BIO 2870 Exam 3 Test Bank and Module Questions

Which statement regarding autonomic innervation of the heart is correct? a) the release of norepinephrine and epinephrine by the adrenal medulla decreases the force and degree of contraction b) norepinephrine released by sympathetic neurons increases the heart rate c) acetylcholine released by parasympathetic neurons results in increased heart rate d) parasympathetic release of norepinephrine at synapses in the myocardium result in an increase in stroke volume e) acetylcholine released by sympathetic neurons result in an increase in the force of cardiac contractions 12-4

b) norepinephrine released by sympathetic neurons increases the heart rate

EPO is released when a) oxygen levels in the blood increase b) oxygen levels in the blood decrease c) carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase d) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease e) protein levels in the blood increase

b) oxygen levels in the blood decrease

The cardioinhibitory center controls activities of the ____ motor neurons a) ganglionic b) parasympathetic c) postganglionic d) preganglionic e) sympathetic 12-4

b) parasympathetic

In blood smear preparations, blood is collected from which type of vessel? a) veins b) peripheral capillaries c) arteries d) lymphatic ducts e) venules

b) peripheral capillaries

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the a) pulmonary trunk b) pulmonary veins c) aorta d) inferior vena cava e) pulmonary arteries 12-1

b) pulmonary veins

The amount of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat is called the a) heart rate b) stroke volume c) cardiac output d) end diastolic volume e) end systolic volume 12-4

b) stroke volume

A faster-than-normal heart rate is called a) bradycardia b) tachycardia c) tetanus d) myocardial infarct e) arrhythmia 12-2

b) tachycardia

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by: a) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue b) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen c) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium d) the release of heparin from the liver e) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

b) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen

A blood clot attached to the wall of a vessel is called a(n): a) embolus b) thrombus c) plaque d) coagulant e) platelet plug

b) thrombus

The amount of venous blood conveyed to the heart is referred to as the a) cardiac output b) venous return c) stroke volume d) P-R interval e) Q-T interval 12-4

b) venous return

The average life span of a red blood cell is about: a) 1 week b) 1 month c) 4 months d) 6 months e) 1 year

c) 4 months

A normal WBC count is about ____ cells per microliter a) 1500-4000 b) 1800-7300 c) 5000-10,000 d) 150,000-500,000 e) 4.4 million-6 million

c) 5000-10,000

____ directly stimulates red blood cell production a) intrinsic factor b) thyroxine c) EPO d) vitamin b12 e) GH

c) EPO

____ release results in a decreased in the force of cardiac contractions a) norepinephrine b) epinephrine c) acetylcholine d) digitalis e) glucagon 12-4

c) acetylcholine

The release of norepinephrine at synapses in the myocardium results in a) a decrease in the force of cardiac contractions b) inhibition of cardiac muscle cell metabolism c) an increase in stroke volume d) a decreased heart rate e) a decrease in cardiac output 12-4

c) an increase in stroke volume

____ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBCs is reduced a) erythropoiesis b) lymphopoiesis c) anemia d) leukopenia e) leukemia

c) anemia

The property of heart muscle in which it contracts in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is called a) tamponade b) thrombosis c) autorhythmicity d) arrhthymias e) tetanus 12-2

c) autorhythmicity

The least numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) monocytes

c) basophils

Which cell population of WBCs migrate to sites of injury and cross the capillary wall to accumulate within damaged tissues, where they discharge their granules inot the interstitial fluids? a) monocytes b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) neutrophils

c) basophils

Malfunctioning chordae tendinae would a) allow blood to flow back into the aorta and the pulmonary trunk b) inhibit closure of the semilunar valves c) cause regurgitation into the atria d) enable the cusps of the AV valves to swing into the ventricles e) block blood flow into coronary arteries 12-1

c) cause regurgitation into the atria

The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood directly into the a) superior vena cava b) inferior vena cava c) coronary sinus d) coronary sulcus e) aorta 12-1

c) coronary sinus

During their formation, RBCs: a) flatten b) multiply their mitochondria c) eject their nucleus d) are saturated with oxygen e) recycle hemoglobin into iron and pigment molecules

c) eject their nucleus

The extrinisic and intrinsic pathways join at the common pathway through the activation of which clotting substance produced by the liver? a) albumin b) fibrinogen c) factor X d) calcium e) vitamin K

c) factor X

Which structural feature of cardiac muscle cells enables action potentials to travel rapidly? a) mitochondria b) desmosomes c) gap junctions d) myofibrils e) myoglobin 12-1

c) gap junctions

The percentage of whole blood volume occupied by formed elements is called: a) normovolemic b) reticulocyte count c) hematocrit d) hemoglobin concentration e) differential count

c) hematocrit

Which of the following most likely occurs in the condition called hyperkalemia? a) decreased heart rate b) increased rate of depolarization at the SA node c) irregular cardiac contractions d) fluid collection in the pericardial sac e) elevated calcium concentrations 12-4

c) irregular cardiac contractions

Choose the correct statement regarding the atrial reflex a) it involves triggering a reflexive decrease in the heart rate through increased parasympathetic activity b) it involves stimulating pain receptors in the right atrial walls as blood enters the right atrium c) it involves adjustments in the heart rate in response to an increase in the venous return d) it involves sympathetic stimulation, which results in increased heart rate e) it involves parasympathetic stimulation, which increases the heart rate 12-4

c) it involves adjustments in the heart rate in response to an increase in the venous return

Which organ synthesizes more than 90% of plasma proteins? a) kidney b) spleen c) liver d) bone marrow e) thymus

c) liver

The right ventricle pumps blood to the a) left atrium b) left ventricle c) lungs d) systemic circuit e) right atrium 12-1

c) lungs

The atrioventricular valve on the left side of the heart is also called the a) tricuspid valve b) cuspid valve c) mitral valve d) pulmonary valve e) aortic valve 12-1

c) mitral valve

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in RBC maturation? a) stem cell, erythroblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC b) hemocytoblast, myeloblast, reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, RBC c) myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC d) monoblast, promonoctye, myelocyte, band cell, RBC e) lymphoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte, band cell, RBC

c) myeloid stem cell, proerythroblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte, RBC

Some people justify their smoking habit by saying that smoking calms them down. Is this justifaction correct physiologically? a) yes, beacuse like caffeine, nicotine decreases heart rate b) yes, because nicotine acts very much like norepinephrine c) no, because nicotine has a stimulatory effect on heart rate d) no, because nicotine acts very much like acetylcholine e) no, because smoking has no physiological effect in general 12-4

c) no, because nicotine has a stimulatory affect on heart rate

Thrombocytopenia is defined as a deficiency of a) antibodies b) erythrocytes c) platelets d) eosinophils e) neutrophils

c) platelets

The right atrium receives blood from the systemic circuit and pumps it to the a) aorta b) left atrium c) right ventricle d) pulmonary trunk e) muscle tissue of the heart wall 12-1

c) right ventricle

The ____ circuit carries blood to and from all parts of the body except the lungs a) pulmonary b) coronary c) systemic d) systolic e) diastolic 12-1

c) systemic

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by: a) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue b) the activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen c) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium d) the release of heparin from the liver e) the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

c) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium

The second heart sound is heard when a) the AV valves open b) the AV valves close c) the semilunar valves close d) the atria contract e) blood enters the aorta 12-3

c) the semilunar valves close

Blood from the systemic circulation returns to the heart by way of: a) coronary sinus b) pulmonary veins c) venae cavae d) aorta e) pulmonary arteries 12-1

c) venae cavae

Fresh whole blood is usually collected through a procedure called a) acupuncture b) transfusion c) venipuncture d) arterial puncture e) hematocrit

c) venipuncture

According to the Frank-Starling principle, the cardiac output is directly related to a) size of the ventricle b) heart rate c) venous return d) thickness of myocardium e) total amount of blood in the cardiovascular system 12-4

c) venous return

The semilunar valves prevent backflow into the a) atria b) aorta c) ventricles d) pulmonary trunks e) venae cavae 12-1

c) ventricles

The QRS complex on an ECG tracing represents a) atrial depolarization b) atrial repolarization c) ventricular depolarization d) ventricular repolarization e) ventricular contraction 12-2

c) ventricular depolarization

Why might women be more prone to suffering from iron-defficient anemia than men? a) women require ~50% more heme units per hemoglobin b) hemoglobin molecules break down more readily in women c) women have appx half as many iron reserves d) the RBCs in women have a shorter lifespan e) women absorb less iron from their diet

c) women have appx half as many iron reserves

Normal blood clotting cannot occur unless the plasma contains the necessary clotting factors, which include plasma proteins and ___ ions

calcium

Which of the following structural features is composed of connective tissue fibers connected to cone-shaped projections on the inner surface of the ventricle?

chordae tendineae

Which phase of hemostasis does not start until 30 sec or more after the vessel has been damaged?

coagulation phase

The cardiac veins of the heart return venous blood to which of the following structures?

coronary sinus

Which of the following coronary blood vessels drains directly into the right atrium of the heart?

coronary sinus

Which of the following structures is a deep groove that is usually filled with a substantial amount of fat and marks the border between the atria and the ventricles?

coronary sulcus

Which of the following surface anatomical features is a deep groove that marks the border between the atria and ventricles?

coronary sulcus

During rapid depolarization of a ventricular contractile cell, the voltage-gated sodium channels close when the membrane potential reaches approximately a) -90 mV b) -30 mV c) 0 mV d) +30 mV e) +90 mV 12-2

d) +30 mV

Neutrophils a) are agranulocytes b) are not phagocytic c) have multiple nuclei d) are active in fighting bacterial infection e) are responsible for specific defenses

d) are active in fighting bacterial infection

Agglutinins: a) are surface antigens on RBCs b) prevent blood clotting c) are substances that can trigger a protective defense mechanism called an immune response d) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type e) contain abundant stained "granules"

d) are antibodies that will attack surface antigens on RBCs of a different blood type

Abnormal patterns of cardiac activity are known as a) automaticity b) ischemias c) defibrillations d) arrhythmias e) contractility 12-2

d) arrhythmias

Which of the following indicates the start of the systemic circuit? a) pulmonary trunk b) pulmonary arteries c) vena cavae d) ascending aorta e) cardiac veins

d) ascending aorta

The tricuspid valve is located: a) in the opening of the aorta b) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk c) where the vena cavae join the right atrium d) between the right atrium and right ventricle e) between the left atrium and left ventricle 12-1

d) between the right atrium and right ventricle

Blood flowing from the left atrium to the left ventricle flows through the ____ valve a) aortic b) tricuspid c) pulmonary d) bicuspid e) papillary 12-1

d) bicuspid

____ permit the exchange of nutrients, dissolved gases, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues a) veins b) arteries c) arterial trunks d) capillaries e) vena cavae 12-1

d) capillaries

The amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in one minute is called the a) end diastolic volume b) end systolic volume c) stroke volume d) cardiac output e) cardiac reserve 12-4

d) cardiac output

A disorder resulting from the buildup of fatty deposits in the coronary arteries is called a) valvular heart disease b) rheumatic heart disease c) coronary thrombosis d) coronary artery disease e) heart block 12-1

d) coronary artery disease

In ECG tracings, extension of the P-R interval to more than 200 msec most likely can indicate which of the following? a) coronary ischemia or myocardial damage b) congenital heart defect c) electrolyte disturbances d) damage to the conducting pathways e) inadequate blood supply to the heart 12-2

d) damage to the conducting pathways

The skeleton of the heart consists of: a) a reticular connective tissue within the myocardium b) a bone in the interatrial septum c) a bone in the interventricular septum d) dense bands of tough, elastic connective tissue e) fibrous connective tissue in the auricle of the atrium 12-1

d) dense bands of tough, elastic connective tissue

____ is the characteristic of WBCs that allow them to enter surrounding tissue by squeezing between adjacent epithelial cells inthe capillary wall a) hemotaxis b) postive chemotaxis c) hemolysis d) diapedesis e) amoeboid movement

d) diapedesis

A drifting blood clot, air bubble, or fat globule is called: a) thrombus b) plaque c) clotting factor d) embolus e) hemostatic element

d) embolus

Formation of RBCs is called: a) thrombopoiesis b) leukocytosis c) leukopoiesis d) erythropoiesis e) erythrocytosis

d) erythropoiesis

Plasma and interstitial fluid account for most of the volume of ___ in the body a) serum b) lymphatic fluid c) whole blood d) extracellular fluid e) packed blood

d) extracellular fluid

A hemoglobin molecule contains: a) three protein chains, four heme groups, and two iron ions b) two protein chains, two heme groups, and four iron ions c) four protein chains, two heme groups, and two iron ions d) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions e) four protein chains, six heme groups, and two iron ions

d) four protein chains, four heme groups, and four iron ions

As blood flows through peripheral tissues, what occurs regarding the hemoglobin molecules of RBCs? a) hemoglobin binds oxygen and releases its bound carbon dioxide b) hemoglobin releases carbon dioxide and oxygen c) hemoglobin bind oxygen and carbon dioxide d) hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide and releases its bound oxygen e) hemoglobin gains and increase in its oxygen-carrying capacity

d) hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide and releases its bound oxygen

The inherited condition resulting from the inadequate production of clotting factors is termed: a) anemia b) thalassemia c) jaundice d) hemophilia e) leukopenia

d) hemophilia

Which condition results from abnormally high levels of bilirubin in the plasma of blood? a) hematuria b) hypoxia c) hemoglobinuria d) jaundice e) thalassemia

d) jaundice

The interventricular septum receives blood from the a) marginal artery b) right coronary artery c) coronary sinus d) left coronary artery e) circumflex artery 12-1

d) left coronary artery

When foreign cells invade the body, one would most likely expect to see increased numbers of: a) erythrocytes b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) thrombocytes

d) lymphocytes

The heart is surrounded by the: a) pleural cavity b) peritoneal cavity c) cardiac skeleton d) pericardial cavity e) coronary sinus

d) pericardial cavity

A person's blood type is determine by the a) size and shape of RBCs b) number of antibodies in the plasma c) chemical character of hemoglobin d) presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane e) type of oxygen- and carbon dioxide-binding sites on the hemoglobin molecules

d) presence or absence of specific surface antigens on the plasma membrane

What is the chief difference between plasma and serum? a) amount of water b) quantity of electrolytes c) quantity of organic wastes d) presence/absence of clotting proteins e) concentration of glucose

d) presence/absence of clotting proteins

In adults, the stem cells responsible for the production of red and white blood cells originate: a) liver b) thymus c) spleen d) red bone marrow e) yellow bone marrow

d) red bone marrow

The function of the cardiac skeleton is to a) convey blood away from the heart b) supply blood to the muscle tissue of the heart c) reduce friction between the opposing surfaces of the pericardial sac d) stabilize the position of the heart valves e) provide fro the movement of ions and small molecules 12-1

d) stabilize the position of the heart valves

Cardiac muscle cells have abundant reserves of myoglobin, which function in a) removing waste products b) storing iron c) removing carbon dioxide d) storing oxygen e) the shortening of individual sarcomeres 12-1

d) storing oxygen

Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of: a) surface antibodies b) channel proteins c) leukocytes d) surface antigens e) agranulocytes

d) surface antigens

Why is atrial repolarization not illustrated on an ECG? a) only ventricles repolarize b) it is obscured by the T wave c) ventricular repolarization occurs at the same time and is much stronger d) the QRS complex masks it e) it is illustrated as the P wave 12-2

d) the QRS complex masks it

Normal cardiac muscle is similar to normal skeletal muscle in terms of a) the duration of the action potentials b) the duration of the resulting contractions c) the refractory period, which continues until relaxation is under way d) the appearance of calcium among the myofibrils e) the appearance of summation of twitches 12-2

d) the appearance of calcium among the myofibrils

The muscular ridges found on the internal surfaces of the ventricles are collectively called: a) cardiac skeleton b) chordae tendinae c) papilla d) trabeculae carneae e) auricle 12-1

d) trabeculae carneae

The T wave of an ECG corresponds to a) atrial depolarization b) atrial diastole c) ventricular systole d) ventricular repolarization e) atrial repolarization 12-2

d) ventricular repolarization

Which is an effect of ACh on the heart?

decreases contractility

In intercalated discs, which of the following structures help convey the force of contraction from cell to cell?

desmosomes

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A serum and anti-Rh serum, but not with the anti-B serum. This means: a) Bill could receive type B blood in transfusion b) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood c) Bill is Rh-negative d) Bill's plasma would cross-react with type O negative red blood cells e) Bill's plasma contains anti-B antibodies

e) Bill's plasma contains anti-b antibodies

Regarding cardiodynamics, which of the following relationships is correct? a) HR = CO x SV b) SV = CO x HR c) CO = HR/SV d) SV = HR/CO e) CO = HR x SV 12-4

e) CO = HR x SV

Identify the correct match a) systole = relaxation of heart chambers b) diastole = contraction of heart chambers c) cardiac output = the amount of blood ejected by the right ventricle in one minute d) stroke volume = the amount of blood ejected by an atrium in a single beat e) SA node = tissue mass embedded in the posterior wall of the right atrium 12-4

e) SA node = tissue mass embedded in the posterior wall of the right atrium

Small tributaries from the branches of the coronary arteries from interconnections called: a) infarcts b) auricles c) regurgitations d) trabeculae carneae e) anastomoses 12-1

e) anastomoses

Which event marks the beginning of the cardiac cycle? a) ventricular systole b) atrial diastole c) atrial arrhythmia d) ventricular diastole e) atrial systole 12-3

e) atrial systole

In the process of hemoglobin recycling, each heme molecule is stripped of its iron and converted to which pigmented organic compound? a) urobilin b) bilirubin c) stercobilin d) transferrin e) biliverdin

e) biliverdin

Regarding blood volume reflexes, "filling time" is defined as the a) amount of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat b) flow of venous blood into the right atrium c) amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in one minute d) duration of atrial systole e) duration of ventricular diastole 12-4

e) duration of ventricular diastole

The innermost layer of the heart wall is the: a) mediastinum b) parietal pericardium c) epicardium d) myocardium e) endocardium 12-1

e) endocardium

The primary function of white blood cells is to: a) remove carbon dioxide from active cells b) clump together and stick to the blood vessel walls c) carry oxygen from the lungs to the bodys cells d) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the bodys cells e) help defend the body against pathogens

e) help defend the body against pathogens

When a chamber fills with blood and is preparing to begin the next cardiac cycle, that chamber is a) in systole b) in arrhythmia c) contracting d) depolarizing e) in diastole 12-3

e) in diastole

If a decline in blood pressure or oxygen concentrations occurs, the cardiac centers then call for a(n) a) decrease in cardiac output b) decrease in sympathetic motor neuron activity c) decrease in stroke volume d) increase in parasympathetic motor neuron activity e) increase in cardiac output 12-4

e) increase in cardiac output

A sample of tissue from an injry shows a large number of eosinophils. This would indicate that the tissue was a) abcessed b) inflamed c) being rejected d) infected by viruses e) infected by parasites

e) infected by parasites

The wall between the atria is called the: a) ventricle b) coronary sinus c) coronary sulcus d) auricle e) interatrial septum

e) interatrial septum

Without mitochondria, RBCs are relatively inefficient in terms of energy production. However, there is an advantage to RBC function. What is this advantage? a) it ensures that its iron component will interact with the plasma protein transferrin b) it stimulates the conversion of yellow bone marrow to red bone marrow c) it stimulates the absorption of vitamin B12 d) it ensures that its iron component is converted to bilirubin e) it ensures that any oxygen the RBCs absorb will be delivered to peripheral tissues

e) it ensures that any oxygen the RBCs absorb will be delivered to peripheral tissues

If the AV node does not receive action potentials generated by the SA node a) the ventricles will beat faster b) the ventricular rate of contraction will not be affected c) the stroke volume will increase d) tachycardia will occur e) it will establish a heart rate of 40-60 bpm 12-2

e) it will establish a heart rate of 40-60 bpm

Which of the following is an agranulocyte? a) erythrocyte b) basophil c) neutrophil d) eosinophil e) monocyte

e) monocyte

The white blood cells that are important in leaving the blood vessels and phagocytizing large materials, releasing chemicals that draw fibroblasts to the injured areas, are: a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) monocytes

e) monocytes

____ are large phagocytic WBCs that reamin in circulation for only about 24 hours before entering peripheral tissues to become tissue macrophages a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) monocytes

e) monocytes

Pus associated with infected wounds contains which type of WBC? a) basophils b) lymphocytes c) eosinophils d) monocytes e) neutrophils

e) neutrophils

A toxin that blocks the stomachs ability to release intrinsic factor would most likely cause: a) hemophilia b) an embolism c) leukopenia d) iron deficiency anemia e) pernicious anemia

e) pernicious anemia

During fibrinolysis, which enzyme begins digesting the fibrin strands, breaking down the clot? a) factor X b) clotting factor VII c) thrombin d) fibrinogen e) plasmin

e) plasmin

As repairs proceed, a blood clot gradually dissolves in a process that begins with the activation of: a) factor X b) thrombin c) fibrinogen d) prothrombin e) plasminogen

e) plasminogen

During repolarization ____ ions rush out of the ventricular contractile cell a) sodium b) calcium c) magnesium d) selenium e) potassium 12-2

e) potassium

Deoxygenated blood is carried away from the right ventricle by the a) pulmonary arteries b) pulmonary veins c) aorta d) inferior vena cava e) pulmonary trunk 12-1

e) pulmonary trunk

The process of blood clotting is an example of which function of blood? a) stabilizing body temperature b) transporting dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes c) defending against toxins and pathogens d) regulating the pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids e) restricting fluid losses at injury sites

e) restricting fluid losses at injury sites

The marginal artery branches off the a) aorta b) left coronary artery c) interventricular artery d) coronary sinus e) right coronary artery 12-1

e) right coronary artery

The common pathway of coagulation ends with: a) the sticking of platelets to damaged tissue b) the activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen c) the release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium d) the activation of a clotting factor that converts prothrombin to thrombin e) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin

e) the activation of a clotting factor that converts fibrinogen to fibrin

Which statement is correct regarding the heart wall? a) the endothelium consists of cardiac muscle tissue, blood vessels, and nerves b) the myocardium is comprised of a simple squamous epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue c) the endocardium is the visceral pericardium d) the cardiac muscle tissue forms bands that wrap around the ventricles and spiral into the wall of the atria e) the epicardium is a serous membrane that consists of an exposed epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue 12-1

e) the epicardium is a serous membrane that consists of an exposed epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue

During ventricular systole a) the ventricles are relaxed b) blood is entering the ventricle c) the semilunar valves remain closed d) the pressure in the ventricles decreases e) the ventricles are contracting 12-3

e) the ventricles are contracting

If valve function deteriortates such that the heart cannot maintain adequate circulatory flow, symptoms of ___ appear a) mitral valve prolapse b) carditis c) coronary artery disease d) rhematic fever e) valvular heart disease 12-1

e) valvular heart disease

Which of the following WBCs attack objects that are coated with antibodies and increase dramatically during a parasitic infection?

eosinophils

Which type of WBC has deep red granules and increases numbers dramatically during parasitic infections or allergic reactions?

eosinophils

which layer of the heart is also known as the visceral pericardium

epicardium

What would happen to filling time if HR increases?

filling time decreases

Which of the following plasma proteins transport ions, hormones, and lipids and have an immune function? a) globulins b) regulatory proteins c) fibrinogen d) albumins

globulins

Before synthetic drugs, which substances was used to stimulate heart function?

glucagon

The duration of ventricular diastole depends primarily on which of the following factros?

heart rate

In which clinical conditions do cardiac muscle cells become extremely excitable?

hypercalcemia

What would happen to the heart if you cut the vagus nerve?

increases heart rate

Drugs such as digitalis result in an increase in the force of cardiac contractions by

increasing Ca2+ concentration within cardiac muscle cells

Which of the following blood vessels returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium from the trunk, viscera, and lower limbs?

inferior vena cava

Which of the following vessels originate at the base of the aorta at the aortic sinuses?

left and right coronary arteries

What attaches the pulmonary trunk to the aortic arch?

ligamentum arteriosum

Which of the following WBCs are agranulocytes?

lymphocytes

Which of the following WBCs are continuously migrating from the bloodstream, through peripheral tissues, and back to the bloodstream?

lymphocytes

Which heart valve prevents regurgitation of blood into the left atrium>

mitral valve

Which of the following are aggressive phagocytes that often attempt to engulf items as large or larger than themselves?

monocytes

In a differential count of the WBC population, what would typically be the most numerous WBC?

neutrophils

Which of the following WBCs, when mature, have a very dense, contorted nucleus with two to five lobes, resembling beads on a string?

neutrophils

Which type of leukocytes are usually the first WBCs to arrive at an injury site?

neutrophils

Which cardiac conducting system structures are responsible for establishing the rate of cardiac contraction/

pacemaker (nodal) cells

Which of the following correctly represents the layers associated with the heart from superficial to deep? 12-1

parietal pericardium, visceral pericardium, myocardium, endocardium

Which of the following factors remove platelets from the circulation?

phagocytes

Which of the following substances digests fibrin strands and breaks down blood clots?

plasmin

Which formed elements of blood are created when megakaryocytes shed cytoplasm in membrane-enclosed packets?

platelets

Which formed elements of blood, which remain in circulation or in vascular organs, are produced by megakaryocytes in bone marrow?

platelets

The cardiovascular system transports insoluble lipids to peripheral tissues by transporting

protein-lipid combinations

In which event of a muscle cell action potential do potassium channels open and K+ ions rush out of the cell?

repolarization

Which event in a cardiac muscle cells action potential lasts about 75 msec and ends with closure of potassium channels

repolarization

During the cardiac cycle, the pressure within each chamber

rises during systole and falls during diastole

Which of the following heart sounds occurs when the semilunar valves close?

second heart sound

The amount of blood ejected by a ventricle during a single beat is called

stroke volume

Any chamber of the heart squeezes blood into an adjacent chamber or into an arterial trunk during which event?

systole

Which of the following aspects of contraction cannot occur in a normal cardiac muscle cell

tetanus

Which of the following events occur when the ventricles are relaxed?

the AV valves are open, and the semilunar valves are closed

After the stimulus for a contraction is generated at the SA node, it must be distributed so that

the atria contract together before the ventricles

Which of the following is false?

the connective tissues of the heart include abundant reticular and elastic fibers

which of the following statements correctly describes what occurs as a result of the depolarization that accompanies the P wave

the impulse spreads across the atria, triggering atrial contractions

What does the Q-T interval indicate?

the time required for the ventricles to undergo a single cycle of depolarization

Sympathetic blocking agents have what effect on the heart?

they slow heart rate

Which heart sounds are associated with atrial contraction and with blood flowing into the ventricles and not with valve action?

third and fourth heart sounds

Which of the following substances increases the rate of clot formation by stimulating the formation of tissue factor and the release of platelet factor by platelets?

thrombin

What is an abnormally low platelet count knwon as?

thrombocytopenia

Infection, inflammation, and cancer may result in which of the following conditions?

thrombocytosis

Which cranial nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to small ganglia near the heart?

vagus

Once a blood vessel has been cut, local contractions in the smooth muscle fibers of the vessel wall are characteristic of which phase of hemostasis?

vascular phase

Blood cannot begin moving into the arterial trunks until

ventricular pressures exceed arterial pressures

Which reflexes affects stroke volume?

ventricular reflex

During which events do the semilunar valves open and blood is ejected?

ventricular systole--second phase

What is another term for the epicardium of the heart wall?

visceral pericardium

Which vitamin plays a critical role in almost every stage of the clotting process?

vitamin K

Which of the following lists the phases of hemostasis in the correct order?

1. vascular phase, 2. platelet phase, 3. coagulation phase

The maximum rate of contraction in normal cardiac muscle fibers is approximately ___ per minute 12-2

200

How long does a complete depolarization-repolarization process (action potential) last in a cardiac muscle cell?

250-350 msec

The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of hemostasis and clot removal: 1. coagulation phase 2. fibrinolysis 3. vascular phase 4. retraction 5. platelet phase The correct sequence of these steps is:

3, 5, 1, 4, 2

The following are various components of the conducting system of the heart 1. purkinje cells 2. AV bundle 3. AV node 4. SA node 5. bundle branches The sequence in which an action potential would move through this system is 12-2

4, 3, 2, 5, 1 SA node AV node AV bundle bundle branches purkinje cells

Following are events that occur during the cardiac cycle 1. ventricular pressure increases and exceeds pressure in the arteries 2. ventricles fill passively 3. atrial relaxation begins 4. atrial contraction forces a small amount of additional blood into relaxed ventricles 5. pressure in ventricles drops and blood flows back against cusps of semilunar valves, forcing them closed 6. ventricular contraction pushes AV valves closed Choose the correct order of events in the cardiac cycle 12-3

4, 3, 6, 1, 5, 2 atrial contraction forces a small amount of additional blood into relaxed ventricles atrial relaxation begins ventricular contraction pushes AV valves closed ventricular pressure increases and exceeds pressure in the arteries pressure in ventricles drops and blood flows back against cusps of semilunar valves, forcing them closed ventricles fill passively

Blood is approximately ___ percent plasma by volume

46-63

The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart 1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. vena cavae 6. aorta 7. pulmonary trunk 8. pulmonary veins What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering fro m the systemic circulation?

5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 vena cavae right atrium right ventricle pulmonary trunk pulmonary veins left atrium left ventricle aorta

When the heart rate and stroke volume in a normal heart increase together, the cardiac output can increase by ___ percent 12-4

500-700

If heart rate is 60 bpm and the average stroke volume is 100 mL/beat, what is the cardiac output?

6000 mL/min

What is the pH of blood?

7.35-7.45

The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways join to form the common pathway through the activation of

Factor X

Which part of the conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium?

SA node

In which ECG phase does ventricular repolarization occur?

T wave

An individual who is blood type A could safely receive a blood transfusion from:

a type A donor and a type O donor

What is the average life span of a RBC? a) 120 days b) 30 days c) 90 days d) 150 days

a) 120 days

What is the average temperature of the blood in the body? a) 38 C (100.4 F) b) 50 C (122 F) c) 25 C (77 F) d) 70 C (158 F)

a) 38 C (100.4 F)

How long do platelets circulate before being removed by phagocytes? a) 9-12 days b) 6-18 hours c) 2-3 days d) 4-8 weeks e) 1-2 months

a) 9-12 days

If a red blood cell contains surface antigen B and surface antigen Rh, what would its blood type be? a) B+ b) B- c) A+ d) O-

a) B+

Depolarization of the atria is represented on an electrocardiogram by the a) P wave b) T wave c) S wave d) QRS complex e) PR complex 12-2

a) P wave

What is a benefit of a vascular spasm at the onset of hemostasis? a) a reduction in blood loss b) an increase in peripheral blood flow c) the formation of collagen fibers d) an easier passage for neutrophils to the site of injury e) greater availability of calcium

a) a reduction in blood loss

One of the functions of blood is to absorb and neutralize ____ generated by active tissues a) acids b) carbohydrates c) bases d) enzymes

a) acids

Which of the following statements is true regarding gender differences in hematocrit? a) adult males, on average, have a higher hematocrit than females b) estrogens stimulate red blood cell production c) androgens do not stimulate red blood cell production d) in males, the hematocrit represents the percentage of blood volume occupied by red blood cells; in females, it represents white blood cells

a) adult males, on average, have a higher hematocrit than females

Veins that return blood to the heart are also referred to as ___ vessels a) afferent b) mitral c) valvular d) efferent e) pulmonary 12-1

a) afferent

Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood to maintain osmotic pressure are: a) albumins b) fibrinogens c) globulins d) fibrin e) platelets

a) albumins

Which of the following proteins are major contributors to the osmotic pressure of plasma? a) albumins b) hemoglobin c) globulins d) fibrins

a) albumins

During the recycling of hemoglobin, what is the breakdown product of the globular proteins of each hemoglobin molecule? a) amino acids b) stercobilins c) bilirubin d) transferrin e) urobilins

a) amino acids

Which condition is caused by low hematocrit, or RBCs with reduced hemoglobin content? a) anemia b) hemolysis c) hemoglobinuria d) hypoxia

a) anemia

The semilunar valve of the left side of the heart prevents backflow from the a) aorta b) pulmonary trunk c) pulmonary veins d) right ventricle e) left ventricle 12-1

a) aorta

The right and left coronary arteries originate at the a) aortic sinuses b) coronary sinus c) pulmonary trunk d) marginal artery e) fossa ovalis 12-1

a) aortic sinuses

Which of the following processes may be required for evaluating the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs? a) arterial puncture b) venipuncture c) hemolysis d) viscosity analysis

a) arterial puncture

The function of hemoglobin is to: a) bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide b) protect the body against pathogens c) aid in the process of blood clotting d) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells e) absorb and neutralize the acids generated by active tissues

a) bind and transport oxygen and carbon dioxide

The two heart reflexes directly respond to changes in a) blood volume b) hormones released c) oxygen levels in the blood d) calcium concentrations e) the pH of blood 12-4

a) blood volume

The function of an atrium is to a) collect blood returning to the heart b) pump blood to the lungs c) pump blood into the systemic circuit d) prevent the movement of blood back into the ventricles e) stabilizes the position of the heart valves 12-1

a) collect blood returning to the heart

Relaxation of the heart chambers is called a) diastole b) systole c) depolarization d) hyperpolarization e) repolarization 12-3

a) diastole

In the lungs, what process brings oxygen into the plasma and removes CO2? a) diffusion b) osmosis c) carrier-mediated transport d) active transport

a) diffusion

Blood is more viscous than water because it contains a) dissolved proteins and formed elements b) insoluble fibers c) adipose cells d) osteoid

a) dissolved proteins and formed elements

Erythropoietin is most likely released under which of the following conditions? a) during anemia b) when the respiratory surfaces of the lungs are optimally enhanced c) when the carbon dioxide content of air in the lungs declines d) during erythrocytosis e) when blood flow to the thymus declines

a) during anemia

_____ are the most abundant cell population of the formed elements of blood a) erythrocytes b) platelets c) neutrophils d) lymphocytes e) monocytes

a) erythrocytes

How many different polypeptide chains combine to form a single hemoglobin molecule? a) four b) eight c) six d) two

a) four

Red blood cells result from the divisions of cells called: a) hemocytoblasts b) lymphoblasts c) monoblasts d) myeloblasts e) progenitor cells

a) hemocytoblasts

The process by which formed elements of blood are produced is called a) hemopoiesis b) fractionation c) agglutination d) coagulation

a) hemopoiesis

Each cardiac muscle cell is bound to its neighboring cells at sites called a) intercalated discs b) myofibrils c) sarcomeres d) trabeculae e) fossa ovalis 12-1

a) intercalated discs

Which of the following statements describes what blood does to stabilize body temperature? a) it absorbs and redistributes the heat generated by skeletal muscles b) it becomes more viscous and resistant to flow c) it flows to the body core when body temp is too high d) it bypasses the brain when body temp is too low

a) it absorbs and redistributes the heat generated by skeletal muscles

Formed elements that are nucleated and capable of amoboid movement are: a) leukocytes b) chondrocytes c) thrombocytes d) erythrocytes e) melanocytes

a) leukocytes

Globulins involved in lipid transport are called a) lipoproteins b) hemoglobin c) albumins d) antibodies

a) lipoproteins

Which of the following organs/structures synthesize more than 90% of the plasma proteins? a) liver b) spleen c) bone marrow d) thymus

a) liver

In ____, the cusps of the bicuspid valves do not close properly a) mitral valve prolapse b) valvular heart disease c) ventricular stenosis d) myocardial infarctions e) aortic sinuses 12-1

a) mitral valve prolapse

Which population of stem cells is responsible for the production of all the formed elements of blood? a) myeloid and lymphoid (stem) cells b) erythrocytes and leukocytes c) leukocytes and myeloid cells d) lymphoid cells and leukocytes

a) myeloid and lymphoid (stem) cells

During the formation of RBCs, hemocytoblast divisions give rise to which of the following cells? a) myeloid stem cells b) lymphoid stem cells c) myelocytes d) band cells

a) myeloid stem cells

Which of the following is true regarding normal cardiac muscle? a) neither summation nor tetany can occur b) both summation and tetany can occur c) summation but not tetany can occur d) tetany but not summation can occur e) tetany always follows summation 12-2

a) neither summation nor tetany can occur

Which of the following are the most active type of leukoctyes, phagocytically, and are usually the first to arrive at an injury site? a) neutrophils b) eosinophils c) basophils d) lymphocytes e) erythrocytes

a) neutrophils

The loose-fitting sac around the heart is lined by the a) parietal pericardium b) epicardium c) endocardium d) parietal myocardium e) parietal endocardium 12-1

a) parietal pericardium

The first blood vessels to branch from the pulmonary trunk are the a) pulmonary arteries b) superior vena cavae c) circumflex arteries d) coronary arteries e) pulmonary veins 12-1

a) pulmonary arteries

Erythropoiesis occurs only in ___ in adults a) red bone marrow b) the spleen c) the thymus d) yellow bone marrow

a) red bone marrow

During RBC development, what is the term given to the first anucleate cell? a) reticulocyte b) erythrocyte c) myeloid stem cell d) hemocytoblast e) proerythroblast

a) reticulocyte

The primary function of the venae cavae includes which of the following? a) return blood to the right atrium b) pump oxygenated blood into circulation c) remove excess fluid from the heart chambers d) anchor the heart to surround structures e) prevent expansion of the heart 12-1

a) return blood to the right atrium

Blood returning directly from the systemic circulation enters the: a) right atrium b) right ventricle c) left atrium d) left ventricle e) pulmonary trunk 12-1

a) right atrium

Which disease is characterized by defective hemoglobin that results from a mutation affecting the amino acid sequence of one pair of the globular proteins of the hemoglobin molecule resulting in stiff, markedly curved RBCs? a) sickle cell anemia b) thalassemia c) hematuria d) jaundice e) aplastic anemia

a) sickle cell anemia

In determining blood compatibility, which of the following components are most important? a) surface antigens on the donors cells b) surface antigens on the recipients cells c) antibodies in the donors plasma d) the hematocrit of the donor

a) surface antigens on the donors cells

Which of the following is greatest during left ventricular systole? a) the pressure in the ventricle b) the pressure in the aorta c) the pressure in the left atrium d) the presure in the arteries e) the pressure in the right atrium 12-3

a) the pressure in the ventricle

Following phagocytosis during hemoglobin recycling, what is the fate of the four globular proteins of each hemoglobin molecule? a) they are diassembled into their component amino acids b) they are stripped of iron and converted to biliverdin c) they are bound to transferrin and used to synthesize new RBCs d) they are stripped of iron and converted to bilirubin

a) they are disassembled into their component amino acids

Blood of which type has neither anti-A antibodies nor anti-B antibodies? a) type AB b) type O c) type B d) type A

a) type AB

Which blood type is characterized as RBCs with surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies? a) type B b) type O c) type A d) type Rh

a) type B

Which blood type can be safely administered to patients of any blood type? a) type O b) type A c) type B d) type AB

a) type O

Which blood type has neither A antigens nor B antigens? a) type O b) type A c) type B d) type AB

a) type O

Calcium ions and _____ have an effect on nearly every aspect of the clotting process a) vitamin K b) vitamin A c) vitamin D d) vitamin E e) thiamin

a) vitamin K

In which situation would the filling time (duration of ventricular diastole) be the longest? a) when heart rate is slow b) when heart rate is fast c) when the force of contraction is decreased d) when the difference between the end diastolic volume and the end systolic volume is small e) when calcium channel blockers are present 12-4

a) when heart rate is slow

The term _____ refers to the combination of plasma and the formed elements together a) whole blood b) hematocrit c) thrombocyte d) hemopoiesis e) packed cell volume

a) whole blood

What process enables WBCs to move along the walls of blood vessels and, when outside the bloodstream, through surrounding tissues?

amoeboid movement

Individuals can survive quite normally when their atria no longer function because of the relatively minor contribution ____ makes to ventricular volume

atrial systole

Which of the following does the cardiac cycle begin with?

atrial systole

The cardiac pacemaker cells are located in which of the following? a) purkinje fibers b) SA node c) AV node d) bundle branches e) bundle of His 12-2

b) SA node

Type AB blood contains: a) A agglutinins on the RBCs b) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B c) B agglutinogens on the RBC's d) B agglutinins in the plasma e) agglutinin A and B

b) agglutinogen A and agglutinogen B

Platelets: a)are phagocytic b) are a major component of the vascular clotting system c) are a component of the unformed elements of blood d) are lymphocytes e) have multi-lobed nuclei

b) are a major component of the vascular clotting system

Atrioventricular valves prvent backflow into the a) ventricles b) atria c) venae cavae d) aorta e) pulmonary trunk 12-1

b) atria

____ is a condition in which the heart rate is slower than normal a) cardiac arrhythmia b) bradycardia c) tetanus d) summation e) tachycardia 12-2

b) bradycardia

Under condtions of hypocalcemia a) cardiac muscle cells become very powerful b) cardiac muscle contractions become very weak c) cardiac muscles become extremely excitable d) cardiac muscle cells remain the same e) cardiac muscle contraction becomes prolonged 12-4

b) cardiac muscle contractions become very weak

Platelets are a) giant, multinucleated cells b) cellular fragments c) immature leukocytes d) fixed macrophages e) surface antigens

b) cellular fragments

When the ventricles are relaxed the ____ are loose and there is no resistance to the flow of blood from atrium to ventricle a) auricles b) chordae tendineae c) papillary muscles d) trabeculae carneae e) aortic sinuses 12-1

b) chordae tendineae

The first heart sound is produced by the atrioventricular valves ___ and the semilunar valves ____ a) open; close b) close; open c) open; open d) close; close e) the actions of the valves do not contribute to the heart sounds 12-3

b) close; open

Which structural feature of the heart is a deep groove, usually filled with substantial amounts of fat, marking the border between the atria and the ventricles? a) posterior interventricular sulcus b) coronary sulcus c) anterior interventricular sulcus d) coronary sinus e) interventricular septum 12-1

b) coronary sulcus

Which of the following begins with the activation of plasminogen? a) thrombosis b) fibrinolysis c) agglutination d) intrinsic pathway e) extrinsic pathway

b) fibrinolysis

When large numbers of RBCs break down in the circulation, the urine can turn reddish or borwn in a condition called: a) sickle cell anemia b) hemoglobinuria c) pernicious anemia d) leucopenia e) septicemia

b) hemoglobinuria

According to the Frank-Starling principle, a more powerful contraction results in a) decreased stroke volume b) increased stroke volume c) no cahnge in stroke volume d) decreased cardiac output e) a slower heart rate 12-4

b) increased stroke volume

Blood from the viscera and the lower limbs is conducted to the heart through which vessel? a) coronary sinus b) inferior vena cava c) pulmonary veins d) superior vena cava e) cardiac vein 12-1

b) inferior vena cava

For erythropoiesis to proceed normally, protein synthesis requires adequate supplies of factors, such as vitamin b12, which is absorbed from the diet in the presence of which of the following? a) thyroxine b) intrinsic factor c) factor X d) platelet factor e) EPO

b) intrinsic factor

Excess transferrins are removed in the _____, where the iron extracted from heme molecules is stored in special protein-iron complexes a) liver and thymus b) liver and spleen c) thymus and bone marrow d) spleen and bone marrow e) thymus and spleen

b) liver and spleen

The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the a) heart b) lungs c) brain d) kidneys e) pancreas 12-1

b) lungs

The average pressure in the right ventricle is ____ the pressure in the left ventricle a) the same as b) much lower than c) slightly lower than d) slightly higher than e) much higher than 12-1

b) much lower than

The muscle layer of the heart is the a) epicardium b) myocardium c) endocardium d) visceral pericardium e) endothelium 12-1

b) myocardium

The most abundant type of WBC in a normal blood sample is the a) basophil b) neutrophil c) lymphocyte d) eosinophil e) monocyte

b) neutrophil