Bio final

Which of the following processes is NOT one of the causes of genetic disorders? Duplication of chromosomes segments Deletion of chromosomes segments Incomplete dominance of alleles Mutation of DNA

Incomplete dominance of alleles

If the epiglottis does not function properly one might choke. True False

True

What is tyroinase? Tyrosinase is the term used for a person who is afflicted with albinism as well as sickle cell trait Tyrosinase is the name of a gene responsible for skin pigmentation Tyrosinase is an enzyme that facilitates the conversion of tyrosine to melanin Tyrosinase is a protein precursor of melanin Tyrosinase is the technical name of albinism

Tyrosinase is an enzyme that facilitates the conversion of tyrosine to melanin

Mitosis happens ______. Only in the creation of sperm and egg cells In adult nerve cells Only in epidermal skin cells In the growth of an embryo

In the growth of an embryo

Villi, microvilli, and the folds of the small intestine all functions to _____. Move chemicals across the membrane Increase the surface area Secrete important enzymes Prevent the intestine from digesting itself

Increase the surface area

What is the importance of immunological memory? Saves time Uses far fewer lymphocytes Uses additional suppressor T cells Saves vaccinations

Saves time

Which of the following is the best description of the structure of our teeth? Organ parts specialized for the chemical digestion of food Sensitive living tissues surrounded by bonelike caps Projections of compact bone tissue rising from our mandible and maxillae Tough, nonliving structures made of calcium salts

Sensitive living tissues surrounded by bonelike caps

One of the main jobs of stomach acid and bile is to ______. Separate connective and fatty tissues in food Act as digestive enzymes Pull apart the covalent bonds in food molecules to make the molecules smaller Chemically digest food

Separate connective and fatty tissues in food

The main area of absorption in your digestive system is found in the _______. Small intestine Large intestine Stomach Colon

Small intestin

The fat molecules you ingest while eating a bowl of ice cream are first chemically digested in the _______. Small intestine Mouth Stomach Large intestine

Small intestine

What s cancer of the bone marrow stem cells that produce WBC called? Carcinoma Lymphoma Sarcoma leukemia

leukemia

Cancerous cells and normal cells differ in the amount of _______ Cytoplasm Organic molecules Genetic damage Proteases

Genetic damage

Phagocytes are considered to be WBC. True Falset

T

What ype of blood will the offspring of these parents have? <> Mother: AB/ Father: O AB A or B O Any one of the above

A or B

In humans, the ability to roll the tongue is a dominant trait. The inability to roll the tongue is a recessive trait. If two individual homozygous recessive for this trait have a child, what is the chace that the child will be able to roll his tongue? 75% 100% 0% 25% 50%

0%

What is a specific segment of DNA that directs protein synthesis? Gene Chromosome Chromatid Locus

Gene

If a cell normally has 24 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would each of its four daughter cells have after meiosis? 6 12 24 36

12

Unattached earlobes is dominant to attached earlobes. Two parents, both with unaatached earlobes, had a child with attached earlobes. What are the chances that their next child will have attached earlobes? 0% 25% 50% Cannot be determined from this information

25%

How many chromosomes arranged in how many pairs would be shown in a normal huma karyotype? 92, 46 46, 23 4, 2 23, 23

46, 23

What is the probability that a woman who is a carrier for the red green color blindness allele and a man who is color blind will have a child who is NOT color blind? 25% 50% 100% (all of the offspring will be color blind) 0% (none of the offspring will be color blind)

50%

If an individual with type O blood marries an individual with type AB blood, what are the possible blood types of their children? A, B, and O A and B AB, A, B, and O AB and O

A and B

A phenotype is ________ A characteristic determined by chromosomes A characteristic determined by genes and the environment A characteristic determined by dominant and recessive alleles A characteristic determined by dominant alleles

A characteristic determined by genes and the environmen

Histamine is ______. A chemical found in some foods, pollens, and pet hair that people may be allergic to A type of antibody that binds to allergens A chemical released by cells that causes swelling and redness A component of mucus in the nose

A chemical released by cells that causes swelling and redness

How can we best define the term chromatid? A chromatid is a individual strand of a duplicated chromosome Chromatid is a synonym for chromosomes Chromatid is the term that should be used in meiosis. Chromosomes is the term that should be used in mitosis. Chromosome is a term used for diploid cells. Chromatid is a term used for haploid cells.

A chromatid is a individual strand of a duplicated chromosome

Which of the following is a helpful aspect of having a fever when sick? A fever causes your liver to take important chemicals away from bacteria A fever forces you to produce more sweat to eliminate pathogens through your skin A fever makes your body's reactions slow down so that you have to rest more A fever "burns" bacteria to death by making your body too hot for them

A fever causes your liver to take important chemicals away from bacteria

Inflammation is an example of _____. An antibody mediated responses to pathogens A "first line" defense to prevent injury or infection before they happen A general immune response to tissue damage A specific immune responses to a particular harmful microbe

A general immune response to tissue damage

**** An "Allele" is best defined ad _____. A specific form of a gene One of the genes in your cells A physical characteristic A chromosome

A specific form of a gene

When you receive a vaccination that includes inactivated or activated caccines, you body is developing _____ immunity. Recessive Aggressive Active Passive

Active

Somatic cell nuclear transplant uses material from a(n) _______ cell. Embryonic Blood Surrogate Adult

Adult

Assuming fertilization by a normal sperm, nondisjunction in the female could lead to which of the following? XO XXY XXX All of the above

All of the above

which of the following are characteristic of precancerous cells? Large nuclei Increased amount of DNA Irregular cell shape All of the above

All of the above

Although, the stomach contents are vey acidic, the stomach usually does not cause damage to itself. Why? The release of gastric juices is controlled to avoid too high a concentration Mucus forms a thick protective coating for the stomach Food and water dilute the gastric juices The stomach lining is quick to repair itself All of the above are correct

All of the above are correc

Which of the following describe how to keep teeth and gums healthy? Brush your teeth twice a day and floss regularly Avoid sticky foods Choose a diet low in sugar Use fluoridated toothpaste or get fluoride treatments from your dentist All of the above are good dental practices

All of the above are good dental practice

Which of the following are potential therapeutic uses of embryonic stem cells? Replace neurons after an accident Repair damage to heart muscle after a heart attack Regenerate cells of the immune system All of the above are potential therapeutic uses of embryonic stem cells

All of the above are potential therapeutic uses of embryonic stem cells

Consider the hypothetical x linked recessive gene M. Suppose a woman expresses this gene. So does her husband. What are the chances that a child of theirs will NOT express this gene? All of the male children will express trait M, but none of the female children will express the trait All of the female children will express trait M, but none of the male children will express the trait Half of the male children and a quarter of the female children will express the trait All of the children will express the trait

All of the children will express the trait

Which of the following statements about meiosis and mitosis is MOST correct? Mitosis and meiosis both begin with duplicated chromosomes The products of mitosis are two diploid cells, whereas the products of meiosis are four haploid cells In mitosis the daughter cells are genetically identical, but in meiosis the daughter cells are genetically varied All of the listed responses are correct

All of the listed responses are correct

Which of the following statements about the organs of the digestive system is true? Although protein digestion begins in the stomach, pancreatic enzymes break the final polypeptide chains into amino acids. The pancreas secretes a substance that emulsifies fat globules The stomach secretes most of the enzymes needed for carbohydrate digestion. The digestion of food particles takes place in the small intestine, but the absorption of these digested particles takes place in the large intestine. The gallbladder stores secretion from the small intestines and empties them into the liver

Although protein digestion begins in the stomach, pancreatic enzymes break the final polypeptide chains into amino acids.

An antigens is _____. A WBC in your body that engulfs and eliminates foreign particles A specific example of an antibody produced to eliminate a harmful microbe A type of chemical given as medicine to patients with allergies An organism or substance that creates a response by your immune system

An organism or substance that creates a response by your immune system

During which phase of mitosis do spindle fibers pull the chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell? Telophase Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

Anaphase

Meiosis is called reduction division. When does the reduction in chromosome number occur? Anaphase II Both metaphase I and metaphase II Anaphase I Interphase

Anaphase I

During which phase of meiosis do sister chromatids separate? Telophase I Telophase II Anaphase I Anaphase II

Anaphase II

Structures that precipitate antigens, promote lysis, attract phagocytes, and neutralize toxins are called ______. B cells Macrophages Antibodies Cytotoxic T cells

Antibodies

Which is the best definition of apoptosis? Apoptosis is a mechanism that allows a cell to build and regulate protein synthesis Apoptosis is a mechanism that permits a cell to undergo certain mutations that will eventually lead to cancer Apoptosis is the expression of tumor cells in more than one part of the body Apoptosis is a cellular repair mechanism whereby certain cells commit suicide Apoptosis is a mechanism by which cells are able to limit the number of times they can divide (or reproduce)

Apoptosis is a cellular repair mechanism whereby certain cells commit suicide

The new cells (daughter cells) that result from meiosis ________. Are genetically identically to their parent cell, except for rare mutations that sometimes occur Are genetically different from their parent cell, but identical to each other Are genetically different from their parent cell and also from each other Are genetically identical to their parent cell

Are genetically different from their parent cell and also from each other

All cells contain the same genetic information. Why can't cells other than stem cells differentiate into various tissues? As cells develop some genes are turned off permanently As cell develop their genetic makeup changes Stem cells care the only cells that can be implanted Stem cells are the only cells do not have an X or Y chromosomes and can therefore go into either a male or female

As cells develop some genes are turned off permanently

All chromosomes that are NOT X or Y are called __________ Recessive Dominant Autosomal Sex-linked

Autosomal

What is the inheritance pattern shown in the pedigree below? Autosomal recessive Sex-influenced Sex-linked Autosomal dominant

Autosomal dominant

Which of the following is an example of a "first line of defense" that keeps harmul microbes from settling in your body? Bacteria that form colonies in your intestines and outcompete harmful microbes Complement proteins that initiate a chain reaction to burst harmful microbes White blood cells that react to harmful microbes by creating antibodies to combat them Phagocytic cells that engulf harmful microbes

Bacteria that form colonies in your intestines and outcompete harmful microbes

When considering meiosis, when does DNA replication take place? Metaphase I Prophase I Prophase II Before meiosis During cytokinesis

Before meiosis

What is the function of bile? Bile causes several serious disease of the liver Bile helps dissolve gallstones Bile is first produced in the gallbladder Bile aids in the digestion of fats

Bile aids in the digestion of fats

Chromosomes consist of ______. Only DNA molecules Ribosomes and DNA DNA and protein Lipids, proteins, and DNA

DNA and protein

Antibodies might help to defend against pathogens by _______. Binding to pathogens to clump them together Providing a physical barrier to prevent pathogens from entering your body Engulfing and digesting pathogens Changing the MHC markers naturally located in your body

Binding to pathogens to clump them together

Cytokinesis is associated with which of the following? Meiosis Mitosis Both meiosis and mitosis Neither meiosis nor mitosis

Both meiosis and mitosis

In general, for a tumor to form, which gene or genes must mutate? Both the protooncogene and the tumor suppressor gene must mutate; it is not necessary for both to mutate Either the protoncogene or the tumor suppressor gene must mutate; it is not necessary for both to mutate Both the oncogene and the tumor suppressor gene must mutate The RNA polymerase must mutate Because so factors are involved, a generalization about mutations and tumor formation cannot be made

Both the protooncogene and the tumor suppressor gene

The membrane of the nucleus _______. Hardens to provide protection from mutations during division Dissolves during the "S" part of interphase Breaks apart and reforms during mitosis Must remain intact throughout the cell cycle to protect DNA

Breaks apart and reforms during mitosis

What is the most common cancer among women? Lung and bronchus Colon Leukemia Breast

Breast

What is the normal role of telomerase? Builds and repairs photo oncogenes Build new DNA in cancerous cells Repairs broken strands of chromosomes Builds telomeres in embryonic cells

Builds telomeres in embryonic cells

Which of the following macromolecules go directly from the lumen of the small intestine to the epithelial cells of the intestine and on through to the blood stream? Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins Carbohydrates and proteins Proteins and lipids Carbohydrates and lipids

Carbohydrates and proteins

Which of the following are not characteristic of tumor growth? Nondifferentiated cell mass Cell differentiation and specialization Metastasis Uncontrolled growth

Cell differentiation and specialization

why is a mutation in the p53 gene so important? Cells grow in size and multiple nuclei develop The ras gene is inhibited Cell division is stopped Cell division is uncontrolled

Cell division is uncontrolled

What structure dissolves so that the sister chromatid can move to opposite ends of the cell during cell division? Sister chromatids Chromosome Allele Centromere

Centromere

Macrophages alert other white blood cells to foreign invaders by ______. Chopping up the invader and showing pieces of the invader to other cells Causing an allergic response Creating and releasing antibodies specific to the invader Changing its genetic code and sharing the altered genes with other cells

Chopping up the invader and showing pieces of the invader to other cells

The AB blood type is an example of _______ Codominance Complete dominance Incomplete dominance Blending

Codominance

What is cytokinesis and when does it occur? Cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm, occurs at the end of interphase Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm. This occurs after mitosis Cytokinesis is another name for mitosis and so it encompasses the entire M phase of the cell cycle Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm and it is a part of telophase

Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm. This occurs after mitosis

Which cells normally kill defective or mutant cells? No normal cells can kill a mutant Chemokiller cells Cytotoxic T and natural killer cells Antibody producing cells

Cytotoxic T and natural killer cells

What is the final step in the cell-mediated response to a viral infection? Antibodies coat viral antigens Macrophages digest viral particles and display viral antigens on their cell surface Cytotoxic T cells punch holes in the membranes of infected host cells Helper T cells secrete chemicals that stimulate it to divide

Cytotoxic T cells punch holes in the membranes of infected host cells

If the large intestine becomes irritated and peistalsis increases, _______ may result. Diarrhea Constipation Appendicitis Hernias

Diarrhea

What is primarily the role of the bacteria found in the large intestine? Cause disease Digest food and produce vitamins Provide a natural source of protein Absorb critical vitamins

Digest food and produce vitamins

Which of the following is NOT one of the main activities occurring in the large intestine? Digestion of proteins Culturing of bacterial colonies to produce vitamins Absorption of water Storing of feces for elimination

Digestion of protein

Which of the following terms describes most cells in the human body? Diploid somatic cells Haploid gametes Haploid somatic cells Diploid gametes

Diploid somatic cells

**** What does our body target as pathogens? Disease-causing bacteria All bacteria Cancerous cells Microorganism responsible for decay of dead material

Disease-causing bacteria

homozygous trait can be _____ Dominant only Recessive only Either dominant or recessive Heterozygous under certain circumstances

Either dominant or recessive

What is an argument in favor of using embryonic stem cells over adult stem cells? Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells Embryonic stem cells are never really living Adult stem cells reproduce much faster than embryonic stem cells Adult stem cells cannot be cultured

Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into many more types of cells

During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes exchange segments? Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during prophase I (meiosis I) Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during metaphase II (meiosis II) Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during prophase II (meiosis II) Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during both anaphase I and anaphase II Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during metaphase I (meiosis I)

Exchange of chromosome segments occurs during prophase I (meiosis I)

Abnormally low levels of PSA in a man's blood can indicate prostate cancer True False

F

Any cells with two copies of each kind of chromosomes is called haploid True False

F

At the end of meiosis the eggs and sperm are 2n. True False

F

Crossing over, which occurs during prophase II of meiosis, can result in unique combinations of genes. True False

F

Cytotoxic T cells are the lymphocytes responsible for cell-mediated immune responses. True False

F

If an individual lacks freckles the genotype for his or her freckle condition could be Ff or ff. True False

F

Monosomy is a type of nondisjunction in which a gamete has an extra copy of a chromosomes. True False

F

Most human cells grown in a laboratory will divide about 10 times before entering senescene True False

F

The part of mitosis where sister chromatids line up on the equatorial line is known as anaphase. True False

F

Vaccinations are designed to stimulate the body's passive immune response to antigens. True False

F

When an egg and a sperm fuse, a haploid zygote is formed True False

F

When two identical copies of an allele for a given trait are present, the genotype is referred to as heterozygous. True False

F

When you suffer an injury, WBC near the injury site initiate the inflammatory response. True False

F

sarcomas are cancers of the lymphatic tissue True False

F

The appendix plays a role in digestion in the large intestine. True False

False

The primary function of the small intestine is to store and digest food. True False

False

The submucosa is a layer of the gastrointestinal tract that contains connective tissue, nerves, blood and lymph vessels, and smooth muscles. True False

False

What would happen if the liver were unable to produce enough bile salts? The rate of protein digestion would decrease Lipase activity would increase Glucose absorption would decrease Mucus in the alimentary canal would increase Fatty acid absorption would decrease

Fatty acid absorption would decrease

Which of the following genetic disorders is due to duplication of a DNA segment? Cri-du-chat syndrome Sickle cell anemia Baldness Fragile x syndrome

Fragile x syndrome

Another name for the alimentary canal is _____. Peristalsis The process of digestion Gastrointestinal tract Microvilli Chime

Gastrointestinal tract

Which of the following tests would be used to identify the genetic characteristics of an adult? Chorionic villi sampling Amniocentesis Collection of fetal epithelial cells Genetic testing

Genetic testing

The basic laws of genetic inheritance were described by ________ Charles Darwin Gregor Mendel Watson and crick A committee from the international science academy

Gregor Mendel

Chorionic villi sampling (cvs) is a procedure for genetic testing that _______ Uses fluid from the uterus to grow fetal cells Requires blood to detect genetic diseases in adults Harvests placental cells for prenatal genetic analysis Involves scraping cells from your cheek for laboratory examination

Harvests placental cells for prenatal genetic analysi

Someone who is homozygous ________ Has only dominant alleles for a gene Has only recessive alleles for a gene Has two different alleles for a gene Has two copies of the same allele for a gene

Has two copies of the same allele for a gene

female is diagnosed with hemophilia, a condition caused by an x-linked recessive gene. While checking her medical history, the doctor will most likely discover that _______ Her mother had hemophilia and her father was normal Her father had hemophilia and her mother did not have the disorder Neither parent had hemophilia Both her parents were carriers of the hemophilia gene

Her father had hemophilia and her mother did not have the disorder

The direct cause of the heat generated by a wound or local infection is _______. Clotting factors in the blood that begin to seal the wound The presence of the bacteria or the foreign object The engulfing of the bacteria WBC that leak through the capillary walls Histamine, which causes the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles to relax; this leads to a cascade of events causing the tissue to become hot

Histamine, which causes the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles to relax; this leads to a cascade of events causing the tissue to become hot

Which of the following is accurate when speaking of a cell abut to into mitosis? A cleavage furrow forms Mitotic spindles have reached into the nucleus and have attached to the sister chromatids The nuclear envelope begins to break down Identical sister chromatids have formed and each is a newly replicated DNA double helix

Identical sister chromatids have formed and each is a newly replicated DNA double helix

When do homologous chromosomes pair up? Mitosis II Meiosis and meiosis II Meiosis II Meiosis I Mitosis

Meiosis I

Specifically, which cells are harvested from the early embryo? All cells Enucleated cells Inner cell mass Umbilical cord cells

Inner cell mass

What cells produced by therapeutic cloning are used to culture new tissue? Nerve cells Transplant cells Inner cell mass Muscle cells

Inner cell mass

During which phase of the cell cycle does growth occur? Anaphase Cytokinesis Interphase Telophase

Intephase

DNA is replicated during _________. Metaphase Mitosis Interphase Prophase

Interphase

Which of the following is true regarding interphase? Chromatids separate during this phase Is is the longest phase of cell division Male and female gametes combine to form a zygote The cell cytoplasm divides

Is is the longest phase of cell division

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding gene therapy use for cancer treatment? It can insert a healthy p53 gene into a mutant cell It is being used in clinical trials on humans It uses viruses to insert genes into normal and cancerous cells It is approved by the FDA

It is approved by the FDA

While waiting in line for the school picture, Alicia noticed that there was a lot of variation in height among her classmates. From this observation what do you know about the inheritance pattern of height? Tallness is dominant to shortness It is polygenic It is sex-linked Several of the children are taking growth hormones

It is polygenic

How is the immune system different from the first two lines of defense? It has a memory It is specific It provides a barrier It is specific and has a memory

It is specific and has a memory

What is the first thing that happens when a healthy cell detects damage to DNA? It becomes cancerous It divides quickly It dies It stops the cell cycle

It stops the cell cycle

Which of the following organs does not generally participate in mechanical digestion of food? Large intestine Small intestine Mouth Stomach

Large intestine

When does reduction division take place? Mitosis Meiosis I Meiosis II Mitosis and meiosis I Meiosis I and meiosis II

Meiosis I

What is cancer of the lymphatic tissues called? Carcinoma Sarcoma Leukemia Lymphoma

Lymphoma

Which cell type is the most important antigen-presenting cell (APC)? B cell T cell Macrophages Helper T cell

Macrophages

Which of the following types of cell can ingest pathogens? Macrophages Helpter T cells B cells Cytotoxic T cells

Macrophages

****** What process in the human life cycle results in the production of gametes? Mitosis Fertilization Meiosis Zygote

Meiosis

Gametes are formed by ______. Meiosis Fertilization Mitosis None of the listed responses is correct

Meiosis

During which stage of mitosis are chromosomes lined up in the center of the cell? Metaphase Telophase Anaphase Prophase

Metaphase

Once the egg and sperm have united, the zygote grows and develops into a new human being by which process? Mitosis Fertilization Meiosis Cellular fusion

Mitosis

MHC markers are ______. Regions of lymphatic capillaries that open to allow fluids to enter Special types of white blood cells that make antibodies Areas in the hypothalamus that change the set point for body temperature Molecular labels that uniquely identify your cells

Molecular labels that uniquely identify your cells

Both the mother and father of a son with color blindness have normal vision. From whom did the son inherit the gene for color blindness? Unknown Mother Grandfather Father

Mother

Cancerous cells are often destroyed by ______. Natural killer white blood cells None of the above. Once cancer cells form, they continue reproducing out of control until surgery, medicine, or radiation are used. Complement proteins. Secretions of mucus membranes in the respiratory tract

Natural killer white blood cells

Which cells can undergo programmed cell death? Normal cells Cancerous tumors Metastasized cells Benign tumors

Normal cells

Based on what you know about two trait inheritance, what can you say about the gametes produced by a female with the genotype AaDd that could NOT be possible? One of her gametes might be Ad One of her gametes might be AaDd One of her gametes might be AD One of her gametes might be ad

One of her gametes might be AaDd

Meiosis happens _______. Only in the creation of sperm and egg cells In the growth of an embryo In adult nerve cells Only in epidermal skin cells

Only in the creation of sperm and egg cells

Both cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells use the same method to destroy their targets. What is it? Immunoglobulins Antibodies Perforins Antigens

Perforins

Which of the following is NOT a common way to vaccinate against a disease? Place small, dead pieces of the pathogen into a person's body Place weakened versions of the pathogens into a person's body Place small amounts of the normal, living pathogen into a person's body Place alive, less-harmful relatives of the pathogen into a person's body

Place small amounts of the normal, living pathogen into a person's body

Which of the following statements about plasma cells is NOT true? Plasma cells secrete antibodies into the blood Plasma cells are part of the MHC system Plasma cells are derived from B cells Plasma cells are part of the defense stage of the immune response

Plasma cells are part of the MHC system

The tongue functions to _____. Protect the opening of the pharynx during swallowing Add moisture and enzymes to the food Grind and crush the food Position food for swallowing

Position food for swallowing

***** The function of the tumor suppressor gene is to ______ Prevent cell division when conditions are not right for cell division Stimulate cell division Stop the production of nonfunctional proteins Speed up cell division

Prevent cell division when conditions are not right for cell division

The purpose of meiosis is to _______. Produce haploid gametes Produce haploid somatic cells Produce diploid somatic cells Produce diploid gametes Speed up the whole process of cell division by producing four cells instead of two

Produce haploid gametes

Which of the following gives the stages of mitosis in the correct order? Anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

What is the most common cancer among men? Rectal Prostate Colon Leukemia

Prostate

The pancreas is an important auxiliary organ of the digestive system because it _______. Provides insulin to the small intestine Provides several digestive enzymes to the small intestine Secrete bile Prevent the intestine from digestive itself

Provides several digestive enzymes to the small intestin

What molecules are found on the surface of both T-lymphocytes and B- lymphocytes that identify foreign invaders? Antibodies Receptors Antigens Self markers

Receptors

The process that produces a new individual with a known genetic makeup is called _______. Therapeutic cloning Reproductive cloning Induced pluripotent stem cells Regenerative medicine

Reproductive cloning

What is cancer of the muscle, bone, cartilage, or connective tissues called? Lymphoma Leukemia Sarcoma Carcinoma

Sarcoma

What is a likely result if chromatids fail to separate properly during meiosis? Some of the resulting reproductive cells will be genetically identical to others Some of the resulting reproductive cells will fail to complete cytokinesis Some of the resulting reproductive cells will have too many copies of certain chromosomes Some of the resulting reproductive cells will be subject to unusually high levels of mutations

Some of the resulting reproductive cells will have too many copies of certain chromosomes

Which of the following is NOT a source for stem cells? Umbilical cord blood Sperm and eggs Certain adult tissues Early embryos

Sperm and eggs

All of the following organs are associated with the digestive system, except for the _____. Pancreas Liver Colon spleen*

Spleen

Where does the chemical digestion of proteins begin? Stomach Mouth Large intestine Spleen Small intestine

Stomach

A chart showing the genetic connections between individuals in a family is called a pedigree. True False

T

A monohybrid cross is one in which both parents are hetetrozygous for one trait of interest. True False

T

A trait is a characteristic that develops as a result of protein synthesis directed by genes True False

T

Albinism is due to a disorder in the production of the enzyme tyrosinase. True False

T

Alleles are alternative forms of a traits that can be inherited True False

T

At the end of mitosis the daughter cells are each 2n. True False

T

Cancer cells form in our body every day True False

T

Cancerous cells routinely form within our body. Natural killer cells are responsible for destroying them. True Fals

T

Dysplasia is a term for the changes that occur within a precancerous cell True False

T

Each antibody is designed to detect and attack only one kind of antigen. True False

T

Eggs and sperm are produced through meiotic cell division True False

T

In codominance, both phenotypes are expressed in heterozygotes; but in incomplete dominance, the heterozygotes exhibit a phenotype that is intermediate between the two homozygotes True False

T

Marfan syndrome and Huntington's disease are both autosomal dominant traits. True False

T

Mutations in the genes BRCA1 and BRCA2 are associated with an increased risk for developing breast cancer True False

T

Of the two meiotic divisions, meiosis II is more similar to mitosis. True False

T

One system to protect the body from renegade cells is programmed cell death or apoptosis True False

T

Passive immunity provides relatively short-lived protection while active immunity provides long-term protection from antigens. True False

T

Radiation therapy targets rapidly diving cells such as cancer cells, along with blood and hair cells True False

T

Sister chromatids are held together by a centromere. True False

T

Sometimes a mild or moderate fever is beneficial in fighting bacterial infection. True False

T

The AB blood typing system demonstrates an example of codominance. True False

T

The first line of defense includes the physical and chemical barriers that prevent entry. True False

T

The specific molecules on cells that help immune cells determine self from non-self are called MHC markers. True False

T

The type of blood a person had depends on a multiple allele system with alleles I^A I^B and/or I I^A codes for the polysaccharide A and I^B codes for the polysaccharide B while I codes for type O and produces neither polysaccharide. If a person inherits the alleles I^A and I his or her blood type will be A. True False

T

Trisomy is a condition in which there are three representatives of one chromosome. True False

T

Vaccines have been developed that can reduce the risk of developing cancer caused by viruses True False

T

an x linked recessive disorder is only expressed if a functional allele is not present True False

T

karyotypes are used to check for irregularities in the number of structure of chromosomes True False

T

mutation in a gene p53 is thought to be responsible for more than half of all cancers True False

T

Which stage of mitosis is characterized by the disintegration of mitotic spindles and the formation of two new nuclear membreanes? Telophase Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

Telophase

Chap 19a t/f

Tf

Having a chin dimple (cleft chin) is dominant over having no chin dimple. Having long eyelashes is dominant over having short eyelashes. Jack and Jill are both heterozygous for a chin dimple and long eyelashes. What are the chances that their baby will have no chin dimple and short eyelashes? It is impossible for jack and jill to have a baby with no chin dimple and short eyelashes because both of them have a cleft chin and long eyelashes Because jack and jill are both heterozygous for both traits, all of their children will have a 100% chance of having no chin dimple and short eyelashes There is about a 25% chance that the child of jack and jill will have no chin dimple and short eyelashes The chances are bout 9 in 16 that their child will have no chin dimple and short eyelashes The chances are about 1 in 16 that their child will have no chin dimple and short eyelashes

The chances are about 1 in 16 that their child will have no chin dimple and short eyelashes

The "cell cycle" refers to ______. The events during the entire life of a cell The replication of DNA Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase The arrangement of chromosomes throughout the stages of cell division

The events during the entire life of a cell

After nutrients from the digestive system are absorbed into the blood, the first organ the nutrients visit is ______. The brain The lungs The liver The heart

The liver

The process of crossing over during meiosis involves ______. The random selection of certain chromosomes for inclusion in a reproductive cell The mixing of similar areas of DNA between the chromosomes of an individual in the process of forming sperm or eggs The random pattern of chromosomes alignment and separation during metaphase and anaphase The mixing of similar areas of DNA between the chromosomes of an egg cell and the chromosomes of a sperm cell during fertilization

The mixing of similar areas of DNA between the chromosomes of an egg cell and the chromosomes of a sperm cell during fertilization

Independent assortment relates to ______. The order in which different genes are placed onto chromosomes during meiosis The need to randomly select only one chromosome from each pair for a reproductive cell The selection of a specific sperm cell to meet a specific egg cell during the process of fertilization The order in which different chromosomes are replicated prior to division

The need to randomly select only one chromosome from each pair for a reproductive cell

How does the secondary responses differ from the primary response? The secondary response is father than the primary response The secondary response involved addition macrophage cells The primary response is more specific The primary response is much faster than the secondary response

The secondary response is father than the primary

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of "genotype"? The sequence of DNA codes on a chromosome A list of the genes a person has A description of a person's traits The set of alleles in a person

The set of alleles in a person

The pain associated with inflammatory response is the direct result of ______. The clot that seals the wound The swelling of the tissue and the chemicals released from certain cells The mast cells touching and thus stimulating the sensory neurons Chemical messengers within the bloodstream that carry "pain messages to the brain

The swelling of the tissue and the chemicals released from certain cells

Inflamed tissue turns red because ______. An increased number of WBC are formed and begin circulating in the blood, particularly in the area of the injury Macrophages engulf bacterial cells and in so doing develop a reddish hue that can be seen on the body surface Fluid, which is generally red, moves into tissues across "leaky" capillary walls There is an increased blood flow to the injured tissues due to dilation of arterioles in the inured area

There is an increased blood flow to the injured tissues due to dilation of arterioles in the inured area

How to helper T cells serve as the main switch for the entire immune response? They secrete antibodies into the blood They activate both the cell-mediated and the antibody-mediated responses They divide and become memory cells They detect and engulf foreign antigens

They activate both the cell-mediated and the antibody-mediated responses

What is a disadvantage of adult stem cells over embryonic stem cells? They are difficult to locate They are much smaller and therefore difficult to maneuver They grow too fast There is no disadvantage; the two types of cells are identical

They are difficult to locate

Which of the following statements about eggs and sperm is true? They are haploid cells formed by mitosis They are diploid cells formed by meiosis They are gametes formed by meiosis They are somatic cells formed by mitosis

They are gametes formed by meiosis

What is the unique thing about stem cells that makes them so desirable for therapeutic use? They can develop into many different tissue types They are found in reproductive tissue They develop into nerve cells and can be used by stroke victims They develop into organs needed for transplant

They develop into nerve cells and can be used by stroke victims

an unaffected man whose mother had sickle cell anemia marries an unaffected woman whose father had sickle cell anemia. Which of the following statements about their offspring is NOT true? About 50% can be expected to be heterozygous for the sickle cell allele They may not have either sickle cell trait or sickle cell anemia About 75% can be expected to have the sickle cell allel They must all have the sickle cell trait

They must all have the sickle cell trait

Which of the following is true for recessive alleles? Their effects are always masked Their effects are harmful or not as good as those of dominant alleles They produce nonfunctional proteins or no protein at all They are only expressed when they occur alongside a dominant allele

They produce nonfunctional proteins or no protein at all

What is the role of mast cells in the inflammatory response? They release chemicals that dilate blood vessels at the wound site They release chemicals that constrict blood vessels at the wound site They release chemicals that cause large numbers of WBC to be released from the bone marrow They release chemicals that cause blood to clot at the wound site

They release chemicals that cause blood to clot at the wound site

A fertilized egg can developed into all the types of cells in the body and is therefore considered to be _________. Totipotent Unipotent Multipotent Pluripotent

Totipotent

Jaundice is due to a buildup of biliruben within the bloodstream. True False

True

Lacteals are necessary for the transport of chylomicrons into the bloodstream. True False

True

Nerves and hormones play a vital role in digestion. True False

True

The acidity of the skin and glandular secretions slow the growth of bacteria. True False

True

The brown color of feces is due to bile pigments. True False

True

The bulk of nutrients are absorbed from the small intestine. True False

True

The products of exactly which genes assess cell damage and coordinate the repair process? Photo oncogenes Activator genes Tumor suppressor genes Oncogenes

Tumor suppressor genes

Stem cells that differentiate into only one type of cell are describe as ________. Totipotent Unipotent Pluripotent Multipotent

Unipotent

What is the most common source of embryos for stem cell harvest? Unused embryos from fertility clinics Cells cultured in petri dishes Embryos removed from animals Unused sperm frozen in sperm banks

Unused sperm frozen in sperm banks

Amniocentesis is a procedure for genetic testing the _________ Uses fluid from the uterus to grow fetal cells Requires blood to detect genetic diseases in adults Harvests placental cells for prenatal genetic analysis Involves scraping cells from your cheek for laboratory examination

Uses fluid from the uterus to grow fetal cel

Which of the following is a hormone produced by the small intestine, which causes the releases of digestive enzymes and bile? Cholecystokinin Secretin Chime Vasoactive intestinal peptide

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

The fingerlike projections along the surface of the small intestines are called ______. Lacteals Circular folds Villi Capillaries

Villi

What causes the production of interferons? Viruses Vaccines Bacteria Chemicals

Viruses

Food moves down your esophagus to your stomach because _____. Skeletal muscle fibers push the food downward Gravity and muscles must wok together to move food through your gastrointestinal tract Waves of smooth muscle contraction move the food downward The force of gravity moves the food downward

Waves of smooth muscle contraction move the food downward

When do autoimmune disorders occur? When the immune system fails to produce antibodies When cancerous cells are allowed to multiply unchecked When the immune system fails to properly recognize "self" cells When the immune system has nonspecific response to invading cells

When the immune system fails to properly recognize "self" cells

A recessive allele for an X-linked gene _________ Will be expressed more often in males Can only be inherited from the mother Must be recessive to be expressed as a phenotype Will only affect females

Will be expressed more often in males

What can we say about the frequency of x linked recessive traits? X linked recessive traits are more common in males than in females X linked recessive traits are more common in females than in males X-linked recessive traits are expressed about equally in makes and females It is not possible to determine whether an x linked trait will occur more frequently in males or in females

X linked recessive traits are more common in males than in females

Which of the following parental genotypes would produce offspring in 1:1:1:1 phenotypic ratio? AaBb x AaBb AaBb x Aabb aaBb x aabb aaBb x AaBb aaBb x Aabb

aaBb x Aabb

Your traits/characteristics directly depend on all of the following except _______ The dominant and recessive alleles you inherit from your parents The food you eat The amount of DNA mutations in your parents' skin cells Where you live

amount of DNA mutations in your parents' skin cel

the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor is that ______ a benign tumor invades the surrounding tissue, but a malignant tumor spreads to other organs a benign tumor does not invade other tissues; a malignant tumor does a DNA mutation has occurred, and a nonfunctional protein may be formed tumor cells have broken off from the primary mass and have traveled via lymphatic vessels or blood vessels to new location

benign tumor does not invade other tissues; a malignant tumor does

Your saliva helps break large carbohydrate molecules into smaller carbohydrate molecules. This is an example of ____. Mechanical digestion nutrient absorption peristalsis chemical digestion

chemical digestion

Which of the following statement is NOT true for a person who is heterozygous for sickle cell? The heterozygous person is generally healthy under normal circumstances The RBC of the heterozygous person generally have both normal and abnormal hemoglobin Cells generally sickle when oxygen is low The heterozygous person has a greater tendency for hemoglobin polymerization than does a person without the trait A person who is heterozygous for sickle cell tends to die at a younger age than a person with sickle cell anemia does

person who is heterozygous for sickle cell tends to die at a younger age than a person with sickle cell anemia does

Complete this sentence. Metastasis means that ______ A photo oncogene has developed a mutation, and now both the ability to build and to regulate protein production have been compromised A benign tumor has become malignant tumor a DNA mutation has occurred, an nonfunctional protein may be formed tumor cells have broken off from the primary mass and have traveled via lymphatic vessels or blood vessels to new locations

tumor cells have broken off from the primary mass and have traveled via lymphatic vessels or blood vessels to new locations