailed the stages people may move through after learning they are going to die and found their last stage in dealing with the end of life is ____________. A. acceptance B. depression C. anger D. denial A. acceptance _______________ focus on the overall needs of the patient and family members, such as physical comfort, emotional care, and a dignified death. A. Hospitals B. Intensive care units C. Hospices D. Diagnostic centers C. Hospices ______________ is by far the most popular form of technology used in infancy. A. Computer B. Cellphone C. Video game D. Television D. Television According to research, video games can _____________. A. enhance mathematical skills in adolescents B. impair linguistic skills C. impair motor skills D. enhance cognitive skills such as visual tracking D. enhance cognitive skills such as visual tracking According to the research conducted by Vandewater, Shim, & Caplovitz in 2004, heavy amounts of video gaming--but not TV viewing--are associated with being ______ in children. A. overweight B. blind C. depressed D. violent A. overweight Beginning at age _____, children are quite mobile, able to get around, speak in sentences, and have motor coordination which allows them to draw and write. A. 1 B. 3 C. 9 D. 12 B. 3 Which of the following age groups is most influenced by technology? A. Infants B. Babies C. Adolescents D. Elderly adults C. Adolescents Identify the correct statement about multitasking among teens. A. Heavy multitasking teens are able to filter out more irrelevant information than any other age group in any given situation. B. As novice drivers, teens require more attention to complete the tasks of safely operating and navigating a motor vehicle. C. While driving and using a hands-free cell phone, the reaction time and coordination of teens is much better than someone who is legally drunk. D. Light multitaskers are less likely to get distracted while working on problem-solving tasks. B. As novice drivers, teens require more attention to complete the tasks of safely operating and navigating a motor vehicle. The anterior cingulate will show the strongest activity when _____________. A. talking on cell phones B. exposed to violence in video games C. engaged in challenging Mensa puzzles D. texting in the classroom B. exposed to violence in video games Which of the following terms can be defined as the willful and repeated harm inflicted through the medium of electronic text? A. Cyberbullying B. Phishing C. Pruning D. Brandjacking A. Cyberbullying Most developmental psychologists place ______ between the ages of 40 and 60 or 65. A. middle adulthood B. late adulthood C. emerging adulthood D. early adulthood A. middle adulthood

Elizabeth Kübler-Ross (1969) detailed the stages people may move through after learning they are going to die and found their first stage in dealing with the end of life is ___________. bargaining depression anger denial

denial

Light enters the eye at the _______. pupil lens cornea iris

cornea

If a drug slows down central nervous system activity while increasing the activity of the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, then it is most likely to be a(n):

depressant

Becky, who is pregnant, will most likely feel the fetus moving for the first time at about ____________ after conception. one to two months two to three months four to six months seven to eight months

four to six months

We see images with the greatest clarity when they are focused on the _______. lens iris fovea retina

fovea

According to Piaget, in the ______________ stage of cognitive development, logic is limited to what a child can directly observe. sensorimotor formal operational preoperational concrete operational

sensorimotor

Our sensitivity diminishes when an object constantly stimulates our senses. This process is known as _______. sensory adaptation perception sensation transduction

sensory adaptation

Frequency is measured in units called _______. decibels radians hertz watts

hertz

According to Erik Erikson, a(n) _____________ is an opportunity for adaptive or maladaptive adjustment. identity crisis sensorimotor stage pruning neural migration

identity crisis

Which of the following is true of nicotine?

it arouses the skeletal muscles (WRONG)

The trichromatic theory of color vision states that all colors humans experience result from a mixture of: white, red, orange black, yellow, green red, blue, and green green, yellow, blue

red, blue, and green

As compared to nonmusicians, musicians have _________. larger cerebellums fewer neurons thinner corpus callosum more white matter

larger cerebellums

A false alarm is: not reporting a stimulus that is not present. failing to detect a stimulus that is present. correctly detecting a stimulus that is present. saying that a stimulus is present when it is not.

saying that a stimulus is present when it is not.

According to Erik Erikson, stagnation occurs when: the adult becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others. neurons move from one part of the brain to their more permanent home. unused synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. events in the womb alter the development of physical and psychological health.

the adult becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others.

Which of the following parts of the human ear is a bony tube, curled like a snail's shell, and filled with fluid? The pinnae The cochlea The oval window The anvil

the cochlea

Which of the following theories conforms to the belief that dreams are nothing but the standard processes that occur during the day?

the cognitive theory

Babies born prematurely—who would otherwise still be developing in the womb—prefer ______________ flavors to other flavors. sweet salty sour bitter

sweet

Epigenetics is the study of how ____________. a genetic disorder is passed on to sons but not to daughters an individual gets affected by a recessive disorder a dominant gene becomes resistant to change the environment affects gene expression

the environment affects gene expression

The natural painkiller in the human body is: A. melatonin. B. endorphin. C. serotonin. D. epinephrine.

B. endorphin.

The dropping of the sensory curtain indicates the beginning of ________ of sleep. A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

A. Stage 1

The body's biological clock is located in the: A. pituitary gland. B. pineal gland. C. thalamus. D. hypothalamus.

D. hypothalamus.

The feeling of being in love is attributed to: A. objective consciousness. B. intelligence. C. psychic consciousness. D. subjective consciousness.

D. subjective consciousness.

_____________ is the tendency to view the world from one's own perspective and not see things from another person's perspective. Egocentrism Object permanence Animistic thinking Pruning

Egocentrism

Chapter 4 terms

Dualism the mind is physically distinct from the brain Attention conscious awareness, being able to focus selectively on some things and avoid focusing on others Automatic tasks that are so well learned that we do them out much attention Controlled slower than automatic processing, but it helps people perform in complex or novel situation Shadowing a participant wears headphones that deliver one message to one ear and and a different message to another. the person is asked to repeat the message but can only say the message they were listening to Freudian slip occurs when an unconscious thought is suddenly expressed at an inappropriate time or in an inappropriate social context Global workspace model posits that consciousness Aries as a function of which brain circuits are active Persistent vegetative state people who are in comas after brain injuries. they have sleep/wake cycles- they open their eyes and appear to be awake, close their eyes and appear to be asleep- but don't respond to their surroundings and when this condition lasts longer than a month Minimally conscious state people with brain injuries are able to make deliberate movements such as following an object with their eyes. may try to communicate Brain death irreversible loss of brain function Suprachiasmatic nucleus information about light detected by the eyes is sent to a smaller region of the hypothalamus called the ________ Pineal gland this region then sends signals to a tiny structure cAlled the ------- Melatonin a hormone that travels through the blood stream and affects various receptors in the body including the brain alpha waves when people really focus their attention on something or when they close their eyes and relax brain activity slows and becomes more regular Beta waves the EEG shows sensory activity as short, frequent, irregular brain signals K-complexes large waves, some researchers believe that these bursts are signals from brain mechanisms involved with shutting out the external world and keeping people asleep Delta waves large, regular brain patterns, very hard to wake ppl up and they are disoriented Slow-wave sleep delta waves,ery hard to wake ppl up and they are disoriented Rapid eye movements REM sleep, eyes dart back and forth rapidly beneath closed eyelids Paradoxical sleep sleeping body with active brain Pseudoinsomnia ppl dream they rant sleeping, EEG will indicate sleep but if you rouse them they would have claimed to be awake REM behavior disorder opposite of narcolepsy, the normal paralysis that accompanies REM sleep is disabled, sufferers act out dreams while sleeping, often striking their partners. mostly seen in elderly males, no cure Somnambulism sleepwalking, relatively common behavior occurs during slow wave sleep typically within 1st 2 hours of falling asleep. Unihemispherical sleep cerebral hemispheres take turns sleeping Restorative theory sleeping allows the body and brain to rest and repair itself Microsleeps in which they fall asleep during the day for periods ranging from a few secs to a min Circadian rhythm theory proposes that sleep has evolved to keep animals quiet and inactive during times of the day when there is greatest danger, usually when its dark The manifest content the dream they way the dreamer remembers it Latent content hidden meaning go your dreams Posthypnotic suggestion the hypnotist suggests that the listener will experience change in memory, perception, or voluntary action. accompanied by the instruction to not remember the suggestion Sociocognitive theory of hypnosis hypnotized people behave as they expect hypnotized people to behave, even if those expectations are faulty Neodissociation theory of hypnosis acknowledges the importance of social context to hypnosis but views the hypnotic state as an altered state Hypnotic analgesia a form of pain reduction Concentrative meditation you focus your attention on one thing such as your breathing pattern, a mental image or specific phrase Mantra breathing pattern, mental image, or specific phrase Mindfulness meditation you let your thoughts flow freely, paying attention to them but trying not to react to them Zen/yoga most forms of meditation popular in the west are meant to expand the mind, bring about feelings of inner peace, and help people deal with the tensions and stresses in their lives ... ... Transcendental meditation (TM) involves meditating with great concentration for 20min twice a day. benefits include lower blood pressure, fewer reports of stress, and changes in the hormonal responses underlying stress Runner's high one min they're in pain and feeling fatigued and the next they are euphoric and feeling a glorious release of energy Religious ecstasy religious ceremonies often decrease awareness of the external world and create feelings go euphoria Flow particular kind of experience that is so engrossing and enjoyable that it is worth doing for the its own sake even though it may have no consequences outside itself Psychoactive drugs mind-altering substances that people typically take for recreational purposes. change brains neurochemistry by activating neurotransmitter system either by imitating the brain's natural neurotransmitters Stimulants drugs that increase behavioral and mental activity. heighten central nervous system also activate sympathetic nervous system Depressants reduce behavioral and mental activity by depressing the central nervous system, alcohol, anti-anxiety drugs Opiates herion, morphine, and codeine. relieve pain Hallucinogens produce alterations in cognition, mood, and perception Lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD) made from a chemical found in certain. types of fungus called ergot, lasts 12 hrs. changes sensory experiences and can produce extreme hallucinations good and bad Psilocybin mushrooms produces hallucinogenic effects, have been used in various religious rites Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) produces a relaxed mental state , an uplift or contented mood, and some perceptual and cognitive distortions Cannabinoid receptors appears to adjust mental activity and perhaps alter pain perception, large concentration in the hippocampus may partly explain why marijuana impairs memory Tolerance a person needs to consume more of a particular substance to achieve the same effects Withdrawal a physiological and psychological state characterized by feelings of anxiety, tension, and craving for the addictive substance theta waves stage 1 light sleep, if woken up will deny you were sleeping

A researcher diffuses a few drops of perfume in a house and asks Clara if she can smell it, to which Clara says yes. According to signal detection theory, Clara's response is _______. hit correct rejection miss false alarm

hit

Karolina can see only a part of a stack of books because a box is partially obstructing the view. Karolina, therefore, knows the box is in front of the stack of books. This cue to depth is known as _______. texture gradient interposition linear perspective convergence

interposition

Erik Erikson defined ______________ as the ability to fuse one's identity with another's without the fear of losing it. pruning rewiring intimacy object permanence

intimacy

Four-year-old Edana thinks it is raining because the clouds are sad and crying. According to Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development, Edana is demonstrating ____________ in this scenario. matter conservation animistic thinking egocentrism social referencing

animistic thinking

In an experiment conducted by Gjerde & Cardilla in 2009, children were assessed at age 3 and 4 on the dimension of openness to new experiences. Then the same children were assessed again at ages 18 and 23. The study indicated that the open and imaginative young girls tended to become _____________ young women. self-assured and flexible highly career oriented anxious and self-doubting emotionally sterile and calculating

anxious and self-doubting

Josephine is in the garden picking out flowers of different hues to decorate her living room. She can distinguish between colors primarily due to the functioning of her eyes' _______. lens iris rods cones

cones

When one multi-tasks, there is: A. less sustained attention. B. more sustained attention. C. less selective attention. D. less inattentional blindness.

A. less sustained attention.

Altered visual perceptions such as seeing the tracks that your hand makes when you move it through the air usually happens when one ingests:

lysergic acid diethylamide-25

Which of the following can be classified as an opioid?

morphine

With learning and experience certain synaptic connections become stronger, whereas those that do not receive stimulation from the environment die off. This process is known as ___________. cognitive programming pruning rewiring enriching

pruning

Luli, who is in a rock band, can distinguish the sound of the guitar from the sound of the bass even though they are both playing the same note—a low E. She has no trouble telling them apart because they give off wavelengths of different _______. frequencies amplitudes pitches purities

purities

An EEG test taken during Stage 1 of sleep that one enters after feeling relaxed will reveal the brain waves change from ________ to ________ waves. A. alpha; theta B. theta; alpha C. beta; theta D. theta; beta

A. alpha; theta

A flawed belief that physicians had about anyone who was vegetative was that the individual: A. does not react to stimuli from the environment. B. shows signs of motoric response. C. reacts to external forces. D. shows signs of awareness without wakefulness.

A. does not react to stimuli from the environment.

Meditation: A. can disrupt concentration. B. stabilizes attention. C. makes the mind hyper. D. cannot bring one's attention back to something.

B. stabilizes attention.

Tatiana is in an unresponsive condition though she can open her eyes. This suggests that she is in a(n) ________ state. A. comatose B. vegetative C. drowsy D. unconscious

B. vegetative

Variation in consciousness can be attributed to the difference in degrees of: A. cognition and memory. B. wakefulness and awareness. C. ignorance and wakefulness. D. awareness and cognition.

B. wakefulness and awareness.

Which of the following refers to the pattern followed by sleep? A. Ultradian rhythm B. Nocturnal rhythm C. Infradian rhythm D. Circadian rhythm

C. Infradian rhythm

Arjun is in a condition wherein he is fully awake, but not aware. This is most likely because he is: A. in a coma. B. driving. C. extremely drunk. D. sedated.

C. extremely drunk.

Newborns of many species, especially humans, spend more time in ________ sleep. A. non-REM B. REM C. slow-wave D. deep

B. REM

If the doctors give Terry a score of 14 on the coma test, what does it imply? A. She cannot recover from her condition. B. She can respond verbally and motorically. C. She can respond only motorically. D. She can respond neither verbally nor motorically.

B. She can respond verbally and motorically.

John is a heavy binge drinker who has trouble with planning, working memory, and abstract thinking. Scanning of John's brain would reveal that he has a damaged: A. parietal lobe. B. frontal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. temporal lobe.

B. frontal lobe.

Which of the following is true about brain waves? A. Beta waves are higher in energy than alpha waves. B. Alpha waves are slower and lower in energy than theta waves. C. Theta waves are slower and lower in energy than alpha waves. D. Alpha waves are more rapid than beta waves.

C. Theta waves are slower and lower in energy than alpha waves.

While sleeping, a person's awareness: A. is consistent. B. is heightened. C. is greatly diminished. D. disappears.

C. is greatly diminished.

Which of the following is true about people who sleepwalk? A. People who sleepwalk do not engage in activities that normally occur during wakefulness. B. People who sleepwalk are easy to rouse. C. People who sleepwalk are likely to be acting out a dream. D. People who sleepwalk do not remember having been up.

D. People who sleepwalk do not remember having been up.

Which of the following terms refers to synthetically produced compounds that produce long-lasting excitation of the sympathetic nervous system that keeps one motivated and elevates mood? A. Opioids B. Caffeine C. Nicotine D. Amphetamines

D. Amphetamines

Which of the following is true of REM? A. It is characterized by delta waves on ECG. B. It is a sound and dreamless sleep. C. It is characterized by total lack of muscular activity. D. It is characterized by active dreaming.

D. It is characterized by active dreaming.

______ is a synthesized form of the derivative of the grain fungus ergot. A. Ecstasy B. Cocaine C. Marijuana D. LSD

D. LSD

When an individual engages in synchronization, she or he: A. hallucinates. B. has a subconscious experience. C. becomes unconscious. D. has a conscious experience.

D. has a conscious experience.

Which among the following is the clearest marker of reaching adulthood? Animistic thinking Having a child Symbolic thinking Graduating

Having a child

A ________ is not reporting a stimulus that is not present. miss false alarm correct rejection hit

correct rejection

Knowledge that one has gained from experience and learning, education, and practice, is called ______________ intelligence. amorphous crystallized alternative fluid

crystallized

Between 8 and 12 weeks into development, ____________. the heartbeat of the fetus can be detected with a stethoscope the vision of the fetus is fully developed the neurons connecting the ear to the brain of the fetus are completely developed the taste buds of a fetus are completely developed

d

Piaget and Inhelder (1967) designed the 'three mountains task' to measure young children's ______________. individuation object permanence egocentrism animistic thinking

egocentrism

________ ensures that we notice changes in stimulation more than stimulation itself. Perception Sensory adaptation Convergence Accommodation

Sensory adaptation

The Cognitive-Biological theory of dreams combines the Cognitive theory and the AIM theory. True False

T

The degree to which a person can monitor information from the environment and one's own thoughts is "awareness." True False

T

Tobacco is used throughout the world. True False

T

Wakefulness is the degree to which a person is awake or asleep. True False

T

When we sleep and dream, we are considered to be "moderately conscious." True False

T

The lowest intensity levels of a stimuli a person can detect half of the time is known as _______. just noticeable difference absolute threshold sensor resolution amplitude

absolute threshold

The process by which the muscles control the shape of the lens to adjust to viewing objects at different distances is known as _______. polarization convergence accommodation diffraction

accommodation

Christopher is looking at a lighted sign on which a rapid succession of a row of lit bulbs appears as a "moving" arrow pointing toward a store. This visual effect is called _______. depth perception apparent motion moon illusion optical movement

apparent motion

HW 5

What is the distinction between classical conditioning and operant conditioning? Classical conditioning involves learning based on associations, and operant conditioning involves learning based on consequences. In Pavlov's classic experiment, he presented the sound of a bell along with meat powder to his dogs. After several trials, the dogs learned to salivate to the sound of the bell in the absence of the meat powder. In this study, the sound of the bell acted as a conditioned stimulus (CS). By pairing a flashing light with a loud noise, a researcher has taught a rat to exhibit a fear response to the light. In this study, the rat's conditioned response (CR) is the fear response. Thorndike's law of effect states that the consequences of a behavior will affect the likelihood of that behavior's being repeated. Which of the following best describes how operant conditioning works? Organisms learn from the consequences of their behavior. What is the distinction between negative reinforcement and punishment? Negative reinforcement seeks to increase the frequency of a behavior, and punishment seeks to decrease the frequency of a behavior. Which of these techniques would work best to change a behavior? Orin's parents bought him a new toy truck for being nicer to his little sister. Which of the following scenarios best depicts variable-ratio reinforcement? Dexter continues to put money into slot machines because he never knows how many pulls of the arm it will take to win the jackpot. Bandura's famous studies incorporating a Bobo doll were powerful in that they demonstrated which of the following? Children can learn aggression through exposure to aggressive adult models. The phrase "use it or lose it" is particularly relevant to neural processes in that synaptic connections will lose strength if they are not used regularly, and we may forget information. Ted wants to teach his dog, Bailey, to "wave goodbye." He begins to reward Bailey every time he lifts his paw in the air. Then, Ted rewards Bailey any time he lifts his paw and moves it even slightly. Finally, he rewards him only when he makes a full waving motion. Which of the following techniques is Ted using with Bailey? shaping _______________ is the process of observing and imitating behaviors performed by others. Modeling Which of the following are all external rewards for behavior? candy, money, praise "Reinforcement matters not only for the person carrying out the behavior but also for those who watch." This statement is most closely linked to the theory of social learning. Imprinting is the rapid and innate learning of the characteristics of a caregiver within a very short period of time after birth. Which theorist proposed the concept of latent learning? Edward Tolman Konrad Lorenz studied imprinting extensively in birds. Which of the following statements about mirror neurons is false? Mirror neurons are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex. Behavior modification techniques have been particularly effective in getting people to quit smoking. There are several possible means by which ______ facilitates learning, but one of the main mechanisms involved is the spontaneous replay and consolidation of daily events. sleep Julie works at a factory that produces toy clowns. As the toy clowns come down the assembly line it is Julie's job to add a red nose to each clown as the last step in completing each toy. For every 100 clowns Kelly completes, she receives $10.00, which is a(n) positive reinforcement. To increase productivity, the clown factory decides to have a contest. The person who completes the most clowns on Monday does not have to come to work on Tuesday. The factory is using __________ as a motivator. negative reinforcement The clown factory's bosses do not like laziness. If a worker completes fewer than 20 toys during the morning hours, they do not get to take a lunch break. This behavioral tactic is an example of ___________. negative punishment The clown factory's bosses also do not like mistakes. If a worker forgets to put a nose on a clown, the bosses publicly scold the worker. This behavioral tactic is an example of __________. positive punishment As you can see from the examples above, the clown factory's bosses use _________ to increase behaviors they like and ________ to decrease behaviors they do not like. reinforcement; punishment Behavior that is rewarded some but not all of the time is on a __________ schedule of reinforcement. intermittent The ____________ schedule of reinforcement reinforces behavior only after a specific number of responses are made. fixed ratio Edwin Employer pays his workers at 5:00 p.m. every Friday. Edwin is using which schedule of reinforcement to reward his employees? Fixed interval The reinforcement schedule that typically yields the highest response rate is the ___________ schedule of reinforcement. variable ratio Professor McMann loves to give pop quizzes in his psychology class. Students are always studying for this class because they never know when Professor McMann will give the next quiz. Sometimes he gives a pop quiz every other class session. Sometimes he gives a pop quiz every third session, and sometimes he even gives a pop quiz every class session. Professor McMann is using which schedule of reinforcement to keep his students studying? Variable interval What is a neutral stimulus? a stimulus that doesn't cause a response unless it is associated with a UCS A child sees her lunch box and then feels hunger pangs. In this example, the hunger pangs are a(n) CR. How does food in the mouth cause a dog to salivate? by stimulating a reflexive response How is the neutral stimulus related to the CS? The neutral stimulus becomes the CS once conditioning has occurred. Alika is allergic to grass. Whenever he would sit on the grass, his skin would break out in hives that made him feel very itchy. Now, if you just say the word "grass" to him, he starts to feel itchy. In this example, grass is a(n) CS. A cold wind blowing in my face makes me shiver. In this example, shivering is a(n) UCR Which of the following is an example of operant conditioning? -getting an allowance after completing chores -getting spanked for running in the street -getting relief from pain after taking an aspirin Positive reinforcement ____________ and negative reinforcement ________________. strengthens behavior by adding a stimulus; strengthens behavior by removing a stimulus Which of the following is an example of positive punishment? getting spanked for running in the street John lost his wallet. He hopes it is somewhere in his bedroom. He has searched for it but the room is so messy he hasn't found it and can't be sure it is there. If John stops leaving his room in a mess in the future, then losing his wallet has functioned as a negative punishment. Molly lives in the desert but wants to be a surfer. Her father promised her that if she gets straight A's on her next report card, the family will vacation on the coast and she can learn to surf. If Molly gets straight A's on her next report card, then the surfing vacation has functioned as positive reinforcement. Larry is a chain smoker who just flew 10 hours straight from Honolulu to Sydney, Australia. When he gets off the plane, he lights up as soon as he finds a smoking area so his terrible cravings will disappear. In this example, smoking is a negative reinforcement.

When do people respond easily to hypnosis?

When they are relaxed

ch 5

Which of the following statements is true about identical twins? A. Twins are identical mainly due to dizygotic fertilization. B. In the womb, up to 5% of identical twins develop their own placenta. C. Identical twins develop from one fertilized egg. D. Identical twins turn out to be vastly different from each other in their personalities, intelligence, illness, and disease histories. C. Identical twins develop from one fertilized egg. The _____________ is the first major organ to form in a developing fetus. A. heart B. brain C. liver D. kidney B. brain During the development of a fetus, the ___________ develops about a week after the brain. A. skull B. liver C. intestine D. heart D. heart The ____________ stage of development begins at conception and lasts for two weeks. A. embryonic B. fetal C. germinal D. cephalocaudal C. germinal When a sperm fertilizes an egg, the resulting single cell is known as a(n) _________. A. zygote B. fetus C. blastocyst D. embryo A. zygote Which of the following occurs by day seven after conception? A. The sex of the embryo is determined and appropriate genitalia develop. B. Major organs like the heart, kidneys, and the brain begin to develop. C. The sperm attaches itself to the female and egg and forms a zygote. D. The blastocyst travels down the fallopian tube and attaches to the uterine wall. D. The blastocyst travels down the fallopian tube and attaches to the uterine wall. Which of the following is the correct order of prenatal development—from the earliest stage to the latest stage? A. Zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage B. Embryonic stage, germinal stage, fetal stage, zygote C. Germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage, zygote D. Fetal stage, zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage A. Zygote, germinal stage, embryonic stage, fetal stage The formation of the brain, spinal cord, heart, ears, eyes, and palate takes place in the ___________ stage of development. A. cephalocaudal B. fetal C. embryonic D. germinal C. embryonic The ___________ takes the longest amount of time to develop. A. heart B. intestine C. liver D. central nervous system D. central nervous system The second stage of prenatal development begins at about two weeks after conception. At this point, the growing bundle of cells is called a(n) __________. A. blastocyst B. embryo C. fetus D. zygote B. embryo The key event that distinguishes the embryonic stage from the third stage, the fetal stage, is the formation of the ___________. A. bone cells B. zygote C. brain D. blastocyst A. bone cells Bevin and Essien's obstetrician tells them that their baby has entered the fetal stage. The key event that distinguishes this stage from the embryonic stage is the development of ___________ in their baby. A. brain B. bone cells C. limbs D. external genitalia B. bone cells Karen has been using her stethoscope for many days to listen to her fetus' heartbeat. Today, for the first time, she detected her fetus' heart beat. Karen must be at least _____________ weeks pregnant. A. two B. five C. six D. eight D. eight Find the correct statement about the embryonic stage: A. It begins immediately after the zygote divides. B. It begins when the fertilized egg is a single-celled zygote. C. It starts at the moment of implantation. D. It is marked by the formation of the major organs. D. It is marked by the formation of the major organs. In which of the following stages of prenatal development does the formation of arms and legs occur? A. Germinal stage B. Embryonic stage C. Fetal stage D. Blastocyst stage B. Embryonic stage The ______________ stage of prenatal development begins 8 weeks after conception. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. blastocyst C. fetal Between 8 and 12 weeks into development, ____________. A. the heartbeat of the fetus can be detected with a stethoscope B. the vision of the fetus is fully developed C. the neurons connecting the ear to the brain of the fetus are completely developed D. the taste buds of a fetus are completely developed A. the heartbeat of the fetus can be detected with a stethoscope A baby begins to move its limbs in the ____________ stage of development. A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. blastocyst C. fetal Becky, who is pregnant, will most likely feel the fetus moving for the first time at about ____________ after conception. A. one to two months B. two to three months C. four to six months D. seven to eight months C. four to six months Tevy and Gellert are convinced that their baby will be able to recognize their voices and familiar songs at birth if they begin singing and talking to their baby before it is born. At which stage of prenatal development should Tevy and Gellert expect their baby to be able to respond to these sounds? A. Blastocyst stage B. Embryonic stage C. Fetal stage D. Zygote stage C. Fetal stage A fetus begins to respond to sound around _____________ weeks after conception. A. 8 B. 12 C. 18 D. 26 D. 26 By 13 to 15 weeks after conception, ___________. A. the head of the fetus has grown to 70% of its adult weight B. the vision of the fetus is fully developed C. the neurons connecting the ear to the brain are complete D. the taste buds of a fetus look very much like an adult's D. the taste buds of a fetus look very much like an adult's Which of the following fetal reactions indicates attention, interest, or orienting response on the part of the fetus? A. Increased rate of neuron development B. Slowed heart rate C. Turning over of the fetus D. Greater frequency of kicking B. Slowed heart rate Which of the following reactions displayed by a fetus indicates fear or distress? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Increased rate of pruning C. Increased heart rate D. Increased rate of neuron development C. Increased heart rate Babies born prematurely—who would otherwise still be developing in the womb—prefer ______________ flavors to other flavors. A. sweet B. salty C. sour D. bitter A. sweet The sense that is least well developed in the fetus is ___________. A. taste B. vision C. hearing D. touch B. vision Which of the following statements is true regarding fetal vision? A. Vision gets fully developed during the germinal stage. B. By 13 to 15 weeks after conception, the vision of the fetus is very much like that of an adult. C. At birth, infants are far-sighted. D. Fetuses do not open their eyes when in the womb. D. Fetuses do not open their eyes when in the womb. Infants cannot see as well as adults until they are at least ___________ months old. A. two B. four C. six D. eight C. six teratogen is: A. a brain region responsible for the ability to speak. B. any substance that disrupts normal prenatal development. C. a weak brain synapse that disappears at around age six. D. a vital nutrient that helps a fetus develop properly. B. any substance that disrupts normal prenatal development. Which of the following is true about pregnancy sickness? A. The body has its own built-in toxin detector called pregnancy sickness. B. Pregnancy sickness is worst during the second trimester of pregnancy. C. Foods such as cheese and mushrooms help reduce pregnancy sickness. D. Pregnancy sickness is also known as "evening sickness." A. The body has its own built-in toxin detector called pregnancy sickness. ____________ can be defined as the process by which events in the womb alter the development of physical and psychological health. A. Prenatal programming B. Neuron migration C. Pruning D. Generativity A. Prenatal programming Pregnancy sickness occurs most commonly with exposure to foods susceptible to molds and to ____________ substances. A. sweet B. spicy C. salty D. bitter D. bitter Epigenetics is the study of how ____________. A. a genetic disorder is passed on to sons but not to daughters B. an individual gets affected by a recessive disorder C. a dominant gene becomes resistant to change D. the environment affects gene expression D. the environment affects gene expression If a mother contracts an infection, such as flu, at four to six months of pregnancy, this can increase the chance that the child will develop _____________ later in life. A. schizophrenia B. Huntington's disease C. anorexia nervosa D. anemia A. schizophrenia Which of the following is true regarding alcohol consumption of the mother during pregnancy? A. 1 to 2 drinks per day is known as a safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. B. A maximum of 4 drinks per month is known as a safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. C. 1 drink on an occasional basis is known as a safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. D. There is no known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. D. There is no known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Which of the following is most likely to cause mental retardation, low birth weight, and behavioral problems to a developing baby? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Diarrhea C. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) D. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) C. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of stillbirth? A. Prescription drugs taken during pregnancy B. Nicotine exposure from maternal smoking C. Lack of vitamin B12 and folic acid in the mother's diet D. Developing an infection during pregnancy B. Nicotine exposure from maternal smoking Mothers who _______________ are more likely to have infants who are temperamentally "difficult" and "fussy." A. are depressed or anxious B. develop infections such as the flu towards the end of their pregnancy C. consume less than the required amount of folic acid D. develop gestational diabetes A. are depressed or anxious A pediatrician is assessing nine-month-old Chiara's motor development, which involves observing changes in Chiara's _____________. A. physical movement and body control B. emotional relationships with her parents and siblings C. peer relationships and status D. ability to see clearly and to recognize numbers A. physical movement and body control By ____________ months, many babies can sit by themselves, without any help. A. two B. three C. four D. six D. six Which of the following senses develops to a greater extent after birth as compared to the fetal stage? A. Vision B. Hearing C. Taste D. Smell A. Vision Which of the following senses is almost fully developed at birth? A. Vision B. Hearing C. Touch D. Smell B. Hearing By age ____________, a child's vision becomes similar to an adult's. A. 1 or 2 B. 3 or 4 C. 5 or 6 D. 8 or 9 B. 3 or 4 Gibson and Walk's classic visual cliff experiment on infants was designed to assess infants' ____________. A. brain-to-eye size ratio B. ability to recognize faces C. ability to detect colors D. depth perception D. depth perception With learning and experience certain synaptic connections become stronger, whereas those that do not receive stimulation from the environment die off. This process is known as ___________. A. cognitive programming B. pruning C. rewiring D. enriching B. pruning Which of the following is true of human brain development? A. It is complete during the embryonic stage. B. It is complete during the fetal stage. C. It is complete at birth. D. It continues after birth. D. It continues after birth. Which of the following statements is true about pruning? A. Problems with neural pruning may result in neurological disorders, such as autism or schizophrenia. B. Pruning is usually independent of the quality of the environment in which the brain develops. C. Neural pruning results in the huge increase in the number of neurons and stimulates the unused neurons. D. Normal and enriched environments create less developed neural connections. A. Problems with neural pruning may result in neurological disorders, such as autism or schizophrenia. Gray matter is a measure of the number of ___________. A. axons B. myelins C. neurons D. lobes C. neurons Which of the following statements is true regarding gray matter? A. Increase in gray matter volume suggest pruning. B. Gray matter starts to decline in adolescence. C. Gray matter continues to grow into one's 40s. D. Gray matter consists of axons and myelin. B. Gray matter starts to decline in adolescence. Which of the following statements is true regarding white matter? A. White matter is made up of the axons and myelin. B. White matter starts to decline in adolescence. C. Development of white matter is completed in the embryonic stage. D. White matter is a measure of the number of neurons. A. White matter is made up of the axons and myelin. Young brains are more flexible because they have less __________. A. gray matter B. number of neurons C. number of axons D. myelin D. myelin Which of the following terms refers to the fatty insulation that makes nerve impulses travel faster? A. Plasmalogen B. Cephalin C. Myelin sheath D. Choline C. Myelin sheath As compared to nonmusicians, musicians have _________. A. larger cerebellums B. fewer neurons C. thinner corpus callosum D. more white matter A. larger cerebellums As compared to musicians, nonmusicians have ___________. A. larger cerebellums B. more neurons C. thinner corpus callosum D. fewer synapses C. thinner corpus callosum Which of the following is true of the effects of musical training? A. It reduces neural activity in the hippocampus. B. Neuroplastic effects of musical training last well into adulthood. C. The earlier the musical training begins, the lesser is the degree of activation of the left-auditory cortex. D. It has always caused brain growth. B. Neuroplastic effects of musical training last well into adulthood. Jean Piaget pioneered theories in ____________ development. A. emotional B. cognitive C. language D. moral B. cognitive Hey this is who I'm studying for the PLT! Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of Piaget's principles of cognitive development, from earliest to latest? A. Preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational B. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational C. Preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor D. Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational B. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational Eniko is currently 8 months old. According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, she is in the ______ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational A. sensorimotor According to Piaget, mastering object permanence is the hallmark of the ___________ stage of cognitive development. A. concrete operational B. formal operational C. sensorimotor D. preoperational C. sensorimotor When a child recognizes that objects continue to exist, even when they are no longer in sight, they have mastered the concept that Piaget referred to as: A. object permanence. B. object conservation. C. pruning. D. reversibility. A. object permanence. In which stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development does object permanence develop? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Formal operational A. Sensorimotor During playtime, Jamal's mother hid his toy under a blanket. Jamal, who is 9 months old, reacted to this by looking for his toy under the blanket. According to Piaget, Jack has developed ___________. A. seriation B. transduction C. object permanence D. hypothetico-deductive reasoning C. object permanence Which of the following is true of Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development? A. Object permanence begins to develop during this stage. B. Lack of conservation is one of the features of this stage. C. Children gain the ability to reason about abstract concepts and problems during this stage. D. This stage is marked by the development of the ability to reflect upon one's thinking. B. Lack of conservation is one of the features of this stage. According to Piaget, animistic thinking is a characteristic of the ___________ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. concrete operational D. preoperational D. preoperational According to Piaget, children move into the ____________ stage of cognitive development at around age 2 and this period lasts until about age 5 or 6. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operational D. formal operational B. preoperational Entrance into Piaget's preoperational stage of development is marked by ____________. A. emergence of symbolic thought B. development of abstract reasoning C. an understanding of conservation D. the ability to reason scientifically A. emergence of symbolic thought According to Piaget, egocentrism is a characteristic of the _____________ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. concrete operational D. preoperational D. preoperational With reference to the stages of cognitive development introduced by Piaget, which of the following statements is true regarding the preoperational stage? A. During this stage children develop scientific reasoning and hypothesis-testing skills. B. This stage is characterized my mastering object permanence. C. Typically, children between the ages of 6 months to 1 year are in this stage. D. During this stage children cannot recognize that amounts stay the same when shapes change. D. During this stage children cannot recognize that amounts stay the same when shapes change. Piaget and Inhelder (1967) designed the 'three mountains task' to measure young children's ______________. A. individuation B. object permanence C. egocentrism D. animistic thinking C. egocentrism When asked where the sun goes at night, 4-year-old Kiet explains to his dad that it goes to sleep. Later that day, Kiet gets upset because he believes his sister's glass contains more juice than his glass. Both glasses actually contain the same amount of juice, but Kiet is confused because of the tall and thin shape of his sister's glass. From these instances, we can say that Kiet is in the ____________ stage of Piaget's cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. preoperational C. concrete operations D. formal operations B. preoperational Four-year-old Edana thinks it is raining because the clouds are sad and crying. According to Jean Piaget's stages of cognitive development, Edana is demonstrating ____________ in this scenario. A. matter conservation B. animistic thinking C. egocentrism D. social referencing B. animistic thinking Which of the following is an example of animistic thinking? A. A child believes that a tree is smiling and waving its limbs. B. A child is unable to distinguish between the names of two animals. C. A child cannot recognize that quantities remain the same even when shapes change. D. A child realizes that objects still exist even when they are not being sensed. A. A child believes that a tree is smiling and waving its limbs. _____________ is the tendency to view the world from one's own perspective and not see things from another person's perspective. A. Egocentrism B. Object permanence C. Animistic thinking D. Pruning A. Egocentrism ____________ is the ability to recognize that when some properties (such as shape) of an object change, other properties (such as mass) remain constant. A. Egocentrism B. Object permanence C. Animistic thinking D. Conservation D. Conservation Three-year-old Devesh gets upset because he believes his sister's glass has more juice than his glass does. Both of them have the same amounts of juice but Devesh is confused because of the difference in the shape of their juice glasses. According to Piaget, this would be an example of Devesh's: A. egocentrism. B. animistic thinking. C. lack of conservation. D. lack of understanding of object permanence. C. lack of conservation. According to the Piaget's theory of cognitive development, children between the age of 6 to 11 are in the ______________ stage. A. preoperational B. formal operational C. concrete operational D. sensorimotor C. concrete operational During Piaget's third stage of cognitive development, called the concrete operational stage (ages 6-11), children ____________. A. gain the ability to systematically solve problems without resorting to trial and error B. gain the ability to reason about abstract concepts and problems C. develop the ability to perform mental operations on real, or concrete, objects and events D. develop the ability to realize that objects still exist when they are not being sensed C. develop the ability to perform mental operations on real, or concrete, objects and events According to Piaget, children acquire the ability to conserve during the ___________ stage of cognitive development. A. sensorimotor B. concrete operational C. preoperational D. formal operational B. concrete operational According to Piaget, in the ______________ stage of cognitive development, logic is limited to what a child can directly observe. A. sensorimotor B. formal operational C. preoperational D. concrete operational D. concrete operational Which of the following statements is true regarding the concrete operational stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development? A. Typically, children between ages 2 and 4 are in this stage. B. During this stage, logic remains concrete and limited to objects that a child directly observes. C. According to Piaget, this is the last stage of cognitive development. D. During this stage, children learn the concept of object permanence. B. During this stage, logic remains concrete and limited to objects that a child directly observes. Which of the following statements is true regarding the formal operational stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development? A. During this stage formal logic becomes possible. B. This is the second stage of cognitive development. C. Typically, children between the ages of 2 to 4 years are in this stage. D. During this stage children learn the concept of object permanence. A. During this stage formal logic becomes possible. In which stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development does abstract and scientific reasoning develop? A. Formal operational B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Sensorimotor A. Formal operational Twelve-year-old Allen argues that, "If Shamus is a man, and all men are mortal, then Shamus is mortal." Based on the information given in this statement, which of the following is most likely to be true about Allen? A. Allen is in the concrete operational stage of development of Piaget's theory of cognitive development. B. In this stage, Allen's logic remains concrete and limited to objects that he directly observes. C. Allen is in the formal operational stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development. D. Allen can perform mental operations—on real, or concrete, objects and events—but still has trouble with abstract ideas and reasoning. C. Allen is in the formal operational stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development. The term ______________ refers to our knowledge and ideas of how other people's minds work. A. cognitive programming B. pruning C. theory of mind D. animistic thinking C. theory of mind Psychologists created the false-belief task to determine when children develop ___________. A. egocentrism B. animistic thinking C. object permanence D. theory of mind D. theory of mind Quinn, who is in pre-school, was the only child to see the teacher take crackers out of the cracker box and fill the box with potato chips instead. When asked what the other children will expect to find in the cracker box, Quinn says "potato chips." This response is evidence that Quinn lacks: A. object permanence. B. conservation. C. theory of mind. D. egocentrism. C. theory of mind. Kohlberg (1981) developed the "Heinz Dilemma" to assess ___________. A. the development of moral reasoning in children B. the physical development of children less than 5 years of age C. the cognitive ability of children D. the development of linguistic ability in children A. the development of moral reasoning in children According to the theory of moral reasoning developed by Kohlberg, ____________ level is the least developed level of moral reasoning. A. concrete operational B. preconventional C. formal operational D. postconventional B. preconventional Johnny says he will not drive above the speed limit simply because he does not want to pay the cost of a speeding ticket. Based on this information, it can be concluded that Johnny is operating at the _____________ stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning. A. sensorimotor B. preconventional C. concrete operational D. preoperational B. preconventional According to Kohlberg, how would a child whose thought is at the conventional level of moral reasoning respond to the Heinz dilemma? A. "Heinz should steal the drug! Who cares?" B. "Heinz should not steal the drug because he will be caught and sent to jail." C. "Heinz should steal the drug and not worry about punishment because it is the right thing to do." D. "Heinz should not steal the drug, because stealing is wrong." D. "Heinz should not steal the drug, because stealing is wrong." When Cathy was asked to respond to the Heinz dilemma developed by Kohlberg, she said, "Although it is legally wrong, Heinz should steal the drug to save his wife's life. But he also has to be willing to suffer the consequences and go to jail if need be." According to the theory of moral reasoning developed by Kohlberg, Cathy is at the _______________ stage of moral development. A. postconventional B. preconventional C. concrete operational D. preoperational A. postconventional According to Kohlberg, a person who is at the ______________ level of moral development acknowledges both the norm and the law, but argues that there are universal moral rules that may trump unjust or immoral local rules. A. concrete operational B. preconventional C. functional operational D. postconventional D. postconventional According to Kohlberg, postconventional moral reasoning is based on: A. avoidance of punishments. B. the social consequences of an action. C. universal moral principles. D. individual moral temperaments C. universal moral principles. Which of the following is the level of moral reasoning which, as proposed by Kohlberg, appears to be limited to Western cultures? A. Functional operational level B. Postconventional level C. Preoperational level D. Conventional level B. Postconventional level According to the model of temperament developed by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, the ________________ child is predictable in daily functions, is happy most of the time, and is adaptable. A. difficult B. conventional C. slow-to-warm-up D. easy D. easy According to the model of temperament developed by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, which of the following statements is true regarding the difficult child? A. The difficult child is slow to adapt to new situations. B. The difficult child is happy most of the time. C. The difficult child is predictable in daily functions D. The difficult child is mildly irregular in the daily patterns of eating, sleeping, and eliminating. A. The difficult child is slow to adapt to new situations. According to the model of temperament developed by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, the _____________ child is mildly intense in his or her reactions to new situations and mildly irregular in the daily patterns of eating, sleeping, and eliminating. A. difficult B. conventional C. slow-to-warm-up D. easy C. slow-to-warm-up Some animals, especially birds, follow and imitate the first large creature they see immediately after birth. This behavior is called ____________. A. pruning B. imprinting C. animistic thinking D. egocentrism B. imprinting In human development, ______________ refers to the strong emotional connection that develops early in life to keep infants close to their caregivers. A. cognition B. imprinting C. attachment D. sublimation C. attachment Nine-month-old Terrell is screaming and crying because his mother has dropped him off at the day care. He displays this distress each time she leaves him. Terrell is likely experiencing _____. A. preoperational thinking B. secure attachment C. object permanence D. separation anxiety C. object permanence Mary Ainsworth studied infant attachment with a procedure known as the ____________. A. prison study B. obedience experiment C. strange situation D. line judgment task C. strange situation According to the strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth, ______________ infants often show little to no distress in separation episodes, and when the mother returns, the infants tend to ignore and avoid her, focusing instead on something else in the room. A. insecure-resistant B. insecure-avoidant C. insecure-disoriented D. insecure-disorganized B. insecure-avoidant With reference to the strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth, ________________ infants cannot be comforted by the mother on reunion and show difficulty in returning to play. A. insecure-resistant B. insecure-avoidant C. insecure-disorganized D. insecure-disoriented A. insecure-resistant With reference to the strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth, ______________ infants show odd, conflicted behaviors in the strange situation. A. insecure-resistant B. insecure-avoidant C. insecure-disoriented D. insecure-attached C. insecure-disoriented With reference to the strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth, the _____________ classification is considered the most insecure because the infant's fear of their attachment figure inhibits the development of a strategy for effective regulation of stress. A. insecure-attached B. insecure-avoidant C. insecure-resistant D. insecure-disorganized D. insecure-disorganized Harry Harlow said that _____________ is as essential a function of nursing in humans as is nutrition. A. contact B. protection C. attention D. training A. contact Tiffany Field and her colleagues (1986) conducted an experiment to determine whether regular touch might help tiny premature infants. During the experiment she found that the babies who received touch therapy _____________ than those who did not. A. cried less B. gained significantly more weight C. slept significantly more D. fell ill more frequently B. gained significantly more weight _______________ is a movement disorder caused by brain damage at birth. A. Schizophrenia B. Bipolar disorder C. Cerebral palsy D. Osteoporosis C. Cerebral palsy By the age of ______________, babies can discriminate between fearful and happy faces. A. 2 years B. 3 months C. 1 year D. 7 months D. 7 months Nine-year-old Jen has learnt to control her tears when she is in a social gathering. She also knows when it is appropriate to smile in public. Based on this information, it can be said that Jen has _____________. A. developed social referencing B. achieved object permanence C. developed emotional competence D. mastered animistic thinking C. developed emotional competence Children begin to interact socially during play at about age ____________. A. two B. three C. four D. five B. three In an experiment conducted by Gjerde & Cardilla in 2009, children were assessed at age 3 and 4 on the dimension of openness to new experiences. Then the same children were assessed again at ages 18 and 23. The study indicated that the open and imaginative young girls tended to become _____________ young women. A. self-assured and flexible B. highly career oriented C. anxious and self-doubting D. emotionally sterile and calculating C. anxious and self-doubting In an experiment conducted by Gjerde & Cardilla in 2009, children were assessed at age 3 and 4 on the dimension of openness to new experiences. Then the same children were assessed again at ages 18 and 23. The study indicated that the open and imaginative young boys tended to become ______________ young adults. A. self-doubting B. extremely emotional C. anxious D. self-assured and flexible D. self-assured and flexible One longitudinal study evaluated 1,000 New Zealand children over an 18-year period to try to understand what childhood temperament predicts about adult personality and behavior. Eighteen years after the initial assessment, the individuals whose parents had classified them as undercontrolled at age 3 were likely to _____________. A. be nonassertive and over anxious B. engage in thrill-seeking behaviors C. suffer from prolonged depression D. attempt suicide B. engage in thrill-seeking behaviors Adolescence is the transition period between childhood and early adulthood, beginning at about age 11 or 12 and lasting until around age _____________. A. 15 B. 18 C. 22 D. 25 B. 18 The __________________ glands are also called gonads. A. parathyroid B. adrenaline C. sex D. alveolar C. sex On average, girls reach puberty at about age ______________. A. 9 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15 B. 11 On average, boys reach puberty at about age ______________. A. 9 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15 C. 13 Which of the following glands sends hormonal signals to the sex glands, telling them to mature? A. Parathyroid B. Adrenaline C. Alveolar D. Pituitary D. Pituitary The female gonads are called _____________. A. vagina B. fallopian tubes C. ovaries D. uteri C. ovaries The male gonads are called ______________. A. testes B. thymus C. penises D. adrenals A. testes Lee, who is thirteen, is experiencing new growth of facial and pubic hair, a deepening of his voice, and a widening of his shoulders. Which of the following hormones is responsible for these developments? A. Leptin B. Estrogen C. Testosterone D. Oxytocin C. Testosterone ____________ is the sex hormone that initiates the growth of breasts, widening of hips, and increase in body fat in girls. A. Testosterone B. Estradiol C. Leptin D. Oxytocin B. Estradiol _____________ marks the beginning of adolescence. A. Symbolic thinking B. Puberty C. Animistic thinking D. Egocentrism B. Puberty Which of the following is a primary problem of adolescence? A. In boys, the event that signals readiness to reproduce is menarche. B. Boys are not able to engage in scientific reasoning and hypothesis testing. C. In boys and girls, the body is ready for parenthood far earlier than the mind is. D. Boys and girls do not gain the ability to reason about abstract concepts and problems. C. In boys and girls, the body is ready for parenthood far earlier than the mind is. The _____________ are the last areas of the brain to fully develop, and they continue to mature until late adolescence or early adulthood. A. abducens nuclei B. medulla oblongata C. globose nuclei D. frontal lobes D. frontal lobes Which of the following occurs after the frontal lobes have developed more fully? A. Animistic thinking increases. B. Heart rate decreases. C. Scientific thinking becomes possible. D. The possibility of developing anorexia nervosa increases. C. Scientific thinking becomes possible. Which of the following statements is true about brain development during adolescence? A. Brain development starts in adolescence, with the frontal lobes being the first part of the brain to develop. B. The brain develops more myelin around the axons as well as more neural connections. C. Animistic thinking begins during adolescence. D. Egocentrism is the hallmark of brain development in adolescence. B. The brain develops more myelin around the axons as well as more neural connections. Myelination proceeds from the _____________ during the period from childhood to adolescence. A. bottom of the brain to the top B. top of the brain to the bottom C. frontal lobes to the back of the brain D. back of the brain to the frontal lobes D. back of the brain to the frontal lobes Which of the following statements is true regarding myelination? A. The process of myelination is complete before the age of 10. B. Myelination proceeds from the front of the brain to the back. C. The rate and locations of myelination differs between boys and girls. D. In boys, the increased white matter organization occurs in the right hemisphere. C. The rate and locations of myelination differs between boys and girls. Synaptic pruning refers to the process during which: A. the rarely used synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. B. children develop egocentrism. C. the size of the frontal lobe increases. D. new synapses are formed in order to accommodate newer knowledge and scientific thought. A. the rarely used synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. Philip Shaw and colleagues in 2006 demonstrated that the brains of highly intelligent children, as compared to the brains of children with average intelligence, have a _____________. A. thicker frontal cortex at age seven B. thinner cortex at age nine C. thicker frontal cortex at midadolescence D. thinner cortex at age nineteen C. thicker frontal cortex at midadolescence During complex and demanding tasks, teens ________________. A. distribute the workload evenly throughout the brain B. overload their frontal lobes C. distribute the workload evenly between abducens nucleus and globose nucleus D. overload their flocculonodular lobe B. overload their frontal lobes With the onset of puberty and adolescence, children begin to focus on ____________. A. egocentrism B. developing their animistic thinking C. the questions of who they are D. motor skills C. the questions of who they are Having close, intimate friends during adolescence is more likely to be associated with _____________. A. poorer performance in school B. more conflicts with authority figures C. feelings of self-worth in adulthood D. more conflicts with parents C. feelings of self-worth in adulthood In the teen years, _____________ start to replace parents as a source of identification. A. teachers B. seniors C. siblings D. peers D. peers According to Erik Erikson, a(n) _____________ is an opportunity for adaptive or maladaptive adjustment. A. identity crisis B. sensorimotor stage C. pruning D. neural migration A. identity crisis Arnett calls the phase between adolescence and young adulthood ____________, which spans the ages 18-25 years. A. primary adulthood B. emerging adulthood C. early adulthood D. preliminary adulthood B. emerging adulthood Although much brain development has happened by the time of emerging adulthood, the brain continues to change and grow. The prefrontal cortex continues to develop and fibers there are increasingly _____________, which facilitates neural communication. A. rewired B. migrated C. myelinated D. pruned C. myelinated During their studies in 2009, Aberg and colleagues found positive correlation between ______________ and better cognitive scores. A. vision B. muscular strength C. size of the anterior lobe D. cardiovascular fitness D. cardiovascular fitness Which among the following is the clearest marker of reaching adulthood? A. Animistic thinking B. Having a child C. Symbolic thinking D. Graduating B. Having a child According to Erik Erikson, during one's 20s, the primary conflict is between ___________. A. intimacy and isolation B. career and family C. integrity and despair D. generativity and stagnation A. intimacy and isolation Erik Erikson defined ______________ as the ability to fuse one's identity with another's without the fear of losing it. A. pruning B. rewiring C. intimacy D. object permanence C. intimacy Which are the biggest predictors of hearing loss? A. Social class and gender B. Profession and social class C. Ethnicity, cultural environment, and gender D. Age, gender and profession C. Ethnicity, cultural environment, and gender According to Jung, individuation is the process by which: A. a person's personality becomes whole and full. B. neurons move from one part of the brain to their more permanent home. C. unused synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. D. the individual becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others and does not contribute in a productive way to society or family. A. a person's personality becomes whole and full. Erik Erikson proposed that in midlife one confronts the crisis between ____________. A. career and family B. intimacy and isolation C. generativity versus stagnation D. creativity and conventionality C. generativity versus stagnation Erik Erikson defined _______________ as the creation of new ideas, products, or people. A. pruning B. neural migration C. prenatal programming D. generativity D. generativity According to Erik Erikson, parenting, starting a business, and creating a work of art are examples of ____________. A. neural migration B. generativity C. individuation D. stagnation B. generativity According to Erik Erikson, stagnation occurs when: A. the adult becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others. B. neurons move from one part of the brain to their more permanent home. C. unused synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. D. events in the womb alter the development of physical and psychological health. A. the adult becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others. Which of the following is true about late adulthood? A. Late adulthood begins around age 55. B. The numbers of neurons (gray matter) increases in late adulthood. C. The older brain does not change as rapidly as the younger brain, but it remains dynamic. D. The kind of memory involved in processing and maintaining information while making decisions strengthens in late adulthood. C. The older brain does not change as rapidly as the younger brain, but it remains dynamic.

ch 6 cont

Which of the following views did psychologist Ernest Hilgard subscribe to? A. Under hypnosis, thoughts, feelings, and drives that threaten the waking mind come to the fore. B. Under hypnosis, one aspect of a person's mind can remain aware and open to stimulation from the outside while other parts are cut off from external input. C. Hypnotized individuals actually involve in role-playing by behaving the way they think a hypnotized person would behave. D. Hypnosis does not alter consciousness, nor do hypnotized individuals give up control of their behavior. B. Under hypnosis, one aspect of a person's mind can remain aware and open to stimulation from the outside while other parts are cut off from external input. What does neuroscientific research on hypnosis indicate? A. It is a heightened state of imagination. B. It is more like role-playing. C. It is a real activity that the brain experiences. D. Hypnotized individuals do not give up control of their behavior. C. It is a real activity that the brain experiences. What did research by neuroscientist Amir Raz and colleagues reveal? A. Highly hypnotizable people had less activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning B. Highly hypnotizable people had more activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning C. Less hypnotizable people were able to suppress the Stroop effect D. Both the highly hypnotizable and less hypnotizable people could remain resistant and show the same activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning A. Highly hypnotizable people had less activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning What were the results of the experiments conducted on participants who were variously administered mild pain, imagined pain, and hypnotized pain? A. Participants reported actually feeling pain only for real pain. B. Participants reported actually feeling pain for both real and hypnotically induced pain. C. Participants reported not feeling pain for hypnotically induced pain. D. Participants reported feeling pain for imagined pain. B. Participants reported actually feeling pain for both real and hypnotically induced pain. _____ is an unpleasant side effect that alcohol withdrawal creates for an alcoholic. A. Leptokurtic reaction B. Circadian dysrhythmia C. Excessive sleepiness D. Delirium tremens D. Delirium tremens Which of the following symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can be best described as convincing sensory experiences that occur in the absence of an external stimulus? A. Hallucinations B. Insomnia C. Tremors D. Seizures A. Hallucinations Which of the following can be best described as a condition that results from habitual use or physical and psychological dependence on a substance? A. Hallucinations B. Addiction C. Stroop effect D. Hypnosis B. Addiction Salim likes to have coffee. He has begun to consume several cups of coffee even when he has nothing much to keep himself busy. He says that coffee keeps his spirits up by alleviating boredom. This indicates that Salim A. has kept himself away from an overdependence on coffee. B. has developed a psychological dependence on coffee. C. has developed a physical dependence on coffee. D. is experiencing withdrawal symptoms. B. has developed a psychological dependence on coffee. If a drug slows down central nervous system activity while increasing the activity of the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, then it is most likely to be a(n): A. depressant. B. vasodilator. C. corticosteroid. D. opioid. A. depressant. Which of the following is the most widely used depressant? A. Morphine B. Analgesic C. Alcohol D. Coffee C. Alcohol The legal limit of blood alcohol concentration for driving in all states of the United States is ________ BAC. A. 0.1 B. 0.03 C. 0.05 D. 0.08 D. 0.08 John is a heavy binge drinker who has trouble with planning, working memory, and abstract thinking. Scanning of John's brain would reveal that he has a damaged: A. parietal lobe. B. frontal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. temporal lobe. B. frontal lobe. If Gary is a binge drinker, it means that he can have at least ________ drinks in a row. A. two B. three C. four D. five D. five When mild to moderate alcohol consumption is said to be beneficial, it suggests that no more than ________ drinks a day appears to provide protective effects on the ________. A. four; general health B. one; physical health C. two; cardiovascular system D. three; psychological system C. two; cardiovascular system Which of the following is commonly used as a prescription sedative? A. Nitroglycerin B. Hydrocodone C. Benzodiazepines D. Serotonin C. Benzodiazepines Which of the following is used in anesthesia to pacify people during certain medical procedures? A. Vasodilators B. Benzodiazepines C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D. Barbiturates D. Barbiturates Which of the following can be classified as an opioid? A. Pentobarbital B. Morphine C. Chlordiazepoxide D. Diazepam B. Morphine Prescription cough medicines today often include _______, a safer alternative to heroin. A. amphetamine B. barbital C. codeine D. diazepam C. codeine The natural painkiller in the human body is: A. melatonin. B. endorphin. C. serotonin. D. epinephrine. B. endorphin. The world's most commonly consumed psychoactive drug is: A. barbiturate. B. cocaine. C. caffeine. D. opium. C. caffeine. Which of the following can occur as a consequence of mild-to-moderate intake of tea and energy drinks? A. Increased heart rate B. Better motor coordination C. Decreased alertness D. Nausea A. Increased heart rate Mary is a coffee lover. However, heeding her friend's advice, she resolves to stop her coffee consumption for good. Mary is most likely to show the withdrawal effect of: A. increased energy. B. elated mood. C. headache. D. increased concentration. C. headache. Which of the following is true of nicotine? A. It reduces heart rate. B. It relaxes the autonomic nervous system. C. It arouses the skeletal muscles. D. It increases respiration rate. D. It increases respiration rate. Which of the following is a powerful stimulant that is more difficult to quit and also reduces blood supply to skin tissue? A. Nicotine B. Caffeine C. Endorphin D. Heroin A. Nicotine How does cocaine induce a sense of exhilaration? A. By decreasing the activity of the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain B. By producing a long but mild sense of euphoria C. By increasing the higher social regulatory functions of the cerebral cortex D. By increasing the availability of dopamine and serotonin in synapses D. By increasing the availability of dopamine and serotonin in synapses Which of the following terms refers to synthetically produced compounds that produce long-lasting excitation of the sympathetic nervous system that keeps one motivated and elevates mood? A. Opioids B. Caffeine C. Nicotine D. Amphetamines D. Amphetamines Which of the following conditions is a predominant feature of amphetamine psychosis? A. Hallucination B. Nausea C. Hypersomnia D. Narcolepsy A. Hallucination Which of the following is also known as the love drug? A. Opium B. Ecstasy C. Cocaine D. LSD B. Ecstasy According to new research, which drug is found to be effective for treating post-traumatic stress disorder? A. Cocaine B. LSD C. MDMA D. Heroin C. MDMA Which of the following terms refers to a class of marijuana-like chemicals produced by human bodies? A. Antibodies B. Endocannabinoids C. Free radicals D. Antioxidants B. Endocannabinoids Which of the following is a hallucinogen that is also recommended and prescribed for people who suffer chemotherapy-related nausea or the involuntary weight loss due to AIDS? A. Dextroamphetamine B. Oxycodone C. Marijuana D. Ecstasy C. Marijuana ______ is a synthesized form of the derivative of the grain fungus ergot. A. Ecstasy B. Cocaine C. Marijuana D. LSD D. LSD Altered visual perceptions such as seeing the tracks that your hand makes when you move it through the air usually happens when one ingests: A. lysergic acid diethylamide-25. B. methamphetamine. C. methylenedioxymethamphetamine. D. amphetamine sulfate. A. lysergic acid diethylamide-25. For some people, LSD use can lead to panic and negative experiences known as: A. euphoria. B. spiritual experiences. C. bad trips. D. bulimia nervosa. C. bad trips. Which of the following refers to the active ingredient of hallucinogenic mushrooms that is found to trigger fairly stable spiritual insights? A. Ecstasy B. Psilocybin C. Morphine D. LSD B. Psilocybin

Myelination proceeds from the _____________ during the period from childhood to adolescence. bottom of the brain to the top top of the brain to the bottom frontal lobes to the back of the brain back of the brain to the frontal lobes

back of the brain to the frontal lobes

The point at which the optic nerve exits the eye is the ________ of the retina visual acuity cone blind spot optic chiasm

blind spot

Unexpectedly, caffeine relaxes the skeletal muscles. True False

f

If Gary is a binge drinker, it means that he can have at least ________ drinks in a row.

five

Moderate alcohol use can be beneficial for the cardiovascular system. True False

T

Consciousness is considered to be a combination of wakefulness and awareness. True False

T

A fetus begins to respond to sound around _____________ weeks after conception. 8 12 18 26

26

Carlos is oblivious of what his classmates are doing while taking a test at school. However, when his friend sneezes loudly, he immediately notices. What does this illustrate? A. Consciousness focuses our attention on changes in stimulation. B. It is possible for us to be aware of all material at all times. C. All of us can do more than one thing at a time without compromising our performance on either task. D. Consciousness causes us to react to all stimuli.

A. Consciousness focuses our attention on changes in stimulation.

When does sleepwalking usually occur? A. During non-REM sleep B. During REM sleep C. While hallucinating D. During increased activity of the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A. During non-REM sleep

Javier is learning French that necessitates him to remember new words and the grammar and syntax of the language. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur in his brain as he learns and memorizes the new language? A. Growth of new neurons B. Elimination of obsolete neurons C. Increase in the activity of the parietal lobe D. Weakening synaptic connections

A. Growth of new neurons

Which of the following conditions is a predominant feature of amphetamine psychosis? A. Hallucination B. Nausea C. Hypersomnia D. Narcolepsy

A. Hallucination

Which of the following symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can be best described as convincing sensory experiences that occur in the absence of an external stimulus? A. Hallucinations B. Insomnia C. Tremors D. Seizures

A. Hallucinations

Which of the following creates gaps in attention and perception? A. Selective attention B. Sustained attention C. Continuous attention D. Persistent attention

A. Selective attention

The body has an internal timekeeper located in the hypothalamus, called the _____, which regulates physiological activity on daily cycles. A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus B. Supraoptic nucleus C. Ventromedial nucleus D. Amygdaloidal nucleus

A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

Which of the following is an attentional process that helps determine the contents of consciousness at any given moment in time? A. Sustained attention B. Flashing attention C. Alternating attention D. Divided attention

A. Sustained attention

By age 1, the REM sleep drops to about: A. 28 percent. B. 50 percent. C. 33 percent. D. 40 percent.

A. 28 percent.

Which of the following best describes the global workspace of consciousness? A. When the various sensory elements get integrated. B. When the mind is awake but not very aware. C. When different sensory elements work one at a time. D. When the mind withholds information needed to do complex tasks such as reasoning, comprehension, and learning.

A. When the various sensory elements get integrated.

Who is credited with developing the concept of sleep debt? A. William Dement B. Nathan Kleitman C. Eugene Aserinsky D. Sigmund Freud

A. William Dement

GABA is: A. a neurotransmitter that decreases central nervous system activity. B. unrelated to the central nervous system activity. C. a neurotransmitter that increases central nervous system activity. D. a neuropeptide that functions inversely with the central nervous system.

A. a neurotransmitter that decreases central nervous system activity.

Graham displays a heightened sense of awareness of events in his environment. For instance, when he picks a book to read, he pores over every bit of information given about the author, edition, preface, and even the colors and images on the cover page. This is indicative of the fact that Graham is a(n) ________ person. A. mindful B. docile C. rational D. versatile

A. mindful

Which of the following best describes narcolepsy? A. A sleep disorder that causes an almost irresistible urge to move one's legs or arms B. A sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and weakness in facial and limb muscles C. A sleep disorder where the facial muscles are hyperactive D. A sleep disorder in which breathing temporarily stops during sleep due to blockage of the upper airways

B. A sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and weakness in facial and limb muscles

Which of the following can be best described as a condition that results from habitual use or physical and psychological dependence on a substance? A. Hallucinations B. Addiction C. Stroop effect D. Hypnosis

B. Addiction

What does mindfulness meditation encourage? A. Attention to the details of past experience B. Attention to the details of momentary experience C. Diverting selective attention toward thoughts D. Maintaining a consistent behavioral response during multi-tasking

B. Attention to the details of momentary experience

Which of the following is also known as the love drug? A. Opium B. Ecstasy C. Cocaine D. LSD

B. Ecstasy

Which of the following terms refers to a class of marijuana-like chemicals produced by human bodies? A. Antibodies B. Endocannabinoids C. Free radicals D. Antioxidants

B. Endocannabinoids

How many stages are there to non-REM sleep? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six

B. Four

Mia, a five-year-old, vividly dreams about visiting a fairyland and meeting a fairy godmother who gives her a rare protective amulet. What does this imply? A. Mia is in Stage 4 sleep. B. Mia is in REM sleep. C. Mia is in Stage 3 sleep. D. Mia is in non-REM sleep.

B. Mia is in REM sleep.

What does the term preconscious refer to? A. Intentionally repressed material that takes the form of unconscious B. Potentially accessible material currently unavailable to awareness C. Repressed unconscious material that cannot be consciously recollected D. Preexisting material immediately realizable to awareness

B. Potentially accessible material currently unavailable to awareness

Which of the following refers to the active ingredient of hallucinogenic mushrooms that is found to trigger fairly stable spiritual insights? A. Ecstasy B. Psilocybin C. Morphine D. LSD

B. Psilocybin

Alisha is employed as an air traffic controller. Which of the following abilities would be vital for Alisha? A. The ability to individually respond to specific auditory, visual, or tactile stimuli B. The ability to consistently maintain a behavioral response for continuous and repetitive activity C. The capacity to maintain quick and enhanced behavioral responses to involuntary stimuli D. The capacity for mental flexibility that allows her to shift the focus of attention and move between tasks which have different cognitive requirements

B. The ability to consistently maintain a behavioral response for continuous and repetitive activity

Which of the following can lead one to consciously attend to something? A. When neurons from one region of the brain work together B. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work together C. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work independently D. When neurons from one region of the brain work independently

B. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work together

What does the AIM theory argue? A. Conflicting impulses, thoughts, feelings, and drives that threaten the waking mind are released as a visual compromise. B. Dreams are devoid of meaning and a result of random brain activity. C. Dreams are not very different from everyday thinking. D. All dreams operate at a single level, and not multiple levels.

B. Dreams are devoid of meaning and a result of random brain activity.

Which of the following statements would be true about a sleeping person? A. The mind cannot distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli. B. The mind can distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli. C. The mind does not respond to any kind of stimuli. D. The sleeping state is akin to being in a preconscious state.

B. The mind can distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli.

Why are women more likely to be affected by insomnia? A. They are less likely to cope with medical conditions. B. They are more likely to be iron deficient. C. They are more likely to consume alcohol. D. They are more prone to sleep less than two to four hours a day for two weeks or more.

B. They are more likely to be iron deficient.

Jimmy is taking his 7th grade exam in which he is asked to give one word for a set of given explanations. Though he knows the words for the answer and is confident about recollecting them, he is unable to recall them at that particular time. Which of the following terms refer to Jimmy's experience? A. Decay theory B. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon C. Motivated forgetting D. Freudian slip

B. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

What does the test to study sustained attention of people require them to do? A. Shift their focus of attention and move between tasks that have different cognitive requirements B. Respond discretely to specific visual, auditory, or tactile stimuli C. Maintain attentional focus for an extended period of time D. Respond to multiple task demands simultaneously

C. Maintain attentional focus for an extended period of time

Which of the following is a hallucinogen that is also recommended and prescribed for people who suffer chemotherapy-related nausea or the involuntary weight loss due to AIDS? A. Dextroamphetamine B. Oxycodone C. Marijuana D. Ecstasy

C. Marijuana

Which of the following offers specific practices for working with consciousness? A. Awareness B. Wakefulness C. Meditation D. Hypnosis

C. Meditation

Nina is attending a get-together where she has to struggle to listen to a conversation with her colleague due to a lot of background noise. However, her ears prick up as soon as she hears her name being mentioned by someone in another part of the room and, consequently, she loses the thread of conversation with her colleague. Which of the following terms best describes the experience Nina has? A. The serial-position effect B. The Stroop effect C. The cocktail party effect D. Perceptual constancy

C. The cocktail party effect

Which of the following theories conforms to the belief that dreams are nothing but the standard processes that occur during the day? A. The biological theory B. The AIM theory C. The cognitive theory D. The psychoanalytic theory

C. The cognitive theory

Which of the following best describes moderate consciousness? A. The unconscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness B. The conscious experience of knowing something that can be brought into awareness C. The conscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness D. The unconscious experience of knowing something that can be brought into awareness

C. The conscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness

In a study by researchers, what did MRI scans of meditators and non-meditators reveal? A. Those who had meditated the shortest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas. B. Those who had meditated the longest showed the least cortical thickness in certain areas. C. Those who had meditated the longest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas. D. Those who had meditated the longest showed decreased brain tissue in areas relevant to attention and emotion processing.

C. Those who had meditated the longest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas.

Hypnosis has been found to help with pain during childbirth. True False

T

What were the findings of the study of the effects of sleep deprivation on performance? A. Participants who had more than the normal REM cycles performed better. B. Participants who had less than normal amounts of non-REM sleep performed better. C. Participants who had normal amounts of REM sleep performed better. D. The presence or absence of REM or Non-REM sleep was immaterial as long as participants could relax for some time.

C. Participants who had normal amounts of REM sleep performed better.

Which of the following can be considered a key element of consciousness? A. Intuition B. Knowledge C. Optimism D. Attention

D. Attention

Which of the following is used in anesthesia to pacify people during certain medical procedures? A. Vasodilators B. Benzodiazepines C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D. Barbiturates

D. Barbiturates

How does cocaine induce a sense of exhilaration? A. By decreasing the activity of the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain B. By producing a long but mild sense of euphoria C. By increasing the higher social regulatory functions of the cerebral cortex D. By increasing the availability of dopamine and serotonin in synapses

D. By increasing the availability of dopamine and serotonin in synapses

Which of the following is a characteristic of children with chronic sleep disturbances? A. Improved cognitive development B. Increased neural connectivity in the brain C. Growth of neurons in key memory areas of the brain D. Decreased neural connectivity in the brain

D. Decreased neural connectivity in the brain

_____ is an unpleasant side effect that alcohol withdrawal creates for an alcoholic. A. Leptokurtic reaction B. Circadian dysrhythmia C. Excessive sleepiness D. Delirium tremens

D. Delirium tremens

Fatema is a marketing head based in New York who is required to travel a lot. She is even required to travel frequently across Asian and African countries for short periods of time. The disruptive effects of jet travel make her disoriented, groggy, irritable, and fatigued. If she visits her doctor, which of the following will most likely be prescribed for her? A. Testosterone B. Serotonin C. Progesterone D. Melatonin

D. Melatonin

According to Cobb et al., 2010, which of the following is found to be the most distracting while driving causing significantly slower reaction times? A. Chatting with someone in the vehicle B. Using the phone with a hands-free device C. Eating D. Texting

D. Texting

Bob finds it easier to concentrate on his studies when he finds the topic interesting. He is engrossed to such an extent that he does not even realize that the television has been turned to the maximum volume. However, if the topic does not interest him, he tends to get distracted at the drop of a hat. Which of the following theories explains Bob's behavior? A. The psychoanalytic theory B. Baddeley's theory C. The cognitive load theory D. The perceptual load theory

D. The perceptual load theory

Which of the following refers to the manifest content of a dream? A. The unconscious part B. The hidden part C. The subliminal part D. The superficial part

D. The superficial part

In which state will a person be wakeful but not very aware? A. Active B. Daydreaming C. Cogitating D. Vegetative

D. Vegetative

What are the two aspects of consciousness? A. Alertness and wakefulness B. Awareness and control C. Memory and alertness D. Wakefulness and awareness

D. Wakefulness and awareness

According to the research that studied people new to meditation, compared to a control group, novices who underwent an 8-week meditation training program showed a(n): A. decrease in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing. B. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with spatial visualization. C. decrease in growth of brain tissues associated with spatial visualization. D. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing.

D. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing.

The legal limit of blood alcohol concentration for driving in all states of the United States is ________ BAC. A. 0.1 B. 0.03 C. 0.05 D. 0.08

D. 0.08

Which psychologist coined the term preconscious? A. Piaget B. Skinner C. Erikson D. Freud

D. Freud

What did research by neuroscientist Amir Raz and colleagues reveal?

Highly hypnotizable had less activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning

A circadian rhythm refers to a 24-hour sleep-wake cycle. True False

T

The wavelength range of colors visible to humans ranges from 350 nm to 750 nm. Light that we perceive as ________ is at 450 nm. green blue red yellow

blue

The key event that distinguishes the embryonic stage from the third stage, the fetal stage, is the formation of the ___________. bone cells zygote brain blastocyst

bone cells

Ruth is at a junkyard looking for spare parts for her car. As she wanders through the rows of cars, she happens upon a particular car which has a familiar set of wheels, windshield, doors, hood, and trunk, and she realizes she is looking at her own model of car. This type of visual perception is known as _______. atmospheric perspective bottom-up processing perceptual constancy difference threshold

bottom-up processing

________ is the stimulation of our sense organs by the outer world. Organelle Sensation Perception Interpretation

sensation

exam 2

sensation bottom-up process perception top-down process amplitude (sound) how tall a wave is, loudness wavelength (sound) the measurement of trough to trough purity combination of wake patterns pinna captures wave tympanic membrane ear drum; mechanical vibrations ear bones hammer, anvil, stirrup; amplify sound waves oval window opening in the middle ear that connects it to the inner ear to transfer vibrations cochlea snail shaped; filled with liquid; balance basilar membrane a stiff structural element that separates two liquid-filled tubes that run along the coil of the cochlea light intensity amount of energy per wavelength wavelength (light) height of wavelength determines color of light saturation wavelength (hue), amplitude (brightness), purity (saturation) photoreceptors help differentiate between colors rods picks up light; helps with night vision cones picks up three color pigments and in combinations; sharpness subliminal might make you think something but never strong enough to make you do it JND (weber's law) smallest detectable difference in energy is a constant fraction of stimulus intensity bottom-up processing when you are taking in stimuli and processing it through your thalamus top-down processing taking what you already know and applying it to a similar stimuli encoding information that is put into a memory acoustic encoding information as sound visual encoding information as an image semantic encoding information as general knowledge storage maintaining memory; 3 stages (sensory, STM, LTM retrieval remembering, two types (recall, recognition) maintenance rehearsal shallow memory, repetition, good short-term memory elaborative rehearsal deep memory, relating new info to old info, visual imagery and organizational encoding, mnemonics sensory stage briefly holds info for processing, possibly limitless capacity, lasts about 2 seconds, if attended goes on to STM STM (short-term) stores info for a small amount of time, lasts 12-30 seconds w/o rehearsal, with rehearsal moves on to LTM LTM (long-term) what people think of as memory, stores for long periods of time, very large storage capacity semantic LTM i know that.... episodic LTM i remember when.... procedural what i can do.... working memory concerned with immediate conscious perceptual and linguistic processing rehearsal sends short term memory to long term chunking organizing information into relatable groups primacy effect remembering it because it was the first thing you saw recency effect remembering it because it was one of the last things you saw transience forgetting over time/ getting old method of savings learning decay memory fading over time; cannot remember everything retroactive interference new info hurts recall of old info proactive interference old info hurts the ability to remember new things correctly absent-mindedness lapse of attention causing memory failure blocking tip of the tongue; failure to retrieve info anterograde amnesia unable to remember past events before an incident retrograde amnesia unable to be able to form new memories after an incident; can obtain new motor skills clive wearing suffers from retrograde and anterograde amnesia HM removed hippocampus to solve a problem of seizures; then developed retrograde and anterograde amnesia non-associative learning simplest learning habituation adapting to a constant stimulus associative learning process when two pieces of information from the environment repeatedly linked so that they are connected in our minds associative learning types classical and operant conditioning unlearned response natural response to a stimulus unconditioned stimulus input that always elicits the same unlearned response conditioned stimulus previously neutral stimulus that now elicits a conditioned response conditioned response learned response that is elicited by a conditioned stimulus extinction gradual disappearance of the conditioned response reconditioning quick relearning of the conditioned response after extinction spontaneous recovery reappearance of conditioned response after extinction stimulus generalization stimuli similar enough to the conditioned stimuli to elicit the conditioned response stimulus discrimination stimulus different enough from conditioned stimuli to not elicit a conditioned response law of effect more likely to repeat behaviors rewarded; less likely to repeat behaviors that are punished positive reinforcement reinforcement of a response by the addition or gain of a pleasant event negative reinfocement reinforcement of a response by subtraction or elimination of an unpleasant event positive punishment applies an unpleasant stimulus negative punishment removal of a pleasant stimulus primary reinforcer meets an organisms basics needs (food) secondary reinforcer reward that organism learns to like (working for money) shaping a process of behavior modification in which a subject in encouraged to behave in a desired way through positive and negative reinforcement fixed ratio after and exact number of responses are made; more responses=more reinforcement; high rate of response variable ratio reinforcement after a varying number of responses; responding at a high, steady rate; hardest to extinguish fixed interval first response after fixed amount of time has passed; not response driven; second slowest rate of response variable interval first response after some period of time; slowest but most steady response rate latent learning learning that occurs in the absence of reinforcement; not demonstrated until later when reinforcement occurs cognitive map mental representation of the environment insight "eureka" "aha" moments, something clicks observational learning watching someone do something and doing it because it got a positive reinforcement "social learning" vicarious conditioning learn by watching consequences of other people's actions social learning theory people can learn by purely watching others phoneme smallest unit of sound with meaning (a, b); long/short vowels morpheme smallest unit of language with meaning; prefixes/suffixex (pre, wed, run) word combinations of morphemes (running, wedding) syntax phrases, sentences; determines how words are combined to make sentences semantics rules that govern the meaning of words and sentences surface word strings produced deep structure abstract relationships; why sentences can have two meanings cooing 6 months babbling 5-12 months one-word 12-18 months two-word 18-30 months sentence phase 2.5-3 years critical period of language development if children are never exposed to any human language before a certain age, the skills never fully develop nativist language development is an innate, biological capacity algorithms step by step problem solving procedure guaranteed to return a solution (formal reasoning) heuristics time saving mental shortcuts used for making judgements quickly & efficiently (informal reasoning) anchoring-adjustment tendency to use a rough estimation as a starting point or 'anchor' and adjust from there representativeness tendency to classify something according to how similar it is to a typical case availability heuristics tendency to base a judgment on how quickly or easily examples come to mind false-consensus effect application to self-other judgement conjunction fallacy thinking that two events are more likely to occur together than either event alone framing effects give different answers to the same problem depending on how its framed confirmation bias seeking out information that confirms what you currently think mental sets stick with an old strategy even though a new strategy might work better functional fixedness the tendency to use familiar objects in familiar ways rather than creative ways multiple hypotheses hard to focus on multiple theories; most available theories are not always most correct intelligence no exact definition; but is the mental ability that enables people to direct their thinking, adapt to their circumstances, and learn from experiences aptitude test measure a person's readiness to learn and one's cognitive abilities achievement test measure what a person has accomplished reliability consistency is key; test-retest (time); internal (do the items correlate) validity accuracy is hard to establish; constructs (does it measure what it is supposed to?); predictive (is the performance related to real-world outcomes) ratio IQ (mental age/physical age) * 100 deviation IQ (test score/average of age group) * 100 binet assumed that reasoning, thinking, and problem solving depend on intelligence; aptitude v. achievement stanford-binet added things for adults; supply missing words, repeat 6 digit numbers backwards, make a sentence out of several unrelated words, describe similarities between concepts army; Goddard WWI military recruits; alpha/beta test; 47% scored a 13 or lower intelligence test IQ measured objectively; in a standardized manner

The male gonads are called ______________. testes thymus penises adrenals

testes

Sound terms

A _______ is a wiggle in time, because it needs time to go back and forth. vibration A wave is defined as "a wiggle in time and space." Why? Because it must travel from one place to another. How are vibrations described? By frequency—how frequently vibratory motion occurs. How are waves described? By frequency, speed, amplitude, and wavelength. Define amplitude. Distance from the midpoint to the crest or trough. Define frequency. Number of to-and-fro vibrations in a given time unit: 1 vibration per second = 1 Hertz. Define period. The time it takes for a complete vibration to occur. What is the unit for period? Time, usually a second. Period = ? 1/frequency Wave ______ describes how fast a distrubrance moves through a medium speed T or F: Wave speed is related to both the frequency and wavelength of a wave. True. A wave with wavelength 1 meter and frequency of 1 Hz has a speed of ? 1 m/s What are the names of the two common types of waves that differ because of the direction in which the medium vibrates compared with the direction of travel? Longitudinal and Transverse waves. Sound travels in ________ waves. longitudinal Sound creates vibrating compressions and ________ through air. rarefactions What is the speed of sound? 340 m/s Define refraction. The bending of wave due to the change in the medium and/or speed of the wave. When do sound waves refract? (2) When parts of the wave fronts travel at different speeds. When air near the ground is warmer or cooler than above. What is the Doppler effect? The change in frequency as measured by an observer due to the motion of the source or listener. ________ changes in regards of motion to the source. Wavelength When a fire truck passes, the frequency of waves received by an observer ______ as a sound source approaches. Wave frequency ______ as the source recedes. increases, decreases Describe the two cones of a shockwave. A high pressure cone with its apex at the box. A low pressure cone with its apex at the tail. The vibrations along a transverse wave move in a direction ____________ to the wave. perpendicular T or F: The Doppler effect occurs only for sound. False, also for light. What does natural frequency depend on? elasticity shape of object When does resonance occur? Whenever successive impulses are applied to a vibrating object in rhythm with its natural frequency. What are the two types of interference? constructive and deconstructive What happens with constructive interference? Crest of one wave overlaps crest of another wave, adding to a wave of increased amplitude. What happens with destructive interference? Crest of one wave overlaps the trough of another, amplitude effects are reduced. Describe longitudinal waves. Slinky wave; waves moves right and left, direction of vibration is in the same direction as the wave. Describe transverse waves. Wave moves up and down, motion of the string is perpendicular to the direction of wave. What is forced vibration? Setting up of vibration in an object by a vibration force Factory floor vibration caused by running of heavy machinery is an example of ________ vibration. forced __________ waves appear as if the string is making an almond loop. Standing What are nodes? The ends of the wave, and areas on the wave with no motions (where it overlaps back and forth). The doppler effect is the change in frequency as measured by an observer due to the motion of the ____ ( in light) or _____ (sound). source, listener Frequency of waves received by an observer _______ as a sound source approaches, wave frequency _______ as the source recedes. increases, decreases The vibrations along a transverse wave move in a direction ___________ to the wave. perpendicular T or F: Interference affects both sound and light. True. When a fire engine approaches you, the frequency of sound _________. increases T or F: The doppler effect occurs for both sound and light. True. Can light travel in a vacuum? Why or why not? Yes. Light is a vibration of nonmaterial electric and magneticfields, a vibration of pure energy. What is amplitude? The distance from the midpoint to the crest or the trough of the wave. The _________ of a wave matches the frequency of its vibrating source. frequency The frequency of a wave matches the frequency of its vibrating source. Is this true of light or sound waves? Both. The speed of periodic wave motion is related to which to components of the waves? Frequency and wavelength! When we measure how much time passes between the arrival of one crest and the arrival of the next one, what are we observing? Period! The the distance between crests is the ___________. wavelength The speed of a wave = ? wavelength/period or frequency x wavelength Period is the _______ of frequency. inverse Right-angled, or sideways motion, is called _____ motion. transverse Waves in the stretched strings of musical instruments on the surfaces of liquids are _________ waves. transverse Electromagnetic waves are _________ waves. transverse T or F: Both transverse and longitudinal waves transfer energy from left to right. True. A ____________ wave is one in which the direction of wave travel is along the direction in which the source vibrates. longitudinal The ______________ of a sound wave is the distance between successive compressions or, equivalently, the distance between successive rarefactions. wavelength Sound waves of frequencies lower than 20 Hz are called _______ waves, and those of frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz are called _________ wave. infrasonic, ultrasonic T or F: We can hear infrasonic waves, but not ultrasonic waves. False, cannot hear either. Most sound is transmitted through air. Can other substances transmit sound? Any elastic substance can! Air is a _____ conductor of sound compared with solids and liquids. poor The transmission of sound requires a ___________. medium Sound requires ____ to travel from one place to another time T or F: The speech of sound does not depend on loudness or frequency, it depends on wind conditions, temperature, and humidity. True. All sounds travel at _______ speeds in a given medium. the same How does water vapor in the air affect the speech of sound? Increases it slightly. The reflection of sound is called a(n) _____. echo Sound reflects from a smooth surface the same way that light does. What is this mean? The angle of incidence (angle between the direction of the sound and the normal to the reflecting surface) is equal to the angle of reflection. Sometimes, when sound reflects from the walls, ceiling, and floor of a room, the surfaces are too reflective and the sound becomes garbled. What is this called? Reverberation. What happens when reflective surfaces are too absorbent of sound? The sound level is low and the room may sound dull and lifeless. When does refraction occur? When sound continues through a medium and bends. When do sound waves bend? When parts of the wave fronts travel at different speeds. Does the refraction of sound occur underwater? Yes. T or F: The speed of sound does not vary with temperature underwater. False, it does. How does swinging on a swing illustrate resonance? When pumping a swing, you pump in rhythm with the natural frequency of the swing. Timing. Even small pumps, or pushes, if delivered in rhythm with the frequency of the swinging motion produce large amplitudes. If tuning forks are not adjusted for matched frequencies, the timing of pushes is off. What does this inhibit? Resonance. T or F: Resonance is restricted to wave motion. False, it is not. Cavalry troops marching across a footbridge near Manchester, England, in 831 inadvertently caused the bridge to collapse. How? They marched in rhythm with the bridge's natural frequency. When the crest of one wave overlaps the crest of another, what happens? Individual effects add together-- constructive interference. When the crest of one wave overlaps the trough of another, what happens? Their individual effects are reduced-- destructive interference. T or F: Interference is a property of all wave motion, whether the waves are water waves, sound waves, or light waves. True. ___________ sound interference is at the heart of antinoise technology. Destructive How is sound interference demonstrated in a monaural signal? When one speaker is sending a compression of sound, the other is sending a rarefaction. Describe "beats." When two tones of slightly different frequencies are sounded together, a fluctuation in the loudness of the combined sounds is heard; the sound is loud, faint, then load, the faint, so on. The periodic variation of loudness is referred to as "beats." How is the use of beats incorporated into tuning a piano? A piano turner listens for beats produced between a standard tuning fork and those of a particular string on the piano. When the frequencies are identical, the beats disappear. What happens in a standing wave? The nodes are stationary. Where do antinodes occur? Halfway between nodes. How are standing waves produced? When two sets of waves of equal amplitude and wavelength pass through each other in opposite directions. Incident and reflected waves interfere to produce a _________ wave. standing T or F: Standing waves can only be produced with transverse vibrations. False, transverse or longitudinal What is an increase in light frequency called? Why? Blueshift, increase is toward a higher frequency (blue end of spectrum). What is a decrease in light frequency called? Why? Redshift, increase is toward a lower frequency (red end of spectrum). When the source of waves travels as fast as the waves it produces, what happens? A wave barrier is produced. What causes a "sound barrier"? The waves overlap to produce a barrier of compressed air on the leading edges of the wings and on other parts of the aircraft. When the bug swims faster than wave speed, it produces a pattern of overlapping waves. What do the overlapping waves form? A V shape, called a bow wave, which appears to be dragging behind the bug.. The bug is swimming faster than wave speed. How is a shock wave produced? By overlapping spheres that form a cone. Overlapping at the edges occurs only when the bug swims _______ than wave speed. faster The conical shell of compressed air that sweeps behind a supersonic aircraft reaches listeners on the ground below, and the sharp crack they hear is a _____. sonic boom Why don't we hear a sonic boom from subsonic aircrafts? Only when the craft moves faster than sound do the waves overlap to reach the listener in a single burst. Describe the composition of a shock wave. One high pressure cone generated at the bow of the supersonic aircraft and a low-pressure cone that follows toward (or at) the tail of the aircraft. How do the two cones of a shock wave factor into sonic booms? Between these two cones, the air pressure rises sharply to above atmospheric pressure, then falls below atmospheric pressure before sharply returning to normal beyond the inner tail cone This overpressure, suddenly followed by underpressure, intensifies the sonic boom. What is the distinction between supersonic and ultrasonic? Supersonic has to do with speed, ultrasonic has to do with frequency. A shockwave and its resulting sonic boom are swept continuously _____ an aircraft that is traveling faster than sound. behind What determines the pitch of a note? fundamental frequency Partial tones that are whole multiples of the fundamental frequency are called ____________. harmonics

If an awake and alert person undergoes a brain wave test, what will it reveal? A. Beta waves B. Alpha waves C. Theta waves D. Delta waves

A. Beta waves

Which of the following refers to a phenomenon by which one fails to notice unexpected objects in her or his surroundings? A. Inattentional blindness B. Subliminal perception C. Change phenomenon D. Visual masking

A. Inattentional blindness

Which of the following is a form of mental training that can be used to calm the mind, stabilize concentration, or enhance awareness of the present moment? A. Meditation B. Sleep C. The administration of a psychoactive drug D. Sensory deprivation

A. Meditation

The average of non-REM sleep per day that newborns spend is: A. 8 hours. B. 4 hours. C. 12 hours. D. 14 hours.

A. 8 hours.

Which of the following tests is used to study sustained attention? A. Continuous Performance Test (CPT) B. Raven's Progressive Matrices Test C. Stroop Test D. Stanford-Binet Test

A. Continuous Performance Test (CPT)

What did research by neuroscientist Amir Raz and colleagues reveal? A. Highly hypnotizable people had less activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning B. Highly hypnotizable people had more activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning C. Less hypnotizable people were able to suppress the Stroop effect D. Both the highly hypnotizable and less hypnotizable people could remain resistant and show the same activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning

A. Highly hypnotizable people had less activity in the areas of the brain that normally process word meaning

Which of the following holds true regarding hypnosis? A. Hypnotized people are in reality awake. B. Hypnotized people are in reality asleep. C. Hypnotized people have voluntary control over their own behavior. D. Hypnotized people retain critical faculties of mind.

A. Hypnotized people are in reality awake.

Which of the following is a marker of Stage 2 sleep? A. K-complexes B. Transient activations C. Vertex waves D. Small amplitude delta frequency waves

A. K-complexes

The limited capacity to process information that is under conscious control best defines the term: A. attention. B. chunking. C. intuition. D. encoding.

A. attention.

Raj is an employed youth who has been recently moved to a night shift. Of late, he has been complaining of disturbed sleep and poor concentration. He also feels fatigued and listless more often. A change in _____ is most likely to have caused Raj's problems. A. circadian rhythm B. ultradian rhythm C. nocturnal rhythm D. infradian rhythm

A. circadian rhythm

If a drug slows down central nervous system activity while increasing the activity of the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, then it is most likely to be a(n): A. depressant. B. vasodilator. C. corticosteroid. D. opioid.

A. depressant.

Sleep A. slows metabolism. B. increases metabolism. C. increases cellular damage. D. does not affect the release of free radicals.

A. slows metabolism.

Which of the following can be classified as an opioid? A. Pentobarbital B. Morphine C. Chlordiazepoxide D. Diazepam

B. Morphine

Salim likes to have coffee. He has begun to consume several cups of coffee even when he has nothing much to keep himself busy. He says that coffee keeps his spirits up by alleviating boredom. This indicates that Salim A. has kept himself away from an overdependence on coffee. B. has developed a psychological dependence on coffee. C. has developed a physical dependence on coffee. D. is experiencing withdrawal symptoms.

B. has developed a psychological dependence on coffee.

What did researchers' study of sustained attention using the Continuous Performance Test (CPT) reveal? A. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 5 minutes. B. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 15 minutes. C. The accuracy in detecting targets declines considerably after 15 minutes. D. The accuracy in detecting targets increases considerably after 15 minutes.

B. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 15 minutes.

What were the results of the experiments conducted on participants who were variously administered mild pain, imagined pain, and hypnotized pain? A. Participants reported actually feeling pain only for real pain. B. Participants reported actually feeling pain for both real and hypnotically induced pain. C. Participants reported not feeling pain for hypnotically induced pain. D. Participants reported feeling pain for imagined pain.

B. Participants reported actually feeling pain for both real and hypnotically induced pain.

In which stage of sleep do short periods of extremely fast and somewhat higher energy sleep spindles occur in which stage of sleep? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4

B. Stage 2

Which of the following best describes the cocktail party effect? A. A strong urge to nap at inappropriate times, such as during meals or in the middle of conversations. B. The ability to filter out auditory stimuli and then to refocus attention on something that appears more meaningful. C. A mental state that occurs in compliance with instructions and is characterized by lack of voluntary control over behavior. D. The ability to create a false sensory perception not related to real external stimuli.

B. The ability to filter out auditory stimuli and then to refocus attention on something that appears more meaningful.

Which of the following is true about a person's performance and hippocampal activation? A. The more hippocampal activation shown during high-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day. B. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day. C. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the worse the person performs on the task the next day. D. The less hippocampal activation shown during high-wave sleep, the worse the person performs on the task the next day.

B. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day.

Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of a flow state? A. The experience of always being depressed regardless of intrinsic and extrinsic factors. B. The sense of losing track of time while being engrossed in an activity. C. The phenomenon of things eventually falling in place after a string of mishaps. D. The state of suspending non-belief in order to make something seem credible.

B. The sense of losing track of time while being engrossed in an activity.

When does an individual attain a flow state? A. When he/she is barely awake or aware but shows some deliberate movements. B. When he/she thrives in his/her ability to rise to the occasion of challenging tasks. C. When he/she is barely able to maintain focused awareness on a target. D. When he/she recollects material that is potentially accessible but not currently available to awareness.

B. When he/she thrives in his/her ability to rise to the occasion of challenging tasks.

The monitoring of information from the environment and from one's own thoughts is termed as: A. intelligence. B. awareness. C. wakefulness. D. memory.

B. awareness.

The greatest amount of REM sleep over the life span occurs: A. in old age. B. in the first months of life. C. in the later part of gestation. D. at the onset of adolescence.

B. in the first months of life.

The suprachiasmatic nucleus influences the release of melatonin by its effect on the: A. hypothalamus. B. pineal gland. C. pituitary gland. D. thyroid gland.

B. pineal gland.

Which of the following is the most widely used depressant? A. Morphine B. Analgesic C. Alcohol D. Coffee

C. Alcohol

What did Barber and colleagues find when they asked students to complete a daily sleep log and online diaries of perceived stress in life over a five-day period? A. A few days of sleep deficiency early on in the week can add to psychological strain but can be offset with sleep later in the week. B. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week does not contribute to psychological strain. C. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week can contribute to psychological strain later in the week despite attempts to offset with subsequent sleep. D. Consistent sleep patterns can wear us down as the body then cannot adjust suitably to any inconsistency in sleep that may arise.

C. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week can contribute to psychological strain later in the week despite attempts to offset with subsequent sleep.

Leticia suffers an accident which makes it impossible for her to open her eyes. Additionally, she also becomes unresponsive to any stimulus. What is the most likely reason for her enduring loss of consciousness? A. Damage to the corpus callosum of the brain. B. Absence of the corpus callosum of the brain. C. Damage to the reticular formation of the brain. D. An overactive reticular formation of the brain.

C. Damage to the reticular formation of the brain.

Which of the following holds true for a minimally conscious person? A. Inability to exhibit intentional thought B. Inability to track a person with eyes C. Inability to communicate D. Ability to show voluntary behavior

C. Inability to communicate

What does neuroscientific research on hypnosis indicate? A. It is a heightened state of imagination. B. It is more like role-playing. C. It is a real activity that the brain experiences. D. Hypnotized individuals do not give up control of their behavior.

C. It is a real activity that the brain experiences.

What did studies on the effects of ancient calming techniques by psychologists and neuroscientists indicate? A. Mental life and neural structure share an interdependent but not a dynamic relationship. B. Mental life and neural structure do not function interdependently. C. Mental life and neural structure share a dynamic interdependence. D. Mental life and neural structure, though interrelated, do not witness any changes throughout life.

C. Mental life and neural structure share a dynamic interdependence.

Which of the following statements about mindfulness is true? A. Mindfulness is a universal and a uniform phenomenon. B. Individuals who are mindful are not aware of their own feelings in response. C. Mindfulness can have various levels of intensity. D. An individual cannot develop his/her mindfulness using mental training techniques.

C. Mindfulness can have various levels of intensity.

Which of the following holds true regarding consciousness? A. Much of what we do requires deliberate, conscious thought. B. Consciousness is an easily defined term. C. New information can cause consciousness to change dramatically. D. Consciousness has five aspects to it.

C. New information can cause consciousness to change dramatically.

For some people, LSD use can lead to panic and negative experiences known as: A. euphoria. B. spiritual experiences. C. bad trips. D. bulimia nervosa.

C. bad trips.

According to the studies in mice, what effect did sleep deprivation have on them? A. There was no effect on the neurons. B. The growth of neurons increased. C. The growth of new neurons was inhibited. D. The neurons started behaving erratically.

C. The growth of new neurons was inhibited.

When can a person in a vegetative state be said to exhibit intentional thought? A. When the responses are communicative B. When the body only responds to stimuli causing shock c D. When the instructions are merely registered in the brain

C. When the brain responds to commands

Mary is a coffee lover. However, heeding her friend's advice, she resolves to stop her coffee consumption for good. Mary is most likely to show the withdrawal effect of: A. increased energy. B. elated mood. C. headache. D. increased concentration.

C. headache.

Nathan is a budding lawyer experiencing troubled sleep. Let alone the occasional disturbed sleep, he takes not less than two hours to fall asleep. Even though he has been getting sleep at times since the last three weeks, he complains of not feeling rested after a night's sleep. Nathan's symptoms suggest that he suffers from: A. Kleine-Levin Syndrome. B. hypersomnia. C. insomnia. D. somniphobia.

C. insomnia.

People show signs of intentional behavior when they are: A. in an unconscious state. B. comatose. C. minimally conscious. D. in a subconscious state.

C. minimally conscious.

The ability to focus awareness on specific features in the environment while ignoring others is termed as: A. sustained attention. B. focused attention. C. selective attention. D. Stroop effect.

C. selective attention.

Which of the following statements is true about Alzheimer's disease? Early-onset of Alzheimer's affects people younger than 35. Currently, the only way Alzheimer's can be diagnosed definitively is by examining brain tissue after death. Alzheimer's accounts for only 10%-20% of the cases of dementia among the elderly. Alzheimer's is non-progressive, and hence its fatality level is low.

Currently, the only way Alzheimer's can be diagnosed definitively is by examining brain tissue after death.

What is the outcome of the study conducted by Watson and Stayer? A. 52% of the population can switch from tasks without any performance decrements. B. 67% of the cell phone users keep their cell phones next to their beds. C. 4.4% of the population checks their phones even when they are not ringing. D. 2.5% of the population can multi-task without any performance decrements.

D. 2.5% of the population can multi-task without any performance decrements.

Which of the following enables the occurrence of a conscious experience? A. A static connection between the brain's various processing areas B. A weak connection between the brain's various processing areas C. A random connection between the brain's various processing areas D. A strong connection between the brain's various processing areas

D. A strong connection between the brain's various processing areas

What does the AIM stand for? A. Activation, intensity, and mechanism B. Ambiguity, intensity, and movement C. Alertness, integration, and mechanism D. Activation, input, and mode

D. Activation, input, and mode

With each progressive cycle, the REM periods A. show negligible fluctuations. B. are shorter. C. become nil. D. are longer.

D. are longer.

Studies in mice show that there is substantial increase in the exchange of cerebrospinal fluid with intracellular fluid during sleep that may reflect how sleep allows for the cleansing of _____. A. cellular proteins B. neural anti-bodies C. digestive enzymes D. cerebral toxins

D. cerebral toxins

How long does it usually take for one to make the transition from Stage 1 to Stage 2 of sleep? A. 15-17 minutes B. 10-12 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 5-7 minutes

D. 5-7 minutes

If Gary is a binge drinker, it means that he can have at least ________ drinks in a row. A. two B. three C. four D. five

D. five

Anita has trained herself well to be less self-conscious and less anxious than what she previously was. This is due to the fact that she is: A. very attentive. B. minimally conscious. C. low on self-consciousness. D. highly mindful.

D. highly mindful.

When a person is roused by sounds that seem important while filtering out the rest that seem run-of-the-mill, he/she is in a(n) ________ state. A. minimally conscious B. objectively conscious C. subjectively conscious D. moderately conscious

D. moderately conscious

With EEG technology, scientists were able to learn that: A. the brain can slip into states of minimal consciousness. B. the brain was relatively inactive during sleep. C. there is no distinct pattern of brain activity during sleep. D. sleep changes throughout the night.

D. sleep changes throughout the night.

The fact that newborns and infants spend so much more time in REM sleep than adults has led some researchers to hypothesize that: A. our brains are most plastic in adulthood. B. the amount of REM sleep increases over a period of time. C. the amount of REM sleep does not affect brain plasticity or neural growth. D. the main function of REM sleep is to assist with brain growth and development.

D. the main function of REM sleep is to assist with brain growth and development.

ch 5 vocab

Human development the study of change and continuity in an individual across the life span. Germinal stage the first prenatal stage of development, which begins at conception and last 2 weeks. Zygote the single cell that results when a sperm fertilizes an egg. Embryo A developing organism from 2 weeks until about 8 weeks after conception. Embryonic stage the second prenatal, from 2 weeks to weeks after conception, when all major organs form. Fetal stage the third prenatal stage, which begins with the formation of bone cells 8 weeks after conception and end at birth Prenatal programming the process by which events in the womb alter the development of physical and psychological health. Teratogens substances that can cause permanent damage to the developing embryo or fetus. Temperament the biologically based tendency to behave in particular ways from very early in life. High heart rate in a 36 week old fetus foreshadowed less predictable eating and sleeping habits and 3 and 6 months after birth. A high heart rate also predicted a less emotional infant at 6 months after birth. Fine motor skills the coordination of many smaller muscles, along with information from the eyes, in the service of some task. Fine motor development shows up, for example, in children's drawing skills. Pruning the degradation of synapses and dying off of neurons that are not strengthened by experience, which is the nature's way of making the brain more efficient. J.E. Richard find that the brain is becoming more organized and efficient during the first 6 months of life, and this increased brain organization leads to increased ability to pay attention and focus on one thing during the first year of life. Jean Piaget's principles of cognitive development the cognitive development from birth throughout childhood outline stages at which certain cognitive capacities appear. Relying primarily on observation of his own 3 children, he outlined 4 phases of cognitive development from birth through adolescence, which he called the sensorimotor. Sensorimotor stage Piaget's first stage of cognitive development (ages 0-2), when infants learn about the world by using their senses by moving their bodies. Object permanence the ability to realize that objects still exist when they not being sensed. Preoperational stage the second major stage of cognitive development (age 2-5), which begins with the emergence of symbolic thought. The cognitive limitations of the preoperational stage include animistic thinking, egocentrism and lack of conservation. Animistic thinking the idea that inanimated object are alive. Egocentrism the tendency to view the world only from one's own perspective. Conservation the ability to recognize that, when some properties (such as shape) of an object change, other properties (such as volume) remain constant). Concrete operational stage Piaget's third stage of cognitive development, which spans ages 6-11, during which the child can perform mental operations, such as reversing on real objectives or events. Formal operational stage Piaget's final stage of cognitive development, from age 11 or 12 through adulthood, when formal logic is possible. Zone of proximal development Lev Vygotsky, the distance between what a child can learn alone and what that child can learn assisted by someone else, usually an adult. Theory of mind ideas and knowledge about how other people's minds work Lawrence Kohlberg studied the development of moral reasoning in children and adults by giving them a moral dilemma and recording the reasons they provided for their responses. Their responses were less important to him than was the reasoning behind them. Preconventional level the first level of Kohlberg' theory of moral reasoning, focusing on avoiding punishment or maximizing rewards. Conventional level the second level in Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, during which the person value caring, trust, and relationships as well as the social order and lawfulness. Postconventional level the third level in Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning, in which the person recognizes universal moral rules that may trump unjust or immoral local rules. Easy child predictable in daily functions, is happy most of the time, and is adaptable (about 40% of children fell in this category). Difficult child unpredictable in daily functions, is unpredictable in daily functions, is unhappy most of the time, and is slow to adapt to new situations (10% fell into this category). Slow-to-warm-up child mildly intense in his or her reactions to new situations and mildly irregular in the daily patterns of eating, sleeping, and eliminating (10% fell into this category). Imprinting the rapid and innate learning of the characteristics of caregiver very soon after birth. Attachment the strong emotional connection that develops early in life between infants and their caregivers. Separation anxiety the distress reaction babies show when they are separated from their primary caregivers (typically shown at around 9 months of age). Insecure resistant an insecure-resistant infant can not be comforted by the mother on reunion and shows difficulty in returning to play. Some babies actively resist contact with the parents at this stage, and other act more passive. The infant's resistance and distress during the reunion may reflect the infant's lack of confidence in being comforted (~10% to 15% of infants). Insecure-disorganized/disoriented these infants show odd, conflicted behaviors in the strange situation. They might approach the mother on reunion, but they do so with their heads averted. Or they might freeze in place for 50 seconds in the mother's presence. These infants are frightened and are afraid of their parents. Social referencing the ability to make use of social and emotional information from another person-especially a caregiver-in an uncertain situation. Emotional competence the ability to control emotions and to know when it is appropriate to express certain emotions. Peer interaction children begin to interact socially during play at about age 3. By mid-to late childhood, peer are probably an even bigger influence than parents on a child's development. Adolescence the transition period between childhood and early adulthood, beginning at about 11 or 12 and lasting until around age 18. Puberty the period when sexual maturation begins; it marks the beginning of adolescence. Menarche the first menstrual period. Sperarche the first ejaculation. Neural synchrony the ability of certain types of brain wave to work together to allow for coordinated activity in the brain, also increases through adolescence and possibly into early adulthood. Abnormal neural synchrony appear to play a role in such disorders as autism and schizophrenia Synaptic pruning rarely used synapses are allowed to die off to make the brain more efficient. Gonads the sex glands, a testis or ovary. Erik Erikson's model of personality development 1. Infancy (hope) basic trust vs basic mistrust. 2. Early childhood (will) autonomy vs shame and doubt. 3. Play age (purpose) initiative vs guilt. 4. School age (competence) industry vs. inferiority. 5. Adolescence (fidelity) identity vs identity confusion. 6. Young adulthood (love) intimacy vs. isolation. 7. Adulthood (care) generativity vs stagnation. 8. Old age (wisdom) integrity vs. despair, disgust. Emerging adulthood the transitional phase between adolescence and young adulthood include ages 18-25 years. Intimacy as defined by Erikson, the ability to fuse one's identity with another without the fear of losing it. Individuation the process of a person's personality becoming whole and full. Generativity a term Erik Erikson used to describe the process in adulthood of creating new ideas, products, or people. Stagnation a situation in which an adult become more self-focused than oriented toward others and does not contribute in a productive way to society or family. Fluid intelligence raw mental ability, pattern recognition, and abstract reasoning that can be applied to a problem one has never confronted before. Crystallized intelligence the kind of knowledge that one gain from experience and learning, education, and practice. Wisdom the ability to know what matters, to live well, and to show good judgement. Dementia a loss of mental function, in which many cognitive processes are impaired, such as the ability to remember, reason, solve problems, make decisions, and use language. Alzheimer's disease a degenerative disease marked by progressive cognitive decline and characterized by a collection of symptoms, including confusion, memory loss, mood swings, and eventual loss of physical function. Old age starting 60 or 65, the conflict of old age is between integrity and despair.

Which of the following is true about integrity in of the context of Erik Erikson's theory of personality development? Integrity is the sense that all of one's life decisions are coming together. Integrity is being informed and knowledgeable about life. Integrity is the creation of new ideas, products, or people. Integrity is the ability to fuse one's identity with another's without the fear of losing it.

Integrity is the sense that all of one's life decisions are coming together.

According to the model of temperament developed by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, which of the following statements is true regarding the difficult child? The difficult child is slow to adapt to new situations. The difficult child is happy most of the time. The difficult child is predictable in daily functions The difficult child is mildly irregular in the daily patterns of eating, sleeping, and eliminating.

The difficult child is slow to adapt to new situations.

When Cathy was asked to respond to the Heinz dilemma developed by Kohlberg, she said, "Although it is legally wrong, Heinz should steal the drug to save his wife's life. But he also has to be willing to suffer the consequences and go to jail if need be." According to the theory of moral reasoning developed by Kohlberg, Cathy is at the _______________ stage of moral development. postconventional preconventional concrete operational preoperational

postconventional

The legal limit of blood alcohol concentration for driving in all states of the United States is ________ BAC.

0.08

What do alpha brain waves indicate? A. A state of drowsiness and relaxation B. Dreaming C. Very deep sleep D. A state of active wakefulness

A. A state of drowsiness and relaxation

Which of the following is NOT a component of the test that reveals the degree of coma? A. Emotional responsiveness B. Verbal responsiveness C. Motor responsiveness D. The degree of eye opening

A. Emotional responsiveness

Which of the following can occur as a consequence of mild-to-moderate intake of tea and energy drinks? A. Increased heart rate B. Better motor coordination C. Decreased alertness D. Nausea

A. Increased heart rate

Which hormone plays a role in relaxation and drowsiness in human beings? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Cortisol

A. Melatonin

Which of the following is a powerful stimulant that is more difficult to quit and also reduces blood supply to skin tissue? A. Nicotine B. Caffeine C. Endorphin D. Heroin

A. Nicotine

Which of the following best describes sustained attention? A. The ability to maintain focused awareness on a target or an idea B. The ability to direct one's sense organs to form a complete perspective C. The ability to respond simultaneously to multiple task demands D. The neural process that enhances one's involuntary reflexes

A. The ability to maintain focused awareness on a target or an idea

Which area in the brain gets subdued as a result of hypnosis that does not let a person experience pain? A. The cortical area B. The autonomous nervous system C. The axons D. The hypothalamus

A. The cortical area

Which of the following describes the interrelation of concentration and attention? A. The perceptual load model B. The cognitive load theory C. The global workspace model D. Baddeley's model

A. The perceptual load model

Which of the following, in all probability, creates a consolidation of discrete experiences that evokes a holistic experience of something? A. The synchrony of cell assemblies B. Metaplasticity C. Tetanic stimulation D. Long-term potentiation

A. The synchrony of cell assemblies

What stage does wakefulness without awareness suggest? A. Vegetative B. Drowsiness C. Lucid dreaming D. Comatose

A. Vegetative

Individuals with no previous meditation experience who underwent eight weeks of mindfulness meditation training showed: A. an increased EEG activity in the left frontal cortex. B. an increased EEG activity in the right frontal cortex. C. an increased EEG activity in the occipital lobe. D. a decreased EEG activity in the occipital lobe.

A. an increased EEG activity in the left frontal cortex.

Neuroimaging studies of people learning to navigate a virtual maze show: A. an increased activation in the hippocampus. B. a decreased activation in the hippocampus. C. an increased activation in the hypothalamus. D. a decreased activation in the hypothalamus.

A. an increased activation in the hippocampus.

Multitasking _____ learning. A. compromises B. bolsters C. makes no difference to D. facilitates

A. compromises

According to Buxton, it is okay to sleep less than the optimum duration as long as: A. it falls in the appropriate circadian circle. B. it is at a place with appropriate lighting. C. it encourages appropriate metabolic cleansing. D. it is done right after learning a task.

A. it falls in the appropriate circadian circle.

According to Sigmund Freud, the level at which the important underlying meaning of our dreams is termed as the: A. latent level. B. subliminal level. C. deep level. D. manifest level.

A. latent level.

Adults move through about ________ different cycles of non-REM and REM sleep every night, with each cycle lasting roughly ________ minutes. A. 4-6; 90 B. 2-3; 40 C. 8-10; 10 D. 12-14; 2-3

A. 4-6; 90

How long does the night's first episode of REM sleep usually last? A. 8-10 minutes B. 2-3 minutes C. 12-14 minutes D. 10-20 minutes

A. 8-10 minutes

Which of the following statements is true of dreams? A. Dreams can occur in non-REM stage. B. Full-blown dreams are more common during non-REM than REM sleep. C. Dreams occur only in REM stage. D. Dreams coincide with the occurrence of sleep spindles.

A. Dreams can occur in non-REM stage.

A person in a ________ state will show signs of low wakefulness and awareness. A. comatose B. conscious C. sensitive D. hypoactive

A. comatose

In humans, a surge of melatonin release occurs during the: A. evening. B. night. C. afternoon. D. morning.

A. evening.

Tamara complains that her husband can actually sleep anywhere and anytime. He can sleep for more than 10 hours a day, notwithstanding the fact that he even dozes off during meals and in the middle of conversations. If Tamara's husband visits the doctor, the doctor is most likely to diagnose his problem as ______. A. hypersomnia B. insomnia C. cataplexy D. somnambulism

A. hypersomnia

As one moves from Stage 2 to Stage 3 sleep, an EEG will show the waves change from ________ to ________ waves. A. theta; delta B. beta; theta C. alpha; theta D. delta; theta

A. theta; delta

What does the AIM stand for?

Activation, input, and mode

Which of the following can be best described as a condition that results from habitual use or physical and psychological dependence on a substance?

Addiction

Which of the following age groups is most influenced by technology? Infants Babies Adolescents Elderly adults

Adolescents

Which of the following acts as a stage for the main event of the brain at a given moment in time? A. Memory B. Consciousness C. Perception D. Cognition

B. Consciousness

Which of the following holds true when the retina of the eyes detect light in the morning? A. It stimulates the supraoptic nucleus. B. It stimulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus. C. It stimulates the nucleus accumbens. D. It stimulates the dorsomedial nucleus.

B. It stimulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

Which of the following views did psychologist Ernest Hilgard subscribe to? A. Under hypnosis, thoughts, feelings, and drives that threaten the waking mind come to the fore. B. Under hypnosis, one aspect of a person's mind can remain aware and open to stimulation from the outside while other parts are cut off from external input. C. Hypnotized individuals actually involve in role-playing by behaving the way they think a hypnotized person would behave. D. Hypnosis does not alter consciousness, nor do hypnotized individuals give up control of their behavior.

B. Under hypnosis, one aspect of a person's mind can remain aware and open to stimulation from the outside while other parts are cut off from external input.

A weakness of facial muscles and muscles in limbs that people experience with narcolepsy is: A. apnea. B. cataplexy. C. synaptic malfunction. D. catalepsy.

B. cataplexy.

Which of the following is commonly used as a prescription sedative?

Benzodiazepines

Which of the following is most often used to treat narcolepsy? A. Benzodiazepines B. Opioids C. Amphetamines D. Heroin

C. Amphetamines

In the biological theory of dreams, the three-dimensional AIM cube depicts all states of consciousness occupying a different space. Why does REM sleep occupy the lower front right portion of the cube? A. Because it is active, external, and logical B. Because it is non-active, external, and logical C. Because it is highly active, internal, and loose D. Because it is non-active, internal, and loose

C. Because it is highly active, internal, and loose

Which of the following is commonly used as a prescription sedative? A. Nitroglycerin B. Hydrocodone C. Benzodiazepines D. Serotonin

C. Benzodiazepines

What were the findings of the fMRI study of people driving in a simulator while using a hands-free device? A. Decrease in frontal lobe activity B. Increase in parietal lobe activity C. Decrease in the parietal lobe activity D. Increase in frontal lobe activity

C. Decrease in the parietal lobe activity

Which of the following is true of nightmares? A. It is also known as night terrors. B. It is rarely experienced by adults. C. It is a result of post-traumatic stress disorder. D. It never occurs with cancer patients.

C. It is a result of post-traumatic stress disorder.

According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following refers to two distinct levels of consciousness in the context of dreams? A. Implicit and explicit levels B. Internal and external levels C. Latent and manifest levels D. Superficial and subliminal levels

C. Latent and manifest levels

According to new research, which drug is found to be effective for treating post-traumatic stress disorder? A. Cocaine B. LSD C. MDMA D. Heroin

C. MDMA

Which of the following is NOT an example of Circadian rhythms? A. Body temperature B. Sleep-wake cycle C. Menstrual cycle D. Hormone production

C. Menstrual cycle

What does REM stand for? A. Repetitive eye movement B. Random eye movement C. Rapid eye movement D. Reflexive eye movement

C. Rapid eye movement

Which of the following tests, upon research, yielded classic scientific evidence for selective attention? A. The Stroop test B. The right-left orientation test C. The dichotic listening test D. The trail marking test

C. The dichotic listening test

Which of the following holds true when a person is fully awake? A. The person is in a fully conscious state at all times. B. The person cannot be in a minimally conscious state for prolonged periods of time. C. The person can experience vacillating consciousness. D. The person cannot experience states of moderate consciousnesses.

C. The person can experience vacillating consciousness.

Which of the following is an alternate way to pay back sleep debt used by many people? A. Increased alertness during the following day B. Enhanced memory C. Use of nicotine D. Careful and vigilant driving habits

C. Use of nicotine

Which of the following best describes the circadian rhythm? A. Variations in physiological processes that exclude the sleep-wake cycle B. Variations in physiological processes that cycle longer than 48 hours C. Variations in physiological processes that cycle within approximately a 24-hour period D. Variations in physiological processes that take more than once a year to complete one cycle

C. Variations in physiological processes that cycle within approximately a 24-hour period

When mild to moderate alcohol consumption is said to be beneficial, it suggests that no more than ________ drinks a day appears to provide protective effects on the ________. A. four; general health B. one; physical health C. two; cardiovascular system D. three; psychological system

C. two; cardiovascular system

Behavioral responsiveness is not the only determining factor of an individual's capacity to communicate with other people. B. An individual in a vegetative state cannot react to any stimulus from the environment. C. Behavioral non-responsiveness cannot be the sole determinant of one's ability to interact with the world. D. An individual in a vegetative state can show signs of awareness without wakefulness.

C. Behavioral non-responsiveness cannot be the sole determinant of one's ability to interact with the world.

Which of the following best describes free radicals? A. The tiny gap between nerve cells across which neurotransmitters pass. B. Specialized cell that supports, protects, or nourishes nerve cells. C. By-products of oxygen metabolism. D. Thick bundles of nerve cell fibers that connect the two cerebral hemispheres.

C. By-products of oxygen metabolism.

What happens when one learns something new and stores it as short-term or long-term memory? A. It has no bearing on synaptic connections. B. Synaptic connections get weakened. C. Synaptic connections get strengthened. D. Increase in the release of Schwann cells.

C. Synaptic connections get strengthened.

When do people respond easily to hypnosis? A. When they are fully conscious. B. When their critical faculties of mind are in control. C. When they are relaxed. D. When they have voluntary control over their own behavior.

C. When they are relaxed.

EEG studies of people suffering from narcolepsy reveal: A. protracted REM sleeping patterns. B. absence of sleep spindles. C. abnormality in sleep spindles. D. normal REM sleeping patterns.

C. abnormality in sleep spindles.

A recent meta-analysis of 16 prospective studies on sleep and mortality revealed that: A. people who slept less than six to eight hours showed greater longevity. B. people who slept more than six to eight hours showed greater longevity. C. people who slept between six to eight hours a day lived longer. D. sleep is unrelated to an individual's mortality.

C. people who slept between six to eight hours a day lived longer.

Which of the following holds true of an individual during the different stages of sleep? A. An individual in Stage 2 experiences no K-complexes. B. An individual in Stage 4 sleep experiences more sleep spindles than Stage 3. C. An individual in Stage 3 experiences more K-complexes than Stage 2. D. An individual in Stage 3 sleep experiences fewer sleep spindles than Stage 2.

D. An individual in Stage 3 sleep experiences fewer sleep spindles than Stage 2.

Which of the following do magic tricks take advantage of? A. Audience's sustained attention B. Audience's divided attention C. Audience's short attention span D. Audience's focused attention

D. Audience's focused attention

Which of the following is true of nicotine? A. It reduces heart rate. B. It relaxes the autonomic nervous system. C. It arouses the skeletal muscles. D. It increases respiration rate.

D. It increases respiration rate.

What happens when one switches from one simple task to another? A. There is absolutely no lost time, unlike while switching between complex tasks. B. The amount of lost time is high. C. There is an equal amount of lost time just as in switching between complex tasks. D. The amount of lost time is low.

D. The amount of lost time is low.

Which of the following refers to a widely-held scientific belief in the 1950s? A. Dreams occurred in the passive state of sleep. B. The brain was active throughout sleep. C. Dreaming happened in the inactive stage of sleep. D. The brain was relatively inactive during sleep.

D. The brain was relatively inactive during sleep.

Mehroof, 20 years of age, suffers an accident which causes him to lose consciousness. He is declared to be in a comatose state. Which of the following can be useful in detecting the degree of his coma? A. Stroop test B. Rancho Coma Scale C. MRI test D. Glasgow Coma Scale

D. Glasgow Coma Scale

How can concentration meditation help an individual? A. It can lead to an increase in impulsive responding. B. It can lead to an increase in constant attention shifts. C. It can lead to an increase in divided attention. D. It can lead to an increase in sustained attention.

D. It can lead to an increase in sustained attention.

What was the findings of the experiment that yielded scientific evidence for selective attention? A. Recall was equally bad for both ears. B. Recall was worse for the attended ear. C. Recall was equally good for both ears. D. Recall was better for the attended ear.

D. Recall was better for the attended ear.

Which of the following holds true of the brain? A. The brain cannot consolidate learning in sleep. B. The brain cannot consolidate memories in sleep. C. Napping after learning typically reduces performance. D. Task learning is replayed in the brain during sleep.

D. Task learning is replayed in the brain during sleep.

Which of the following holds true regarding sleep? A. The conscious mind and the outside world completely draw a blank. B. The sleeping state is irreversible. C. The sleeping state has the conscious mind perceiving all the sensations of the outer world. D. The sleeping state can be immediately reversed.

D. The sleeping state can be immediately reversed.

Talking while driving: A. increases activity in regions of the brain associated with spatial processing. B. has no impact on the activity in areas of the brain associated with language processing. C. has no impact on the activity in regions of the brain associated with spatial processing. D. increases activity in areas associated with language processing.

D. increases activity in areas associated with language processing.

Chen is attending a lecture where his professor requests all students to give their undivided attention to an important concept he intends to explain. The professor is actually interested in the students'________ attention. A. focused B. sustained C. alternating D. selective

D. selective

According to the model of temperament developed by Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess, the ________________ child is predictable in daily functions, is happy most of the time, and is adaptable. difficult conventional slow-to-warm-up easy

Easy

Alcohol is a type of stimulant. True False

F

Marijuana actually contains few, if any, of the carcinogens found in cigarette smoke. True False

F

Nicotine is the world's most commonly used psychoactive drug. True False

F

The frontal lobes are typically not affected by excessive drinking. True False

F

Which of the following statements is true regarding gray matter? Increase in gray matter volume suggest pruning. Gray matter starts to decline in adolescence. Gray matter continues to grow into one's 40s. Gray matter consists of axons and myelin.

Gray matter starts to decline in adolescence.

The Gestalt law of ________ occurs when we perceive a whole object in the absence of complete information. proximity closure continuity similarity

IDK

Which of the following statements is true about identical twins? Twins are identical mainly due to dizygotic fertilization. In the womb, up to 5% of identical twins develop their own placenta. Identical twins develop from one fertilized egg. Identical twins turn out to be vastly different from each other in their personalities, intelligence, illness, and disease histories.

Identical twins develop from one fertilized egg.

Which of the following is a primary problem of adolescence? In boys, the event that signals readiness to reproduce is menarche. Boys are not able to engage in scientific reasoning and hypothesis testing. In boys and girls, the body is ready for parenthood far earlier than the mind is. Boys and girls do not gain the ability to reason about abstract concepts and problems.

In boys and girls, the body is ready for parenthood far earlier than the mind is.

What is a difference threshold? It is the smallest amount of change between two stimuli that a person can detect half of the time. It is the process by which the brain organizes and interprets sensory experience. It is the highest amount of physical stimulation that an individual can detect half of the time. It is the lowest level of a physiological stimulus that humans can sense half of the time.

It is the smallest amount of change between two stimuli that a person can detect half of the time

Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of stillbirth? Prescription drugs taken during pregnancy Nicotine exposure from maternal smoking Lack of vitamin B12 and folic acid in the mother's diet Developing an infection during pregnancy

Nicotine exposure from maternal smoking

Which of the following is a theory of color vision that can account for the color afterimage of the American flag as well as help explain some instances of color blindness? Signal detection theory Opponent process theory Gate control theory Trichromatic color theory

Opponent process theory

____________ can be defined as the process by which events in the womb alter the development of physical and psychological health. Prenatal programming Neuron migration Pruning Generativity

Prenatal programming

Which of the following refers to the active ingredient of hallucinogenic mushrooms that is found to trigger fairly stable spiritual insights?

Psilocybin

________ is the study of how people psychologically perceive physical stimuli such as light, sound waves, and touch. Psychoanalysis Psychophysics Psychogenesis Psycho-perceive

Psychophysics

Which of the following occurs after the frontal lobes have developed more fully? Animistic thinking increases. Heart rate decreases. Scientific thinking becomes possible. The possibility of developing anorexia nervosa increases.

Scientific thinking becomes possible.

In which stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive development does object permanence develop? Sensorimotor Preoperational Concrete operational Formal operational

Sensorimotor

Which of the following is the correct order of the stages of Piaget's principles of cognitive development, from earliest to latest? Preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational Preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational

Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

Which of the following statements regarding sound waves is true? Sound waves must travel through some medium or we cannot hear them. Sound waves can move only through air, and not through fluids. Sound waves travel much faster than light waves. The height of a sound wave determines its pitch.

Sound waves must travel through some medium or we cannot hear them.

Susan was watching fireworks during the 4th of July celebration. She noticed that she always saw the crackers burst before she heard its sounds. Which of the following explains Susan's experience? Sound waves travel much more slowly than light waves. The decibel level of the firecrackers is about 110-120 dB. Susan is seated very far from where the crackers are being lit. The pitch of the firecrackers is more than 2000 Hz.

Sound waves travel much more slowly than light waves.

Alpha waves are dominant when we are drowsy. True False

T

In a dichotic listening task, a different message is directed to each ear at the same time. True False

T

Melatonin is a hormone that makes us sleepy. True False

T

REM stands for Rapid Eye Movements. True False

T

The Cognitive theory of dreams, suggests that dreams are similar to our everyday thinking experience. True False

T

______________ is by far the most popular form of technology used in infancy. Computer Cellphone Video game Television

Television

Which part of a person's eyes are photoreceptors that help her see the path in front and the trees around her when she is walking in the woods at night? The lens The cones The rods The pupils

The rods

Schumacher Exam 2

The size and shape of neurons can vary True Communication between neurons is by the axon False Dopamine is a neurotransmitter True Glia cells support neurons. True The strength of an action potential stays the same. True How does L-DOPA affect someone with Parkinson's disease? It temporarily relieves the symptoms What is the advantage of an action potential over electrical conduction in the nervous system? An action potential doesn't diminish in strength In comparison to other body cells, what is distinctive about neurons? Their varied shapes What is the relationship between neurotransmitters and their receptors? The brain has many neurotransmitters, and each has several types of receptors When an axon membrane is at rest, the inside has what kind of charge, relative to the outside? negative (-70 to be exact) The three parts of a neuron are the cell body, the __________, and the __________. dendrites; axon Which part of a neuron releases neurotransmitters into the synapse? terminal button If a drug prevents the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA from attaching to its receptors, what happens to the postsynaptic cell? will produce more action potentials than usual What happens to the strength of an action potential as it travels along an axon? remains constant The __________ is a single, long, thin, straight fiber with branches near its tip. Some are covered with __________, an insulating sheath that speeds up the transmission of impulses. Axon; myelin Suppose your finger touches something. WHEN do you get the sensation? a split second later The study of axons and action potentials enables us to understand how Novocain and other anesthetic drugs block pain. The part of a neuron receiving messages is the ____. The part sending messages is the ___ dendrites, axon Which of the following is a widely used treatment for Parkinson's disease? L-DOPA, converts into dopamine What do a neuron's dendrites do? receive info a single neuron can have many dendrites After neurotransmitter molecules detach from their receptor, some of them diffuse away. What happens to the others? the presynaptic cell takes them back to use them again. Otto Loewi devised a clever experiment that demonstrated neurons communicate by releasing chemicals If a drug prevents sodium from crossing an axon membrane, what happens? axon stops transmitting action potentials Parkinson's disease results from a deficiency in which neurotransmitter? dopamine What is a neurotransmitter? a chemical that travels from one neuron to another a mouse, a dog, and a giraffe all get toe pinches. Which responds fastest? Mouse One of the main symptoms of Parkinson's disease is impairment of initiating voluntary movemet You would feel a pinch on your shoulder (very slightly) sooner than a toe pinch. Why? shorter distance to the brain The nervous system is made up of two types of cells called __________ and __________. neurons; glia Which of the following is caused by a loss of dopamine in the brain? Parkinson's disease What happens at a synapse? release of a chemical that affects another cell Which of the following is true of an action potential? strength remains the same from start to finish What is the long fiber that conducts impulses from a neuron's cell body toward another cell? axon In what way do synaptic messages differ from the way computers store information? vary in speed and duration

Which of the following views did psychologist Ernest Hilgard subscribe to?

Under hypnosis, one aspect of a person's mind can remain aware and open to stimulation from the outside while other parts are cut off from external input.

ch 6

Which of the following holds true regarding consciousness? A. Much of what we do requires deliberate, conscious thought. B. Consciousness is an easily defined term. C. New information can cause consciousness to change dramatically. D. Consciousness has five aspects to it. C. New information can cause consciousness to change dramatically. Which of the following acts as a stage for the main event of the brain at a given moment in time? A. Memory B. Consciousness C. Perception D. Cognition B. Consciousness Which of the following enables the occurrence of a conscious experience? A. A static connection between the brain's various processing areas B. A weak connection between the brain's various processing areas C. A random connection between the brain's various processing areas D. A strong connection between the brain's various processing areas D. A strong connection between the brain's various processing areas Which of the following best describes the global workspace of consciousness? A. When the various sensory elements get integrated. B. When the mind is awake but not very aware. C. When different sensory elements work one at a time. D. When the mind withholds information needed to do complex tasks such as reasoning, comprehension, and learning. A. When the various sensory elements get integrated. The feeling of being in love is attributed to: A. objective consciousness. B. intelligence. C. psychic consciousness. D. subjective consciousness. D. subjective consciousness. What are the two aspects of consciousness? A. Alertness and wakefulness B. Awareness and control C. Memory and alertness D. Wakefulness and awareness D. Wakefulness and awareness The monitoring of information from the environment and from one's own thoughts is termed as: A. intelligence. B. awareness. C. wakefulness. D. memory. B. awareness. Arjun is in a condition wherein he is fully awake, but not aware. This is most likely because he is: A. in a coma. B. driving. C. extremely drunk. D. sedated. C. extremely drunk. Variation in consciousness can be attributed to the difference in degrees of: A. cognition and memory. B. wakefulness and awareness. C. ignorance and wakefulness. D. awareness and cognition. B. wakefulness and awareness. A person in a ________ state will show signs of low wakefulness and awareness. A. comatose B. conscious C. sensitive D. hypoactive A. comatose Leticia suffers an accident which makes it impossible for her to open her eyes. Additionally, she also becomes unresponsive to any stimulus. What is the most likely reason for her enduring loss of consciousness? A. Damage to the corpus callosum of the brain. B. Absence of the corpus callosum of the brain. C. Damage to the reticular formation of the brain. D. An overactive reticular formation of the brain. C. Damage to the reticular formation of the brain. Mehroof, 20 years of age, suffers an accident which causes him to lose consciousness. He is declared to be in a comatose state. Which of the following can be useful in detecting the degree of his coma? A. Stroop test B. Rancho Coma Scale C. MRI test D. Glasgow Coma Scale D. Glasgow Coma Scale Which of the following is NOT a component of the test that reveals the degree of coma? A. Emotional responsiveness B. Verbal responsiveness C. Motor responsiveness D. The degree of eye opening A. Emotional responsiveness If the doctors give Terry a score of 14 on the coma test, what does it imply? A. She cannot recover from her condition. B. She can respond verbally and motorically. C. She can respond only motorically. D. She can respond neither verbally nor motorically. B. She can respond verbally and motorically. In which state will a person be wakeful but not very aware? A. Active B. Daydreaming C. Cogitating D. Vegetative D. Vegetative Tatiana is in an unresponsive condition though she can open her eyes. This suggests that she is in a(n) ________ state. A. comatose B. vegetative C. drowsy D. unconscious B. vegetative What stage does wakefulness without awareness suggest? A. Vegetative B. Drowsiness C. Lucid dreaming D. Comatose A. Vegetative A flawed belief that physicians had about anyone who was vegetative was that the individual: A. does not react to stimuli from the environment. B. shows signs of motoric response. C. reacts to external forces. D. shows signs of awareness without wakefulness. A. does not react to stimuli from the environment. People show signs of intentional behavior when they are: A. in an unconscious state. B. comatose. C. minimally conscious. D. in a subconscious state. C. minimally conscious. When can a person in a vegetative state be said to exhibit intentional thought? A. When the responses are communicative B. When the body only responds to stimuli causing shock c D. When the instructions are merely registered in the brain C. When the brain responds to commands Which of the following holds true for a minimally conscious person? A. Inability to exhibit intentional thought B. Inability to track a person with eyes C. Inability to communicate D. Ability to show voluntary behavior C. Inability to communicate Behavioral responsiveness is not the only determining factor of an individual's capacity to communicate with other people. B. An individual in a vegetative state cannot react to any stimulus from the environment. C. Behavioral non-responsiveness cannot be the sole determinant of one's ability to interact with the world. D. An individual in a vegetative state can show signs of awareness without wakefulness. C. Behavioral non-responsiveness cannot be the sole determinant of one's ability to interact with the world. Which psychologist coined the term preconscious? A. Piaget B. Skinner C. Erikson D. Freud D. Freud What does the term preconscious refer to? A. Intentionally repressed material that takes the form of unconscious B. Potentially accessible material currently unavailable to awareness C. Repressed unconscious material that cannot be consciously recollected D. Preexisting material immediately realizable to awareness B. Potentially accessible material currently unavailable to awareness Jimmy is taking his 7th grade exam in which he is asked to give one word for a set of given explanations. Though he knows the words for the answer and is confident about recollecting them, he is unable to recall them at that particular time. Which of the following terms refer to Jimmy's experience? A. Decay theory B. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon C. Motivated forgetting D. Freudian slip B. Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon Which of the following best describes moderate consciousness? A. The unconscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness B. The conscious experience of knowing something that can be brought into awareness C. The conscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness D. The unconscious experience of knowing something that can be brought into awareness C. The conscious experience of knowing something that cannot be brought into awareness When a person is roused by sounds that seem important while filtering out the rest that seem run-of-the-mill, he/she is in a(n) ________ state. A. minimally conscious B. objectively conscious C. subjectively conscious D. moderately conscious D. moderately conscious Which of the following holds true when a person is fully awake? A. The person is in a fully conscious state at all times. B. The person cannot be in a minimally conscious state for prolonged periods of time. C. The person can experience vacillating consciousness. D. The person cannot experience states of moderate consciousnesses. C. The person can experience vacillating consciousness. When does an individual attain a flow state? A. When he/she is barely awake or aware but shows some deliberate movements. B. When he/she thrives in his/her ability to rise to the occasion of challenging tasks. C. When he/she is barely able to maintain focused awareness on a target. D. When he/she recollects material that is potentially accessible but not currently available to awareness. B. When he/she thrives in his/her ability to rise to the occasion of challenging tasks. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of a flow state? A. The experience of always being depressed regardless of intrinsic and extrinsic factors. B. The sense of losing track of time while being engrossed in an activity. C. The phenomenon of things eventually falling in place after a string of mishaps. D. The state of suspending non-belief in order to make something seem credible. B. The sense of losing track of time while being engrossed in an activity. Graham displays a heightened sense of awareness of events in his environment. For instance, when he picks a book to read, he pores over every bit of information given about the author, edition, preface, and even the colors and images on the cover page. This is indicative of the fact that Graham is a(n) ________ person. A. mindful B. docile C. rational D. versatile A. mindful Which of the following statements about mindfulness is true? A. Mindfulness is a universal and a uniform phenomenon. B. Individuals who are mindful are not aware of their own feelings in response. C. Mindfulness can have various levels of intensity. D. An individual cannot develop his/her mindfulness using mental training techniques. C. Mindfulness can have various levels of intensity. Which of the following can be considered a key element of consciousness? A. Intuition B. Knowledge C. Optimism D. Attention D. Attention The limited capacity to process information that is under conscious control best defines the term: A. attention. B. chunking. C. intuition. D. encoding. A. attention. Which of the following is an attentional process that helps determine the contents of consciousness at any given moment in time? A. Sustained attention B. Flashing attention C. Alternating attention D. Divided attention A. Sustained attention The ability to focus awareness on specific features in the environment while ignoring others is termed as: A. sustained attention. B. focused attention. C. selective attention. D. Stroop effect. C. selective attention. Carlos is oblivious of what his classmates are doing while taking a test at school. However, when his friend sneezes loudly, he immediately notices. What does this illustrate? A. Consciousness focuses our attention on changes in stimulation. B. It is possible for us to be aware of all material at all times. C. All of us can do more than one thing at a time without compromising our performance on either task. D. Consciousness causes us to react to all stimuli. A. Consciousness focuses our attention on changes in stimulation. Chen is attending a lecture where his professor requests all students to give their undivided attention to an important concept he intends to explain. The professor is actually interested in the students'________ attention. A. focused B. sustained C. alternating D. selective D. selective Which of the following tests, upon research, yielded classic scientific evidence for selective attention? A. The Stroop test B. The right-left orientation test C. The dichotic listening test D. The trail marking test C. The dichotic listening test What was the findings of the experiment that yielded scientific evidence for selective attention? A. Recall was equally bad for both ears. B. Recall was worse for the attended ear. C. Recall was equally good for both ears. D. Recall was better for the attended ear. D. Recall was better for the attended ear. Information can make its way into consciousness through the unattended ear if it is: A. monotonous. B. meaningful. C. random. D. trivial. B. meaningful. Nina is attending a get-together where she has to struggle to listen to a conversation with her colleague due to a lot of background noise. However, her ears prick up as soon as she hears her name being mentioned by someone in another part of the room and, consequently, she loses the thread of conversation with her colleague. Which of the following terms best describes the experience Nina has? A. The serial-position effect B. The Stroop effect C. The cocktail party effect D. Perceptual constancy C. The cocktail party effect Which of the following best describes the cocktail party effect? A. A strong urge to nap at inappropriate times, such as during meals or in the middle of conversations. B. The ability to filter out auditory stimuli and then to refocus attention on something that appears more meaningful. C. A mental state that occurs in compliance with instructions and is characterized by lack of voluntary control over behavior. D. The ability to create a false sensory perception not related to real external stimuli. B. The ability to filter out auditory stimuli and then to refocus attention on something that appears more meaningful. Which of the following creates gaps in attention and perception? A. Selective attention B. Sustained attention C. Continuous attention D. Persistent attention A. Selective attention Which of the following do magic tricks take advantage of? A. Audience's sustained attention B. Audience's divided attention C. Audience's short attention span D. Audience's focused attention D. Audience's focused attention Which of the following refers to a phenomenon by which one fails to notice unexpected objects in her or his surroundings? A. Inattentional blindness B. Subliminal perception C. Change phenomenon D. Visual masking A. Inattentional blindness Which of the following describes the interrelation of concentration and attention? A. The perceptual load model B. The cognitive load theory C. The global workspace model D. Baddeley's model A. The perceptual load model Bob finds it easier to concentrate on his studies when he finds the topic interesting. He is engrossed to such an extent that he does not even realize that the television has been turned to the maximum volume. However, if the topic does not interest him, he tends to get distracted at the drop of a hat. Which of the following theories explains Bob's behavior? A. The psychoanalytic theory B. Baddeley's theory C. The cognitive load theory D. The perceptual load theory D. The perceptual load theory Which of the following can lead one to consciously attend to something? A. When neurons from one region of the brain work together B. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work together C. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work independently D. When neurons from one region of the brain work independently B. When neurons from many distinct brain regions work together When an individual engages in synchronization, she or he: A. hallucinates. B. has a subconscious experience. C. becomes unconscious. D. has a conscious experience. D. has a conscious experience. Which of the following, in all probability, creates a consolidation of discrete experiences that evokes a holistic experience of something? A. The synchrony of cell assemblies B. Metaplasticity C. Tetanic stimulation D. Long-term potentiation A. The synchrony of cell assemblies Which of the following best describes sustained attention? A. The ability to maintain focused awareness on a target or an idea B. The ability to direct one's sense organs to form a complete perspective C. The ability to respond simultaneously to multiple task demands D. The neural process that enhances one's involuntary reflexes A. The ability to maintain focused awareness on a target or an idea Alisha is employed as an air traffic controller. Which of the following abilities would be vital for Alisha? A. The ability to individually respond to specific auditory, visual, or tactile stimuli B. The ability to consistently maintain a behavioral response for continuous and repetitive activity C. The capacity to maintain quick and enhanced behavioral responses to involuntary stimuli D. The capacity for mental flexibility that allows her to shift the focus of attention and move between tasks which have different cognitive requirements B. The ability to consistently maintain a behavioral response for continuous and repetitive activity Which of the following tests is used to study sustained attention? A. Continuous Performance Test (CPT) B. Raven's Progressive Matrices Test C. Stroop Test D. Stanford-Binet Test A. Continuous Performance Test (CPT) What does the test to study sustained attention of people require them to do? A. Shift their focus of attention and move between tasks that have different cognitive requirements B. Respond discretely to specific visual, auditory, or tactile stimuli C. Maintain attentional focus for an extended period of time D. Respond to multiple task demands simultaneously C. Maintain attentional focus for an extended period of time What did researchers' study of sustained attention using the Continuous Performance Test (CPT) reveal? A. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 5 minutes. B. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 15 minutes. C. The accuracy in detecting targets declines considerably after 15 minutes. D. The accuracy in detecting targets increases considerably after 15 minutes. B. Most people cannot perform well on tasks requiring sustained attention for more than 15 minutes. When one multi-tasks, there is: A. less sustained attention. B. more sustained attention. C. less selective attention. D. less inattentional blindness. A. less sustained attention. What happens when one switches from one simple task to another? A. There is absolutely no lost time, unlike while switching between complex tasks. B. The amount of lost time is high. C. There is an equal amount of lost time just as in switching between complex tasks. D. The amount of lost time is low. D. The amount of lost time is low. Multitasking _____ learning. A. compromises B. bolsters C. makes no difference to D. facilitates A. compromises What were the findings of the fMRI study of people driving in a simulator while using a hands-free device? A. Decrease in frontal lobe activity B. Increase in parietal lobe activity C. Decrease in the parietal lobe activity D. Increase in frontal lobe activity C. Decrease in the parietal lobe activity Talking while driving: A. increases activity in regions of the brain associated with spatial processing. B. has no impact on the activity in areas of the brain associated with language processing. C. has no impact on the activity in regions of the brain associated with spatial processing. D. increases activity in areas associated with language processing. D. increases activity in areas associated with language processing. According to Cobb et al., 2010, which of the following is found to be the most distracting while driving causing significantly slower reaction times? A. Chatting with someone in the vehicle B. Using the phone with a hands-free device C. Eating D. Texting D. Texting What is the outcome of the study conducted by Watson and Stayer? A. 52% of the population can switch from tasks without any performance decrements. B. 67% of the cell phone users keep their cell phones next to their beds. C. 4.4% of the population checks their phones even when they are not ringing. D. 2.5% of the population can multi-task without any performance decrements. D. 2.5% of the population can multi-task without any performance decrements. Which of the following is a form of mental training that can be used to calm the mind, stabilize concentration, or enhance awareness of the present moment? A. Meditation B. Sleep C. The administration of a psychoactive drug D. Sensory deprivation A. Meditation Meditation: A. can disrupt concentration. B. stabilizes attention. C. makes the mind hyper. D. cannot bring one's attention back to something. B. stabilizes attention. Javier is learning French that necessitates him to remember new words and the grammar and syntax of the language. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur in his brain as he learns and memorizes the new language? A. Growth of new neurons B. Elimination of obsolete neurons C. Increase in the activity of the parietal lobe D. Weakening synaptic connections A. Growth of new neurons What happens when one learns something new and stores it as short-term or long-term memory? A. It has no bearing on synaptic connections. B. Synaptic connections get weakened. C. Synaptic connections get strengthened. D. Increase in the release of Schwann cells. C. Synaptic connections get strengthened. What did studies on the effects of ancient calming techniques by psychologists and neuroscientists indicate? A. Mental life and neural structure share an interdependent but not a dynamic relationship. B. Mental life and neural structure do not function interdependently. C. Mental life and neural structure share a dynamic interdependence. D. Mental life and neural structure, though interrelated, do not witness any changes throughout life. C. Mental life and neural structure share a dynamic interdependence. What does mindfulness meditation encourage? A. Attention to the details of past experience B. Attention to the details of momentary experience C. Diverting selective attention toward thoughts D. Maintaining a consistent behavioral response during multi-tasking B. Attention to the details of momentary experience Anita has trained herself well to be less self-conscious and less anxious than what she previously was. This is due to the fact that she is: A. very attentive. B. minimally conscious. C. low on self-consciousness. D. highly mindful. D. highly mindful. How can concentration meditation help an individual? A. It can lead to an increase in impulsive responding. B. It can lead to an increase in constant attention shifts. C. It can lead to an increase in divided attention. D. It can lead to an increase in sustained attention. D. It can lead to an increase in sustained attention. Individuals with no previous meditation experience who underwent eight weeks of mindfulness meditation training showed: A. an increased EEG activity in the left frontal cortex. B. an increased EEG activity in the right frontal cortex. C. an increased EEG activity in the occipital lobe. D. a decreased EEG activity in the occipital lobe. A. an increased EEG activity in the left frontal cortex. In a study by researchers, what did MRI scans of meditators and non-meditators reveal? A. Those who had meditated the shortest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas. B. Those who had meditated the longest showed the least cortical thickness in certain areas. C. Those who had meditated the longest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas. D. Those who had meditated the longest showed decreased brain tissue in areas relevant to attention and emotion processing. C. Those who had meditated the longest showed the greatest cortical thickness in certain areas. According to the research that studied people new to meditation, compared to a control group, novices who underwent an 8-week meditation training program showed a(n): A. decrease in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing. B. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with spatial visualization. C. decrease in growth of brain tissues associated with spatial visualization. D. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing. D. increase in growth of brain tissues associated with emotional processing. Which of the following offers specific practices for working with consciousness? A. Awareness B. Wakefulness C. Meditation D. Hypnosis C. Meditation Which of the following holds true regarding sleep? A. The conscious mind and the outside world completely draw a blank. B. The sleeping state is irreversible. C. The sleeping state has the conscious mind perceiving all the sensations of the outer world. D. The sleeping state can be immediately reversed. D. The sleeping state can be immediately reversed. While sleeping, a person's awareness: A. is consistent. B. is heightened. C. is greatly diminished. D. disappears. C. is greatly diminished. Which of the following statements would be true about a sleeping person? A. The mind cannot distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli. B. The mind can distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli. C. The mind does not respond to any kind of stimuli. D. The sleeping state is akin to being in a preconscious state. B. The mind can distinguish between relevant and irrelevant stimuli. Which of the following refers to the pattern followed by sleep? A. Ultradian rhythm B. Nocturnal rhythm C. Infradian rhythm D. Circadian rhythm C. Infradian rhythm Which of the following best describes the circadian rhythm? A. Variations in physiological processes that exclude the sleep-wake cycle B. Variations in physiological processes that cycle longer than 48 hours C. Variations in physiological processes that cycle within approximately a 24-hour period D. Variations in physiological processes that take more than once a year to complete one cycle C. Variations in physiological processes that cycle within approximately a 24-hour period Raj is an employed youth who has been recently moved to a night shift. Of late, he has been complaining of disturbed sleep and poor concentration. He also feels fatigued and listless more often. A change in _____ is most likely to have caused Raj's problems. A. circadian rhythm B. ultradian rhythm C. nocturnal rhythm D. infradian rhythm A. circadian rhythm Which of the following is NOT an example of Circadian rhythms? A. Body temperature B. Sleep-wake cycle C. Menstrual cycle D. Hormone production C. Menstrual cycle The body has an internal timekeeper located in the hypothalamus, called the _____, which regulates physiological activity on daily cycles. A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus B. Supraoptic nucleus C. Ventromedial nucleus D. Amygdaloidal nucleus A. Suprachiasmatic nucleus The body's biological clock is located in the: A. pituitary gland. B. pineal gland. C. thalamus. D. hypothalamus. D. hypothalamus. Which of the following holds true when the retina of the eyes detect light in the morning? A. It stimulates the supraoptic nucleus. B. It stimulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus. C. It stimulates the nucleus accumbens. D. It stimulates the dorsomedial nucleus. B. It stimulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus. The suprachiasmatic nucleus influences the release of melatonin by its effect on the: A. hypothalamus. B. pineal gland. C. pituitary gland. D. thyroid gland. B. pineal gland. Which hormone plays a role in relaxation and drowsiness in human beings? A. Melatonin B. Serotonin C. Dopamine D. Cortisol A. Melatonin In humans, a surge of melatonin release occurs during the: A. evening. B. night. C. afternoon. D. morning. A. evening. Fatema is a marketing head based in New York who is required to travel a lot. She is even required to travel frequently across Asian and African countries for short periods of time. The disruptive effects of jet travel make her disoriented, groggy, irritable, and fatigued. If she visits her doctor, which of the following will most likely be prescribed for her? A. Testosterone B. Serotonin C. Progesterone D. Melatonin D. Melatonin What does REM stand for? A. Repetitive eye movement B. Random eye movement C. Rapid eye movement D. Reflexive eye movement C. Rapid eye movement Which of the following refers to a widely-held scientific belief in the 1950s? A. Dreams occurred in the passive state of sleep. B. The brain was active throughout sleep. C. Dreaming happened in the inactive stage of sleep. D. The brain was relatively inactive during sleep. D. The brain was relatively inactive during sleep. With EEG technology, scientists were able to learn that: A. the brain can slip into states of minimal consciousness. B. the brain was relatively inactive during sleep. C. there is no distinct pattern of brain activity during sleep. D. sleep changes throughout the night. D. sleep changes throughout the night. If an awake and alert person undergoes a brain wave test, what will it reveal? A. Beta waves B. Alpha waves C. Theta waves D. Delta waves A. Beta waves What do alpha brain waves indicate? A. A state of drowsiness and relaxation B. Dreaming C. Very deep sleep D. A state of active wakefulness A. A state of drowsiness and relaxation How many stages are there to non-REM sleep? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six B. Four An EEG test taken during Stage 1 of sleep that one enters after feeling relaxed will reveal the brain waves change from ________ to ________ waves. A. alpha; theta B. theta; alpha C. beta; theta D. theta; beta A. alpha; theta Which of the following is true about brain waves? A. Beta waves are higher in energy than alpha waves. B. Alpha waves are slower and lower in energy than theta waves. C. Theta waves are slower and lower in energy than alpha waves. D. Alpha waves are more rapid than beta waves. C. Theta waves are slower and lower in energy than alpha waves. The dropping of the sensory curtain indicates the beginning of ________ of sleep. A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 A. Stage 1 How long does it usually take for one to make the transition from Stage 1 to Stage 2 of sleep? A. 15-17 minutes B. 10-12 minutes C. 1-2 minutes D. 5-7 minutes D. 5-7 minutes In which stage of sleep do short periods of extremely fast and somewhat higher energy sleep spindles occur in which stage of sleep? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 B. Stage 2 Which of the following is a marker of Stage 2 sleep? A. K-complexes B. Transient activations C. Vertex waves D. Small amplitude delta frequency waves A. K-complexes As one moves from Stage 2 to Stage 3 sleep, an EEG will show the waves change from ________ to ________ waves. A. theta; delta B. beta; theta C. alpha; theta D. delta; theta A. theta; delta Which of the following holds true of an individual during the different stages of sleep? A. An individual in Stage 2 experiences no K-complexes. B. An individual in Stage 4 sleep experiences more sleep spindles than Stage 3. C. An individual in Stage 3 experiences more K-complexes than Stage 2. D. An individual in Stage 3 sleep experiences fewer sleep spindles than Stage 2. D. An individual in Stage 3 sleep experiences fewer sleep spindles than Stage 2. Which of the following is true of REM? A. It is characterized by delta waves on ECG. B. It is a sound and dreamless sleep. C. It is characterized by total lack of muscular activity. D. It is characterized by active dreaming. D. It is characterized by active dreaming. Mia, a five-year-old, vividly dreams about visiting a fairyland and meeting a fairy godmother who gives her a rare protective amulet. What does this imply? A. Mia is in Stage 4 sleep. B. Mia is in REM sleep. C. Mia is in Stage 3 sleep. D. Mia is in non-REM sleep. B. Mia is in REM sleep. How long does the night's first episode of REM sleep usually last? A. 8-10 minutes B. 2-3 minutes C. 12-14 minutes D. 10-20 minutes A. 8-10 minutes With each progressive cycle, the REM periods A. show negligible fluctuations. B. are shorter. C. become nil. D. are longer. D. are longer. Adults move through about ________ different cycles of non-REM and REM sleep every night, with each cycle lasting roughly ________ minutes. A. 4-6; 90 B. 2-3; 40 C. 8-10; 10 D. 12-14; 2-3 A. 4-6; 90 Which of the following statements is true of dreams? A. Dreams can occur in non-REM stage. B. Full-blown dreams are more common during non-REM than REM sleep. C. Dreams occur only in REM stage. D. Dreams coincide with the occurrence of sleep spindles. A. Dreams can occur in non-REM stage. Newborns of many species, especially humans, spend more time in ________ sleep. A. non-REM B. REM C. slow-wave D. deep B. REM The average of non-REM sleep per day that newborns spend is: A. 8 hours. B. 4 hours. C. 12 hours. D. 14 hours. A. 8 hours. By age 1, the REM sleep drops to about: A. 28 percent. B. 50 percent. C. 33 percent. D. 40 percent. A. 28 percent. The greatest amount of REM sleep over the life span occurs: A. in old age. B. in the first months of life. C. in the later part of gestation. D. at the onset of adolescence. B. in the first months of life. The fact that newborns and infants spend so much more time in REM sleep than adults has led some researchers to hypothesize that: A. our brains are most plastic in adulthood. B. the amount of REM sleep increases over a period of time. C. the amount of REM sleep does not affect brain plasticity or neural growth. D. the main function of REM sleep is to assist with brain growth and development. D. the main function of REM sleep is to assist with brain growth and development. Which of the following is true of the functions of sleep? A. It inhibits neural growth. B. It consolidates memory. C. It enhances cellular damage. D. It resists metabolic cleanup. B. It consolidates memory. Studies in mice show that there is substantial increase in the exchange of cerebrospinal fluid with intracellular fluid during sleep that may reflect how sleep allows for the cleansing of _____. A. cellular proteins B. neural anti-bodies C. digestive enzymes D. cerebral toxins D. cerebral toxins According to the studies in mice, what effect did sleep deprivation have on them? A. There was no effect on the neurons. B. The growth of neurons increased. C. The growth of new neurons was inhibited. D. The neurons started behaving erratically. C. The growth of new neurons was inhibited. Which of the following is a characteristic of children with chronic sleep disturbances? A. Improved cognitive development B. Increased neural connectivity in the brain C. Growth of neurons in key memory areas of the brain D. Decreased neural connectivity in the brain D. Decreased neural connectivity in the brain What were the findings of the study of the effects of sleep deprivation on performance? A. Participants who had more than the normal REM cycles performed better. B. Participants who had less than normal amounts of non-REM sleep performed better. C. Participants who had normal amounts of REM sleep performed better. D. The presence or absence of REM or Non-REM sleep was immaterial as long as participants could relax for some time. C. Participants who had normal amounts of REM sleep performed better. Neuroimaging studies of people learning to navigate a virtual maze show: A. an increased activation in the hippocampus. B. a decreased activation in the hippocampus. C. an increased activation in the hypothalamus. D. a decreased activation in the hypothalamus. A. an increased activation in the hippocampus. Which of the following is true about a person's performance and hippocampal activation? A. The more hippocampal activation shown during high-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day. B. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day. C. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the worse the person performs on the task the next day. D. The less hippocampal activation shown during high-wave sleep, the worse the person performs on the task the next day. B. The more hippocampal activation shown during slow-wave sleep, the better the person performs on the task the next day. Which of the following holds true of the brain? A. The brain cannot consolidate learning in sleep. B. The brain cannot consolidate memories in sleep. C. Napping after learning typically reduces performance. D. Task learning is replayed in the brain during sleep. D. Task learning is replayed in the brain during sleep. Which of the following best describes free radicals? A. The tiny gap between nerve cells across which neurotransmitters pass. B. Specialized cell that supports, protects, or nourishes nerve cells. C. By-products of oxygen metabolism. D. Thick bundles of nerve cell fibers that connect the two cerebral hemispheres. C. By-products of oxygen metabolism. According to Buxton, it is okay to sleep less than the optimum duration as long as: A. it falls in the appropriate circadian circle. B. it is at a place with appropriate lighting. C. it encourages appropriate metabolic cleansing. D. it is done right after learning a task. A. it falls in the appropriate circadian circle. Sleep A. slows metabolism. B. increases metabolism. C. increases cellular damage. D. does not affect the release of free radicals. A. slows metabolism. A recent meta-analysis of 16 prospective studies on sleep and mortality revealed that: A. people who slept less than six to eight hours showed greater longevity. B. people who slept more than six to eight hours showed greater longevity. C. people who slept between six to eight hours a day lived longer. D. sleep is unrelated to an individual's mortality. C. people who slept between six to eight hours a day lived longer. Who is credited with developing the concept of sleep debt? A. William Dement B. Nathan Kleitman C. Eugene Aserinsky D. Sigmund Freud A. William Dement Which of the following is an alternate way to pay back sleep debt used by many people? A. Increased alertness during the following day B. Enhanced memory C. Use of nicotine D. Careful and vigilant driving habits C. Use of nicotine What did Barber and colleagues find when they asked students to complete a daily sleep log and online diaries of perceived stress in life over a five-day period? A. A few days of sleep deficiency early on in the week can add to psychological strain but can be offset with sleep later in the week. B. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week does not contribute to psychological strain. C. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week can contribute to psychological strain later in the week despite attempts to offset with subsequent sleep. D. Consistent sleep patterns can wear us down as the body then cannot adjust suitably to any inconsistency in sleep that may arise. C. A few days of sleep deficiency early in the week can contribute to psychological strain later in the week despite attempts to offset with subsequent sleep. Nathan is a budding lawyer experiencing troubled sleep. Let alone the occasional disturbed sleep, he takes not less than two hours to fall asleep. Even though he has been getting sleep at times since the last three weeks, he complains of not feeling rested after a night's sleep. Nathan's symptoms suggest that he suffers from: A. Kleine-Levin Syndrome. B. hypersomnia. C. insomnia. D. somniphobia. C. insomnia. Why are women more likely to be affected by insomnia? A. They are less likely to cope with medical conditions. B. They are more likely to be iron deficient. C. They are more likely to consume alcohol. D. They are more prone to sleep less than two to four hours a day for two weeks or more. B. They are more likely to be iron deficient. GABA is: A. a neurotransmitter that decreases central nervous system activity. B. unrelated to the central nervous system activity. C. a neurotransmitter that increases central nervous system activity. D. a neuropeptide that functions inversely with the central nervous system. A. a neurotransmitter that decreases central nervous system activity. When does sleepwalking usually occur? A. During non-REM sleep B. During REM sleep C. While hallucinating D. During increased activity of the suprachiasmatic nucleus A. During non-REM sleep Which of the following is true about people who sleepwalk? A. People who sleepwalk do not engage in activities that normally occur during wakefulness. B. People who sleepwalk are easy to rouse. C. People who sleepwalk are likely to be acting out a dream. D. People who sleepwalk do not remember having been up. D. People who sleepwalk do not remember having been up. Which of the following best describes narcolepsy? A. A sleep disorder that causes an almost irresistible urge to move one's legs or arms B. A sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and weakness in facial and limb muscles C. A sleep disorder where the facial muscles are hyperactive D. A sleep disorder in which breathing temporarily stops during sleep due to blockage of the upper airways B. A sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and weakness in facial and limb muscles A weakness of facial muscles and muscles in limbs that people experience with narcolepsy is: A. apnea. B. cataplexy. C. synaptic malfunction. D. catalepsy. B. cataplexy. EEG studies of people suffering from narcolepsy reveal: A. protracted REM sleeping patterns. B. absence of sleep spindles. C. abnormality in sleep spindles. D. normal REM sleeping patterns. C. abnormality in sleep spindles. Which of the following is most often used to treat narcolepsy? A. Benzodiazepines B. Opioids C. Amphetamines D. Heroin C. Amphetamines Tamara complains that her husband can actually sleep anywhere and anytime. He can sleep for more than 10 hours a day, notwithstanding the fact that he even dozes off during meals and in the middle of conversations. If Tamara's husband visits the doctor, the doctor is most likely to diagnose his problem as ______. A. hypersomnia B. insomnia C. cataplexy D. somnambulism A. hypersomnia Which of the following is true of nightmares? A. It is also known as night terrors. B. It is rarely experienced by adults. C. It is a result of post-traumatic stress disorder. D. It never occurs with cancer patients. C. It is a result of post-traumatic stress disorder. According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following refers to two distinct levels of consciousness in the context of dreams? A. Implicit and explicit levels B. Internal and external levels C. Latent and manifest levels D. Superficial and subliminal levels C. Latent and manifest levels Which of the following refers to the manifest content of a dream? A. The unconscious part B. The hidden part C. The subliminal part D. The superficial part D. The superficial part According to Sigmund Freud, the level at which the important underlying meaning of our dreams is termed as the: A. latent level. B. subliminal level. C. deep level. D. manifest level. A. latent level. What does the AIM theory argue? A. Conflicting impulses, thoughts, feelings, and drives that threaten the waking mind are released as a visual compromise. B. Dreams are devoid of meaning and a result of random brain activity. C. Dreams are not very different from everyday thinking. D. All dreams operate at a single level, and not multiple levels. B. Dreams are devoid of meaning and a result of random brain activity. What does the AIM stand for? A. Activation, intensity, and mechanism B. Ambiguity, intensity, and movement C. Alertness, integration, and mechanism D. Activation, input, and mode D. Activation, input, and mode In the biological theory of dreams, the three-dimensional AIM cube depicts all states of consciousness occupying a different space. Why does REM sleep occupy the lower front right portion of the cube? A. Because it is active, external, and logical B. Because it is non-active, external, and logical C. Because it is highly active, internal, and loose D. Because it is non-active, internal, and loose C. Because it is highly active, internal, and loose Which of the following theories conforms to the belief that dreams are nothing but the standard processes that occur during the day? A. The biological theory B. The AIM theory C. The cognitive theory D. The psychoanalytic theory C. The cognitive theory Which of the following holds true regarding hypnosis? A. Hypnotized people are in reality awake. B. Hypnotized people are in reality asleep. C. Hypnotized people have voluntary control over their own behavior. D. Hypnotized people retain critical faculties of mind. A. Hypnotized people are in reality awake. When do people respond easily to hypnosis? A. When they are fully conscious. B. When their critical faculties of mind are in control. C. When they are relaxed. D. When they have voluntary control over their own behavior. C. When they are relaxed. Which area in the brain gets subdued as a result of hypnosis that does not let a person experience pain? A. The cortical area B. The autonomous nervous system C. The axons D. The hypothalamus A. The cortical area

HW 4

__________________ occurs when information from our five senses leaves a small, momentary trace in our brain unless we pay attention to and process this information. Sensory memory Neil is participating in an experiment where numbers are flashed on a computer screen for a few milliseconds, and then it goes blank and asks him to recall the numbers. Neil is participating in a study that is examining his ______________ memory. iconic The string of digits 1776149217871941 is difficult for most people to remember, but breaking them up into 1776, 1492, 1787, and 1941 in a process called _________________ makes it easier. chunking According to Alan Baddeley (2003, 2007), the first step in the working memory process is __________. paying attention to a stimulus More participants in a study can recall the words in the beginning and in the end of a list than can recall words in the middle of a list. This is called __________. the serial position effect _________________ are mental frameworks formed from our experiences with the world that help us interpret, store, and remember related experiences, concepts, and behaviors. Schemas Parallel distributed processing (PDP) models of memory storage propose that the __________. brain makes associations by simultaneously activating several nodes In the human sensory memory system, which of the following senses does not have its own sensory cortex? taste Hebb's law states that __________. neurons that fire together wire together One neurological reason why our memories and our emotions are so closely linked is that __________. the amygdala and the hippocampus are close together Karen gives Mike her phone number. Which part of Mike's memory is storing Karen's number temporarily while he searches for a piece of paper on which to write it down? short-term memory The tendency to preferentially recall words at the end of a list is known as the recency effect. Implicit memory is based on prior experiences. Eric Kandel concluded that "practice makes perfect, even in" a snail. What is retroactive interference? when new experiences or information causes people to forget previously learned information Michael tried to commit suicide with a low-caliber pistol, but he survived. He sustained brain damage to his temporal and frontal lobes as a result. One effect of his brain damage is that he cannot retain new information that he's encountered since the accident. What type of amnesia does Michael have? anterograde How did Daniel Tammet memorize pi to more than 22,500 digits? He is a synesthete, and he remembered a landscape of shapes and colors. What happened to H.M. to cause his loss of memory? He was hit by a bicyclist. The first step toward the creation of a long-term memory is _________. sensation ______ is the process of transforming what you want to remember into a smaller set of meaningful units. Chunking Casey says he'll never forget the look on her face the day he told his mother he got accepted into graduate school. This memory is an example of episodic memory. You learned the names of the 50 states and the capitol of each one when you were 10 years old. This is an example of semantic memory. Procedural memory involves learning a skill. Which of the following scenarios is the best example of working memory? As her teacher lectures, Lucy tries to connect the new information she is hearing to information she has already stored in her memory. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in a sensory memory being sent to short term memory? Malia is eating Indonesian food for the first time. She loves the way it tastes and slowly savors each bite. If you look around the room at everyone and everything, your eyes will take in a lot of visual information. This is called _______memory. sensory Katie is very excited because she has just learned how to button her own shirt. This ability to remember how to button her shirt is part of ________ memory. procedural What is declarative memory? Declarative memory involves both factual knowledge and personally experienced events. Semantic memories are an example of declarative memory. Which of the following is an example of a procedural memory? Remembering how to drive a manual transmission car The process by which information gets into memory storage is called encoding. In thinking about memory like a computer, encoding would be like keyboard. Roger is on a date with Kara in a crowded restaurant. In order to pay attention to what Kara is saying, Roger must "tune out" all of the other noises in the restaurant and just focus on her voice. This is an example of selective attention. Jamal likes to study while listening to music. His ability to focus on both his homework and the music at the same time is an example of divided attention. During a psychology lecture, you check your social media updates regularly on your mobile device. Which of the following statements is FALSE? Because you are less focused, you are more likely to encode information for memory. It has been said that ______ is the Achilles heel of our justice system. eyewitness testimony A witness's memory is often unreliable and can easily be led astray by examiners. Eyewitnesses may be focused on their own -thoughts. -activities. -conversations. Which of the following statements about real eyewitnesses is FALSE? Eyewitnesses pick up details, such as the activities, behaviors, and conversations of the criminals, because they are usually paying attention to what people around them are doing and saying.

According to Jung, individuation is the process by which: a person's personality becomes whole and full. neurons move from one part of the brain to their more permanent home. unused synapses die off to make the brain more efficient. the individual becomes more self-focused than oriented toward others and does not contribute in a productive way to society or family.

a person's personality becomes whole and full.

Which of the following is most likely to be a risk factor for dementia? Age Gender Ethnicity Social class

age

A teratogen is: a brain region responsible for the ability to speak. any substance that disrupts normal prenatal development. a weak brain synapse that disappears at around age six. a vital nutrient that helps a fetus develop properly.

any substance that disrupts normal prenatal development.

Because some fibers of the olfactory bulb are directly connected to the amygdala, some smells we encounter: will influence our comprehension and production of speech. may alter our ability to consider the consequences of our actions. can adversely affect our breathing and balance. are strongly connected to specific memories and emotions.

are strongly connected to specific memories and emotions.

Chapter 4 Quiz 1

blind spot The point at which the optic nerve exits the eye is the ________ of the retina It is the smallest amount of change between two stimuli that a person can detect half of the time. What is a difference threshold? Sensory adaptation ________ ensures that we notice changes in stimulation more than stimulation itself. hit A researcher diffuses a few drops of perfume in a house and asks Clara if she can smell it, to which Clara says yes. According to signal detection theory, Clara's response is _______. fovea We see images with the greatest clarity when they are focused on the _______. Feature detectors ________ in the visual cortex analyze the retinal image and respond to specific aspects of shapes, such as angles and movements. Signal detection theory ________ takes into account both stimulus intensity and the decision-making processes people use in detecting a stimulus. iris The colored part of the eye, which is called the _______, adjusts the pupil to control the amount of light entering the eye. accommodation The process by which the muscles control the shape of the lens to adjust to viewing objects at different distances is known as _______. Sensation ________ is the stimulation of our sense organs by the outer world. absolute threshold The lowest intensity levels of a stimuli a person can detect half of the time is known as _______. linear perspective Beth is looking down a path of railroad tracks, and the two rails seem to meet far in the distance. This cue to depth is known as _______. saying that a stimulus is present when it is not. A false alarm is: sensory adaptation Our sensitivity diminishes when an object constantly stimulates our senses. This process is known as _______. Images focus behind the retina. Nate is farsighted. Which of the following happens to visual images focused on his retina? photoreceptors The cells in the retina (called rods and cones) that convert light energy into nerve energy are called _______. Binocular disparity Which of the following processes allows us to perceive depth due to the distance between images projected on our two retinas? correct rejection A ________ is not reporting a stimulus that is not present. Atmospheric perspective: comes from looking across a vast space into the distance in the outdoors. apparent motion Christopher is looking at a lighted sign on which a rapid succession of a row of lit bulbs appears as a "moving" arrow pointing toward a store. This visual effect is called _______.

The olfactory sensory neurons contain hairlike projections called _______, which are similar to the hair cells in the inner ear. cochlea papillae cilia pinnae

cilia

Lillian sees a store sign that says CL_ ED. Due to the Gestalt law of _______, Lillian knows the store is closed even though the sign is missing a letter. similarity proximity closure continuity

closure

Atmospheric perspective: primarily involves parallel lines that converge or come together the farther away they are from the viewer. comes from looking across a vast space into the distance in the outdoors. depends on the location of the eyes in the head. is seen in 3D technology in movie theatres that uses polarizing filters.

comes from looking across a vast space into the distance in the outdoors.

Karen has been using her stethoscope for many days to listen to her fetus' heartbeat. Today, for the first time, she detected her fetus' heart beat. Karen must be at least _____________ weeks pregnant. two five six eight

eight

According to recent research, the ______ occurs because two different parts of the brain, which are normally kept separate, get activated simultaneously by the same stimulus. experience of synesthesia changes in visual perception in different cultures nociceptive pain atmospheric perception

experience of synesthesia

The anterior cingulate will show the strongest activity when _____________. talking on cell phones exposed to violence in video games engaged in challenging Mensa puzzles texting in the classroom

exposed to violence in video games

______________ intelligence involves raw mental ability, pattern recognition, and abstract reasoning and is applied to a problem that a person has never confronted before. Crystallized Alternative Fluid Amorphous

fluid

According to the ________ theory of pain, acupuncture should successfully alleviate pain. psychodynamic gate control trichromatic opponent-process

gate control

With reference to the strange situation experiment conducted by Mary Ainsworth, ______________ infants show odd, conflicted behaviors in the strange situation. insecure-resistant insecure-avoidant insecure-disoriented insecure-attached

insecure-resistant (WRONG)

The colored part of the eye, which is called the _______, adjusts the pupil to control the amount of light entering the eye. pupil lens iris fovea

iris

Most developmental psychologists place ______ between the ages of 40 and 60 or 65. middle adulthood late adulthood emerging adulthood early adulthood

late adulthood

According to Sigmund Freud, the level at which the important underlying meaning of our dreams is termed as the:

latent level

A cluster of the neuron cell bodies in the thalamus form the ______. glial cells olfactory neurons lateral geniculate nucleus feature detectors

lateral geniculate nucleus

Which of the following is a hallucinogen that is also recommended and prescribed for people who suffer chemotherapy-related nausea or the involuntary weight loss due to AIDS?

marijuana

Young brains are more flexible because they have less __________. gray matter number of neurons number of axons myelin

myelin

Although much brain development has happened by the time of emerging adulthood, the brain continues to change and grow. The prefrontal cortex continues to develop and fibers there are increasingly _____________, which facilitates neural communication. rewired migrated myelinated pruned

myelinated

Some evidence suggests that ______________ might offset or even prevent the kind of neural degeneration seen in Alzheimer's and other age-related brain disorders. pruning neurogenesis neural migration individuation

neurogenesis

Sasha has a severe back pain. Which of the following is an opioid that the doctor is likely to prescribe as an analgesic? Acetaminophen Ibuprofen Oxycodone Aspirin

oxycodone

The cells in the retina (called rods and cones) that convert light energy into nerve energy are called _______. photoreceptors fovea optic nerves feature detectors

photoreceptors

A pediatrician is assessing nine-month-old Chiara's motor development, which involves observing changes in Chiara's _____________. physical movement and body control emotional relationships with her parents and siblings peer relationships and status ability to see clearly and to recognize numbers

physical movement and body control

Johnny says he will not drive above the speed limit simply because he does not want to pay the cost of a speeding ticket. Based on this information, it can be concluded that Johnny is operating at the _____________ stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning. sensorimotor preconventional concrete operational preoperational

preconventional

According to Piaget, children move into the ____________ stage of cognitive development at around age 2 and this period lasts until about age 5 or 6. sensorimotor preoperational concrete operational formal operational

preoperational

In the context of color vision, humans have cones that are sensitive to: red, blue, and green wavelengths of light. orange, red, and cyan wavelengths of light. yellow, brown, and green wavelengths of light. cyan, brown, and yellow wavelengths of light.

red, blue, and green wavelengths of light.

According to recent research, emotions like ______ could worsen the experience of pain. happiness sadness pleasure contentment

sadness

Kohlberg (1981) developed the "Heinz Dilemma" to assess ___________. the development of moral reasoning in children the physical development of children less than 5 years of age the cognitive ability of children the development of linguistic ability in children

the development of moral reasoning in children

Interoception is: the sensation of temperature. the perception of sound the perception of bodily sensations the sensation of pain

the perception of bodily sensations

Psychologists created the false-belief task to determine when children develop ___________. egocentrism animistic thinking object permanence theory of mind

theory of mind

Children begin to interact socially during play at about age ____________. two three four five

three