bio final chapters 52-56, chapter quizzes, old exams

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1) How are matter and energy used in ecosystems? A) Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not. B) Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not. C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy. D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter. E) Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not

1142 Chapter 55, Ecosystems 6) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification? A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers. C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers. D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers. E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.

3) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes A) in biomes at different latitudes. B) at different depths in the ocean. C) in a community through different seasons. D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time. E) across the United States from east to west.

suppose that the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species? A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) temperate broadleaf forest

thalidomide, now banned for use as a sedative during pregnancy, was used in the early 1960s by many women in their first trimester of pregnancy. Some of these women gave birth to children with limb and organ deformities, suggesting that the drug most likely influenced _____ A) morphogenesis B) early cleavage divisions C) gastrulation D) differentiation of bone tissue

the Nernst equation specifies the equilibrium potential for a particular ion. this equilibrium potential is a function of ______ A) ion concentration B) osmotic gradient C) hydrostatic pressure D) temperature gradient

the correct sequence of sensory processing is A) stimulus reception-sensory transduction-sensory perception-sensory adaptation B) stimulus reception-stimulus perception-sensory adaptation-sensory transduction C) sensory adaptation-stimulus reception-sensory transduction-sensory perception D) sensory perception-stimulus reception-sensory transduction-sensory adaptation

the heart rate of a vertebrate will decrease in response to the arrival of ______ A) acetylcholine B) endorphin C) nitric oxide D) gama-aminobutyric acid GABA

the membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the membrane is called the ______ A) equilibrium potential B) threshold potential C) action potential D) graded potential

when climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in a biological communities that are analogous to the changes A) in biomes at different latitudes B) in different depths in the ocean C) in a community through different seasons D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time

which of the following statements about human populations in industrialized countries is incorrect? A) birth rates and death rates are high B) average family size is relatively small C) the population has undergone the demographic transition D) the survivorship curve is Type I

why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction? A) the brief refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated sodium channels B) the axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon C) voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction D) the nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction

cells transplanted from the neural tube of a frog embryo to the ventral part of another embryo develop into nervous system tissues. This result indicates that the transplanted cells were A) determined B) totipotent C) differentiated D) mesenchymal

cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in I) mammals II) cnidarans III) Planaria IV) sea stars A) I and III B) I and II C) III and IV D) II and IV

chose the correct match of glial cell type and function. A) astrocytes - promote blood flow and regulate ion concentrations B) oligodendrocytes - produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system C) Schwann cells - provide nutritional support to non-myelinated neurons D) radial glia - the source of immunoprotection against pathogens

during exponential growth, a population always A) has a constant per capita population growth rate B) quickly reaches its carrying capacity C) cycles through time D) loses some individuals to emigration

imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with A) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems. B) decreased activity in all systems. C) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric systems. D) decreased activity in all systems

in a simple synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by A) dendrites B) cell bodies C) axon hillocks D) the presynaptic membrane

injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt A) regulation of body temperature B) executive functions such as decision making C) sorting of sensory information D) short-term memory

patients with damage to Wernicke's area have difficulty A) understanding language B) generating speech C) coordinating limb movement D) recognizing faces

scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, have revealed that A) predation is the dominant factor affecting prey population cycling B) hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other C) both hare and lynx population sizes are affected mainly by abiotic factors D) the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected

short-term and long-term memory are related but have important differences. Short-term memory _______ A) occurs within the hippocampus and is essental for acquiring new long-term memories within the cerebral cortex B) and long-term memory store information n the cerebellum but use different neurotransmitters C) is essential for acquiring and retaining long-term memories D) involves temporary links formed in the cerebral cortex while long-term memory involves permanent connections within the hippocampus

2) Which of these ecosystems has the lowestnet primary production per square meter? A) a salt marsh B) an open ocean C) a coral reef D) a grassland E) a tropical rain forest

3) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they A) competitively exclude other predators. B) prey on the communityʹs dominant species. C) allow immigration of other predators. D) reduce the number of disruptions in the community. E) prey only on the least abundant species in the community.

5) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake? A) benthic zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) littoral zone E) limnetic zone

6) During exponential growth, a population always A) grows by thousands of individuals. B) grows at its maximum per capita rate. C) quickly reaches its carrying capacity. D) cycles through time. E) loses some individuals to emigration.

7) The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that A) tropical communities are younger. B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation. C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation. D) biodiversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases. E) tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) community, ecosystem, individual, population B) ecosystem, community, population, individual C) population, ecosystem, individual, community D) individual, population, community, ecosystem E) individual, community, population, ecosystem

Concept 52.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 7) Which statement best contrasts environmentalism with ecology? A) Ecology is the study of the environment; environmentalism is the study of ecology. B) Ecology provides scientific understanding of living things and their environment; environmentalism is more about conservation and preservation of life on Earth. C) Environmentalists are only involved in politics and advocating for protecting nature; ecologists are only involved in scientific investigations of the environment. D) Ecologists study organisms in environments that have been undisturbed by human activities; environmentalists study the effects of human activities on organisms. E) Environmentalism is devoted to applied ecological science; ecology is concerned with basic/theoretical ecological science.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except A) population. B) cellular. C) organismal. D) ecosystem. E) community.

where are neurotransmitter receptors typically located? A) synaptic vesicle membranes B) the postsynaptic membrane C) the nodes of Ranvier D) the nuclear membrane

which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake? A) benthic zone B) aphotic zone C) pelagic zone D) littoral zone

which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems? A) organismal ecology B) landscape ecology C) ecosystem ecology D) community ecology

Concept 53.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 45) The life history traits favored by selection are mostlikely to vary with A) fluctuations in K. B) the shape of the J curve. C) the maximum size of a population. D) population density. E) population dispersion.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 53, Population Ecology 1083 36) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN (K-N) K , which of the factors accounts for the effect on the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K E) dt

Concept 53.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 44) Which of the following is true? A) K-selection operates in populations where populations fluctuate well below the carrying capacity. B) r-selection occurs in populations whose densities are very near the carrying capacity. C) Different populations of the same species will be consistently r- or K-selected. D) r- and K-selection are two extremes of a range of life history strategies. E) r-selection tends to maximize population size, not the rate of increase in population size.

8) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is not correct? A) About 25% of Earthʹs land area is now protected. B) National parks are one of many types of protected area. C) Most protected areas are too small to protect species. D) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area. E) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.

9) Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species? A) tropical rain forest B) savanna C) desert D) temperate broadleaf forest E) temperate grassland

Concept 52.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 6) Which of the following statements best describes the difference in approach to studying the environment by early naturalists compared to present-day ecologists? A) Early naturalists employed a descriptive approach; present-day ecologists generate hypotheses, design experiments, and draw conclusions from their observations. B) Early naturalists manipulated the environment and observed changes in plant and animal populations, while modern ecology focuses on population dynamics. C) Early naturalists systematically recorded what they observed in their environment; modern ecology is only concerned with manʹs impact on the environment. D) Early naturalists were interested with manʹs interaction with the natural world; present-day ecologists seek to link ecology to developmental biology. E) Early naturalists were interested in interactions between organisms and their environment; present day ecologists are interested in interactions between organisms.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comp 14) Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is correct? A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light. C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths. D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species. E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is not too intense.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry. B) trade winds have a little moisture. C) water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land. D) ascending air tends to be moist. E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 1058 Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 19) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the A) autumn and spring. B) autumn and winter. C) spring and summer. D) summer and winter. E) summer and autumn.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) As climate changes because of global warming, speciesʹ ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals. B) have thin seed coats. C) produce well-provisioned seeds. D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire. E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 38) In models of sigmoidal (logistic) population growth, A) population growth rate slows dramatically as Napproaches K. B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the populationʹs growth. C) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth. D) only density-independent factors affect the rate of population growth. E) carrying capacity is never reached.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 34) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by A) rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics. B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas. C) polar, cool, moist high pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried. D) the revolution of the Earth around the sun. E) Mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 1063 38) The benthic zone in an aquatic biome A) often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus. B) supports communities of highly motile animals. C) is where one would most expect to find a thermocline. D) has wider seasonal fluctuations in temperature than other aquatic zones. E) is always devoid of light.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 20) Which of the following is responsible for the summer and winter stratification of deep temperate lakes? A) Water is densest at 4°C. B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters. C) Winter ice sinks in the summer. D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline. E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 1059 23) Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earthʹs axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased 33.5 degrees? A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively. B) Winters and summers in Australia would likely become less distinct seasons. C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease. D) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time. E) Both poles would experience massive ice melts

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to observe not many underwater organisms but be able to observe them both close up and far away. You would do well to choose A) an oligotrophic lake. B) an eutrophic lake. C) a relatively shallow lake. D) a nutrient-rich lake. E) a lake with consistently warm temperatures.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) Coral animals A) are a diverse group of cnidarians often forming mutualistic symbiotic relationships with dinoflagellate algae. B) are predominantly photosynthetic, multicellular algae. C) can tolerate low oxygen and nutrient levels, and varying levels of salinity. D) can only survive in tropical waters 30oC and above. E) build coral reefs by glueing sand particles together.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 45) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earthʹs surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except A) deep-sea vent communities. B) coral reef communities. C) benthic communities. D) pelagic communities. E) estuary communities.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Demography is the study of A) the vital statistics of populations and how they change over time. B) death and emigration rates of a population at any moment in time. C) the survival patterns of a population. D) life expectancy of individuals within a population. E) reproductive rates of a population during a given year.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree D) moths in a city at night E) lake trout, which seek out deep water

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is known as a (an) A) life table. B) mortality table. C) survivorship table. D) rate table. E) insurance table.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus,per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) density B) dispersion C) carrying capacity D) quadrats E) range

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The most common kind of dispersion in nature is A) clumped. B) random. C) uniform. D) indeterminate. E) dispersive.

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) A small population of white-footed mice has the same intrinsic rate of increase (r) as a large population. If everything else is equal, A) the large population will add more individuals per unit time. B) the small population will add more individuals per unit time. C) the two populations will add equal numbers of individuals per unit time. D) the J-shaped growth curves will look identical. E) the growth trajectories of the two populations will proceed in opposite directions.

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 31) In the logistic equation dN/dt = rN (K-N) K , r is a measure of the populationʹs intrinsic rate of increase. It is determined by which of the following? A) birth rate and death rates B) dispersion C) density D) carrying capacity E) life history

Concept 53.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 47) Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations? A) offspring with good chances of survival B) many offspring per reproductive episode C) small offspring D) a high intrinsic rate of increase E) early parental reproduction

Concept 53.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) The Allee effect is used to describe a population that A) has become so small that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing. B) has become so large it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing. C) approaches carrying capacity. D) exceeds carrying capacity. E) is in crash decline.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) A cowʹs herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n) A) primary consumer. B) secondary consumer. C) decomposer. D) autotroph. E) producer.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 49) Your friend comes to you with a problem. It seems his shrimp boats arenʹt catching nearly as much shrimp as they used to. He canʹt understand why because originally he caught all the shrimp he could handle. Each year he added a new boat, and for a long time each boat caught tons of shrimp. As he added more boats, there came a time when each boat caught somewhat fewer shrimp, and now, each boat is catching a lot less shrimp. Which of the following topics might help your friend understand the source of his problem? A) density-dependent population regulation and intrinsic characteristics of population growth B) exponential growth curves and unlimited environmental resources C) density-independent population regulation and chance occurrence D) pollution effects of a natural environment and learned shrimp behavior E) a K-selected population switching to an r-selected population

Concept 53.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 68) An ecological footprint is a construct that is useful A) for a person living in a developed nation to consider to make better choices when using global food and energy resources. B) for a person living in a developing country to see how much of the worldʹs resources are left for him/her. C) in converting human foodsʹ meat biomass to plant biomass. D) in making predictions about the global carrying capacity of humans. E) in determining which nations produce the least amount of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry? A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern B) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf D) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails E) two species of moths with wing spots that look like owlʹs eyes

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration? A) stripes of a skunk B) eye color in humans C) green color of a plant D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction? A) mutualism B) commensalism C) parasitism D) competition E) predation

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation? A) competitive exclusion B) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus C) cooperative displacement D) primary succession E) mutualism

Concept 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 46) Biomanipulation can best be described as A) removing many of the next higher trophic level organisms so that the struggling trophic level below can recover. B) a means of reversing the effects of pollution by applying antidote chemicals that have a neutralizing effect on the community. C) an example of how one would use bottom-up model for ecosystem restoration. D) adjusting the population numbers of each of the trophic levels back to the numbers that they were before man started disturbing ecosystems. E) monitoring and adjusting the nutrient and energy flow through a community with new technologies.

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 37) Elephants are not the most common species in African grasslands. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community. B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland. C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands. D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community. E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Which of the following is considered by ecologists a measure of the ability of a community either to resist change or to recover to its original state after change? A) stability B) succession C) partitioning D) productivity E) competitive exclusion

Concept 54.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 56) A communityʹs actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of A) solar radiation, temperature, and water availability. B) the number of plants and how much moisture they lose. C) the depth of the water table. D) energy availability. E) plant biomass and plant water content.

Concept 54.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 65) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia? A) Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska. B) Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms. C) Test domestic chickens and ducks worldwide after they have been slaughtered for human consumption for the presence of H5N1. D) Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets. E) Keep domestic and wild fowl from interacting with each other to minimize the probability that wild fowl could get infected and migrate out of Asia.

Concept 54.5 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 54, Community Ecology 1117 62) Ecologists are particularly concerned about pathogens because A) human activities are transporting pathogens around the world at alarming rates. B) pathogens are evolving faster than ever before. C) host organisms are not coming up with defenses against pathogens. D) new technologies have allowed microbiologists to classify more new pathogens. E) pathogens that infect organisms at the community level will eventually infect human beings.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 8) What is the most important role of photosynthetic organisms in an ecosystem? A) converting inorganic compounds into organic compounds B) absorbing solar radiation C) producing organic detritus for decomposers D) dissipating heat E) recycling energy from other tropic levels

Concept 55.1 Skill: Application/Analysis1121 4) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others? A) heterotrophs B) herbivores C) carnivores D) primary consumers E) secondary consumers

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest percent in production efficiency? A) mammals, fish, insects B) insects, fish, mammals C) fish, insects, mammals D) insects, mammals, fish E) mammals, insects, fish

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following? A) light and nutrient availability B) predation by fishes C) increased pressure with depth D) disease E) temperature

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) In general, the total biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem will be greatest for which trophic level? A) producers B) herbivores C) primary consumers D) tertiary consumers E) secondary consumers

Concept 55.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top predators? A) Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed. B) Predators have relatively large population sizes. C) Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels. D) Predators have short life spans and short reproductive periods. E) A, B C, and D are all correct.

Concept 55.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) Which of the following probably contains the highest concentration of toxic pollutants (biological magnification)? A) hawk B) snake C) shrew D) grasshopper E) grass

Concept 55.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 48) Human-induced modifications of the nitrogen cycle can result in A) eutrophication of adjacent wetlands. B) decreased availability of fixed nitrogen to primary producers. C) accumulation of toxic levels of N2 in groundwater. D) extermination of nitrogen-fixing bacteria on agricultural lands. E) deprivation of nitrogen to ecosystems adjacent to nitrogen application.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 60) Which of the following causes an increase in the intensity of UV radiation reaching the Earth? A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse effect E) eutrophication

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Which of the following has the smallest biomass? A) hawk B) snake C) shrew D) grasshopper E) grass

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 20) Of the following, which ecosystem types are the ones that have been impacted by humans the most? A) wetland and riparian B) open and benthic ocean C) desert and high alpine D) taiga and second growth forests E) tundra and arctic

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 9) What is the term for a top predator that contributes to the maintenance of species diversity among its animal prey? A) keystone species B) keystone mutualist C) landscape species D) primary consumer E) tertiary consumer

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 1149 23) Which of the following would be research in which a conservation biologist would be involved? A) reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota B) studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present C) population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park D) the effects of hunting on white-tailed deer in Vermont E) the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) The Nile perch (Lates niloticus) is a good example of a(n) A) predator that has negatively affected biodiversity in ecosystems where it has been introduced. B) endangered endemic species. C) recently created protein source for the highly populated regions of Africa. D) threatened anadromous species in the Nile River watershed. E) primary consumer and a secondary consumer.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that A) an endangered species is closer to extinction. B) a threatened species is closer to extinction. C) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders. D) endangered species are mainly tropical. E) only endangered species are vertebrates.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 1146 Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 11) Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the analysis the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses? A) Their cost is difficult to estimate and people take them for granted. B) They are not worth much and are usually not considered. C) There are no laws that require investigation of ecosystem services in environmental planning. D) There are many variables to ecosystem services making their calculation is impossible. E) Ecosystem services only take into account abiotic factors that affect local environments.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 34) If we say a species is endemic to a certain area, we mean that A) it is found only in one particular area of the world. B) it has been introduced to that area. C) it is endangered in that area. D) it is threatened in that area. E) it used to live there but no longer does.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 37) The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the declining-population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is A) S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the populationʹs decline. B) S-PA kicks in for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500. C) D-PA would likely involve the bringing together of individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed to promote genetic diversity. D) S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery. E) D-PA would use recently collected population data to calculate an extinction vortex.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 45) Which of the following statements about biodiversity hot spots for plants is correct? A) They are locations that have high concentrations of endemic species. B) They consist of large numbers of surprisingly common species. C) They only involve terrestrial plants. D) They make up a total of about 15% of the global land surface. E) They are all geographically situated in the tropics.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 47) Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves? A) Costa Rica B) Canada C) China D) United States E) Mexico

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 48) Which of the following species has been shown to be most susceptible to habitat fragmentation? A) Red-cockaded woodpecker B) humpback whale C) Canada goose D) Nile perch E) zebra mussel

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 52) Brown-headed cowbird populations require forested habitat where they can A) parasitize the nests of other forest-adapted host birds. B) burrow for insect larvae under the bark of trees. C) nest in cavities in old growth timber. D) avoid competition with other open area cowbird species. E) feed on upper canopy-adapted insect species.

Concept 56.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 57) The biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future is A) the pressures of its growing population. B) its small size (as a country) to maintain large enough reserves. C) the potential for disturbance of sensitive species by ecotourism in reserves. D) spread of disease and parasites via corridors from neighboring countries. E) the large number of Costa Rican species already in the extinction vortex.

Concept 56.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 56) Which of the following is true about ʺhot spotsʺ? A) 1/3 of all species on Earth occupy less that 1.5% of the earthʹs land area. B) All of the plants and animals containing genes that may be useful to humankind are located in the Earthʹs hot spots. C) 75% of all of the undiscovered species of organisms live in ecological hot spots. D) As conservation measures improve over the next ten years hot spots will likely disappear. E) The hot spots that are in most dire need of remediation are located in the tundra.

Concepts 52.3, 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 49) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others? A) the species of colonizing animals B) prevailing temperature C) prevailing rainfall D) mineral nutrient availability E) soil structure

Which of the following sensory receptors is correctly paired with its category? A) hair cell-mechanoreceptor B) taste receptor-mechanoreceptor C) rod-chemoreceptor D) muscle spindle-electromagnetic receptor

a physiologist is studying the homeostatic control of blood pH. what type of receptor might be responsible for detecting changes in blood pH? A) chemoreceptor B) photoreceptors C) electromagnetic receptors D) mechanoreceptors

a population's carrying capacity A) may change as environmental conditions change B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model C) increases as the per capita population D) can never be exceeded

after narrowly escaping a mountain lion attack, which of the following reactions would your nervous system initiate? A) increased heartbeat B) decreased heartbeat C) constriction of pupils D) constriction of airways

Concept 52.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) You are working for the Environmental Protection Agency and researching the effect of a potentially toxic chemical in drinking water. There is no documented scientific evidence showing that the chemical is toxic, but many suspect it to be a health hazard. Using the precautionary principle, what would be a reasonable environmental policy? A) Establish no regulations until there are conclusive scientific studies. B) Set the acceptable levels of the chemical conservatively low, and keep them there unless future studies show that they can be safely raised. C) Set the acceptable levels at the highest levels encountered, and keep them there unless future studies demonstrate negative health effects. D) Caution individuals to use their own judgment in deciding whether to drink water from a potentially contaminated area. E) Establish a contingency fund to handle insurance claims in the event that the chemical turns out to produce negative health effects.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 9) Rachel Carson would most likely have endorsed which of the following statements? A) Conserving wildness will lead to the preservation of the Earth. B) The greatest liberty humans have taken is with nature. C) Humans have dominion over the Earth and all of its inhabitants. D) All pesticides are unsafe and must be banned. E) The environment can repair damage created by human activity.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because A) there is more ice at the poles. B) sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle. C) the poles are farther from the sun. D) the poles have a thicker atmosphere. E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 29) Which of the examples below provides appropriate abiotic and biotic factors that might determine the distribution of the species in question? A) The amount of nitrate and phosphate in the soil and wild flower abundance and diversity B) The number of frost-free days and competition between species of introduced grasses and native alpine grasses C) Increased predation and decreased food availability and a prairie dog population after a prairie fire D) Available sunlight and increased salinity in the top few meters of the ocean and the abundance and diversity of phytoplankton communities E) The pH and dissolved oxygen concentration and the streams in which brook trout can live

Concept 52.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 42) You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of a variety of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best location in which to conduct such a study is A) a grassland. B) an intertidal zone. C) a river. D) tropical forest. E) an eutrophic lake.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 40) Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones? A) oligotrophic B) photic C) benthic D) abyssal E) aphotic

Concept 52.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 1068 Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 54) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems? A) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term. B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires. C) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop. D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn. E) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of A) parallel evolution. B) convergent evolution. C) allopatric speciation. D) introgression. E) gene flow.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning? A) tundra and coniferous forest B) chaparral and savanna C) desert and savanna D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest E) grassland and tundra

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Fire suppression by humans A) will always result in an increase in the species diversity in a given biome. B) can change the species composition within biological communities. C) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use. D) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species. E) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of biomes.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)? A) tundra and polar ice B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland C) desert and chaparral D) tropical forest and savanna E) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest

Concept 53. 4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations? A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers B) intraspecific competition for nutrients C) earthquakes D) floods E) weather catastrophes

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 3) To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be A) 200. B) 500. C) 1,000. D) 10,000. E) 900,000.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 5) You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include A) reduction in death rate. B) increased immigration. C) increased emigration. D) decreased emigration. E) increased birth rate.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Life tables are most useful in determining which of the following? A) carrying capacity B) the fate of a cohort of newborn organisms throughout their lives C) immigration and emigration rates D) population dispersion patterns E) reproductive rates

Concept 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 34) The energetic hypothesis and dynamic stability hypothesis are explanations to account for A) plant defenses against herbivores. B) the length of food chains. C) the evolution of mutualism. D) resource partitioning. E) the competitive exclusion principle.

Concept 53.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Which of the following pairs of reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success? A) Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds, while large elephants that are very good parents produce many offspring. B) Female rabbits that suffer high predation rates may produce several litters per breeding season, and coconuts produce few fruits, but most survive when they encounter proper growing conditions. C) Species that have to broadcast to distant habitats tend to produce seeds with heavy protective seed coats, and animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality. D) Free-living insects lay thousands of eggs and provide no parental care, while flowers take good care of their seeds until they are ready to germinate. E) Some mammals will not reproduce when environmental resources are low so they can survive until conditions get better, and plants that produce many small seeds are likely found in stable environments.

Concept 53.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 53, Population Ecology 1081 28) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Estimate the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added E) 20 individuals lost

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 33) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt= A) rN K B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN (K-N) K E) rN (N-K) K

Concept 53.4 Skill: Knowledge/C 35) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will show an Allee effect. D) The population will increase exponentially. E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1084 Chapter 53, Population Ecology 40) Which of the following is the pattern of spacing for individuals within the boundaries of the population? A) cohort B) dispersion C) Allee effect D) iteroparous E) semelparous

Concept 53.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 50) Carrying capacity is A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean. B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support. C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time. D) determined by density and dispersion data. E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.

Concept 53.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 58) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the regulation of populations? A) The logistic equation reflects the effect of density-dependent factors, which can ultimately stabilize populations around the carrying capacity. B) Density-independent factors have an increasingly greater effect as a populationʹs density increases. C) High densities in a population may cause physiological changes that inhibit reproduction. D) Because of the overlapping nature of population-regulating factors, it is often difficult to precisely determine their cause-and-effect relationships. E) The occurrence of population cycles in some populations may be the result of crowding or lag times in the response to density-dependent factors.

Concept 53.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 59) Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) social pressure for birth control B) earthquakes C) plagues D) famines E) pollution

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees? A) mutualism B) parasitism C) commensalism D) facilitation E) competition

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 2) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same A) habitat. B) niche. C) territory. D) range. E) biome.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The oak tree pathogen Phytophthora ramorum has migrated 650 km in ten years. West Nile virus spread from New York State to 46 others states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to A) how lethal each pathogen is. B) the mobility of their hosts. C) the fact that viruses are very small. D) innate resistance. E) dormancy viability.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut? A) commensalism B) mutualism C) competitive exclusion D) ectoparasitism E) endoparasitism

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 24) Historically, most ecological research on the community has focused on which of the following? A) mutualistic relationships and other positive interactions B) competition or predation between two different species C) parasite-host relationships D) commensalistic relationships E) herbivory interactions

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 26) White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, while the White-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts? A) competitive exclusion B) resource partitioning C) character displacement D) keystone species E) individualistic hypothesis

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 29) The species richness of a community refers to the A) complexity of the food web. B) number of different species. C) the bottom-heavy shape of the energy pyramid. D) relative numbers of individuals in each species. E) total number of all organisms.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 52) Which of the following describes the relationship between legumes and nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A) parasitism B) mutualism C) inhibition D) facilitation E) commensalism

Concept 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 45) Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced? A) Invasive species are more aggressive than natives in competing for the limited resources of the environment. B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for the natives. C) Humans always select which species will outcompete the nuisance native species. D) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species. E) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 36) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) A) community facilitator. B) keystone species. C) herbivore. D) resource partitioner. E) mutualistic organism.

Concept 54.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 51) Which of the following describes the relationship between ants and acacia trees? A) parasitism B) mutualism C) inhibition D) facilitation E) commensalism

Concept 54.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 54) Species richness increases A) as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains. B) as we travel north from the South Pole. C) on islands as distance from the mainland increases. D) as depth increases in aquatic communities. E) as community size decreases.

Concept 54.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 55) There are more species in tropical areas than in places farther from the equator. This is probably a result of A) fewer predators. B) more intense annual isolation. C) more frequent ecological disturbances. D) fewer agents of disease. E) all of the above

Concept 54.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 63) Zoonotic disease A) describes sub-organismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions. B) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector. C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact. D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host. E) is too specific to study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are relegated to organismal biology.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is A) producers. B) producers and decomposers. C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers. D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers. E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 9) Ecosystems are A) processors of energy and transformers of matter. B) processors of matter and transformers of energy. C) processors of matter and energy. D) transformers of matter but not of energy. E) neither transformers or processors of matter nor energy.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 24) Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare? A) open ocean because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs B) grassland because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition C) tropical rainforest because of the massive standing crop biomass and species diversity. D) cave due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs E) tundra because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 19) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as A) gross primary productivity. B) standing crop. C) net primary productivity. D) secondary productivity. E) trophic efficiency.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 22) Aquatic ecosystems are least likely to be limited by which of the following nutrients? A) nitrogen B) carbon C) phosphorus D) iron E) zinc

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Trophic efficiency is A) the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production. B) the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next. C) a measure of how nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next. D) usually greater than production efficiencies. E) about 90% in most cosystems

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 37) A secondary consumer, such as a fox, receives what percent of the energy fixed by primary producers in a typical field ecosystem? A) 0.1% B) 1% C) 10% D) 20% E) 90%

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 57) Which of the following is a tertiary consumer? A) hawk B) snake C) shrew D) grasshopper E) grass

Concept 55.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same-they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that A) secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers. B) at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive. C) as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment. D) biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores. E) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers.

Concept 55.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 55, Ecosystems 1131 43) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling? A) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus. B) The phosphorus cycle is a cycle that involves the weathering of rocks. C) The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil fuels. D) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO2 for the past million years. E) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 64) Agricultural lands frequently require nutritional supplementation because A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and detrivores do not cycle nutrients as effectively as they do on wild lands. B) the nutrients that enter the plants are not returned to the soil on lands where they are harvested. C) the prairies that comprise good agricultural land tend to be nutrient-poor. D) grains raised for feed must be fortified, and thus require additional nutrients. E) cultivation of agricultural lands inhibits the decomposition of organic matter.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 70) Which of the following statements best describes why biologists are currently concerned with global warming and the thawing of permafrost in many areas of the tundra biome? A) The thawing process will likely decrease the abundance and diversity of soil-dwelling organisms in tundra habitats. B) The bacterial decomposition of the thawed organic materials on the widespread areas of the tundra will produce large quantities of CO2, which will add to greenhouse gases and exacerbate global warming. C) Oil and coal deposits will thaw and rise to the surface (because of their lower density) of the tundra, destroying millions of acres of arctic habitat. D) Populations of humans inhabiting the arctic will have to move to more southern latitudes, resulting in increased competition for resources in already densely populated areas. E) Migratory species of waterfowl will likely be less successful finding food in thawed tundra, and population numbers will drop dramatically.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) The most serious consequence of a loss in ecosystem biodiversity would be the A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer. B) loss of ecosystem services on which people depend. C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species. D) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species. E) loss of species for ʺbioprospecting.ʺ

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 21) The introduction of the brown tree snake in the 1940s to the island of Guam has resulted in A) eradication of nonnative rats and other undesirable/pest species. B) the extirpation of many of the islandʹs bird and reptile species. C) a good lesson in biological control. D) new species of hybrids from breeding with native snake species. E) failure to compete with native species and its quick elimination from the island.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following terms includes all of the others? A) species diversity B) biodiversity C) genetic diversity D) ecosystem diversity E) species richness

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 17) Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to affect A) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche. B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates. C) most organisms that live in the oceans. D) terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms. E) edge-adapted species.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 1154 Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 40) Which of the following is true about the current research about forest fragmentation? A) Fragmented forests support a greater biodiversity because they result in the combination of forest-edge species and forest interior species. B) Fragmented forests support a lesser biodiversity because the forested-adapted species leave, and only the edge and open-field species can occupy fragmented forests. C) Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife preserves. D) Harvesting timber that results in forest fragmentation results in less soil erosion. E) The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase because of the new habitats created.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) Which of the following is a method of predicting the likelihood that a species will persist in a particular environment? A) source-sink analysis B) population viability analysis C) minimum viable population size D) extinction vortex E) effective population size

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 39) Managing southwestern forests specifically for the Red-cockaded woodpecker A) was whole-heartedly supported by the timber extraction industry. B) contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest bird species. C) caused other species of songbird to decline. D) involved strict fire suppression measures E) involved the creation of fragmented forest habitat.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 36) Which of the following species was driven to extinction by overexploitation by hunters/fishermen? A) African elephant B) the great auk C) North American bluefin tuna D) flying foxes E) American bison

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 42) Which of the following statements is correct about landscape ecology? A) It is the application of ecological principles to the design and construction of sustainable lawns and gardens. B) It is the application of ecological principles to land-use planning. C) It focuses primarily on human-altered ecological systems. D) It deals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings. E) It deals with the study of the home ranges of various animals.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 46) The term ʺbiotic boundaryʺ refers to the A) area that an animal defends as its territory. B) area needed to sustain a population. C) home range of an animal. D) distribution of an organism. E) range where a species used to live, but no longer does.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 54) After a disturbance, natural recovery of a biological community is most strongly influenced by A) whether the disturbance has been caused by humans or by a natural agent. B) the spatial scale of the disturbance. C) whether the site is in a temperate or tropical area. D) the availability of water nearby. E) the season in which the disturbance occurred.

Concepts 53.5, 53.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 1094 Chapter 53, Population Ecology 60) A population of white-footed mice becomes severely overpopulated in a habitat that has been disturbed by human activity. Sometimes intrinsic factors cause the population to increase in mortality and lower reproduction rates in reaction to the stress of overpopulation. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic population control? A) Owl populations frequent the area more often because of increased hunting success. B) Females undergo hormonal changes that delay sexual maturation and many individuals suffer depressed immune systems and die due to the stress of overpopulation. C) Clumped dispersion of the population leads to increased spread of disease and parasites resulting in a population crash. D) All of the resources (food and shelter) are used up by overpopulation and much of the population dies of exposure and/or starvation. E) Because the individuals are vulnerable they are more likely to die off if a drought or flood were to occur.

Concepts 54.1, 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) Which of the following members of a marine food chain occupies a similar tropic level to a grasshopper in a terrestrial food chain? A) phytoplankton B) zooplankton C) lobster D) sea lion E) shark

what structural adaptation in chickens allows them to play their eggs in arid environments rather than in water? A) cleavage B) extraembryonic membrane C) gastrulation D) yolk

although some sharks close their eyes just before they bite, their bites are on target. Researchers have noted that sharks often misdirect their bites at metal objects and that they can find batteries buried under sand. this evidence suggests that sharks keep track of their prey during the split second before they bite in the same way that a A) bat finds moths in the dark B) platypus locates their prey in a muddy river C) rattlesnake finds a mouse in its burrow D) male silkworm locates a mate

bottlenose dolphins breath air but can sleep in the ocean because A) they move to shallow water to sleep, so they don't need to swim to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water. B) they alternate which half of their brain is asleep and which half is awake. C) they sleep only for thirty minutes at a time, which is the maximum interval they can cease breathing. D) they fill their swim bladder with air to keep their blowholes above the surface of the water while they sleep

during fertilization, the acrosomal contents _______ A) block polyspermy B) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg C) help propel more sperm toward the egg D) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm

emotional responses and memories are linked in which part of the brain? A) cerebrum B) amygdala C) cerebellum D) pons

hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure waves. Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when A) the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage B) the membrane is distorted mechanically C) a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel D) light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane

the cortical reaction of sea urchin eggs functions directly in A) the generation of an electrical impulse by the egg B) the formation of a fertilization envelope C) the fusion of egg and sperm nuclei D) the production of a fast block to polyspermy

the human knee-jerk reflex requires an intact _____ A) corpus callosum B) spinal cord C) cerebellum D) medulla

the observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that A) resources are distributed unevenly B) the members of the population are competing for access to a resource C) the members of a population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another D) the density of the population is low

the operation of the sodium-potassium pump moves A) sodium ions in the cell and potassium ions out of the cell B) sodium ions out of the ell and potassium ions into the cell C) sodium and potassium ions into the cell D) sodium and potassium ions out of the cell

the outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is A) mesoderm-endoderm-ectoderm B) ectoderm-mesoderm-endoderm C) endoderm-ectoderm-mesoderm D) ectoderm-endoderm-mesoderm

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 39) Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake? A) profundal zone B) benthic zone C) photic zone D) oligotrophic zone E) aphotic zone

1) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I.inhabiting the same general area II. individuals belonging to the same species III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III

2) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to A) determine a populationʹs carrying capacity. B) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes. C) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population. D) determine the factors that regulate the size of a population. E) determine if a populationʹs growth is cyclic.

3) According to the logistic growth equation dN/dt=rmaxN(K — N)/K, A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as Napproaches K. C) population growth is zero when Nequals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as Napproaches K.

4) Food chains are sometimes short because A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species. B) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain. C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level. D) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species. E) most producers are inedible.

4) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem? A) the ecosystemʹs rate of primary production B) the production efficiency of the ecosystemʹs consumers C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem E) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem

5) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a communityʹs species diversity is A) increased by frequent massive disturbance. B) increased by stable conditions with no disturbance. C) increased by moderate levels of disturbance. D) increased when humans intervene to eliminate disturbance. E) increased by intensive disturbance by humans.

7) Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed that A) the prey population is controlled by predators alone. B) hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other. C) multiple biotic and abiotic factors contribute to the cycling of hare and lynx populations. D) both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors. E) the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected.

7) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex? A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild. B) Establish a reserve that protects the populationʹs habitat. C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species. D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population. E) Control populations of the endangered populationʹs predators and competitors.

8) According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is A) small and remote. B) large and remote. C) large and close to a mainland. D) small and close to a mainland. E) environmentally homogeneous.

9) Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect? A) Average family size is relatively small. B) The population has undergone the demographic transition. C) Life history is r-selected. D) The survivorship curve is Type I. E) Age distribution is relatively uniform.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect? A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms. B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers. C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history. D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems. E) Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 8) Of the following examples of ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect (), which is most correct? A) When seeds are not plentiful trees produce more seeds. B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought these survivors then emigrate to less arid environments. C) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age the reproducing survivors all have long fur. D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water catch the most prey and more easily escape predation. E) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight have the most mutations.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 12) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) precipitation, wind B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) predation, competition D) temperature, water E) light intensity, seasonality

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals? A) water B) wind C) temperature D) rocks and soil E) disturbances

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 1061 30) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places an ecologist should A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species. B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species. C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude. D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth. E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1060 Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 27) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores. B) their tolerance to shade. C) their seed dispersal rate. D) their size. E) their growth rate.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 47) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area. B) Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. C) It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution, but also the pattern of climatic variation. D) Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation. E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 1070 Chapter 52, An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 1) Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems? A) population ecology B) organismal ecology C) landscape ecology D) ecosystem ecology E) community ecology

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n) A) littoral zone. B) vertically stratified canopy. C) ecotone. D) abyssal zone. E) cline.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 56) Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as A) taigas. B) tundras. C) savannas. D) chaparrals. E) temperate plains.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 21) Long-term studies of Beldingʹs ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 km from where they are born and make up 1 to 8% of the males and 0.7 to 6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant? A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals keeping the other populationsʹ size stable. B) Young reproductive males tend to stay in their home population and are not driven out by other territorial males. C) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations. D) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources. E) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a uniform to a clumped population pattern of dispersion.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 17) In order to construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, you need to A) assess sperm viability. B) keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort. C) keep track of the females in a cohort. D) keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort. E) keep track of the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.

Concept 53.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are A) life expectancy, birth rate, and death rate. B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy. C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode. D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode. E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate.

Concept 53.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 43) Density-dependent factors are related to which of the following? A) cohort B) dispersion C) Allee effect D) iteroparous E) semelparous

Concept 53.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 1086 Chapter 53, Population Ecology 48) Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct? A) Stable environments with limited resources favor r-selected populations. B) K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent factors are important regulators of population size. C) Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different environmental conditions. D) The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few offspring with good competitive abilities. E) K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 37) Which of the following might be expected in the logistic model of population growth? A) As N approaches K, b increases. B) As N approaches K, r increases. C) As N approaches K, d increases. D) Both A and B are true. E) Both B and C are true.

Concept 53.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 46) In which of the following habitats would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals? A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio B) the sand dune communities of south Lake Michigan C) the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean D) South Florida after a hurricane E) a newly emergent volcanic island

Concept 53.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 61) Why is territoriality an adaptive behavior for songbirds maintaining populations at or near their carrying capacity? A) Songbirds expend a tremendous amount of energy defending territories so that they spend less time feeding their young and fledgling mortality increases. B) Only the fittest males defend territories and they attract the fittest females so the best genes are conveyed to the next generation. C) Songbird males defend territories commensurate with the size from which they can derive adequate resources for themselves, their mate, and their chicks. D) Many individuals are killed in the ritualistic conflicts that go along with territorial defense. E) Songbirds make improvements to the territories they inhabit so that they can all enjoy larger clutches and successfully fledged chicks.

Concept 53.6 Skill: Application/Analysis 67) Most ecologists believe that the average global carrying capacity for the human population is between A) 5 and 6 billion. B) 6 and 8 billion. C) 10 and 15 billion. D) 15 and 20 billion. E) 20 and 25 billion.

Concept 53.6 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1) The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that A) the size of the area occupied by the population is increasing. B) resources are distributed unevenly. C) the members of the population are competing for access to a resource. D) the members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another. E) the density of the population is low.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 13) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry? A) an insect that resembles a twig B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf C) a non-venomous snake that looks like a venomous snake D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 27) Monarch butterflies are protected from birds and other predators but the cardiac glycosides they incorporate into their tissues are from eating milkweed when they were in their caterpillar stage of development. The wings of a different species of butterfly, the Viceroy, look nearly identical to the Monarch so predators that have learned not to eat the bad-tasting Monarch avoid Viceroys as well. This example best describes A) aposmatic coloration. B) cryptic coloration. C) Batesian mimicry. D) Müllerian mimicry. E) mutualism.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following is a good description of an ecological niche? A) the ʺaddressʺ of an organism B) synonymous with an organismʹs specific trophic level C) how an organism uses the biotic and abiotic resources in the community D) the organismʹs role in recycling nutrients in its habitat E) the interactions of the organism with other members of the community

Concept 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 38) When lichens grow on bare rock, they may eventually accumulate enough organic material around them to supply the foothold for later rooted vegetation. These early pioneering lichens can be said to do what to the later arrivals? A) tolerate B) inhibit C) facilitate D) exclude E) concentrate

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 30) With a few exceptions, most of the food chains studied by ecologists have a maximum of how many links? A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 E) 15

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 54, Community Ecology 1111 39) Which of the following treatments would most likely create a healthy, biodiverse community out of an impoverished community? A) Decrease the number of top level predators. B) Eliminate some of the of pest species of trees and shrubs. C) Add plenty of nutrients to the soil. D) Add more predators. E) Reduce the number of primary producers.

Concept 54.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Which of the following best describes the consequences of White-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs? A) Staghorn coral has been decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral has taken its place. B) Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes has improved. C) Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is dominated by herbivores. D) Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to increases in primary productivity. E) Other coral species take the place of the affected Staghorn and Elkhorn species.

Concept 54.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 1118 Chapter 54, Community Ecology 1) The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the communityʹs A) secondary succession. B) ecological niche. C) trophic structure. D) species-area curve. E) species richness.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) If the Sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster? A) tropical rainforest B) tundra C) benthic ocean D) grassland E) desert

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 13) Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a year. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event? A) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100 and add to the total nitrogen in the ecosystem. B) Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100 and subtract from the total nitrogen in the ecosystem. C) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/-value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem. D) Do nothing. The Canada geese visitation to the lake would have negligible impact on the nitrogen budget of the pond. E) Put a net over the pond so that no more migrating flocks can land on the pond and alter the nitrogen balance of the pond.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings, which are then hauled to the local landfill. Which of the following actions would most benefit the local ecosystem? A) Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheepʹs feces to be delivered to the landfill. B) Collect the lawn clippings and burn them. C) Either collect the clippings and add them to a compost pile, or donʹt collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn. D) Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake. E) Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 55, Ecosystems 1123 12) Which of the following is true of detrivores? A) They recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers. B) They synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers. C) They convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers. D) They secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into CO2 and H2O. E) Some species are autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity? A) the energy contained in the standing crop B) the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration C) the energy used by autotrophs in respiration D) the energy fixed by photosynthesis E) all solar energy

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 23) As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate this, one reasonable avenue would be to A) follow whale migrations in order to determine where most nutrients are. B) observe Antarctic Ocean productivity from year to year to see if it changes. C) experimentally enrich some areas of the ocean and compare their productivity to that of untreated areas. D) compare nutrient concentrations between the photic zone and the benthic zone in various locations E) contrast nutrient uptake by autotrophs in oceans of different temperatures.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) A porcupine eats 3,000 J of plant material. 1,600 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces. 1,300 J are used in cellular respiration. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal? A) .03% B) 1% C) 3% D) 10% E) 30%

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 55, Ecosystems 1125 20) How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earthʹs ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low? A) Oceans contain greater concentrations of nutrients compared to other ecosystems. B) Oceans receive a greater amount of solar energy per unit area. C) Oceans have the greatest total area. D) Oceans possess greater species diversity. E) Oceanic producers are generally much smaller than its consumers.

Concept 55.4 Skill: Application/Analysis Chapter 55, Ecosystems 1133 49) Which of the following statements is true? A) An ecosystemʹs trophic structure determines the rate at which energy cycles within the system. B) At any point in time, it is impossible for consumers to outnumber producers in an ecosystem. C) Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep-sea vents are primary producers. D) There has been a well-documented increase in atmospheric nitrogen over the past several decades. E) The reservoir of ecosystem phosphorous is the atmosphere.

Concept 55.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N2 are A) Rhizobium bacteria. B) nitrifying bacteria. C) denitrifying bacteria. D) methanogenic protozoans. E) nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Concept 55.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems? A) cellular respiration B) photosynthesis C) rock weathering D) geological uplifting (subduction and vulcanism) E) atmospheric phosphorous dust

Concept 55.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 44) If you were tracking a nutrient molecule through an ecosystem, which of the following statements would you expect to verify? A) Molecules move through all ecosystems at the same constant rate, as the laws of physics would predict. B) Because of the liquid nature of the aquatic ecosystem, nutrient molecules move through it more rapidly than forest ecosystems. C) Vertical mixing is essential for high productivity in aquatic ecosystems. D) Most nutrient molecules leave an ecosystem, but are later replaced from another ecosystem. E) A, B, C, and D are all correct.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 1) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level? A) cyanobacteriumNprimary producer B) grasshopperNprimary consumer C) zooplanktonNprimary producer D) eagleNtertiary consumer E) fungusNdetritivore

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 63) Which of the following causes excessively high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds? A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse effect E) eutrophication

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 50) The high levels of pesticides found in birds of prey is an example of A) eutrophication. B) predation. C) biological magnification. D) the green world hypothesis. E) chemical cycling through an ecosystem.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1144 3) Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now in a biodiversity crisis? A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species. B) Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to quantify the number of species becoming extinct. C) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels. D) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct. E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 2) Estimates of current rates of extinction A) indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation and extinction rates are approximately equal. B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100. C) indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period. D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive. E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 4) Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because A) more animals than ever before are going extinct. B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species. C) the rate of extinction is unusually high. D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity. E) none of the above

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 15) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss? A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats. B) In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place. C) Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction. D) Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments. E) Fragments generate silt that negatively affect sensitive river and stream organisms.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving a population that is in an extinction vortex? A) determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective population size B) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat C) introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation D) determining and remedying the cause of its decline E) reducing the population size of its predators and competitors

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 27) One chief area of concern among biologists who use the small-population approach is A) intraspecific competition. B) sexual selection. C) genetic diversity. D) runaway selection. E) both A and D

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 31) Which of the following statements correctly describes genetic variation? A) Genetic variation does not contribute to biodiversity. B) Population size is always positively correlated with genetic variation. C) Populations with low Ne are relatively susceptible to effects of bottlenecking and genetic drift. D) Recent increases in population size of the northern sea elephant are probably related to high levels of genetic variation. E) Cord grass populations that live in salt marshes require great genetic variation to thrive.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 1152 Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 33) A population of strictly monogamous swans consists of 40 males and 10 females. What is the effective population size (Ne) for this population? A) 50 B) 40 C) 32 D) 20 E) 10

Concept 56.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 29) Review the formula for effective population size. Imagine a population of 1,000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size? A) 1,000 B) 1,200 C) 600 D) 400 E) 300

Concept 56.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 35) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at A) protecting federally listed endangered species. B) lobbying for strict enforcement of the U.S. Endangered Species Act. C) sustaining biodiversity of entire ecosystems and communities. D) maintaining all genetic diversity within all species. E) saving as much habitat as possible from development and exploitation.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 51) Biodiversity hot spots are not necessarily the best choice for nature preserves because A) hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to wildlife viewers. B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive. C) a hot spot for one group of organisms may not be a hot spot for another group. D) hot spots are designated by abiotic factors present, not biotic factors. E) designated hot spots change on a daily basis.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 43) A movement corridor A) is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their wintering locales. B) is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range. C) unites otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat. D) is always beneficial to a species. E) is always some natural component of the environment.

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 53) Approximately what percent of the worldʹs land area has been established as reserves to protect biodiversity? A) less than 1% B) 3% C) 7% D) 12% E) 20%

Concept 56.3 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 1155 44) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species are known as A) endemic sinks. B) critical communities. C) biodiversity hot spots. D) endemic metapopulations. E) bottlenecks.

Concept 56.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 1) Ecologists conclude there is a biodiversity crisis because A) biophilia causes humans to feel ethically responsible for protecting other species. B) scientists have at last discovered and counted most of Earthʹs species and can now accurately calculate the current extinction rate. C) current extinction rates are very high and many species are threatened or endangered. D) many potential life-saving medicines are being lost as species evolve. E) there are too few biodiversity hot spots.

Concepts 56.1, 56.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) What term did E. O. Wilson coin for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms? A) bioremediation B) bioethics C) biophilia D) biophobia E) landscape ecology

based on current growth rates, Earth's human population in 2019 will be closest to A) 2.5 million B) 4.5 billion C) 7.5 billion D) 10.5 billion

bipolar disorder differs from schizophrenia in that ______ A) bipolar disorder increases biogenic amines B) schizophrenia typically involves manic and depressive states C) schizophrenia typically involves hallucinations D) bipolar disorder involves genes and environment

the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans ______ A) has only a single chromosome, which has been fully sequenced B) uniquely, among animals, utilizes programmed cell death during normal development C) is composed of about 1,000 cells, in which the developmental origin of each cell has been mapped D) has about 1,000 genes, each of which has been fully sequenced

which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? A) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns B) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes C) vegetation demonstrating vertical layering D) cold winter months

which of the following shows a brain structure correctly paired with one of its primary functions? A) temporal lobe - visual processing B) occipital lobe - control of skeletal muscles C) front lobe - decision making D) occipital lobe - speech production

1) What is the estimated number of extant species on Earth? A) 1,000 to 50,000 B) 50,000 to 150,000 C) 500,000 to 1,000,000 D) 10,000,000 to 200,000,000 E) 5 billion-10 billion

1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion? A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites. B) The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species. E) Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.

10) A recent study of ecological footprints (described in the text) concluded that A) Earthʹs carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion. B) Earthʹs carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased. C) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries. D) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high. E) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earthʹs carrying capacity for humans.

2) If Earthʹs axis of rotation suddenly became perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, the most predictable effect would be A) no more night and day. B) a big change in the length of the year. C) a cooling of the equator. D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes. E) the elimination of ocean currents.

2) The principle of competitive exclusion states that A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat. B) competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species. C) competition in a population promotes survival of the best-adapted individuals. D) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community. E) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat.

3) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia. B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil. C) converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere. D) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb. E) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.

3) What is the effective population size (Ne) of a population of 50 strictly monogamous swans (40 males and 10 females) if every female breeds successfully? A) 50 B) 40 C) 30 D) 20 E) 10

4) A populationʹs carrying capacity A) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model. B) generally remains constant over time. C) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases. D) may change as environmental conditions change. E) can never be exceeded.

4) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that A) its habitat is fragmented. B) it is a rare, top-level predator. C) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size. D) its genetic diversity is very low. E) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.

4) The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphereʹs oxygen. B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes. D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater. E) being the source of most of Earthʹs rainfall.

5) The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to more natural states is known as A) population viability analysis. B) landscape ecology. C) conservation ecology. D) restoration ecology. E) resource conservation.

5) Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves? A) Semelparous; r-selected B) Semelparous; K-selected C) Iteroparous; r-selected D) Iteroparous; K-selected E) Iteroparous; N-selected

6) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community? A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount B) influence of temperature on competition among plants C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity E) effect of humidity on plant growth rates

6) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes? A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion. B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes. C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients. D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients. E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.

7) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earthʹs atmosphere over the past 150 years is A) increased worldwide primary production. B) increased worldwide standing crop. C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere. D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels. E) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.

7) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes? A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes D) vegetation demonstrating stratification E) cold winter months

8) Based on current growth rates, Earthʹs human population in 2010 will be closest to A) 2 million. B) 3 billion. C) 4 billion. D) 7 billion. E) 10 billion.

Concept 52.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 11) Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area. B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area. C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms. D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms. E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this? A) sunlight intensity B) precipitation C) day length D) ocean currents E) salinity

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following? A) warm, less dense water layered at the top B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water. D) the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change. E) currents generated by nektonic animals

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) Species introduced to new geographic locations A) are usually successful in colonizing the area. B) always spread because they encounter no natural predators. C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem. D) can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources. E) are always considered pests by ecologists.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 21) Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually A) tropical. B) humid. C) rising. D) descending. E) expanding.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 46) Which of the following is nottrue about estuaries? A) Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes. B) Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity. C) Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume. D) Estuaries usually contain no or few producers. E) Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.

Concept 52.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 43) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true? A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next ʺfrontierʺ for feeding humanity. B) Because it is so immense, the ocean is a uniform environment. C) More photosynthesis occurs in the ocean than in any other biome. D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome. E) The most abundant animals are unicellular zooplankton.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 48) Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are) A) wind and ocean water current patterns. B) species diversity. C) proximity to large bodies of water D) climate. E) day length and rainfall.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers? A) desert B) taiga C) temperate grassland D) chaparral E) savanna

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 58) In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods? A) tropical forest B) coral reef C) savanna D) temperate forest E) abyssal

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 1074 4) During the spring, you are studying the mice that live in a field near your home. There are lots of mice in this field, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive females. This most likely indicates A) that there is selective predation on female mice. B) that female mice die before reproducing. C) that this habitat is a good place for mice to reproduce. D) that you are observing immigrant mice. E) that the breeding season is over

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 19) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250 hectare lake, 200 individuals were netted and marked with a fin clip, and then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake is netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that are caught, 50 have fin clips. Using the capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following? A) 200 B) 250 C) 400 D) 800 E) 40,000

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 7) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with A) chance. B) patterns of high humidity. C) the random distribution of seeds. D) competitive interactions among individuals in the population. E) the concentration of nutrients within the populationʹs range.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 53, Population Ecology 1079 23) Natural selection has led to the evolution of diverse natural history strategies, which have in common A) many offspring per reproductive episode. B) limitation only by density-independent limiting factors. C) adaptation to stable environments. D) maximum lifetime reproductive success. E) relatively large offspring.

Concept 53.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 42) Which of the following describes having more than one reproductive episode during a lifetime? A) cohort B) dispersion C) Allee effect D) iteroparous E) semelparous

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) Imagine that you are managing a large ranch. You know from historical accounts that wild sheep used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will appear as A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation. B) an ʺS,ʺ increasing with each generation. C) an upside-down ʺU.ʺ D) a ʺJ,ʺ increasing with each generation. E) an ʺSʺ that ends with a vertical line.

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) In 2005, the United States had a population of approximately 295,000,000 people. If the birth rate was 13 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in the United States in 2005? A) 3,800 B) 38,000 C) 380,000 D) 3,800,000 E) 38,000,000

Concept 53.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 34) Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt= A) rN K B) rN C) rN (K + N) D) rN (K-N) K E) rN (N-K) K

Concept 54.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) All of the following have been used by plants to avoid being eaten except A) possessing spines and thorns on stems and leaves. B) synthesis of chemical toxins, such as strychnine, nicotine, and tannins. C) producing chemicals that are distasteful to herbivores, such as cinnamon, cloves, and peppermint. D) producing tissues that have unappealing colors. E) synthesizing chemicals that can cause abnormal development in some insects that eat them.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 53) Which of the following describes a successional event in which one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism? A) parasitism B) mutualism C) inhibition D) facilitation E) commensalism

Concept 54.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 33) Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported by a field plot containing 2000 kg of plant material? A) 20,000 B) 2,000 C) 200 D) 20 E) 2

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 35) The dominant species in a community is A) characterized by very large individuals with long lives. B) the best competitor in the community. C) the best predator in the community. D) the species that contributes the most biomass to the community. E) the most energetically efficient species in the community.

Concept 54.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 50) You are most likely to observe primary succession in a terrestrial community when you visit a(n) A) tropical rain forest. B) abandoned field. C) recently burned forest. D) recently created volcanic island. E) recently plowed field.

Concept 54.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1114 Chapter 54, Community Ecology 49) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was A) equilibrium. B) facilitation. C) immigration. D) inhibition. E) mutualism.

Concept 54.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 64) Of the following zoonotic diseases, which is most applicable to study by a community ecologist? A) mad cow disease B) hantavirus C) AIDS D) avian flu E) trichinosis

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 5) Which of the following are responsible for the conversion of most organic material into CO2, which can be utilized in primary production? A) autotrophs B) detrivores C) primary consumers D) herbivores E) carnivores

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 17) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earthʹs net primary productivity? A) tundra B) savanna C) salt marsh D) open ocean E) tropical rain forest

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 25) How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on Earth? A) Photosynthesizers absorb more visible light in the 350—750 wavelengths. B) Satellite instruments can detect reflectance patterns of the photosynthesizers of different ecosystems. C) Sensitive satellite instruments can measure the amount of NADPH produced in the summative light reactions of different ecosystems. D) By comparing the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by photosynthesizers to the amount of light reaching different ecosystems. E) By measuring the amount of water vapor emitted by transpiring photosynthesizers.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 16) The difference between net and gross primary productivity would likely be greatest for A) phytoplankton in the ocean. B) corn plants in a farmerʹs field. C) prairie grasses. D) an oak tree in a forest. E) sphagnum moss in a bog.

Concept 55.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter? A) savanna B) open ocean C) boreal forest D) tropical rain forest E) temperate forest

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 38) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem? A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels. B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through cellular respiration reactions. C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate. D) It is dissipated into space as heat in accordance with the second law of thermodynamics. E) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers.

Concept 55.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 45) Which of the following properly links the nutrient to its reservoir? A) NitrogenNionic nitrogen in the soil B) WaterNatmospheric water vapor C) CarbonNdissolved CO2 in aquatic ecosystems D) PhosphorousNsedimentary rocks E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

Concept 55.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 47) Some global warming models predict that, if permafrost in the tundra regions in the northern hemisphere melts, atmospheric CO2 levels will increase. Which of the following statements best explains this prediction? A) The heat released by the melting of the ice on such a vast scale will cause atmospheric CO2 saturation levels to increase. B) All of the tundra producers will die if the permafrost melts, and because the tundra regions are vast in the northern hemisphere the tundra plants will not take part in photosynthetic removal of atmospheric CO2. C) CO2 tied up in the permafrost ice will be released during a thaw. D) All of the undecayed organic material would be subject to decomposition following a thaw, which would lead to incredible increase in global cellular respiration, and add to atmospheric CO2. E) All of the permafrost ice would become runoff, and this volume of water will cause sea levels to rise globally, flooding some of the most important photosynthetic CO2 sink regions on the planet.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 61) Which of the following describes carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor re-reflecting infrared radiation back toward Earth? A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse effect E) eutrophication

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 55, Ecosystems 1135 59) When levels of CO2 are experimentally increased, C3 plants generally respond with a greater increase in productivity than C4 plants. This is because A) C3 plants are more efficient in their use of CO2. B) C3 plants are able to obtain the same amount of CO2 by keeping their stomata open for shorter periods of time. C) C4 plants donʹt use CO2 as their source of carbon. D) C3 plants are more limited than C4 plants by CO2 availability because of transpirational water loss. E) C3 plants have special adaptations for CO2 uptake, such as larger stomata.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 69) Aquatic ecosystems that are most readily damaged by acid are those that lack an important buffer that dissolves into the runoff after a precipitation event. What is this buffer? A) calcium B) carbonic acid C) nitrate D) bicarbonate E) sulfate

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 13) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity? A) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide B) the depletion of the ozone layer C) overexploitation of species D) habitat destruction E) zoned reserves

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 18) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called ʺflying foxesʺ threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands? A) The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants. B) The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would be part of the treesʹ reproductive cycle. C) The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings. D) The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds. E) The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Which of the following poses the greatest potential threat to biodiversity? A) replanting after a clear cut, a monoculture of Douglas fir trees on land that consisted of old growth Douglas fir, western cedar, and western hemlock B) allowing previously used farmland go fallow and begin to fill in with weeds and then shrubs and saplings C) trapping and relocating large predators, such as mountain lions, that pose a threat as they move into areas of relatively dense human populations D) importing an Asian insect into the United States to control a weed that competes with staple crops E) releasing sterilized rainbow trout to boost the sport fishing of a river system that contains native brook trout

Concept 56.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 8) To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary to A) monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide levels more closely. B) differentiate between plant extinction and animal extinction numbers. C) focus on identifying more species of mammals and birds. D) identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth. E) use the average extinction rates of vertebrates as a baseline.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 14) According to most conservation biologists, the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is A) chemical pollution of water and air. B) stratospheric ozone depletion. C) insufficient recycling programs for nonrenewable resources. D) alteration or destruction of the physical habitat. E) global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 25) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex? A) The population is geographically divided into smaller populations. B) The species is found only in small pockets of its former range C) The effective population size of the species falls below 500. D) Genetic measurements indicate a continuing loss of genetic variation. E) The population is no longer connected by corridors.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 38) The long-term problem with Red-cockaded woodpecker habitat intervention in the southwest United States is A) the only habitat that can support their recovery is large tracts of mature southern pine forest. B) the mature pine forests in which they live cannot ever be subjected to forest fire. C) all of the appropriate Red-cockaded woodpecker habitat has already been logged or converted to agricultural land. D) the social organization of the Red-cockaded woodpecker precludes the dispersal of reproductive individuals. E) what habitat remains for the Red-cockaded woodpecker does not contain trees suitable for nest cavity construction.

Concept 56.4 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 1158 Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 55) Human use of prokaryotic organisms to help detoxify a polluted wetland would be an example of A) ecosystem augmentation. B) keystone species introduction. C) biological control. D) bioremediation. E) population viability analysis.

a common feature of action potentials is that they A) move at the same speed along all axons B) can undergo temporal and spatial summation C) cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize D) are triggered by a depolarization that reaches threshold

among these choices, the largest cell involved in frog reproduction is ______ A) a blastomere in the vegetal pole B) a blastomere in the animal pole C) one of the products of the first cleavage D) an egg

analyzing ecological footprints reveals that A) Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased B) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries C) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans D) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high

at the time of implantation, the human embryo is called a A) gastrula B) fetus C) zygote D) blastocyst

if excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are produced nearly simultaneously through two different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron, the EPSPs can also add together creating _______ A) the refractory state B) a tetanus C) a temporal summation D) a spatial summation

immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to A) accommodation B) reduced motor unit recruitment C) reduced receptor amplification D) sensory adaptation

most of the neurons in the human central nervous system are _______ A) sensory neurons B) motor neurons C) peripheral neurons D) interneurons

one of the complications of Alzheimer's disease is an interference with learning and memory. this disease would most likely involve _____ A) structural changes to ion channels in axons B) changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons C) changes in myelination of neurons D) molecular and structural changes at synapses

pyrethroid insecticides prevent the voltage-gated sodium channels of insects from inactivating. Neurons that were exposed to pyrethroids would _________ A) not release neurotransmitter molecules B) become hyperpolarized during an action potential C) not be able to open potassium channels D) not repolarize during an action potential

the archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually develops into the ______ A) heart and lungs B) blastocoel C) brain and spinal cord D) digestive tract

the arrangement of organs and tissues in their characteristic places n 3-D place defines A) differentiation B) organogenesis C) determination D) pattern formation

the oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater

which of the following correctly displays the sequence of development milestones? A) blastula-gastrula-cleavage B) gastrula-blastula-cleavage C) cleavage-gastrula-blastula D) cleavage-blastula-gastrula

which of the following is a correct description of the fate of the germ layers? A) the ectoderm gives rise to the liver B) the mesoderm gives rise to the lungs C) the endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles D) the mesoderm gives rise to the notochord

1) ʺHow does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?ʺ This question A) would require an elaborate experimental design to answer. B) is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required. C) is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required. D) is a question that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask. E) A, B, C and D are correct.

1160 Chapter 56, Conservation Biology and Restoration Ecology 6) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity? A) overexploitation of commercially important species B) introduced species that compete with or prey on native species C) pollution of Earthʹs air, water, and soil D) disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinct E) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction

2) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation? A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine C) identifying a new biodiversity hot spot D) reconfiguring the channel of a river E) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium

5) The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except that A) most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem. B) the flow of minerals out of a natural watershed was offset by minerals flowing in. C) deforestation increased water runoff. D) the nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high. E) calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.

8) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate? A) savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year B) tundra-long summers, mild winters C) temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters D) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer E) tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature

Concept 52.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 10) Landscape ecology is best described as the study of A) the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem. B) how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment. C) what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time. D) the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem. E) the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 15) In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes C) consistently steeper than southern exposures D) support biological communities similar to those found lower elevations on similar south-facing slopes. E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south-facing slopes.

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 22) Which of the following causes Earthʹs seasons? A) global air circulation B) global wind patterns C) ocean currents D) changes in Earthʹs distance from the sun E) the tilt of Earthʹs axis

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 26) Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates? A) a discarded soft-drink can B) a tree C) a fallen log D) a stone E) all of the above

Concept 52.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 33) Which of the following organisms is the most likely candidate for geographic isolation? A) sparrow B) bat C) squirrel D) salt-water fish E) land snail

Concept 52.2 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 24) Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be A) the elimination of tides. B) an increase in the length of night. C) an increase in the length of a year. D) a decrease in temperature at the equator. E) the elimination of seasonal variation.

Concept 52.4 Skill: Application/Analysis 55) Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall? A) tropical rain forest B) temperate forest C) chaparral D) taiga E) savanna

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 59) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes? A) savanna B) temperate broadleaf forest C) temperate grassland D) tropical rain forest E) coniferous forest

Concept 52.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 60) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of A) insufficient annual precipitation. B) acidic soils. C) extreme winter temperatures. D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou. E) permafrost.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 20) Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate of population size? I.Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped. II.The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with population after being marked. III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate. A) I only B) II only C) I and II only D) II and III only E) I, II, and III

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 18) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare B) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare D) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10, 1m2 quadrats by 100 to determine the density per kilometer2. E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.

Concept 53.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 41) Pacific salmon or annual plants illustrate which of the following? A) cohort B) dispersion C) Allee effect D) iteroparous E) semelparous

Concept 53.2 Skill: Comprehension 24) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live. B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization. C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide. D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease in parental care. E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.

Concept 53.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 57) Field observation suggests that populations of a particular species of herbivorous mammal undergo cyclic fluctuations in density at three- to five-year intervals. Which of the following represent (a) plausible explanation(s) of these cycles? A) Periodic crowding affects the endocrine system, resulting in increased aggressiveness. B) Increases in population density lead to increased rates of predation. C) Increases in rates of herbivory lead to changes in the nutritive value of plants used as food. D) Increases in population density lead to more proximal infestations of parasites to host animals. E) All of the above are plausible explanations of population cycling.

Concept 53.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 62) Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range? A) 50 to 60 years B) 40 to 50 years C) 30 to 40 years D) 20 to 30 years E) 10 to 20 years

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 1106 Chapter 54, Community Ecology 23) Community ecologists would consider which of the following to be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community? A) determining how many species are present overall B) which particular species are present C) the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species D) the relative abundance of species E) all of the above

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 25) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions? A) selectivity of nest sites among cavity nesting songbirds B) the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison C) nitrate and phosphate uptake by various species of hardwood forest tree species D) stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist E) All of the above would be appropriate studies of competitive interaction.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 3) The sum total of an organismʹs interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its A) habitat. B) logistic growth. C) biotic potential. D) carrying capacity. E) ecological niche.

Concept 54.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 54, Community Ecology 1103 11) Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration? A) bands on a coral snake B) brown color of tree bark C) markings of a viceroy butterfly D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower E) a ʺwalking stickʺ insect that resembles a twig

Concept 54.2 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension Chapter 54, Community Ecology 1109 31) Prairie dogs once covered the expanses of the Great Plains. Their grazing made the grass more nutritious for the huge herds of bison, and a variety of snakes, raptors, and mammals preyed on the rodents. In fact, the black-footed ferret (now endangered) specialized in prairie dog predation. Today, growing housing and agricultural developments have covered many prairie dog towns. Which of the following statements about prairie dogs is true? A) Their realized niche has expanded. B) They have a mutualistic relationship with bison. C) They are probably a poor candidate for keystone species. D) Their fundamental niche is changed. E) Their fundamental niche has expanded.

Concept 54.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 48) According to the nonequilibrium model, A) communities will remain in a mature state if there are no human disturbances. B) community structure remains constant in the absence of interspecific competition. C) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance. D) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time. E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 14) The producers in aquatic ecosystems include organisms in which of the following groups? A) cyanobacteria B) algae C) plants D) photoautotrophs E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 10) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem? A) All of the brook trout in a 500 hectare2 river drainage system. B) The plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow. C) A pond and all of the plant and animal species that live in it. D) The intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna during a drought. E) Interactions between all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest.

Concept 55.1 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 6) Of the following pairs, which are the main decomposers in a terrestrial ecosystem? A) fungi and prokaryotes B) plants and mosses C) insects and mollusks D) mammals and birds E) annelids and nematodes

Concept 55.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 28) The amount of chemical energy in consumersʹ food that is converted to their own new biomass during a given time period is known as which of the following? A) biomass B) standing crop C) biomagnification D) primary production E) secondary production

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 36) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy. C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems. D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition. E) Energy transfer between tropic levels is in almost all cases less than 20% efficient.

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 39) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starts from seaweeds to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true? A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can. B) The total biomass of the seaweeds is lower than that of the seals. C) Seal meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins. D) Seal populations are larger than fish populations. E) The seaweed can potentially provide more food for humans than the seal meat can.

Concept 55.3 Skill: Application/Analysis 40) Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of A) N2 in the atmosphere. B) nitrite ions in the soil. C) uric acid from animal excretions. D) amino acids from decomposing plant and animal proteins. E) nitrate ions in the soil.

Concept 55.3 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 31) If you wanted to convert excess grain into the greatest amount of animal biomass, to which animal would you feed the grain? A) chickens B) mice C) cattle D) carp (a type of fish) E) mealworms (larval insects)

Concept 55.4 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 46) In terms of nutrient cycling, why does timber harvesting in a temperate forest cause less ecological devastation than timber harvesting in tropical rain forests? A) Trees are generally smaller in temperate forests, so fewer nutrients will be removed from the temperate forest ecosystem during a harvest. B) Temperate forest tree species require fewer nutrients to survive than their tropical counterpart species, so a harvest removes fewer nutrients from the temperate ecosystem. C) The warmer temperatures in the tropics influence rain forest species to assimilate nutrients more slowly, so tropical reforestation is much slower than temperate reforestation. D) There are far fewer decomposers in tropical rain forests so turning organic matter into usable nutrients is a slower process than in temperate forest ecosystems. E) Typical harvests remove up to 75% of the nutrients in the woody trunks of tropical rain forest trees, leaving nutrient-impoverished soils behind.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 62) Which of the following is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into lakes? A) depletion of atmospheric ozone B) turnover C) biological magnification D) greenhouse effect E) eutrophication

Concept 55.5 Skill: Application/Analysis 65) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. Ultimately, these are probably responsible for A) the death of fish in Norwegian lakes. B) rain with a pH as low as 3.0. C) calcium deficiency in soils. D) direct damage to plants by leaching nutrients from the leaves. E) A, B, C, and D are all correct.

Concept 55.5 Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension 66) You have a friend who is wary of environmentalistsʹ claims that global warming could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you truthfully make in response to your friendʹs suspicions? A) We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased in the last 150 years. B) Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and temperature fluctuations were directly correlated even in prehistoric times. C) Global warming could have significant effects on United States agriculture. D) Sea levels will likely rise, displacing as much as 50% of the worldʹs human population. E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

Concept 56.1 Skill: Application/Analysis 16) Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by A) preying on native species. B) competing with native species for food or light. C) displacing native species. D) competing with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat. E) A, B, C, and D

Concept 56.1 Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation 19) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis that includes all of the others is A) pollution. B) global warming. C) habitat destruction. D) introduced species. E) overpopulation of humans.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 30) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true? A) The population will enter the extinction vortex. B) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time. C) The genetic variation in the population will decrease over time. D) The effective population size will be greater than the actual population size. E) The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 32) Which of the following life history traits can potentially influence effective population size ( Ne)? A) maturation age B) genetic relatedness among individuals in a population C) family and population size D) gene flow between geographically separated populations E) A, B, C and D are correct.

Concept 56.2 Skill: Application/Analysis 41) Which of the following would a landscape ecologist consider in designing a nature reserve? A) patterns of landscape use by humans B) human economic concerns C) possible edge effects related to human activities D) nature viewing sites E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

which statement about dispersal is false? A) dispersal is a common component of the life cycles of plants and animals B) colonization of devastated areas after floods or volcanic eruptions depends on dispersal C) dispersal occurs only on an evolutionary time scale D) the ability to disperse can expand the geographic distribution of a species

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