Bio Final Practice

Ace your homework & exams now with Quizwiz!

Question Flower petal color in 4 o'clocks is an example of incomplete dominance with the purple allele (R) being dominant to the white allele (r). What would the expected phenotypic ratio look like in a cross of Rr and Rr individuals?

1/4 Purple, 1/2 Lavender, 1/4 White

Consider parental genotypes of BbGg and bbGg, where B/b and G/g loci are independent. What's the probability that an offspring's genotype is BbGG? 1/2 1/4 1/8 1/16

1/8

About how much energy is transferred from one trophic level to another through feeding interactions?

10%

How many molecules of NADPH are oxidized to NADP+ for the Calvin-Benson cycle in the chloroplast to fix 6 molecules of CO2 to form a molecule of glucose? Include regeneration of RuBP.

a newly discovered bacterial species has 35% G in its DNA. What is the %A

A newly discovered bacterial species has 35% G in its DNA. What is the % A?

15%

A newly discovered bacterial species has 35% G in its DNA. What is the % A?

15% A always pairs with T, and C always pairs with G. Thus A=T and C=G, together totaling 100% of the nucleotides in an organism's genome.

Drosophila melanogaster (fruit flies) have 3 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes. In this species, no crossing over occurs during meiosis in males. Given a male fruit fly that is heterozygous for at least one gene located on each chromosome, how many different sperm genotypes are possible?

The rock pocket mouse environment was originally sandstone, and the dark lava flows formed ~1.7 x 106 years ago. Due to mutation alone, how many dark mutant mice could have been born since the lava flow formed?

1700

Two molecules of G3P are needed to make a molecule of glucose. How many ATPs are expended in the Calvin cycle to make a molecule of glucose?

Two molecules of G3P are needed to make a molecule of glucose. How many ATPs are expended in the Calvin cycle to make a molecule of glucose? a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 15 e. 18

When Mendel crossed the true-breeding yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. If these F1 yellow-seeded plants were crossed to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio would be expected

1:1

When Mendel crossed true-breeding (true-breeding = homozygous) yellow-seeded and true-breeding green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. If these F1 yellow-seeded plants were crossed to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio would be expected?

1:1

If genes for body color (b) and wing size (vg) are on the same chromosome, and NO crossing over occurs between them, what phenotypic ratios would you predict in the F1 testcross? possible F1 testcross progeny phenotypes: tan body, normal wings (wild type, parental) black body, vestigial wings (double mutant, parental) tan body, vestigial wings (recombinant) black body, normal wings (recombinant)

1:1:0:0 because they are fully linked on the same chromosomes

Body color and wing type are each controlled by 1 gene with two alleles, with simple dominant and recessive relationships. Tan (b+) is dominant to black (b) and normal wings (vg+) is dominant to vestigial wings (vg). You cross a double homozygous "wildtype" (tan body, normal wings) to a double homozygous mutant (black body, vestigial wings). The F1 dihybrid is tan with normal wings. You then conduct an F1 testcross where you mate the F1 to a double homozygous mutant. (Note this is NOT an F1 x F1 cross.) If the genes for body color and wing type are on different chromosomes, what should you expect the phenotypic ratios to be for the progeny of this F1 test cross?

1:1:1:1

Many types of cancer cells have an altered metabolism, where pyruvate is fermented to lactic acid. How many ATPs net can these cells make for each molecule of glucose metabolized in this way? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4 e. 6

B. Paraphyletic prokaryotes are paraphyletic because the group does not include the common ancestor of archaea and eukaryotes

(image showing a phylogenic tree of archaea, bacteria, and eukaryota) The above image shows the generally accepted phylogenetic tree of life. Archaea and Bacteria are both prokaryotic forms of life. Is the term "prokaryote" monophyletic or paraphyletic? A. Monophyletic B. Paraphyletic

gene flow

(migration) two different populations are subjected to different selective pressures and genetic drift, so they would be expected to have different allele frequencies. when individuals from one population migrate to the other population, they bring those different allele frequencies with them. if enough migration and mating occurs between the populations, then the populations will see changes in allele frequencies and see their allele frequencies become similar. makes two populations more similar to each other.

prezygotic barriers to reproduction

-behavioral difference in mating song or dance, meaning individuals don't even recognize each other as possible mates -differences in when and where individuals attempt to mate, meaning that individuals don't ever encounter each other for mating -sperm-egg incompatibility, meaning that individuals might attempt to mate, but it is not possible for the sperm to fertilize the egg

postzygotic barriers to reproduction

-developmental failures and spontaneous abortion, meaning the embryo does not develop properly and is therefore inviable (not capable of living) -growth and development of viable fully formed adult offspring that are themselves sterile (infertile), meaning that the offspring are not capable of reproducing

If a mother is colorblind what are the chances that her son will be colorblind as well given colorblindness is an x-linked recessive trait?

1/1

Carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14 with a half-life of approximately 5700 years. After 57,000 years, approximately what fraction of the initial carbon-14 would be left in an organic sample?

1/1000

What are the chances that Colin and Julia have a child with blue eyes?

1/16

Assume the only gene that controls eye color is XB/Xb. Blue eyes is controlled by the X-linked recessive allele Xb, while brown eyes is controlled by the dominant allele XB. What's the probability that the son of an XBY father and an XBXb mother has brown eyes? 1/2 1/4 3/4 3/8

1/2

Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). What fraction of the progeny of crosses BbTt × BBtt will be expected to have black fur and long tails? 1/2 3/16 3/8 9/16 1/16

1/2

If Julia has an equal chance to be homozygous for the green allele as heterozygous for the green allele, what are the chances she is homozygous?

1/2

In rabbits, the genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits and white rabbits, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have white fur? 1/3 1/4 1/2 100% 2/3

1/2

Recall the case of Nicholas Volker, whose rare genetic disorder was identified by whole-exome sequencing to be due to a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. Nick's XIAP mutation is recessive. He inherited it from his mother, who is a carrier with no symptoms. Nick's older sisters now know they may also have inherited the same mutation. What is the probability that Nick's oldest sister is a carrier of the XIAP mutation?

1/2

Suppose Nick's oldest sister is found to be a carrier of the XIAP mutation. If she has children with a phenotypically normal man, what proportion of their sons would be expected to have the disease?

1/2

What are the odds that Colin is heteozygous for the brown allele?

1/2

Consider parental genotypes BbGg and bbGg. What's the probability that their offspring has brown eyes? Blue eyes? Green eyes? 1/2; 1/4; 1/4 1/2; 1/8; 3/8 1/4; 1/4; 1/2 1/2; 3/8; 1/8

1/2; 1/8; 3/8

Dr. Harrison's uncle has oculocutaneuos albinism (OCA) but his dad does not. The TYR gene that is responsible for the disorder is a recessive allele. There is no OCA on Dr. Harrison's maternal side of the family. Given this information what are the chances Dr. Harrison is a carrier for the mutant TYR gene?

1/3

Assume the only gene controls eye color is XB/Xb and blue eye is controlled by the X-linked recessive allele Xb, brown eye is controlled by the dominant allele XB. What's the probability that XBY father and XBXb mother has a brown eyes son? 1/2 1/4 1/8 3/8

1/4

Blood type of an individual is an example of co-dominance. If an IAi individual had offspring with an IBi individual what would be the expected ratio of blood type O individuals?

1/4

What would be the chances of having a child with type AB blood if the parents had AO blood type and AB blood type

1/4

Flower petal color in 4 o'clocks is an example of incomplete dominance with the purple allele (R) being dominant to the white allele (r). What would the expected phenotypic ratio look like in a cross of Rr and Rr individuals? 3/4 Purple, 1/4 White 1/2 Purple, 1/4 Lavender, 1/4 White 1/4 Purple, 1/2 Lavender, 1/4 White 1/2 Purple, 1/2 White

1/4 Purple, 1/2 Lavender, 1/4 White

All of the following are association with mitosis except crossing over duplication of DNA followed by two divisions results in two cells, each identical to the orginal cell separation of sister chromatids from each other A and B

A and B

Meiosis results in the formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus. Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis? 1. Alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes in duplicated form at the metaphase plate. 2. Separation of sister chromatids. 3. Separation of the homologous chromosomes. 4. Synapsis; pairs of homologous chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids associate with each other indicating that crossing over has occurred.

What is the best estimate of average age-of-maturity of this population?

2 Red star on slide 4 lecture 4.04. This number is where fecundity becomes non-zero for the population. Given such a low fecundity at age 1, it is likely that the population on average becomes reproductive around age 2 (although, due to inherent variation in the population, a few individuals may begin before that).

On Earth, there are x Hadley Cells and y total atmospheric circulation cells.

2 hadley cells, 6 total cells(2 hadley, 2 ferrell, 2 polar)

During glycolysis, for each mole of glucose oxidized to pyruvate

2 moles of ATP are used, and 4 moles of ATP are produced.

Researchers have begun using exome sequencing to look for mutations in the protein coding portion of human DNA. How much of the human genome is being sequenced in exome sequencing?

Calculate the net reproductive rate (R0) for this population.

2. Add all entries in last column to get R0. lx*mx

A population of penguins has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.08 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.1. Estimate the net gain or loss of individuals from a population of 1,000 penguins in one year.

20 individuals lost

If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 5,700 years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 should be about how many years old? 2,800 11,400 22,800 17,100 1,400

22,800

What is the length of the longest food chain in this web?

3 Count the number of consecutive connections.

How many secondary consumers are in this food web?

3 plant- primary producer rabbit- primary consumer wolf- secondary consumer

Below is single DNA strand. What is the nucleotide sequence of the complementary strand? 5'-CCCTGGGCTCT-3'

3' -GGGACCCGAGA - 5'

A new nucleotide is always added to the ____ of an existing nucleotide chain.

3' hydroxyl

A new nucleotide is always added to which end of an existing nucleotide chain?

3' hydroxyl

Go to: http://exploringorigins.org/timeline.html and explore the timeline. Based on the geological and fossil evidence, what is the window of time when life on Earth most likely began? 4.0-4.5 billion years ago 3.5-4.0 billion years ago 3.0-3.5 billion years ago 2.5-3.0 billion years ago 2.0-2.5 billion years ago

3.5-4 BYO

3/16

What are the chances that Colin and Julia have a child with green eyes?

3/16

Assume the only gene controls eye color is B/b and blue eye is controlled by the autosomal recessive allele b, brown eye is controlled by the dominant allele B. What's the probability of the son of Bb father and Bb mother has brown eyes?

3/4

What are the chances that Colin and Julia will have a child with brown eyes?

3/4

A double stranded DNA sample contains 20% adenine. What is the % guanine?

30%

A double stranded DNA sample contains 20% adenine. What is the % guanine?

30% T pairs with A, and G pairs with C. This means in a double-stranded DNA sample, that the amount of T = the amount of A, and the amount of G = the amount of G. If a sample has 20% adenine, this means it also has 20% thymine. This accounts for 40% of the total DNA. The remaining 60% must be composed of guanine and cytosine. Because G=C, this means there is 30% guanine and 30% cytosine.

A double stranded DNA sample contains 20% adenine. What is the % guanine? (Include the % sign in your answer.)

30% T pairs with A, and G pairs with C. This means in a double-stranded DNA sample, that the amount of T = the amount of A, and the amount of G = the amount of G. If a sample has 20% adenine, this means it also has 20% thymine. This accounts for 40% of the total DNA. The remaining 60% must be composed of guanine and cytosine. Becuase G=C, this means there is 30% guanine and 30% cytosine.

What isotope could you use to label newly synthesized CFTR protein, but not lipids, carbohydrates or nucleic acids? Select all that apply.

35S

35S in the pellet (with the bacteria) and 32P in the supernatant

35S in the pellet (with the bacteria) and 32P in the supernatant The hereditary material from the phage must get into the bacterial cell in order to infect the cells. If protein were the hereditary material, then phage protein would have to get into the bacterial cells. Because 35S labels protein, then there would have to be 35S in the bacterial cell pellet if protein were the hereditary material. In reality DNA is the hereditary material, and Hershey-Chase actually observed 32P in the bacterial cell pellet, not 35S.

if the hereditary material were protein, Hershey and Chase would have observed

35S in the pellet with bacteria cells

If you counted 36 chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell, you would expect to see how many chromosomes in the cells produced at the end of mitosis, and how many chromosomes at the end of meiosis.

36,18

If you counted 36 chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell, you would expect to see how many chromosomes in the cells produced at the end of mitosis, and how many chromosomes at the end of meiosis.

36; 18

Phylogenetic Species Concept

3rd definition of species how closely related individuals are evolutionarily

Below is single DNA strand. What is the nucleotide sequence of the complementary strand? 5'-CCCTGGGCTCT-3'

3′ -GGGACCCGAGA-5′ DNA is always double stranded, and the other strand is both a) complementary (A paired with T and C paired with G) and b) antiparallel (5'-3' and 3'-5')

If a mating population contains two alleles, A1 and A2 with the following frequencies: f(A1) = p = 0.7 f(A2) = q = 0.3 If the population is in HWE, what will be the frequency of the heterozygous genotype A1A2 in the offspring?

42% 2pq

If a mating population contains two alleles, A1 and A2 with the following frequencies: f(A1) = p = 0.7 f(A2) = q = 0.3 If the population is in HWE, what will be the frequency of the homozygous genotype A1A1 in the offspring?

49% p^2

What is the age of peak reproduction, as defined as the most offspring produced, for a female, regardless of survivorship?

5 Search for when fecundity is maximized. Note that this represents a different idea than the *average* number of offspring produced per female, as this number takes into account survivorship.

Two types of sticklebacks (fish), benthic and limnetic, live in Paxton Lake, British Columbia. The benthic type has the same number of chromosomes as the limnetic type. Researchers working on the sticklebacks have made the following observations: 1.Limnetic and benthic sticklebacks differ in number of dorsal spines, number of lateral plates, and presence of a pelvic girdle. 2.Limnetic and benthic stickleback males build their nests in the same region on the nearshore lakebottom of Paxton Lake. However, benthic males select heavily vegetated areas while limnetic males select bare areas of the lake bottom. Limnetic and benthic males differ in courtship behaviors. 3. When given a choice in laboratory experiments, male and female benthics and limnetics choose to mate with their own kind. 4. Benthics are stout-bodied fish with wide mouths that feed on invertebrates in the mud in the shallow margins of the lake. Limnetics are slim-bodied fish with narrow mouths that feed on zooplankton in the center of the lake. 5. 1-2% of sticklebacks in Paxton Lake are natural hybrids. 6. Lab-bred hybrid fish were released in a small BC lake that lacked a resident stickleback population. 20 years later, a small, healthy population of sticklebacks is well established in the lake. Which pieces of information provided are necessary and sufficient to assess if the benthic and limnetic sticklebacks of Paxton Lake represent separate species according to the biological species concept? Numbers 1-6. All except number 1 Numbers 2, 4, 6 Number 6 only. Numbers 5 and 6.

5 & 6 Not only do hybrids of the two types have to form naturally (5), but those hybrids must be viable and fertile (6). Morphology is not highly relevant to this definition (1).

The sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA. What RNA sequence would be transcribed from this template? 3'-GTCGAA-5'

5' -CAGCUU- 3'

Which process/es is/are unique to eukaryotes?

5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail Alternative mRNA splicing Only eukaryotic cells have mRNA processing, alternative mRNA splicing, and regulation of transcription by chromatin.

which processes are unique to eukaryotes

5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail, alternative mRNA splicing

The sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA. What RNA sequence would be transcribed from this template? 3'-GTCGAA-5'

5'-CAGCUU-3' the template strand is the strand that is copied by RNA polymerase to make an mRNA. because nucleic acids are antiparallel, this means that the mRNA sequence is the same sequence and orientation as the coding strand, except it is composed of RNA instead of DNA.

If the TYR gene had the following base pair sequence on the coding strand what would the corresponding sequence be for the mRNA produced? 5' - TGGGCTAT - 3'

5'-UGGGUAU-3'

Suppose the sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA in particular gene. What is the RNA sequence would be transcribed template strand? 5'-CGATTC-3'

5- GAAUCG- 3

You mate the red-eyed female with a white-eyed male. If she is heterozygous at the white gene, then the F1 would be:

50% red-eyed and 50% white-eyed, regardless of gender.

How many molecules of water need to be split in the light reaction to make the Calvin Cycle go one rotation?

In order for a bone marrow transplant to work, the donor and recipient must have the same HLA proteins, which means they must have the same HLA alleles in their genomes. HLA proteins are part of the immune system, and a mismatch causes the recipient immune system to attack and destroy the donor tissue. There are three HLA genes that must be matched: HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C. Humans are diploid organisms, meaning that they have two copies of each gene (one inherited from the mother, one from the father). Each HLA gene copy can have a different HLA allele, or they may have two copies of the same HLA allele. HLA genes are highly polymorphic, meaning that there are many alleles in the total human population. In thte total population, there are thousands of different HLA alleles for each HLA gene. Because there is so much variation in the population, the liklihood of random donor to have an HLA match any given recipient is extremely low (1 in millions or more). Considering the three HLA genes in question (HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C), how many different HLA proteins could one individual have in their cells?

How many CO2, ATP and NADPH are required to make 1 molecule of glucose from 2 molecules of G3P produced via the Calvin cycle? Start with 6 molecules of RuBP, and end with 6 molecules of RuBP.

6 CO2 18 ATP 12 NADPH

There are 10 grams of sugar total in this burger which equates to roughly 3x10^22 molecules of glucose. How many rounds of the Calvin Cycle would need to take place to make this much glucose?

6x10^22

In maize (corn), a dominant allele C inhibits kernel color. At a second locus, a dominant allele B causes blue kernels, while the homozygous recessive causes red kernels. You cross two double heterozygotes. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the progeny in a standard Mendelian dihybrid cross (crossing two double heterozygotes)?

9:3:3:1

A researcher wants to know if gene flow is contributing to evolution of drought tolerance of pitcher plants in a specific bog. To detect if gene flow is naturally occurring in the bog, she could Determine if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium or not. Transplant pitcher plants from other populations into the bog. Transplant pitcher plants from this population into other bogs. All of the above. None of these.

Which of the following is NOT an input to glycolysis? Choose all that apply.

CoA (co-enzyme A)

In a hypoethetical mammalian species, fur colouration is controlled by two genes (A and B) with at least three alleles each (A0, A1, A2). Each 0 allele encodes no "units" of pigmentation; each 1 allele encodes 1 unit of pigmentation, each 2 allele encodes 2 units of pigmentation, etc. In this scenario, which of the following is NOT true?

Coat color in this species is a pleiotropic trait

Top predators, although atop the food chain, are still decomposed and consumed by detritivores. What term best describes the direct effect of a detritivore on a top predator?

Commensalism

If light is cut off, then:

Compound X will decrease, 3PG increase

If CO2 is unavailable, then:

Compound X will increase, 3PG decrease

Given the following mRNA, which of the following mutations is most likely to yield a non-functional protein? 5'-AUGAUGCCCUAC...-3'

Convert the 3' C to a A.

What other organisms share a trophic level with songbirds?

Coyotes First, identify the trophic level of songbirds. Then go through the answer choices until you find a match OR label all the trophic levels on the the figure for yourself to find the matching organism.

What did Darwin propose in his theory of evolution? Select all that apply

Currently existing species all descended from a common ancestor Natural selection explains the evolution and adaptation of species

Which free living cells were the earliest contributors to the formation of Earth's oxidizing atmosphere?

Cyanobacteria

How does natural selection explain how bacterial populations evolve resistance to antibiotics? Select the single best answer. antibiotics cause resistance mutations in bacteria, that are then passed on to their progeny individual bacteria adapt to antibiotics individual bacteria adapt to antibiotics and pass on their adaptations to their progeny rare, resistant mutant bacteria in the population survive antibiotic treatment

How would DNA replication be affected if primase were not functional? The template strands would not be able to separate. Synthesis would result in many small segments of DNA instead of a complete molecule. Synthesis of a complementary DNA chain would begin but would not be able to finish. Synthesis of a complementary DNA chain would not initiate. The DNA strands produced by synthesis would not be complementary to the template strands.

D DNA polymerase has to add a 5'phosphate to the 3'hydroxyl of an existing DNA chain. That means there has to be a starting point to extend from, so DNA polymerase cannot start DNA synthesis on its own. It relies on an enzyme called primase (actually a type of RNA polymerase) which CAN synthesize a starting point. DNA polymerase takes over after primase has created a short strand of RNA nucleotides. In the absence of primase, DNA synthesis would not begin.

1.Limnetic and benthic sticklebacks differ in number of dorsal spines, number of lateral plates, and presence of a pelvic girdle. 2.Limnetic and benthic stickleback males build their nests in the same region on the nearshore lakebottom of Paxton Lake. However, benthic males select heavily vegetated areas while limnetic males select bare areas of the lake bottom. Limnetic and benthic males differ in courtship behaviors. 3. When given a choice in laboratory experiments, male and female benthics and limnetics choose to mate with their own kind. 4. Benthics are stout-bodied fish with wide mouths that feed on invertebrates in the mud in the shallow margins of the lake. Limnetics are slim-bodied fish with narrow mouths that feed on zooplankton in the center of the lake. 5. 1-2% of sticklebacks in Paxton Lake are natural hybrids. 6. Lab-bred hybrid fish were released in a small BC lake that lacked a resident stickleback population. 20 years later, a small, healthy population of sticklebacks is well established in the lake. Which pieces of information provided are necessary and sufficient to assess if the benthic and limnetic sticklebacks of Paxton Lake represent separate species according to the ecological species concept? Numbers 1-6. All except number 1 Numbers 2, 4, 6 Numbers 2, 3, 4 Numbers 5 and 6.

D The two fishes use different habitats, and have body and mouth shapes specialized to those habitats (4). Differ in traits related to reproductive isolation via ecological separation (2, 3). Morphology is not highly relevant to this definition (1). If all these ecological differences are occurring, then the two fishes are probably not interbreeding regularly, and that's supported by 5, but this information isn't actually necessary for the ESC because speciation is a process that may have begun but not yet have yielded reproductive isolating mechanisms.

Evolution is the change in __________________ over time. the phenotype of an individual the genotype of an individual the distribution of phenotypes within a population the frequency of genetic variants (alleles) within a population the distribution of phenotypes within a species

D remember! evolution happens to a population! NOT an individual

The two strands in a DNA double helix are held together by hydrogen bonds between which one of the following? The pentose sugars on one chain and the phosphates on the other chain. The pentose sugars on one chain and the pentose sugars on the other chain. The phosphates on one chain and the nitrogenous bases on the other chain. The nitrogenous bases on one chain and the nitrogenous bases on the other chain. The phosphates on one chain and the phosphates on the other chain.

D the nitrogenous bases form the interior of the DNA double helix, and the sugar-phosphate backbone form the exterior of the double helix (and thus interact with the aqueous environment)

The authors then tried to gather evidence to support their hypothesis, that GFAJ-1 cells can use arsenate in place of phosphate to build cellular macromolecules. If the GFAJ-1 cells could use arsenate in place of phosphate for all cellular processes, which macromolecules would you expect to be heavily labeled with radioactive arsenate? Choose all that apply

DNA RNA membrane lipids

Radioactive phosphorus labels DNA because

DNA contains phosphate groups

how does cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II?

DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.

prophase chromosomes consist of 2 replicated sister chromatids joined at the centromere and each contains

DNA duplex identical to other sister chromatid

The bacterial transformation experiments infecting mice with S and R strains (Griffiths 1928) and the purification of the transforming substance (Avery, McLeod, and McCarty 1944) demonstrated that

DNA is the hereditary material bacteria can acquire hereditary information from their environment

DNA is the hereditary material. Bacteria can acquire hereditary information from their environment.

What enzyme would you use to rejoin DNA fragments with compatible "sticky ends"?

DNA ligase

What process is occurring in the cell during S phase?

DNA replication

What process is occurring in the cell during S phase? cellular growth DNA replication separation of homologous chromosomes separation of sister chromatids none of the above

DNA replication

Which of these processes occur in the nucleus? Select all that apply.

DNA replication Transcription of DNA to RNA

the lac repressor binds to

DNA, lactose, operator

central dogma of molecular biology

DNA--> RNA --> protein

With depth, aquatic primary productivity should _____.

Decrease Autotrophs, like photosynthetic algae, need light for photosynthesis. The deeper you go, the less light is available.

Oligomycin is a drug that inhibits the transfer of electrons from NADH to the electron transport chain. What would happen to oxygen consumption if oligomycin was added to a muscle cell?

Decrease in oxygen consumption and increase in fermentation

Imagine two separate populations of mice at sites A and D below. What would be the effect of gene flow between these two populations?

Decreased overall adaptation in each population due to increased genetic diversity

Looking at this figure, rank the following ecosystems from smallest to largest average NPP.

Desert and semidesert < Savanna < Swamps and streams < Tropical forests < Algal beds and reefs

A researcher wants to know if gene flow is contributing to evolution of drought tolerance of pitcher plants in a specific bog. To detect if gene flow is naturally occurring in the bog, she could

Determine if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium or not.

What is true about all lipids in all cells? Select all that apply.

Do not dissolve well in water

Which species is the most closely related to species D? species A species B species C species B and C species A, B and C are all equally closely related to D

E Species B, C and D are equally related to species A through their common ancestor. Always identify the most recent common ancestor to answer these types of questions. The more recently two species share a common ancestor, the more closely related they ar

Which of these things would be categorized as alive according to the definition in our course reading?

E. Coli Bacteria

Which of the following is NOT true of evolution?

Evolutionary relationships determined by the geological record generally do not match evolutionary relationships determined by gene sequence comparisons The gene pool of a species may containe alleles that are not useful now in anticipation of a time when changing environmental conditions will make them useful Changes in the environment induce (cause) new adaptive (helpful) heritable variation among individuals in the population

Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.

FOXP2 protein is found in certain but not all brain cells in the same person, how?

FOXP2 mRNA is only produced in some brain cells

The human FOXP2 gene is located on chromosome 7. Mutations in FOXP2 are linked to defects in language processing. Foxp2 protein is found in certain (but not all) brain; how is this possible?

FOXP2 mRNA is only produced in some brain cells

The passage of water molecules across cell membranes through aquaporins is an example of:

Facilitated diffusion

Hardy-Weinberg principle frequencies

Frequency of AA : p^2 Frequency of Aa : 2pq Frequency of aa : q^2

Most cells of the human body are at what stage in the cell cycle?

G0 phase

Suppose the sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA in particular gene. What is the RNA sequence would be transcribed template strand? 5'-CGATTC-3' Write your answer in the 5' to 3' direction.

GAAUCG

Suppose the sequence below is a portion of the coding strand of DNA in the FOXP2 gene. What is the RNA sequence would be transcribed from the template strand that is complementary to this coding strand? 5'-GTCGAA-3'

GUCGAA the template strand is the strand that is copied by RNA polymerase to make an mRNA. because nucleic acids are antiparallel, this means that the mRNA sequence is the same sequence and orientation as the coding strand, except it is composed of RNA instead of DNA. To answer this question you have to know that the coding strand is not the strand that is copied by RNA polymerase, as well as the nucleotide pairs in RNA (vs DNA), and you have to know the orientation of the mRNA molecule. RNA has U instead of T, so between DNA and RNA the pairing would be A-U, G-C. Synthesis of both RNA and DNA always occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, and is always antiparallel to the template. The first step is to write out the template strand, which would be 3'-CAGCTT-5' and then determine the complementary mRNA to the template, which would be 5'-GUCGAA-3'.

Which mechanism of evolution results from interbreeding after migration of one population into an area containing another population? Genetic drift Gene flow Non-random mating Mutation Selection None of these

Gene flow

Which of the following statements about gene flow is/are true?

Gene flow can increase genetic diversity in a population Gene flow can prevent a population from adapting to its local environment Gene flow can make two populations more similar to each other

In maize (corn), a dominant allele C inhibits kernel color. At a second locus, a dominant allele B causes blue kernels, while the homozygous recessive causes red kernels. You cross two double heterozygotes and observe the following phenotypic ratios in the progeny, which is clearly NOT 9:3:3:1. What pattern of inheritance does this trait demonstrate?

Gene-by-gene interaction

On a species level, mass extinctions function most analogously to:

Genetic drift

If you observed that a human population living in the presence of malaria was NOT in HWE for sickle cell trait, this population COULD be experiencing:

Genetic drift Gene flow Natural selection Non-random mating Mutation

Blind Mexican cavefish (Astyanax mexicanus) live in caves and do not have eyes as adults (though they do form eyes during development). The cave fish diverged from a surface-dwelling population which does have eyes. The cave fish have extremely low genetic diversity compared to their surface-dwelling close relatives (pictured below). This observation is best explained by:

Genetic drift due to founder effect

Supporting evidence of evolution

Geological and fossil records (changes in kinds/forms of living organisms over time) homologies in body plans, structure, and DNA common biochemistry (same amino acids, buildings blocks, genetic codes)

Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Two plants with gray seeds were crossed, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white. What is the most probable genotypes of the two parents? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.) GG × gg; GG × Gg; Gg × Gg; Gg × gg; GG x GG

Gg × Gg;

In what order do the steps in metabolism occur?

Glycolysis ‣ Pyruvate oxidation ‣ Krebs Cycle

When tracking proteins through the cell, which of the following structures does the protein visit directly after the smooth ER?

Golgi

Using the image below, select the answers that represent density-independent regulation of population growth.

Graph shouldn't change based on density

Adding autotroph respiration to net primary production gives ___________

Gross primary production

Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics?

Growing organisms decrease in entropy by increasing the entropy of the universe.

Is the population growing, stable, or shrinking?

Growing. 2>1 When R0 exceeds 1, the population is producing more offspring than its losing from deaths. In other words, the population is growing.

According to plate tectonics, for the past 560 million years, the continents that we see today have maintained their current shapes and locations have merged and split apart over millions of years sank under the oceans and then rose again have largely stayed in the same latitude while moving about have maintained their current shapes and locations

Have merged and split apart over millions of years

If top-down factors control songbird populations, increasing which population should result in reduced songbird populations?

Hawk only Top-down control is exerted by upper trophic levels on the levels below. There is only one level above the songbird, the hawk, so it can exert top-down control on the songbird.

Which information is relevant to the ecological species definition?

Hawthorn and apple maggot flies strongly prefer to mate and lay fertilized eggs in hawthorns and apples, respectively.

To prevent 'cheating' and overexploitation in mutualism, species could adapt by

Imposing penalties on cheaters Rewarding better mutualists

Where in plant cells is the Calvin cycle located?

In the chloroplast stroma

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

In the cytoplasm of both eukaryotes and prokaryotes

Put the steps unique to meiosis in order: I. Homologues separate II. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids III. Chromosomes condense & homologues pair IV. New diploid cells form II, I, IV III, II, I III, II, I, IV I, II, III, IV III, IV

III, II, I

Put the steps unique to meiosis in order: I. Homologues separate II. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids III. Chromosomes condense & homologues pair IV. New diploid cells form

III, II, I III. Chromosomes condense & homologues pair --> II. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids --> I. Homologues separate

A woman who is blood type A-positive has a son who is B-negative and a daughter who is O-negative. The mom's genotype is:

I^AiRr

A woman who is blood type A-positive has a son who is B-negative and a daughter who is O-negative. The son's genotype is:

I^B irr

A woman who is blood type A-positive has a son who is B-negative and a daughter who is O-negative. The son's genotype is:

I^Birr

C. Mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift

If evolution were noticeably occurring in one of these opossum populations, its causes include A. Mutation only B. Mutation and natural selection only C. Mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift D. Mutation and gene flow only

C. There is strong evidence that evolution is occurring in the second opossum population.

If you then sample a second opossum population that has the same starting allele frequency, and find that the proportion of A1 homozygotes (A1A1 individuals) is 90%, you would likely say that A. No evolution is occurring in this population. B. There might be weak evidence of a process like drift or selection in the second opossum population. C. There is strong evidence that evolution is occurring in the second opossum population.

The most common mutation in patients with severe cystic fibrosis disease is a 3-nucleotide deletion in the CFTR gene. This mutation produces a CFTR protein that is missing one amino acid, phenylalanine at the 508th amino acid position (Phe508; aka F508). In normal CFTR protein, if Phe508 is not in a transmembrane domain, then this hydrophobic amino acid is most likely... (select all that apply)

In the interior of the folded protein where it interacts with other hydrophobic amino acid side chains

At which point are the most individuals being added to the population? In a Logistic Model / Carrying capacity graph

In the middle (vertical line)

The electron transport chains in eukaryotic cells are located

In their mitochondrial inner membranes

Animals that hibernate during winter modify their cell membranes to maintain semi-fluidity at low temperatures. Which one of these modifications could hibernating animals make to maintain this semi-fluid state?

Increase the concentration of cis-unsaturated fatty acids in their membranes

Why are big, fierce animals rare? Most big, fierce animals are tertiary consumers, which implies that

It's hard for an ecosystem to support many of them because so much energy is lost at each level of energy exchange.

The sequence below is from a processed mRNA. What are the first 3 amino acids of the polypeptide that will be translated from this mRNA? 3'-UAUGCCCGAUACGAGUAGUCAG-5'

N-Met-Ser-Ile

The sequence below is from a processed mRNA. What are the first 3 amino acids of the polypeptide that will be translated from this mRNA? 3'-UAUGCCCGAUACGAGUAGUCAG-5'

N-Met-Ser-Ile-...

Mitochondria are isolated from cultured mouse cells and suspended in a cuvette with an oxygen electrode to monitor the rate of oxygen consumption by the mitochondria. The suspended mitochondria neither consume oxygen nor make ATP when given ADP and Pi. Which of the following could be added to stimulate oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis? a. NAD+ b. NADH c. glucose d. ATP

NADH

Photosystem I absorbs light energy and gives electrons to

NADP+ to make NADP

Which of these ecosystems is responsible for the most primary production?

Open Ocean

Which of the following would allow an alien surveying our planet from afar to infer with a high degree of certainty that life is not only possible but actually exists on Earth?? Our atmosphere contains substantial quantities of O2. The planet's surface has abundant liquid water. Our atmosphere contains measurable quantities of CO2. All of the above. None of the above.

Our atmosphere constains substantial quantities of O2

Which of the following would allow an alien surveying our planet from afar to infer with a high degree of certainty that life is not only possible but actually exists on Earth?

Our atmosphere contains substantial quantities of O2.

What can we conclude from the Miller-Urey experiment? the hypothesis that organic molecules can be made only by living cells has been disproved the hypothesis that life arrived on Earth from outer space has been disproved the hypothesis that the early Earth had a reducing atmosphere has been proved the hypothesis that life arose on Earth from inorganic molecules has been proved

The hypothesis that organic molecules can be made only by living cells has been disproved because it proved that they could get oxygen from nonliving stuff

The first genetic material was most likely a(n) a. protein (a polymer of amino acids) b. RNA (a polymer of ribonucleotides) c. DNA (a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides) with enzymatic activity d. ribonucleotide (a monomer unit of RNA) e. DNA (a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides)

RNA (a polymer of ribonucleotides)

The first genetic material was most likely a(n):

RNA (a polymer of ribonucleotides)

Which of the following statements are true about RNA?

RNA has ribose Most RNA molecules consist of just a single strand RNA strands can form complex shapes by pairing of complementary bases within the same strand

White eyes is a recessive X-linked trait in fruit flies. A cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and a red-eyed male would generate which of the following types of progeny? Red-eyed females and white-eyed males White-eyed females and red-eyed males All red-eyed females and a 50:50 mix of white- and red-eyed males All red-eyed males and a 50:50 mix of white- and red-eyed females The results cannot be predicted because it depends on whether the female is homozygous or heterozygous

Red-eyed females and white-eyed males The female must be homozygous for the recessive white allele. The female will pass the white allele to all her progeny. Because the trait is X-linked, the male only has one copy of the gene which must be the red allele. The male will pass the red allele to all his daughters, and no allele to all his sons (since the gene is located on the X chromosome but not the Y chromosome). Thus all female progeny will have red eyes due to the dominant red allele they inherit from the father, and all male progeny will have white eyes due to the white allele on the X chromosome they inherit from the mother.

In the human ABO blood group system, which of the following best explains why the IA allele is dominant and the i allele is recessive?

The i allele encodes for the absence of any sugar molecule, while the IA allele codes for the presence of a particular sugar molecule

In the human ABO blood group system, which of the following best explains why the IA allele is dominant and the i allele is recessive? The i allele is not expressed (transcribed and translated), while the IA allele is The i allele encodes for the absence of any sugar molecule, while the IA allele codes for the presence of a particular sugar molecule The IA allele is stronger than the i allele and so overpowers it, thus determining the phenotype of the cell The IA allele is more likely to be passed on to offspring than the i allele The IA allele results in greater biological fitness than the i allele

The i allele encodes for the absence of any sugar molecule, while the IA allele codes for the presence of a particular sugar molecule In a dominant/recessive inheritance pattern, the heterozygote only displays the phenotype associated with the dominant allele. The IA allele is dominant because it causes the addition of an α-N-acetylgalactosamine residue to the basic glycoprotein present on all red blood cells. The i allele causes no addition to the basic glycoprotein. Because the IA protein is present, its activity causes addition of the α-N-acetylgalactosamine to all of the glycoproteins.

What will happen to a population of snakes if the small mice they normally eat are no longer available and all that is left are larger rats that are more difficult to swallow?

The individual snakes that already have slightly wider jaws that allow them to eat rats would be more likely to survive and reproduce.

The two strands in a DNA double helix are held together by hydrogen bonds between which one of the following?

The nitrogenous bases on one chain and the nitrogenous bases on the other chain. the nitrogenous bases form the interior of the DNA double helix, and the sugar-phosphate backbone form the exterior of the double helix (and thus interact with the aqueous environment)

Why do the open ocean and tropical rain forest make such large contributions to primary production? Select all that apply.

The open ocean supports low NPP per unit area but has a very large total area Tropical rain forests support very high NPP per unit area

Why might we see that tundras and extreme deserts have low primary production?

The plants that grow are generally small in size There is generally little plant life in these areas

How can you tell if a population is in HWE? The population is in HWE if p + q = 1 The population is in HWE if p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 The population is in HWE if the genotype frequencies are p^2, 2pq, and q^2 None of these are mathematical indications that a population is in HWE

The population is in HWE if the genotype frequencies are p^2, 2pq, and q^2

After genetic drift has occurred, indicate all of the following that are most likely true:

The population is less genetically diverse than in the previous generation. The allele frequencies have changed from the previous generation.

Meiosis results in the formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus. Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis? a. Alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes in duplicated form at the metaphase plate. b. Separation of sister chromatids. c. Separation of the homologous chromosomes. d. Synapsis; pairs of homologous chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids associate with each other indicating that crossing over has occurred.

b. separation of sister chromatids

Which extant (living) organism is the most evolved?

Similar to an earlier question, all lineages of extant (living) organisms have been evolving for the same amount of time since the common ancestor. Thus all extant lineages are equally "evolved." For this reason, it doesn't make any scientific or biological sense to refer to one species as more or less "evolved" than any other.

To use the energy present in the burger your cells need oxygen delivered by your bloodstream. What process allows oxygen to enter your cells from your blood stream?

Simple diffusion

You are strenuously working out to work of the calories from the burger you ate. Your muscles are under anerobic conditions so they creating lactic acid from fermentation reactions. What is the purpose of these fermentation reactions?

To oxidize NADH

B. Postzygotic

When a male donkey mates with a female horse, the hybrid offspring is an infertile mule. This reproductive barrier is: A. Prezygotic B. Postzygotic

Which of these is the least common form of genetic inheritance? a. co-dominant b. simple mendelian c. incomplete dominance d. quantitative trait

b. simple mendelian

Which is more likely to cause so many individual fish to display the same phenotype (feminization) in response to exposure to endocrine disruptors? a. the endocrine disruptors are mutagenic (cause mutations), and the same specific mutation is occuring in all the fish causing the same phenotype b. the endocrine disruptors mimic transcriptional regulators, and the same regulatory pathways are being disrupted in all the fish causing the same phenotype

b. the endocrine disruptors mimic transcriptional regulators, and the same regulatory pathways are being disrupted in all the fish causing the same phenotype

The bacterial transformation experiments infecting mice with S and R strains (Griffith 1928) demonstrated that

bacteria can acquire hereditary information from their environment

3 domains of life

bacteria, archea, eukaryote

Radioactive phosphorus will also label phospholipids, but

bacteriophage don't have phospholipids

In our body's cells, the HLA (Human leukocyte antigen) genes encode cell surface proteins that play a key role in our immune system recognizing foreign pathogens. The greater the diversity of HLA genes we have, the greater variety of pathogens our immune system will be able to recognize and attack. What kind of selection do you think best describes the evolutionary history of HLA genetic diversity in the human population?

balancing selection

B. False

True or False: Speciation always occurs in allopatry because there's no mechanisms for two species to evolve in sympatry. A. True B. False

Julia is adopted so we don't know anything about her family history but she has green eyes. What would be her genotype?

bbGG or bbGg Since Julia has green eyes she must be recessive for brown eyes (bb). However since we have no other information she could be either bbGG or bbGg but we cannot determine which one.

C. sedimentary rocks

Which of the these 3 types of rock contain fossils of once-living organisms? A. igneous rocks B. metamorphic rocks C. sedimentary rocks

A, B, and C

Which of these are possible origins for organic molecules before life began on Earth? A. meteorites and dust from outer space B. synthesis from inorganic compounds at deep sea hydrothermal vents C. synthesis from inorganic compounds in the atmosphere, with energy from UV light or lightning

A. genetic variation in the population Although natural selection is a powerful driver of evolution, it is just one possible cause of evolution. Some genes or traits evolve via random processes such as genetic drift, especially in smaller populations. Recall that biological evolution is defined as the change in the allele frequencies of a population over generations. Acquired traits are not heritable, so variation in acquired traits will not directly affect biological evolution.

Which of these factors are required for biological evolution to occur? Select all that apply. A. genetic variation in the population B. natural selection C. variation in acquired traits among individuals in the population D. a large population E. many generations

C. canary that lives to be 2 years old and has four offspring, all of which survive to reproduce themselves

Which statement describes the canary with the greatest biological fitness? A. canary that lives to be 3 years old and has four offspring, two of which survive to reproduce themselves B. canary that lives to be 5 years old and has five offspring, one of which survives to reproduce C. canary that lives to be 2 years old and has four offspring, all of which survive to reproduce themselves D. canary that lives to be 7 years old and has three offspring, all of which survive to reproduce E. All are equally fit F. Cannot be determined from the information given

Is it possible for a female to be affected by an X-linked recessive trait? What about a Y-linked trait?

Yes for X-linked, No for Y-linked

B. morphological species.

You examine fossils of extinct trilobites. All the specimens look identical and were collected from the same fossil bed. They are members of the same A. biological species. B. morphological species. C. phylogenetic species. D. All of these. E. None of these.

You observe a population of birds which includes nestlings (just hatched), juvenile birds, young adults (capable of mating), and older adults. Remembering that selection acts most efficiently on age classes/stages with high reproductive value, which birds should you expect to be experiencing the strongest selection? Justify your answer.

Young adults, or the younger reproductive individuals, have the highest reproductive value because their lxmx (survivorship times fecundity) is maximized.

DNA synthesis occurs via addition of

a 5' phosphate to a 3' hydroxyl on the existing DNA chain

DNA polymerase has to add

a 5' phosphate to the 3'hydroxyl of an existing DNA chain

What did Darwin propose in his theory of evolution? Select all that apply. Species evolve by natural selection Currently existing species share a common ancestor Evolution occurs by sudden occurrence of many heritable changes

a and b

Choose all that apply: if all of a cell's reactions are at chemical equilibrium,

a cell cannot expend energy to accomplish work the delta G is zero for all of the cell's reactions

What is a mutation?

a change in the DNA sequence

Biological species concept

a definition of a species. if two individuals are able to produce viable, fertile offspring

Fatty acid desaturase proteins have multiple transmembrane domains. Each transmembrane domain is an alpha-helix. An alpha-helix is: a. a form of the primary structure of the protein b. a form of the secondary structure of the protein c. a form of the tertiary structure of the protein d. a form of the quaternary structure of the protein

a form of the secondary structure of the protein

Although exome-sequencing would save time and money, Nick's doctors knew they would miss any mutations in non protein-coding DNA. Mutations in which non-exomic regions could cause severely reduced amounts of a normal protein to be made?

a mutation in a promoter

natural selection is

a non-random change in allele frequecies fro one generation to the next

An organism that can use light energy to make ATP via photophosphorylation, but still requires organic carbon as a food source to grow, is best classified as:

a phototroph

a quantitative trait polygenic inheritance

explain how a scientific "theory" differs from a hypothesis or conjecture

a scientific theory is an overarching, unifying explanation of phenomena that is well supported by multiple, independent lines of evidence - composed of hundreds or thousands of independent, well supported hypotheses

strand of dna includes half of middle part and backbone

a single strand of DNA is a phosphodiester-linked chain of nucleotides. a pair of DNA strands in anti-parallel orientation, joined together via hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases, forms the DNA double helix.

Myxoma virus infects only rabbits. It spreads by direct contact with infected rabbits, or via fleas or mosquitos that have bitten infected rabbits. Which of these myxoma virus strains have greater evolutionary fitness?

a strain that reproduces slowly, producing fewer progeny over a longer time period, and does not kill the host. The non-lethal strain has greater fitness. Although it produces fewer offspring in the short run, by keeping the host alive it can infect other animals the host comes into contact with. The more virulent strain, by killing its host quickly, limits its chances to spread to other animals.

phylogenic tree

a visual representation of the relationship between different organisms, showing the path through evolutionary time from a common ancestor to different descendants

Why do cells have trouble distinguishing As from P?

a- Arsenic has a similar atomic radius to phosphorus b- Arsenic has similar electronegativity as phosphorus c- Arsenic has the same number of valence electrons as phosphorus d- All of the above (ans)

You mate the red-eyed female with a white-eyed male. If she is heterozygous at the white gene, then the F1 would be:

a. 50% red-eyed and 50% white-eyed, regardless of gender

The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) has a standard free energy change of -7.3 kcal/mol. The standard free energy change is measured at 1 M concentrations of all reactants and products. Given a mixture of equimolar concentrations of ATP, ADP and Pi, what will happen? a. ATP hydrolyze to ADP + Pi faster than ADP + Pi will bond to form ATP - the net reaction will be ATP hydrolysis b. ADP + Pi will bond to form ATP faster than ATP hydrolyze to ADP + Pi - the net reaction will be ATP synthesis c .The two reactions will occur at equal rates - the system will be at equilibrium

a. ATP hydrolyze to ADP + Pi faster than ADP + Pi will bond to form ATP - the net reaction will be ATP hydrolysis

Mutations in the aquaporin protein that change a hydrophobic amino acid to a polar amino acid would have an effect on what level of protein structure?

a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary e. All of the above- answer

Which of the following is true of the DNA template strand? a. The template strand is copied by RNA polymerase to make an RNA copy b. The template strand is copied by DNA polymerase to make an RNA copy c. The template strand is the same sequence in the same 5'/3' orientation as the resulting RNA copy, except it contains Ts and the RNA copy contains Us d. the template strand is the same sequence in the same 5'/3' orientation as the coding strand

a. The template strand is copied by the RNA polymerase to make an RNA copy

All of the following are association with mitosis except a. crossing over b. duplication of DNA followed by two divisions c. results in two cells, each identical to the original cell d. separation of sister chromatids from each other

a. crossing over b. duplication of DNA followed by two divisions

UCP1, the uncoupling protein located in the inner mitochondrial membrane, is encoded by a gene in the nucleus of the cell, rather than being encoded in the mitochondrial genome. Indeed, relatively few mitochondrial proteins are produced from mitochondrial DNA, and most mitochondrial proteins are produced from DNA in the nucleus of the cell. Where in the cell will the UCP1 protein be synthesized? a. in the cytoplasm, by free cytoplasmic ribosomes b. by ribosomes in the nucleus of the cell c. by ribosomes docked to the endoplasmic reticulum d. by ribosomes located in the mitochondria

a. in the cytoplasm, by free cytoplasmic ribosomes

Which of the following is true for the DNA template strand? a. the template strand is copied by RNA polymerase to make an RNA copy b. the template strand is copied by DNA polymerase to make an RNA copy c. the template strand in the same sequence in the same 5' / 3' orientation as the resulting RNA copy, except that it contains Ts and the RNA copy contains Us d. the template strand is the same sequence in the same 5' / 3' orientation as the coding strand

a. the template strand is copied by RNA polymerase to make an RNA copy

If an algal cell isolated from seawater is transferred to fresh water, the algal cell will initially

absorb water and increase in volume

when a promoter element is bound by a positive regulatory protein, the result is

activation

When a promoter element is bound by a positive regulatory protein, the result is

activation of transcription. This is the definition of a positive transcriptional regulator; it activates/promotes transcription.

The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports phosphate into the cell even when the concentration of phosphate outside the cell is much lower than inside. Phosphate import depends on energy provided by a pH gradient across the membrane. Phosphate transport is an example of:

active transport

Which of the following show(s) saturation kinetics?

active transport facilitated diffusion enzyme-catalyzed reactions

DNA polymerase

add new nucleotides to an existing nucleotide chain

What effect should adding wolves have on the number of primary producers?

adding wolves should increase their number

Which of these are possible origins for organic molecules before life began on Earth? meteorites and dust from outer space synthesis from inorganic compounds at deep sea hydrothermal vents synthesis from inorganic compounds in the atmosphere, with energy from UV light or lightning

all are correct

Which of the following are heterotrophs? a. herbivores b. carnivores c. detritivores d. all of the above e. none of the above

all of the above

Which of the following is true regarding non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance? a. for a gene with hundreds of possible alleles, each diploid individual can have up to two different alleles for that gene b. Mendelian traits are discrete rather than quantiative traits c. a single allele that impacts the phenotype of multiple traits is characteristic of pleiotropy d. a single allele that alters the phenotype associated with the allele at a different gene is characteristic of a gene-by-gene interaction e. a single intermediate phenotype between two extremes is characteristic incomplete dominance

all of the above are true

Speciation that can occur in a sexually reproducing species split into two populations by a geographic barrier to gene flow is best described as

allopatric

Why can there be different versions of the same protein in different tissues?

alternative splicing in different tissues

Which of these statements is correct? evolution is a random process because mutation is a random process although mutation is random, evolution is directed by natural selection natural selection directs evolution by increasing the frequency or speed at which favorable mutations occur populations acquire favorable mutations in anticipation of future environmental changes, like antibiotics all of these are correct

although mutation is random, evolution is directed by natural selection

What kind of amino acids would occur most frequently in the transmembrane domains of integral membrane proteins?

amino acids with hydrophobic side groups

The Cambrian explosion describes

an adaptive radiation

A nonsense mutation in the DNA results in what effect on the subsequent protein?

an early stop codon in the amino acid sequence

Eukaryota

animal, plants, fungi, single cell protists (basically anything that has their DNA inside of a nucleus)

Ecological Species concept

another def of if somethings are a species where individuals who might be physically capable to interbreed in a lab or zoo environment would never encounter each other in the wild

Morphological Species Concept

another definition of species if two individuals look similar

An amino acid with a hydrophobic side chain, such as valine, may be located where in the fatty acid desaturase protein? a. on the exterior of the protein interacting with water molecules b. in the transmembrane domain interacting with the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane c. in the active site of the enzyme interacting with substrate fatty acid molecules d. in the interior of the folded protein interacting with other hydrophobic amino acid side chains e. any of the above except on the exterior interacting with water molecules

any of the above except on the exterior interacting with water molecules

explain the fundamentals of stratigraphy

applies to sedimentary rock formations. newer layers are always deposited on top of older layers. a vertical dig reveals a historical record, however crustal movements and uplifts may cause these layers to tilt, fold, or become inverted.

You observe two female fish. One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Consider the concept of fitness trade-offs. Compared to the female laying 1000 eggs, the female laying 100 eggs should

be larger.

Rank the following from least to most inclusive (using <): 1st choice ecosystem, 2nd choice behavior, 3rd choice community, 4th choice population

behavior< population < community <ecosystem

Inhibitors of certain fatty acid desaturases have been developed as potential anti-cancer drugs. Most of these inhibitors are competitive inhibitors, meaning that they___ a. bind to the active site of the enzyme b. bind to an allosteric site on the enzyme c. react with the substrate of the enzyme d. compete with the enzyme for binding to the substrate

bind to the active site of the enzyme

distinguish biological evolution of populations from changes to individual organisms over a lifetime

biological evolution of populations is change in the heritable characteristics of a population over succeeding generations, while changes to individual organisms over a lifetime are the individuals with superior variants acquiring more resources, and have more progeny

major sources of organic molecules on pre-life earth

atmospheric synthesis by Miller-Urey chemistry, synthesis at deep sea hydrothermal vents, and in-fall of organic molecules synthesized in outer space

Recall the case of Molly Nash, who has Fanconi anemia. Given what you know about her family's genetics, Fanconi anemia is an example of which kind of heritable disease?

autosomal recessive, like albinism

Which of these terms means "organisms that can make their own sources of organic carbon"?

autotrophs

Ultimately, mutant crickets do not call because they

avoid parasitism from Ormia maggots.

Which letter corresponds to the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed forward reaction?

b ...

Which processes are unique to eukaryotes? a. coupled transcription and translation b. 5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail c. AUG as the translation initiation codon d. regulation of transcription by proteins binding to specific sequences in the DNA e. alternative mRNA splicing

b. 5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail e. alternative mRNA splicing

Prophase chromosomes consist of two replicated sister chromatids joined at a centromere. Each individual sister chromatid contains:

b. a DNA duplex (double-stranded DNA molecule) identical to the other sister chromatid

Which of the following is/are true of sex-linked traits? a. A sex-linked trait will only ever affect one gender (only male or only females) b. A sex-linked trait is always due to a gene located on a sex chromosome c. A sex-linked trait is usually not heritable d. A sex-linked trait will only passed from mothers to sons

b. a sex-linked trait is always due to a gene located on a sex chromosome

The passage of protons through UCP1 is inhibited by ADP. ADP does not bind to the proton channel. Therefore, we could classify ADP as: a. a competitive inhibitor of UCP1 b. an allosteric (non-competitive) inhibitor of UCP1 c. a substrate of UCP1

b. an allosteric (non-competitive) inhibitor of UCP1

When in the open configuration, UCP1 allows the passage of protons across the membrane from the side with higher proton concentration to the side with lower proton concentration. What kind of transport is this? a. simple diffusion b. facilitated diffusion c. active transport

b. facilitated diffusion

A ribosome has many component parts made of rRNA and proteins. The catalytic component of the ribosome (that part that catalyzes the reaction to attach new amino acids to a polypeptide chain) is

b. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

Use the biome diagram to answer the following. Note the location and direction of each axis. Current climate change predications indicate that the average temperature will rise by 4 degrees C in the next 100 years. If you place a data tracking device in warm, wet taiga and leave it for 100 years, when your successor returns after a century has passed, what biome will the data tracker be in then?

Temperate forest

The oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O is highly exergonic; ΔGo = -636 kcal/mole. Why doesn't glucose spontaneously combust?

The glucose molecules lack the activation energy at room temperature

Photosynthetic algae are grown in a flask containing an oxygen electrode. These algae have chloroplasts, whose chlorophylls show the absorption spectra shown in the figure on the right. Which wavelength of light will produce the highest rate of oxygen production by the algae? a. blue light (450 nm) b. green light (550 nm) c. red light (670 nm) d. UV light (400 nm) e. far red light (750 nm)

blue light (450 nm) ...

Membrane vesicles have been made with ATP synthase inserted into them. What else is required for these vesicles to make ATP? a. ADP + Pi inside the vesicle b. A proton gradient across the membrane, with the exterior more acidic than the interior of the vesicles c. An electron transport chain d. All of the above e. both a) and b)

both a. and b.

ribosomes are composed of

both protein and RNA

If all 6 carbons in glucose are labeled with 14C, what pathway(s) will release radioactive 14CO2? a. glycolysis only b. pyruvate oxidation only c. citric acid cycle only d. both glycolysis and pyruvate e. both pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle

both pyruvate oxidation and the citirc acid cycle

helicase

break the hydrogen bonds holding together the two strands of the DNA molecule

Red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic solution (deionized water), and they swell up. How does water get into the cells?

by facilitated diffusion through aquaporins

The enzymes that create double bonds in fatty acid chains are called fatty acid desaturases. In animals, these enzymes are found in the smooth ER membrane. Where in the cell are they synthesized? a. by ribosomes in the cytoplasm b. by ribosomes attached to the rough ER membrane c. by ribosomes attached to the Golgi membrane d. by ribosomes in the nucleus e. by ribosomes located in the ER lumen

by ribosomes attached to the rough ER membrane

Cyclooxygenase is located in the lumen of the ER. The enzyme is synthesized

by ribosomes docked to the rough ER

Which of the following processes is/are common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes a. coupled transcription and translation b. 5' cap and 3' poly(A) tail c. AUG as the translation initiation codon d. regulation of transcription by proteins binding to specific sequences in the DNA e. alternative mRNA splicing f. regulation of transcription of amount chromatin compaction g. operons as a mechanism of gene co-regulation

c. AUG as the translation initiation codon d. regulation of transcription by proteins binding to specific sequences in the DNA

Genes A and B are unlinked. AN individual has the genotype AaBb. Which of the following represents a gamete that this individual can make? a. A b. Aa c. Ab D. AaBb

c. Ab

A snail population lives in the mud at the bottom of a lake. You would predict that the population experiences summer conditions of

cold water temperatures

Which interaction reduces fitness for both species involved?

competition

What conditions lead to evolution by natural selection?

competition for limiting resources heritable variation in the population

The Earth's climate for the past 10,000 years (the period of recorded human history), has been ____

cooler than for most of Earth's history

The Earth's climate for the past 10,000 years (the period of recorded human history), has been ____ cooler than for most of Earth's history warmer than for most of Earth's history about average compared to most of Earth's history alternating between cool glacial periods and warm periods

cooler than for most of Earth's history

Translation occurs in the

cytoplasm

where does attachment of an amino acid to tRNA occur

cytoplasm

Meiosis results in the formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus. What order for the following events best illustrates a sequence of meiosis? a. Alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate. b. Separation of sister chromatids. c. Separation of the homologous chromosomes. d. Synapsis; pairs of homologous chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids associate with each other.

d --> a --> c --> b

All of the following occur in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes EXCEPT: a. translation initiation at an AUG codon b. recruitment of RNA polymerase to promoters to initiate transcription c. positive and negative regulation of transcription d. RNA processing to produce mature mRNAs e. co-regulation of genes in the same pathway

d. RNA processing to produce mature mRNAs

Indicate all of the following that are adaptations A mated female lizard rafts to a lizard-free island and lays a series of eggs, establishing a population of lizards with green dewlaps instead of the more common red color. Finch beaks in a population are larger after a drought where small seeds did not survive the dry conditions. Only red-flowered Mimulus monkey flowers survive after a flood. The pink- and white-flowered plants all die by chance. In a healthy human not currently on any medications, a new mutation arises in an intestinal population of bacteria. The mutation confers antibiotic resistance to those bacteria that have it

B A is a mutation C is genetic drift (or genetic bottleneck) D is also a mutation

Below is single DNA strand. What is the nucleotide sequence of the complementary strand? 5'-CCCTGGGCTCT-3' 3′ -ACTGTTAGATT-5′ 3′ -GGGACCCGAGA-5′ 5′ -GGGACCCGAGA-3′ 3′ -CCCTGGGCTCT-5′ 5′ -CCCTGGGCTCT-3′

B DNA is always double stranded, and the other strand is both a) complementary (A paired with T and C paired with G) and b) antiparallel (5'-3' and 3'-5')

Hershey and Chase grew bacteriophage in the presence of either radioactively-labelled phosphorus or radioactively-labelled sulfur. Radioactive phosphorus will label: Phage proteins Phage DNA Phage polysaccharides All of the above None of the above

B Radioactive phosphorus labels DNA because DNA contains phosphate groups. Radioactive phosphorus will also label phospholipids, but bacteriophage don't have phospholipids.

How would DNA replication be affected if ligase were absent? The template strands would not be able to separate. Replication would result in multiple small segments of DNA instead of a complete molecule. Complementary RNA would be produced but not complementary DNA. The DNA strands would separate but replication would not be able to start. The DNA strands produced by replication would not be complementary to the template strands.

B The RNA primers created by primase must be removed after DNA synthesis and replaced by DNA. These replacement nucleotides leave gaps between the 3'hydroxyl of one chain and the 5'phosphate of another chain. These gaps are sealed by ligase. In the absence of ligase, the newly synthesized DNA chain would not be contiguous but would be composed of short fragments (especially on the lagging strand side).

Colin's mom has brown eyes, what would her genotype be?

Bbgg

Colin's mom has brown eyes, what would her genotype be? BBgg BbGg Bbgg BBGG

Bbgg

Colin's Dad's eyes are brown and all of his family members have brown eyes, for the purpose of this exercise we can assume Colin's Dad's genotype is BBgg. Based on the genotypes of his mother and father what is Colin's genotype? Bbgg BbGg BBGg BBgg

Bbgg , BBgg

Colin's maternal grandfather had blue eyes while his maternal grandfather had brown eyes. They had 9 children, 3 with blue eyes and 6 with brown eyes. We can assume that both of them are recessive for the green gene. What are their genotypes?

Bbgg and bbgg

Bbgg or BBgg. We know Colin has the recessive green eye genotype. However because of the geneotype of his parents he could be BBgg or Bbgg

Which of the following is *not* a classic life-history tradeoff?

Best Offspring vs. Best Partner The rest of the options indicate that one variable can be increased, but typically only if the other variable is decreased.

What is required to activate B cells to proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells that secrete anti-HIV antibodies?

Both HIV binding to B cell surface Ig and signals from helper T cell recognition of B cell antigen presentation are required

What would be the consequence(s) for DNA synthesis if primase were defective?

Both leading and lagging strand synthesis would be incomplete.

Brand X margarine melts at room temperature, while Brand Y stays solid. Brand Y probably has:

Both more hydrogenated fatty acids and more trans-unsaturated fatty acids

If all 6 carbons in glucose are labeled with 14C, what pathway(s) will release radioactive 14CO2?

Both pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle

Photophosphorylation is similar to oxidative phosphorylation in that:

Both reduce carbon in the electron transport chain

An organism that gets electrons from H2 and makes its own organic carbon from carbon dioxide is classified as a:

Chemoautotroph

Scientists have discovered a new species of bacteria in Antarctica and want to determine what type of metabolism the organism has. Through their research they notice that the bacteria can grow in dark conditions if provided with a sugar source. What type of metabolism do these bacteria have?

Chemoheterotrophy

Which of these chlorophyll molecules will have the greatest potential energy after absorption of light?

Chlorophyll a from cyanobacteria or green plants: absorption at 680 nm

Chromosome - Sister Chromatid - Homologous Chromosome - Diploid - Haploid - Tetrad -

Chromosome - a threadlike structure of nucleic acids and protein found in the nucleus of most living cells, carrying genetic information in the form of genes. Sister Chromatid -are two identical copies of the same chromosome formed by DNA replication, attached to each other by a structure called the centromere. During cell division, they are separated from each other, and each daughter cell receives one copy of the chromosome. Homologous Chromosome -are a set of one maternal and one paternal chromosome that pair up with each other inside a cell during fertilization. Diploid -containing two complete sets of chromosomes, one from each parent. Haploid - having a single set of unpaired chromosomes. Tetrad - 2 homologous chromosomes (XX)

The fat from the beef in the burger undergoes beta oxidation and enters your metabolism at what step?

Citric acid cycle

Which of the following IS a limitation of the biological species concept?

it cannot be applied to prokaryotes it cannot accurately distinguish between species that are capable of interbreeding (for example, in the captivity) but never do in the wild it cannot be applied to extinct species

crossing over increases chromosome diversity, at what stage does crossing over occur?

meiotic prophase 1

Crossing over increases chromosome diversity. At what stage does crossing over occur?

meiotic prophase I

If a cell is fed radioactive phosphate in the culture medium, what macromolecules will become highly radioactive? Select all that apply.

membrane lipids DNA RNA

Reading check: The diagram shows islands in green separated by water. Yellow spots represent individual critters. Time proceeds from the top to the bottom. The term that best describes the three stage scenario depicted here is

metapopulation

definition of operon

multiple protein coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a common promoter. They are used as a means of co-regulating these proteins together (a single signal which turns on transcription of the operon results in production of multiple proteins).

operons are

multiple protein coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA rom a common promoter used as a mechanism of co-regulation

Liz Worthey identified 15,272 variants in Nick's exome sequence (Worthey et al. 2011, Genomics in Medicine 13, 255-262), which is a typical number of variants for exome sequences from healthy people. Compare this number with the number mathematically-predicted variants of 120,000. This number of predicted variants is based on human DNA being 99.9% identical, the known error rate of DNA polymerase, and the random nature of DNA mutations. Which of the statements below are consistent with this difference between actual and predicted variants in Nick's (and most people's) exome sequence?

mutaitons in protein coding sequences are more likely to be eliminated by natural selection than mutations in the rest of the genome

Acting alone, which mechanism of evolution has the least impact on allele frequencies? Selection Mutation Gene flow Genetic drift

mutation

You survey Population A again several years later to find one individual of this damselfly species with a metallic blue color. Which evolutionary mechanism is most likely to have been responsible for this development?

mutation

Probabilities are calculated using the addition rule when they are

mutually exclusive

balancing selection

natural selection that maintains two or more phenotypic forms in a population

For evolution to occur:

needs heritable variation in the population conditions where the heritable variatins makes a difference in the survival and reproduction of organisms

Are living cells at chemical equilibrium?

Cell membranes are lipid bilayers, consisting of an outer leaflet facing the outside of the cell and an inner leaflet interacting with the cytoplasm. Can lipids flip from the outer face to the inner face, and vice versa?

Is mutation alone likely to make much of a difference in the coat color of the entire rock pocket mouse population?

Is mutation the only factor that could influence evolution of these mice in this environment?

What best describes the portions of the human genome which do not contain protein-coding genes?

non-protein coding regions of the human genome appear to have some functional and some non-functional components

when lactose binds to the repressor protein, the protein binds to

none of the above

Which of the following is TRUE of genomes? a. larger, more complex organisms typically have larger genomes than smaller, simpler organisms b. about half of the human genome is composed of protein-coding genes c. eukaryotic operons are much larger than prokaryotic operons d. eukaryotic chromosomes are typically circular; prokaryotic chromosomes are typically linear e. prokaryotic genomes are typically fragmented into multiple chromosomes; eukaryotic genomes typically have a single chromosome f. prokaryotic genomes typically have much more non-protein- coding DNA than eukaryotic genomes g. both eukaryotic and prokaryotic genomes are composed of chromatin

none of the above are true

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression differ in that a. prokaryotic DNA does not have to be transcribed in order to be translated, while eukaryotic DNA does b. prokaryotes and eukaryotes have different genetic codes (the same codon is translated into two different amino acids) c. prokaryotic RNA must be extensively processed before it can be translated, while eukaryotic DNA does not d. prokaryotic DNA is transcribed by ribosomes, eukaryotic DNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase e. the prokaryotic genetic code uses methionine as the first codon translated, while the eukaryotic genetic code does not

none of these

radioactive phosphorus will label

nucleic acids

Organic extractions separate molecules according to their polarity. Polar molecules stay in the aqueous phase, whereas non-polar molecules dissolve in the organic solvent phase. When cells are broken (lysed) and extracted with organic solvents, which of these molecules will be dissolved in the aqueous (water) phase? Select all that apply.

nucleic acids carbohydrates small charged and polar molecules such as phosphate and arsenate

What components of biomass contain large amounts of nitrogen?

nucleic acids and proteins

origin of replication

nucleotide sequences where the two strands of the DNA double helix are separated, to allow DNA replication to begin

where does formation of ribosomal subunits occur

nucleus

where does transcription and RNA processing occur

nucleus

evolution by natural selection

occurs when certain genotypes produce more offspring than other genotypes in response to the environment. requires: 1. the trait under selection must be variable in the population, so that the encoding gene has more than one variant or allele 2. the trait under selection must be heritable, encoded by a gene(s) 3. the struggle of existence, that many more offspring are born than can survive in the environment 4. individuals with different alleles have different survival and reproduction that is governed by the fit of the organism to the environment

directional selection

occurs when natural selection favors one of the extreme variations of a trait

Keystone predators maintain species diversity in a community because they

prey on the community's dominant species.

The antennae of male moths can only detect sex pheromones released by a female in his species. This reproductive barrier is:

prezygotic bc cant even have a chance to smash even if wanted2

What trophic levels do insects occupy, and how do you know?

primary and secondary consumer, based on incoming energy flow from producers and primary consumers. First, identify the base of the food web (the producer) and count up. Insects are both primary consumers and secondary consumers (2 and 3 trophic levels) because some insects eat willows, and some insects eat eachother.

DNA polymerase relies on

primase (an RNA polymerase) which can synthesize a starting point

Which of the following organisms appeared first in the fossil record?

prokaryotes

Bacteria

prokaryotes single cell microorganisms no nuclei older than eukaryotes

Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in which of the following ways? Select all that apply.

prokaryotic cells are generally smaller than eukaryotic cells prokaryotic cells have circular chromosomes

Operons are typically only present in

prokaryotic genomes

A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA:

promoter

At what stage of meiosis is human DNA haploid?

prophase II metaphase II anaphase II telophase II

cite evidence that all life on earth has a common origin

proposed by Darwin and Wallace, evolution by natural selection could explain the origin of all the multitudes of species on earth and how they appear to well adapted in form and function to their particular environments. happened via slow incremental accumulation of heritable (genetic) changes

If cultured cells are deprived of a source of biologically available nitrogen, what macromolecules will they be unable to make? a. phospholipids and carbohydrates b. polysaccharides and proteins c. proteins and nucleic acids d. nucleic acids and phospholipids e. nucleic acids and polysaccharides

proteins and nucleic acids

Carrots have a gene called Fat-root with alleles F and f. F, which is dominant, encodes early development of the carrot root to make a bigger carrot faster, while f encodes later development. At an unlinked gene on the same chromosome, the dominant allele P makes purple carrots, while the absence of P makes orange roots. A true-breeding orange, skinny carrot is crossed to a true-breeding (meaning homozygous for all traits of interest) purple, fat carrot. The resulting F1 offspring are

purple & fat, but heterozygous (not true-breeding)

Carrots have a gene called fat-root with alleles F and f. F, which is dominant, encodes early development of the carrot root to make a bigger carrot faster, while f encodes later development. At an unlinked gene on the same chromosome, the dominant allele P makes purple carrots, while the absence of P makes orange carrots. A true-breeding orange, skinny carrot is crossed to a true-breeding purple, fat carrot. The resulting F1 offspring are

purple & fat, but heterozygous (not true-breeding)

The tetrameric structure of an aquaporin complex is an example of what level of protein structure?

quarternary structure

Normal hemoglobin (HbA) consists of two alpha-globin and two beta-globin chains. HbA2, consisting of 2 alpha-globin and 2 delta-globin chains, is found in small quantities (3% or less) in normal people, and at higher percentages in people with sickle cell disease. The four subunit composition of HbA and HbA2 describe what level of protein structure?

quaternary Quaternary structure is created when multiple subunits join together to create a functional protein.

Which of the following indicates the fastest changing population?

r = -2

In density-independent population regulation,

r remains unchanged regardless of density

Which type of RNA has catalytic properties in the ribosome?

rRNA

How does natural selection explain how bacterial populations evolve resistance to antibiotics?

rare, resistant mutant bacteria in the population survive antibiotic treatment

Red short-horned cattle are homozygous for the red allele, white cattle are homozygous for the white allele, and roan cattle are heterozygotes. Population A consists of 36% red, 16% white, and 48% roan cattle. What are the allele frequencies?

red = 0.6, white = 0.4

White eyes is a recessive X-linked trait in fruit flies. A cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and a red-eyed male would generate which of the following types of progeny?

red-eyed females and white-eyed males

sedimentary rock

rock formed by deposit of fine sand and particles of organic and inorganic debris at the bottoms of oceans and lakes, compressed and often visible as layered rock formations. may contain fossils

Igneous

rock formed from cooling of lava

igneous rock

rock formed from cooling of lava. any organismal remnants are destroyed by the extreme heat of lava

metamorphic rock

rock whose crystal structure is altered by extreme heat and high pressure when buried miles deep in the earth's crust; may be formed from either igneous or sedimentary rock. any fossils contained in sedimentary rock are destroyed during the transformation to metamorphic rock

What is the largest C pool?

rocks and sediments

where does translation of secreted proteins occur

rough ER

Which of these shows the correct order of a secreted protein trafficking through a cell, from its site of synthesis to exit from the cell?

rough ER -> smooth ER -> Golgi -> plasma membrane

ligase

seals together DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand

Which of the these 3 types of rock contain fossils of once-living organisms?

sedimentary

The letters A-D represent 4 different extant (living) species in this phylogenetic tree. Order the species according to how long its lineage has evolved from their shared common ancestor, from least time to most time.

species A = species B = species C = species D All currently living lineages have evolved for the same amount of time, because they all evolved from a common ancestor.

Two communities that contain the same number of species can differ in species diversity if

species are represented in different proportions.

Selection that results in elimination of extreme phenotypes and enrichment for the 'average' phenotype in the population is best described as:

stabilizing average!

Symbiodinium are eukaryotes. What would they have in their membranes? Select all that apply.

sterols like cholesterol sphingolipids

In a hypothetical mammalian species, fur coloration is controlled by two genes (A and B) with at least three alleles each (A0, A1, A2). Each 0 allele encodes no "units" of pigmentation; each 1 allele encodes 1 unit of pigmentation, each 2 allele encodes 2 units of pigmentation. In this scenario, which of the following are not true? a. this trait is quantitative b. this trait is polygentic c. this trait is a multiple allelic trait d. this trait is a pleiotropic trait

d. this trait is a pleiotropic trait

know the different types of data incorporated into phylogenic trees and recognize how this data is used to construct phylogenic trees

data- morphological data (like structural features, types of organs, and specific skeletal arrangements), genetic data (like mitochondrial DNA sequences, ribosomal RNA genes, and any genes of interest) used- to identify homology (similarity due to common ancestry) constructed- trees are constructed on the principle of parsimony ( the idea that the most likely pattern to is the one requiring the fewest changes)

potassium-40

decays to argon-40; half-life = 1.26 billion years; used to date formation of igneous rocks. Ar-40 found trapped in the rock is compared to the amount of K-40 remaining. A 1:1 ratio of K-40 to Ar-40 indicates the igneous rock has an age of 1 half-life

uranium-238

decays to lead-206; half-life = 4.5 billion years; used to date zircons. the ratio reveals how many half-lives has passed

carbon-14

decays to nitrogen-14; half-life = 5715 years; used to date organic matter. in this case, the amount of the daughter isotope (N-14) is uninformative, because N-14 is the common isotope of nitrogen and occurs at high levels in all organic matter and in the atmosphere. only the amount of C-14 is compared to the amount of C-12 matters. the ratio of C-14 to C-12 has been mostly constant over the last 100,000 years. Depletion of C-14 relative to C-12 is used to date the age of organic matter. After 5700 years, the ratio of C-14 to C-12 will be only half of the initial ratio of C-14 to C-12.

If the number of predators increases, we should expect the number of prey to _____ at lower levels of the food web.

decrease

With the addition of resource limitation, what change do you expect in the number of births as population size increases? In the number of deaths?

decrease in births, increase in deaths

Selection that results in a shift in the population toward one extreme phenotype is best described as

directional

Suppose that we have a scrub desert with light colored sand, and numerous patches of dark-colored rocks. Mice with two copies of a dark fur color allele are dark-colored and blend well with dark-colored rocks. Mice with two copies of a light color allele are light-colored and blend well with the sand. Mice with one copy of each (heterozygotes) are a brown color that does not blend well with either the sand or the dark-colored rocks. As a result, the brown mice are more susceptible to predators. Which type of selection is most likely to operate in this situation?

disruptive selection

When do meiotic cells become haploid?

during meiosis I

Which of the following show(s) saturation kinetics? a. simple diffusion only b. active transport only c. facilitated diffusion only d. enzyme-catalyzed reactions only e. all of the above except simple diffusion

e. all of the above except simple diffusion

PCR replicates DNA in a test tube. Which enzymes are required for PCR but not for cellular DNA replication a. helicase b. DNA polymerase c. DNA ligase d. primase e. none of the above

e. none of the above

law of independent assortment

each gamete carries a random collection of alleles for different genes

law of segregation

each gamete carries only one allele for each gene

Put these events in Earth history in order. Oldest < second oldest < youngest: production of oxygen by photosynthetic organisms origin of eukaryotic cells earliest evidence for life on Earth appearance of first tetrapods on land surfaces Cambrian "explosion"

earliest evidence for life on Earth < production of oxygen by photosynthetic organisms < origin of eukaryotic cells < Cambrian "explosion" < appearance of first tetrapods on land surfaces

Put these events in Earth history in order. production of oxygen by photosynthetic organisms origin of eukaryotic cells earliest evidence for life on Earth appearance of first tetrapods on land surfaces Cambrian "explosion"

earliest evidence for life on earth< production of oxygen by photosynthetic organisms < origins of ekaryotic cells < cambrian "explosion" < appearance of first tetrapods on land surface

Maggots experience a selection pressure to

eat apple because of lower parasitism rates

Which of the following is not part of the equation for Hamilton's rule?

fitness Relatedness*benefit, when greater than costs, encourages the development of a behavior. rB>C

Energy

flows through ecosystems is lost as you move through an ecosystem is often harvested from the sun can be lost as heat

Sedimentary

formed by deposition of fine sand and particles of organic and inorganic debris at the bottoms of oceans and lakes, compressed and often visible as layered rock formations. May contain fossils.

Which of these molecules is (are) organic?

formic acid methane

Which correctly describes the path of electron flow in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria? a. from PSI --> ETC --> PSII --> NADP+ --> O2 b. from H2O--> PSI --> ETC --> PSII --> NADP+ c. from H2O --> PSII --> ETC --> PSI --> NADP+ d. from H2O --> PSII --> ETC --> PSI --> O2 e. from H2O --> ETC --> PSI --> PSII --> ATP synthase

from H20 --> PSII --> ETC --> PSI --> NADP+

In cells, the pathway of electrons is:

from food to NAD+ to the electron transport chain to the terminal electron acceptor

The airway epithelial cells maintain a thin layer of watery liquid containing salt. Their cilia beat in the watery liquid to move mucus and particles out of the airway and into the back of the throat, where it is swallowed into the digestive tract. To maintain salt balance, the CFTR channel opens to allow Cl- ions to diffuse across the cell membrane and into the airway liquid. In the absence of CFTR function, the airway liquid becomes hypotonic. Which way will water molecules flow?

from the airway into the cells that line the airway

identify, explain, and recognize the consequences of other mechanisms of evolution in terms of fitness, adaptation, average phenotype, and genetic diversity

genetic drift, gene flow, non-random mating, and mutation

Which of these factors are required for biological evolution to occur?

genetic variation in the population. Although natural selection is a powerful driver of evolution, it is just one possible cause of evolution. Some genes or traits evolve via random processes such as genetic drift, especially in smaller populations. Recall that biological evolution is defined as the change in the allele frequencies of a population over generations. Acquired traits are not heritable, so variation in acquired traits will not directly affect biological evolution.

Based on the tree below, which of the following is true?

giraffe is more closely related to a hippo than a horse. relatedness is determined by time since the common ancestor. The more recently two lineages diverged from their common ancestor, the more closely related they are. Giraffes and hippos share a more recent common ancestor than all the other relationships listed above. To answer this type of question, first identify the direction of time (bottom to top in this case). The identify the location of the common ancestors in question on the tree. Finally, determine the relative time since each common ancestor. The farther back in time the common ancestor, the more DISTANTLY related the species are.

In cyanobacteria and plant chloroplasts, what does photosystem II do? Select all that apply

gives electrons to the photosynthetic electron transport chain splits water molecules to generate oxygen gas

The graph on the right shows the initial rate of transport across a cell membrane as the concentration of the molecule increases on one side of the membrane (the other side starts with zero concentration). Curve A (the top curve) may describe transport of which of the molecules listed below? a. O2 b. cholesterol c. glucose d. CO2 e. either b) or c)

glucose

In the absence of respiration, what reactions can cells operate to make ATP? Select all that apply.

glycolysis

The waterbuck population is small. Given the r you calculated, the waterbuck population should be

growing >0

If the image below represented the entire genome of a particular cell, what would the ploidy of that cell be?

haploid 1N

According to plate tectonics, for the past 560 million years, the continents that we see today

have merged and split apart over millions of years

Now imagine that the genes for fatness and color are partially linked. If the F1 from the previous problem were selfed, the F2s should

have mostly parental and a few recombinant types, with all 4 phenotypes represented

Which of these proteins is responsible for unwinding the DNA during DNA replication?

helicase

Colorblindness is caused by a recessive allele of a gene located on the X chromosome. A colorblind woman mates with a man with normal vision. Based on this information, what can we conclude?

her father was color blind her daughters will be carriers

natural selection

heritable variation in population that makes a difference in the survival and reproduction of individual organisms, and evolution occurs

What are is the main protein that comprises chromatin?

histone

Mendel's laws can be explained by the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis (information that he didn't have at the time). What behavior of chromosomes below explains the law of segregation?

homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I

Mendel's laws can be explained by the behavior of chromsomes during meiosis (information that he didn't have at the time). What behavior of chromosomes below explains the law of segregation?

homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I

Figure 1 shows the % of C-18 fatty acids that are unsaturated (have one or more double bonds between carbons), in lipids extracted from algal cells cultured at different temperatures over 4 weeks. The algal cells grown at higher temperatures decrease their percentage of unsaturated fatty acids over time. How will decreasing the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids change the properties of the algal membranes?

their membranes will be more rigid and less leaky

Evolution is a

theory not hypothesis

Which of these steps occurs first in mRNA processing? a. Splicing b. Addition of 5'cap c. Addition of poly-A tail

they all occur simulaneously

If a father has an x-linked recessive mutation, what is true about his daughters?

they are all carriers

If cells had time to adapt to the presence of cyanide, how might they be able to recover high rates of ATP synthesis?

they could speed up glycolysis and lactic acid fermentation

The sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA. What is the significance of the 3' and 5' ? 3'-GTCGAA-5'

they refer to the polarity (orientation) of the nucleotide chain, where 3' refers to the hydroxyl group and 5' refers to the phosphate group new nucleotides can only be added to the 3' end of a nucleotide chain, whether RNA or DNA

Many bacteria are capable of anaerobic respiration, meaning that___ a. they synthesize ATP only by glycolysis and fermentation b. they split water molecules to generate their own oxygen gas c. they have mitochondria that function in the absence of oxygen d. they use a different terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen e. they make ATP through photophosphorylation

they use a different terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen

If the probability of a dark mutant appearing is 1 in 25,000,000 mice, and the number of mice born per year is 25,000 mice/year, on average, one new dark mutant should appear every:

thousand years

Membrane phospholipids are made in the ER. Where do they go next on their way to the plasma membrane? a. to the nucleus b. to the Golgi via transport vesicles c. to the plasma membrane via secretory vesicles d. to the lysosomes e. to the mitochondria

to the Golgi via transport vesicles

Click on the arrow that represents transcription in the figure:

transcription is the process using DNA as a template to make an RNA molecule.

What types of DNA sequences comprise nearly half of the human genome?

transposons and transposon-derived sequences

source of energy used to catalyze DNA synthesis

tri-phophate groups

Hybrids occur when

two species interbreed

Which type of life history curve describes a population with high mortality for young but long lifespan for those which survive?

type III When graphing survivorship over many years, this curve slopes rapidly downward and then continues almost linearly for many years. This is the curve many insects and plant species follow where many offspring are produced (more than are expected to survive), and the few individuals that 'make it' live long lives.

A stand of Douglas fir trees is home to 3 similar species of small insect-eating birds. They eat a variety of insect species: one insect burrows into the tree bark, one lives in the tree needles (leaves), and one flies between trees. All three bird species are able to eat any of the insect species. The bird that forages in the bark for insects is

utilizing its realized niche competing intraspecifically (within species) for resources

protocells (or protobionts)

vesicles that enclose self-replicating RNAs and other enzymes, take in reactants across the membrane, export products, grow by accretion of lipid micelles, and divide by fission of the vesicle; may have been the precursor of cellular life

Homology

suggests that there is a common ancestor. something that is homologous means that it evolved from a common ancestor something is similar due ot inheritance

distinguish between sympatric and allopatric speciation

sympatric speciation: occurs when two populations in the same location become unable to interbreed due to reproductive isolation, which reduces gene flow between populations and increases the likelihood of speciation occuring allopatric speciation: occurs when two populations of the same species become isolated from each other due to geographical changes

How would DNA replication be affected if primase were not functional?

synthesis of a complementary DNA chain would not initiate

primase

synthesizes short RNA sequences to allow DNA synthesis to initiate

types of RNA associated with translation

tRNA, rRNA

Know and use the terminology required to describe and interpret a phylogenetic tree.

taxa- a singular taxon is a taxonomic unit, could be a species or a gene branches- vertical lines, representing a lineage nodes- where the branches diverge, representing a speciation event from a common ancestor root- trunk at the base of the tree, root node represents the most recent common ancestor of all the taxa represented by the tree time- represented by proceeding from the oldest at the bottom to the most recent at the top clade- a group of taxa that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants, also is monophyletic paraphyletic- a group that excludes one or more descendants polyphyletic- a group that excludes the common ancestor

Where is NPP (per unit area) higher?

terrestrial systems

The authors believed that they had isolated a cell strain, that they named GFAJ-1, that could grow using arsenate instead of phosphate, as shown in Fig. 1A and Fig. 1B. These figures from Wolfe-Simon et al. 2011 also show ____

that GFAJ-1 cells grow best in phosphate-containing medium

Photoautotrophic algae are grown in a flask. What will happen to the CO2 concentration in the flask if it is kept in complete darkness? a. the CO2 concentration will increase b. the CO2 concentration will decrease c. the CO2 concentration will stay constant

the CO2 concentration will increase

describe the steps which led to the origin of life (organic molecules form, macromolecules polymerize, a hereditary mechanism develops, membrane-enclosed protocells form)

the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis

biological species concept

the ability of two individuals to successfully produce viable, fertile offspring

Gross primary productivity is higher than net primary productivity. The difference between the two is

the amount of energy that producers burn when they metabolize.

If microtubules are disrupted, what will the cell be unable to do? a. the cell cannot move vesicles b. the cell cannot synthesize proteins c. the cell cannot change shape d. the cell cannot transport molecules across the membrane e. the cell will be unable to do any of the above

the cell cannot move vesicles

When estrogen binds to the estrogen receptor:

the estrogen-estrogen receptor complex activates trancription the estrogen-estrogen receptor complex binds to estrogen-response elements

sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA forms

the exterior of the DNA double helix (and thus interact with the aqueous environment)

The first amino acid translated from an RNA molecule is

the first methionine codon encountered by a tRNA molecule

What can we conclude from the Miller-Urey experiment?

the hypothesis that organic molecules can be made only by living cells has been disproved

nitrogeneous bases of DNA form

the interior of the DNA double helix

if the repressor gene is mutated so that no repressor protein is made then

the lac operon will be induced wherever glucose is absent

if a mutation eliminates binding of inducer to the repressor, but the repressor still binds to the DNA

the lac operon will never be induced

Which of the following would be considered "life history traits" for a waterbuck?

the maturation rate from juveniles to adults

The two strands in a double helix are held together by hydrogen bonds between

the nitrogeneous bases on one chain and the nitrogenous bases of the other chain

The 2 strands in a DNA double helix are held together by hydrogen bonds between which of the following

the nitrogenous bases on one chain and the nitrogenous bases on the other chain

transcription and translation are physically separated in eukaryotic cells due to

the nuclear envelop

Ploidy of a cell is

the number of complete chromosome sets

Darwinian fitness

the organisms that best match their environment will have relatively greater survival and reproduction than those that match less well

know and recognize the five assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle

the population is undergoing no selection, no mutation, no drift, no gene flow, and that individuals are selecting mates at random

speciation is a process

the process that results in a new species, occurs when an ancestral population splits into two or more descendant species which are genetically distinct and unable to interbreed (biological species concept). all about gene flow (or lack of), the less gene flow, the more likely speciation is to occur

Biomass pyramids in the open ocean are inverted in comparison to most terrestrial ecosystems because

the producers reproduce so rapidly that a smaller biomass of producers can support a larger biomass of herbivores.

Dinitrophenol (DNP) is a molecule that makes phospholipid bilayer membranes leaky to protons. What would happen to the proton gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane if DNP is added to the isolated mitochondria? a. the proton gradient will decrease b. the proton gradient will increase c. the proton gradient will be unchanged

the proton gradient will decrease

Newborn babies have "brown fat" cells that make a mitochondrial inner membrane protein called UCP1, that acts as a channel for facilitated diffusion of protons. When this channel opens, what will be the effect on the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane?

the proton gradient will decrease

A limiting resource is

the resource reduced by use the most and whose availability therefore limits population size.

A community has 3 species found in the ratio of 7:1:1. It has ____________ species richness compared to a community with a ratio of 3:3:3.

the same

Dominant alleles are more common than recessive alleles in a population because

the statement is false; dominant alleles are not necessarily more common than recessive alleles

Crossing over is more likely to occur between genes if

the two genes are far apart on the same chromosome

standing genetic variation

the variation that is created in the population through the random process of mutation, must be present for evolution to occur

What is the order in which tRNAs proceed through the ribosome?

1. A site 2. P site 3. E site

Hershey and Chase grew bacteriophage in the presence of either radioactively-labelled phosphorus or radioactively-labelled sulfur. Radioactive phosphorus will label:

phage DNA

What type of bond covalently links nucleotides together into DNA or RNA? a. glycosidic bonds b. peptide bonds c. phosphodiester bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. disulfide bonds

phosphodiester bonds

The adjacent nucleotides in DNA strand are held together by

phosphodiester bonds between the hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the phosphate of the adjacent nucleotide

What is the largest C flux?

photosynthesis

chromatin

plays a role in positive and negative gene regulation is composed of DNA wrapped around histones affects how loosely or tightly compacted the DNA is

Which of the following describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects?

pleiotropy

In Pratt's 1943 lab studies of Daphnia (water flea) population growth, where the x axis is time in days, the population shown in the solid line is at carrying capacity at point

point B

Almost all quantitative traits are examples of

polygenic traits

In short-horned cattle, RR causes red coat color, rr causes white coat color, and Rr causes roan coat color. Which of these populations is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

population percentages need to be in p2 2pq p2

When a male donkey mates with a female horse, the hybrid offspring is an infertile mule. This reproductive barrier is:

postzygotic cause now manman donkey cant have no chirren

types of RNA associated with transcription and processing

pre-mRNA, mRNA, snRNA

If enemy-victim relationships are +/-, which of these could be generally defined as enemy-victim interactions?

predation herbivory parasitism

What other factors are likely to affect rock pocket mouse evolution?

predators, owls, lava flow, hunting, environment, selection

Analogy

something is similar due to other factors (location or whatever)

Evolution results in a better match of an organism and the environment.

sometimes

The first amino acid translated from an RNA molecule is:

The first methionine codon encountered by a tRNA molecule. both prokaryote and eukaryotes start with aug

B. B + C A clade includes all of the descendants of their most recent common ancestor. A single taxon can be a clade by itself, because it is descended from an ancestor along its branch.

(image from 3.06 IKE Q2) Which of these taxa form a clade (monophyletic group)? Select all that apply. A. A + B B. B + C C. C + D D. A + C E. A + D

DNA replication is semi-conservative. The images below show the results of density gradient centrifugation of DNA extracted from isotopically labelled cells after the initial labeling (time 0), after one division cycle (time 1), and after two division cycles (time 2). Which of the patterns is consistent with conservative replication?

- goes up once, then stays same Semi-conservative replication results in one "old" DNA strand paired with a "new" DNA strand to form a double helix. Conservative replication reults in the "old" DNA double helix remaining and a "new" DNA double helix made of two "new" DNA strands. Dispersive replication resulits in "old" and "new" DNA fragments scattered throughout the resulting two DNA double helices. In this experiment, "old" DNA is heavier than "new" DNA and will be lower down in the column.

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression differ in that: -Prokaryotic DNA does not have to be transcribed in order to be translated, while eukaryotic DNA does -Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have different genetic codes (the same codon is translated into two different amino acids) -Prokaryotic RNA must be exensively processed before it can be translated, while eukaryotic DNA does not -Prokaryotic DNA is transcribed by ribosomes, eukaryotic DNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase -The prokaryotic genetic code uses methionine as the first codon translated, while the eukaryotic genetic code does not -None of these

-None of these

In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the sugar's _____ carbon and the phosphate group is attached to the sugar's _____ carbon.

1,5

-got one step bigger each time Semi-conservative replication results in one "old" DNA strand paired with a "new" DNA strand to form a double helix. Conservative replication reults in the "old" DNA double helix remaining and a "new" DNA double helix made of two "new" DNA strands. Dispersive replication resulits in "old" and "new" DNA fragments scattered throughout the resulting two DNA double helices. In this experiment, "old" DNA is heavier than "new" DNA and will be lower down in the column.

primary universal requirements for life

-the ability to reproduce and replicate hereditary information -the enclosure in membranes to form cells -the use of energy to accomplish growth and reproduction

For the logistic population growth equation, if N is very large (close to K), what does the term in parentheses approximate?

Suppose Nick's oldest sister is found to be a carrier of the XIAP mutation. If she has children with a phenotypically normal man, what proportion of their daughters would be expected to have the disease?

An opossum population has a gene with two alleles, A1 and A2. If 80% of the gametes produced in the population contain the A1 allele (the A1 allele frequency is 0.8) and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what proportion of the offspring flies will carry both A1 and A2?

0.32

Waterbuck birth and death rates are b = 0.67 and d = 0.055. Calculate r.

0.67-0.055 = 0.615

For the logistic population growth equation, if N is very small, what does the term in parentheses approximate?

If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

1. allele frequencies will not change from one generation to the next 2. the actual genotype frequencies observed in the population will match the predicted genotypes based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle

Oparin-Haldane hypothesis

1. formation of organic molecules, the building blocks of cells (amino acids, nucleotides, simple sugars) 2. formation of polymers (long chains) of organic molecules, that can function as enzymes to carry out metabolic reactions, encode hereditary information, and possibly replicate (proteins, RNA strands) 3. formation of protocells; concentration of organic molecules and polymers that carry out metabolic reactions within an enclosed system, separated from the environment by a semipermeable membrane, such as a lipid bilayer membrane

The common features of life on earth

1. need for energy 2. organization in membrane-bound cells 3. genetic information 4. ability to replicate 5. change over time

identify common misconceptions about evolution

1. the individual undergoing natural selection does not evolve- it just lives or dies. instead, the population of organisms evolves. evolution is the change in allele frequencies, and only populations have allele frequencies. individuals just have alleles. 2. evolution is not a directed process with a fixed end point or best phenotype. the environment serves as a selective agent. an individual cannot "try" to evolve or "anticipate" the types of mutations it should have for the future. 3. selection doesn't always result in the best possible fit of an organism to its environment because of constraints and trade-offs. sometimes the same genes that code for a trait also cause a second, suboptimal trait to occur. 4. mutations are not caused or induced as a result of environmental change. variation is already present in the population. when the environment changes, those individuals that already have some beneficial variation that is suited to the new environment are more likely to survive and reproduce. organisms do not develop new mutations in response to the environmental change.

recognize misconceptions applied to evolution by natural selection

1. the individual undergoing natural selection does not evolve. the population of organisms is evolving. 2. evolution is not a directed process with a fixed end point. the environment serves as a selective agent. 3. organisms, and the genes they contain, do not behave for the "good of the species" . the most represented after encountering a selective agent are considered the "most fit" for that environment, in that time and space. 4. selection doesn't always result in the best possible fit of an organism to its environment b/c of constraints and tradeoffs.

Requirements for evolution by natural selection

1. the trait must be VARIABLE 2. HERITABLE 3. the struggle of existence 4. individuals with different alleles have differential survival and reproduction that is governed by the fit of the organism to its environment

Prophase chromosomes consist of two replicated sister chromatids joined at a centromere. Each individual sister chromatid contains:

A DNA duplex (double-stranded DNA molecule) identical to the other sister chromatid

Which of these factors are required for biological evolution to occur? Select all that apply. genetic variation in the population natural selection variation in acquired traits among individuals in the population a large population many generations

A Although natural selection is a powerful driver of evolution, it is just one possible cause of evolution. Some genes or traits evolve via random processes such as genetic drift, especially in smaller populations. Recall that biological evolution is defined as the change in the allele frequencies of a population over generations.

A new nucleotide is always added to the ____ of an existing nucleotide chain. 3' hydroxyl 5' hydroxyl 3' phosphate 5' phosphate new nucleotides can be added to either end of the nucleotide chain

A The tri-phosphate groups are the source of energy used to catalyze the DNA synthesis reaction. This is why DNA synthesis always occurs via addition of a 5' phosphate to a 3' hydroxyl on the existing DNA chain

Which of the following statements about NAD+ or NADH are true? Select all true statements. a. NAD+ is the oxidized form b. NAD+ is reduced to NADH by electrons from organic carbon molecules c. NADH reduces ATP synthase d. NAD+ reduces the electron transport chain

A & B

Although most species appear superbly adapted to their environment, closer examination often reveals suboptimal or even harmful alleles (think about diabetetes and other human ailments that have at least some hereditary component). How might evolutionary theory explain the presence of negative genetic variants in the population? The variant is maintained in the population at low frequencies because new mutations continue to occur. The variant may not actually affect fitness, because it affects people past their reproductive age. The variant is favorable in some circumstances, but unfavorable in others. The variant may be useful in the future, so is maintained in anticipation of possible change.

A B C

Platt's article, "Strong Inference," outlined a method of multiple working hypotheses that: fairly evaluates all the rational hypotheses one can construct to explain the observation of interest tends to neutralize the tendency to protect or seek support for a favored hypothesis promotes thoroughness and suggests lines of inquiry that might have been overlooked

A B C

Which event coincided with the extinction of dinosaurs? A bolide impact that created the Chicxulub crater The end of the Permian Massive volcanic eruptions that created the Siberian Traps All of the above

A bolide impact that created the Chicxulub crater End-Permian (251-252MYA) -the end-permian extinction happened then -single mass extinction in the phanerozoic - ~95% of all species -global photosynthesis rates declined bc everythings dead -co2 increased a lot siberian traps -up in siberia. but back then it was near equator -happened around the end-permian extinction

Taxon, Clade

A clade includes all of the descendants of their most recent common ancestor. A single taxon can be a clade by itself, because it is descended from an ancestor along its branch.

Which of the following is NOT an example of non-random mating?

A coyote mates with the available female it encounters as it travels across the coyote-population range

Which of these individuals has the greatest relative fitness in evolutionary terms?

A female squirrel that lived 4 years. She had 3 progeny each in years 3 and 4. All survived to reproduce.

How does the amount of energy change as we move up trophic levels?

A majority of the energy is lost moving up trophic levels

A new drug is being developed as a competitive inhibitor. Which of the following most accurately describes this drug?

A molecule that has a chemical structure similar to that of the substrate.

Many traits are controlled by multiple genes. In the simplified three-gene model of human skin pigmentation, A,B,C are all alleles for 1 unit of pigmentation, while a,b,c are alleles for zero units of pigmentation. This inheritance pattern is an example of:

A quantitative trait Polygenic inheritance

Many traits are controlled by multiple genes. In this model of human skin pigmentation, A,B,C are all alleles for 1 unit of pigmentation, while a,b,c are alleles for zero units of pigmentation. This inheritance pattern is an example of: A quantitative trait Polygenic inheritance A Gene-by-gene interaction A Gene-by-environment interaction

A quantitative trait Polygenic inheritance

An earthquake wipes out a mainland population of a small flowering herb with highly variable flower shapes. A small remnant contains the seven remaining plants in the population. The most likely outcome for the population as a result of this is

A reduction in flower shape trait variation

A. Determine if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium or not.

A researcher wants to know if gene flow is contributing to evolution of drought tolerance of pitcher plants in a specific bog. To detect if gene flow is naturally occurring in the bog, she could A. Determine if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium or not. B. Transplant pitcher plants from other populations into the bog. C. Transplant pitcher plants from this population into other bogs. D. All of the above. E. None of these.

Which of the following is/are true of sex-linked traits?

A sex-linked trait is always due to a gene located on a sex chromosome

Which of the following is/are true of sex-linked traits? A sex-linked trait will only ever affect one gender (only male or only females) A sex-linked trait is always due to a gene located on a sex chromosome A sex-linked trait is usually not heritable A sex-linked trait will only passed from mothers to sons

A sex-linked trait is always due to a gene located on a sex chromosome

All of the following are association with mitosis except: crossing over duplication of DNA followed by two divisions results in two cells, each identical to the orginal cell separation of sister chromatids from each other A and B

A&B- crossing over duplication of DNA followed by two divisions

What does the Calvin cycle need to fix carbon dioxide and regenerate RuBP (ribulose-bisphosphate)?

ATP reduced electron carriers

Which products of the light reaction are used by the Calvin cycle to fix CO2? a. O2, ATP and NADPH b. ATP and NADPH c. O2 and ATP d. O2 and NADPH e. ADP and NADP+

ATP and NADPH

ATP hydrolyze to ADP + Pi faster than ADP + Pi will bond to form ATP - the net reaction will be ATP hydrolysis

What will happen to the rate of oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis if DNP is added along with pyruvate? a. both ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption will decrease b. ATP synthesis will decrease, oxygen consumption will stay the same or increase c. ATP synthesis will increase, oxygen consumption will decrease d. both ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption will increase e. both ATP synthesis and oxygen consumption will stay the same

ATP synthesis will decrease, oxygen consumption will stay the same or increase

What would happen to ATP synthesis if oligomycin is added along with pyruvate? a. ATP synthesis would be reduced compared to pyruvate alone b. ATP synthesis would be stimulated compared to pyruvate alone c. ATP synthesis would be unaffected compared to pyruvate alone

ATP synthesis would be reduced compared to pyruvate alone

in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, the first codon translated is always

AUG

Which process(es) is/are common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

AUG as the translation initiation codon Regulation of transcription by proteins binding to specific sequences in the DNA Only eukaryotic cells have mRNA processing, alternative mRNA splicing, and regulation of transcription by chromatin.

Genes A and B are unlinked. An individual has genotype AaBb. Which of the following represents a gamete that this individual can make?

Genes A and B are unlinked. An individual has genotype AaBb. Which of the following represents a gamete that this individual can make? A Aa Ab AaBb none of these are gametes that could be made by this individual

Plant a seedling in a large pot with 100 kgs of soil. Water daily for 5 years. The tree now weighs 50 kgs. The soil is carefully recovered, dried and weighed. How much will the soil weigh?

About 100 kgs

B. have merged and split apart over millions of years

According to plate tectonics, for the past 560 million years, the continents that we see today A. have maintained their current shapes and locations B. have merged and split apart over millions of years C. sank under the oceans and then rose again D.have largely stayed in the same latitude while moving about E. have maintained their current shapes and locations

B. Mutation

Acting alone, which mechanism of evolution has the least impact on allele frequencies? A. Selection B. Mutation C. Gene flow D. Genetic drift

From the life table, at what age in this life history is the average production of offspring per female (ie, the reproductive value) maximal?

Age 2, acc to graph on slide 4 lecture 4.04

The biomass (dry weight) of a tree comes mostly from:

Air

RNA molecules play a central role in cellular information processing. can have catalytic activity. may have been the first self-replicating molecules. all of the above. none of the above

All of the above

Which of the following statements accurately describes a difference between meiosis and mitosis? Mitosis produces diploid cells and meiosis produces haploid cells Homologous chromosomes synapse during meiosis but do not synapse during mitosis Crossing over commonly occurs during meiosis, but it does not commonly occur during mitosis All of the above are correct Both a and c are correct

All of the above are correct

Net primary production varies more by biomass for _________ ecosystems.

Aquatic

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in

All respiring cells, using either oxygen or alternative electron acceptors

The evolutionary processes that influence population evolution from one generation to the next include

Alleles arriving in a population in a new migrant Creation of new alleles in a population

Which of these molecules, if radioactively labeled, will be incorporated into newly made CFTR protein?

Amino acids

An AaBbCc individual has the same phenotype as an AABbcc individual Because this is a quantitative trait where alleles 'sum' to yield the phenotype, it doesn't matter which particular GENES have a pigment (capital) vs nonpigment (lower case) allele; what determines the phenotypes is the total number of pigment vs nonpigment alleles.

Where does the common ancestor live now?

An ancestor, by definition, is no longer living. There are DESCENDANTS of the common ancestor living today, but the ancestral population itself is extinct. Had the question been worded, "where DID the common ancestor live," then the correct answer would have been the South American mainland

The conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin H2 by cyclooxygenases occurs spontaneously. This reaction is:

An exergonic reaction, releasing free energy

A newly discovered, single-celled organism has a circular chromosome and membrane phospholipids with ether-linked isoprenoid chains. Based on this information, this organism belongs to which domain of life?

Archaea

Archaea have phospholipids with isoprenoid chains instead of fatty acid chains

C. 0.32

Mammals in Australia are called marsupials, and diverged from the placental mammals very early in mammalian evolution. Australian sugar gliders and North American flying squirrels (see picture) have membranes of skin between their forelimbs and hindlimbs that allow them to glide between tree branches. Are their membranes homologous or analogous?

Analogous

In different strains of white Leghorn domestic chickens, female fecundity drops off faster with age in hens that lay many eggs early in life (Source: http://www.zo.utexas.edu/courses/Thoc/OptimalReproTactics.html). From the figure, what can you infer about survival and egg laying ability?

Animals with high fecundity tend not to live as long as animals with low fecundity.

The human body carries both Bacteria and Archaeal cells, primarily in the gut.How can you distinguish an Archaeal cell from either a Bacterial cell or the body's own cells, based on the membrane lipids? a. Archaea do not have phospholipids b. Archaea have phospholipids with isoprenoid chains instead of fatty acid chains c. Only Archaea have sphingolipids d. Only Archaea have sterols e. Archaea have phospholipids with trans-unsaturated fatty acid chains

Archaea have phospholipids with isoprenoid chains instead of fatty acid chains

Operons:

Are multiple protein coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a common promoter Are used as a mechanism of co-regulation The definition of an operon is multiple protein coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a common promoter. They are used as a means of co-regulating these proteins together (a single signal which turns on transcription of the operon results in production of multiple proteins). Operons are typically only present in prokaryotic genomes. Operators are DNA elements where transcriptional repressors bind to prevent transcription. Operons may have operators, but do not necessarily have them. The essential feature of an operon is that it is multiple protein coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a common promoter. The mechanism of regulation of that promoter is inconsequential.

A species of bird on a small island in the Pacific far from any other land is able to feed on seeds from 3 different plants. One plant produces large seeds with hard shells, that are easiest to crack open with larger beaks. One plant produces small seeds that are easiest to pick up with small beaks. The beak size of these birds is a heritable trait. Match what happens to this population under different conditions with different types of selection.

As a result of drought, plants that produce small seeds die out and only large seeds remain plentiful. Over the next two generations, the average beak size increases in this bird population-----------directional selection In normal years, birds with medium size beaks are able to forage on both small seeds and large seeds and have more progeny than birds with larger beaks or birds with smaller beaks---------stabilizing selection Over many years, the seed size differences become greater (the smaller seeds get smaller, the larger seeds get larger), so that birds with medium-sized beaks actually are disadvantaged, and produce less progeny than birds with either small beaks or birds with large beaks------------disruptive selection A mutation causes curved beaks. Birds that have two copies of this mutaiton have bent beaks that are not suitable for either small or large seeds. But birds with just one copy of this mutation have slightly curved beaks that can pick up seeds, and that allow the birds to groom themselves to eliminate a feather mite that causes serious harm to infected birds. Birds with no copies of this mutation (both copies of the gene are normal) have straight beaks, pick up seeds, but have difficulty grooming themselves against mites. Mites are a persistent parasite of these birds.--------balancing selection

Which drug(s) bind to the active site of cycloxygenases?

Aspirin and ibuprofen

Which of these statements is correct? evolution is a random process because mutation is a random process although mutation is random, evolution is directed by natural selection natural selection directs evolution by increasing the frequency at which favorable mutations occur populations acquire favorable mutations in anticipation of future environmental changes, like antibiotics

Hershey and Chase grew bacteriophage in the presence of either radioactively-labelled phosphorus or radioactively-labelled sulfur to test whether DNA or protein is the hereditary material. We know today that DNA is the hereditary material. If instead protein were the hereditary material, and the Hershey-Chase experiment unabmiguously supported this result, then Hershey and Chase would have observed: 32P in the pellet (with the bacteria) and 35S in the supernatant 35S in the pellet (with the bacteria) and 32P in the supernatant Both 32P and 35S in the pellet (with the bacteria) Both 32P and 35S in the supernatant Any of the above except a. Nothing, the experiment would not have been possible.

B The hereditary material from the phage must get into the bacterial cell in order to infect the cells. If protein were the hereditary material, then phage protein would have to get into the bacterial cells. Because 35S labels protein, then there would have to be 35S in the bacterial cell pellet if protein were the hereditary material. In reality DNA is the hereditary material, and Hershey-Chase actually observed 32P in the bacterial cell pellet, not 35S.

The Hershey-Chase and Meselson-Stahl experiments were good experiments because: They supported the hypothesis that the researchers believed was true They gave a clear answer by supporting only one hypothesis and ruling out all others They labeled radioactively biomolecules, making use of the technologies of the time They tested hypotheses using bacteria, which are cheap and easy to grow

B The major feature of a "good" experiment is that it can clearly differentiate between multiple hypotheses (support only one while ruling out all others). The particular method that an experiment uses to accomplish this goal (labeling biomolecules, using bacteria, etc) will vary based on the particular experiment. An experiment designed to give the answer a researcher believes is true is a poor experiment which does not help us learn new information.

What will happen to the proton gradient when oxygen becomes scarce? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stay the same

B When oxygen becomes limiting, as in hypoxia, the electron transport chain backs up, and the rate of proton pumping decreases. As a result, the proton gradient will be depleted by ATP synthase

The above image shows the generally accepted phylogenetic tree of life. Archaea and Bacteria are both prokaryotic forms of life. Is the term "prokaryote" monophyletic or paraphyletic? a. Monophyletic b. Paraphyletic

B prokaryotes are paraphyletic because the group does not include the common ancestor of archaea and eukaryotes

A newly discovered bacterial species has 35% G in its DNA. What is the % A? 35% 15% 30% 25% Not enough information to determine

B A always pairs with T, and C always pairs with G. Thus A=T and C=G, together totaling 100% of the nucleotides in an organism's genome.

What will happen to ATP production if the inner membrane becomes leaky to protons? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stay the same

B If the membrane becomes leaky to protons, then the proton gradient will dissipate. The electron transport chain will be pumping protons, but the protons recross the membrane through the leaks instead of through ATP synthase. Once the proton gradient becomes depleted, it cannot provide sufficient energy for ATP synthesis.

What will happen to ATP production when oxygen becomes scarce? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stay the same

B When oxygen becomes limiting, as in hypoxia, the electron transport chain backs up, and the rate of proton pumping decreases. As a result, the proton gradient will be depleted by ATP synthase. Once the proton gradient becomes depleted (a matter of some seconds), it cannot provide sufficient energy for ATP synthesis.

The microevolutionary processes that influence population evolution from one generation to the next include (select all that apply) Behavior without an underlying genetic cause Alleles arriving in a population in a new migrant Creation of new alleles in a population Phylogenetic patterns of related groups of species or taxa.

B C gene flow and mutations only happens to populations, not an entire species *microevolution isnt in the blog posts but it's on the openstax thing* Microevolution - evolution that focuses on a population Macroevolution - evolution that focuses on species, or a higher level (like a genus, family, etc)

What conditions lead to evolution of new species by natural selection? Select all that apply from the list below. unlimited resources competition for limiting resources heritable variation in the population large population

B&C There has to be competition so that there can be a bias (ok bad word choice but u get what i mean) between certain traits. and those traits have to be heritable obv for it to be passed on to the next generation.

What are the 3 domains of life? plants, animals, and bacteria plants, animals, and fungi bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes plants, animals, and protists bacteria, animals, and eukaryotes

Where is population growth the slowest? (Select all that apply).

After genetic drift has occurred, indicate all of the following that are most likely true: A population is better matched to its environment. The average phenotype has increased from the previous generation. The population is less genetically diverse than in the previous generation. The allele frequencies have changed from the previous generation.

C D Rmr! Genetic drift is when there's a sudden change in allele frequencies. It could be natural causes or man-made. Genetic bottleneck - sharp reduction in population caused by natural events (so basically genetic drift caused by natural events)

Select all that apply: The bacterial transformation experiments infecting mice with S and R strains (Griffiths 1928) and the purification of the transforming substance (Avery, McLeod, and McCarty 1944) demonstrated that A) Virulent (disease-causing) strains can survive heat better than non-virulent strains. B) The polysaccharides that cause virulent strains to form S-type smooth colonies are toxic. C) DNA is the hereditary material. D) Bacteria can acquire hereditary information from their environment. E) Bacteria can become antibiotic-resistant.

C and D On their own, the bacterial transformation experiments infecting mice with S and R strains (Griffiths 1928) showed that bacteria are capable of taking up hereditary information from the environment. These experiments did NOT confirm that DNA is the herditary material. Avery, McLeod, and McCarty (1944) followed up on the Griffiths experiments to purify the transforming substance and identify that it is DNA; however, this conclusion was not widely accepted until the phage experiments by Hershey and Chase.

Which of the following is NOT a difference between C3 and C4 plants?

C3 plants have Rubisco; C4 plants lack Rubisco and use PEP carboxylase instead

What drives annual carbon dioxide cycles?

CO2 decreases annually during the Northern hemisphere summer due to photosynthesis

Which of the following is true regarding primary production?

Can be fueled by light or chemical reactions Is the conversion of inorganic to organic matter Is typically followed by secondary production Is the basis of most food webs and chains

Adaptive radiations:

Can occur as a result of new ecological niche opportunities Can occur due to new adaptations such as limbs or wings Have occurred multiple times throughout Earth's history Often occur after major extinction events

The estrogen receptor protein is a positive transcriptional regulator which promotes transcription of estrogen target genes when bound to estrogen. A cell that does not have the estrogen receptor protein

Cannot transcribe estrogen target genes

Organic molecules must have which two elements?

Carbon and Hydrogen

Beer is produced when yeast ferment grains. What product released by fermentation gives beer its carbonation?

Carbon dioxide

E. 1/1000

Carbon-14 decays to nitrogen-14 with a half-life of approximately 5700 years. After 57,000 years, approximately what fraction of the initial carbon-14 would be left in an organic sample? A. 1/2 B. 1/10 C. 1/20 D. 1/100 E. 1/1000

Transcription and translation are physically separated in eukaryotic cells due to the nuclear envelope. Transcription and translation occur together in prokaryotes, with ribosomes binding to the mRNA as it exists the RNA polymerase holoenzyme. Both require transcription of DNA into mRNA order to translate proteins. Both use the same (universal) genetic code.

Cardiac myosin DNA is transcribed only in heart muscle cells With a few rare exceptions, all cells in the body contain the same DNA (genome). Yet they have wildly different functions and thus different proteins which carry out those functions. They have different functions because only a subset of the genes in the genome is expressed in each cell, due to differences in gene regulation in each cell type.

An early consequence of the release of oxygen gas by oxygenic photosynthesis was to make life on land difficult for aerobic organisms. cause iron in ocean water and terrestrial rocks to rust (oxidize). make it easier to maintain reduced molecules. prevent the formation of an ozone layer. change the atmosphere from oxidizing to reducing.

Causing iron in ocean waters and terrestial rocks to rust (oxidize)

Biological Evolution

Change in the heritable characteristics of a population over succeeding generations. changes in the gene pool/allele frequency

Which of the following is a key difference between natural selection and genetic drift?

Drift generates a random shift in phenotypic frequencies, while selection generates a shift toward the environmentally favored phenotype.

What are the main functions of polysaccharides?

Energy storage

What is a protocell?

Enzymes and ribozymes enclosed in a lipid bilayer bubble

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression differ in that:

Eukaryotic transcription and translation are separated in space and time, while prokaryotic transcription and translation occur together. Transcription and translation are physically separated in eukaryotic cells due to the nuclear envelope. Transcription and translation occur together in prokaryotes, with ribosomes binding to the mRNA as it exists the RNA polymerase holoenzyme. Both require transcription of DNA into mRNA order to translate proteins. Both use the same (universal) genetic code.

C. Sometimes

Evolution results in a better match of an organism and the environment. A. Yes B. No C. Sometimes

Which of the following factors will tend to increase the likelihood of an adaptive radiation event? Strong selection. Genetic drift. Evolutionary innovation. All of the above. None of the above.

Evolutionary Innovation *Adaptive radiation is when a population of a species disperes throughout an area and those seperate populations evolve to better adapt to their new areas. *Evolutionary Innovation - referring to evolution's ability to make use of random mutations in order to improve the chances of survival for a species.

Which of the following factors will tend to increase the likelihood of an adaptive radiation event?

Evolutionary innovation.

the RNA world hypothesis

Hypothesis that describes how the Earth may have been filled with RNA-based life before it became filled with the DNA-based life we see today. earlier forms of life may have relied solely on RNA to store genetic information and to catalyze chemical reactions

Colorblindness is caused by a recessive allele of a gene located on the X chromosome. A colorblind woman mates with a man with normal vision. Based on this information, what can we conclude? Select all that apply. Her father was colorblind. Her husband may be a carrier. Her daughters will be carriers Her sons will have probabilities of 50% normal vision, 50% colorblind. Her daughters will be colourblind.

Her father was colorblind. Her daughters will be carriers

Why should species richness increase with habitat area?

Higher species colonization probability Lower species local extinction probability

A woman who is blood type A-positive has a son who is B-negative and a daughter who is O-negative. The son's genotype is: I A I B Rr I B I B Rr I A I B rr I B I B rr I B irr

I B irr

C. The population is in HWE if the genotype frequencies are p^2, 2pq, and q^2 a population is in HWE if the actual genotype frequencies (what you observe in the population) match the predicted genotype frequencies (calculated based on allele frequencies). summing to "1" does NOT indicate HEW; p+q has to equal 1 if you have accounted for the entire population (same applies to p2+2pq+q2).

How can you tell if a population is in HWE? Select all that apply. A. The population is in HWE if p + q = 1 B. The population is in HWE if p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1 C. The population is in HWE if the genotype frequencies are p^2, 2pq, and q^2 D. None of these are mathematical indications that a population is in HWE

How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?

A. A theory is an overall explanation for a major phenomenon or observation and includes hypotheses; hypotheses treat more specific observations. In science, the term "theory" is reserved for models or ideas that explain multiple types of observations, and are well-supported by multiple lines of evidence. Hypotheses generally have a narrower scope. Thus the "theory" of evolution incorporates evidence and observations from cosmology, geology, paleontology, organismal biology, ecology, biochemistry, molecular biology and others.

How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis? A. A theory is an overall explanation for a major phenomenon or observation and includes hypotheses; hypotheses treat more specific observations. B. Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses. C. Theories define scientific laws; hypotheses are used to set up experiments. D. A hypothesis is an explanation for a major phenomenon or observation and includes theories; theories treat more specific observations.

D. rare, resistant mutant bacteria in the population survive antibiotic treatment

How does natural selection explain how bacterial populations evolve resistance to antibiotics? Select the single best answer. A. antibiotics cause resistance mutations in bacteria, that are then passed on to their progeny B. individual bacteria adapt to antibiotics C. individual bacteria adapt to antibiotics and pass on their adaptations to their progeny D. rare, resistant mutant bacteria in the population survive antibiotic treatment

The main difference between chemical evolution and biological evolution, is that chemical evolution can produce new characteristics and abilities, without depending on reproduction. Because of this, chemical evolution is being investigated as a possible cause for the origin of life.

How is chemical evolution different from biological evolution?

In the examples we've discussed in class, which of the following is a case of multiple allelism?

Human ABO blood type HLA locus

A. two species interbreed

Hybrids occur when A. two species interbreed B. species changes colour in the northern part of its range C. older adults look different from younger adults. D. as a by-product of sympatric speciation E. All of these.

POST-zygotic Reproductive Isolation

Indluces developmental failures and spontaneous abortion early on up to fully formed adult (viable) offsprings that are themselves sterile (infertile)

For the past 150 years there has been a major new input to the carbon cycle. What is it?

Industrialization has resulted in the burning of fossil fuels such as oil and coal, which releases CO2 into the atmosphere.

Which of the following treatments would be most effective in managing the respiratory symptoms caused by cystic fibrosis?

Inhalation of aerosolized hypertonic salt solution

Which of the following statements by Sherlock Holmes, the great ficitonal detective, express an important part of Platt's ideas of strong inference as applied to scientific inquiry?

It is a capital mistake to theorize before you have all the evidence. It biases the judgment. when you have excluded the impossible, whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth One should always look for a possible alternative, and provide against it

Why are there less mutations in the coding sequence of genes than predicted by mathematical models?

Mutations in protein coding sequences are more likely to be eliminated by natural selection than mutations in the rest of the genome.

What would be the consequence(s) for DNA synthesis if DNA ligase were defective?

Lagging strand synthesis would be incomplete; leading strand synthesis would be largely unaffected.

Mendel's laws explain inheritance patterns for simple traits, each determined by one gene with only two alleles. Match the law to the biological phenomenon underlying the law.

Law of segregation - each gamete carries only one allele for each gene Law of independent assortment - each gamete carries a random collection of alleles for different genes

Mendel's laws explain inheritance patterns for simple traits, each determined by one gene with only two alleles. Match the law to the biological phenomenon underlying the law.

Law of segregation- each gamete carries a random collection of alleles for different genes

vRecent analyses suggest that the atmosphere of pre-biotic Earth was most likely less reducing than assumed by Miller & Urey in their classic experiment. With a less reducing atmosphere, life could not have evolved on Earth life may have evolved near hydrothermal vents that supplied energy and a reducing environment synthesis of organic molecules would be more efficient organic molecules would more easily polymerize into macromolecular structures

Life may have evolved near hydrothermal vents that supply energy and a reducing environment

Lin is colorblind, caused by a recessive allele of a gene located on his X chromosome. His wife Sarah, and their daughter Lucy, both have normal vision. Based on this information, what can we conclude? Select all correct answer choices.

Lin's mother must have at least one color-blind allele Lucy is heterozygous for the color-blind trait Lin will pass on his color-blind allele to all of his daughters

If entropy always increases, then how do living organisms create macromolecules, cells, and complex higher-order structures?

Living organisms use energy to decrease their own entropy, but generate waste heat that increases the total entropy of the organism and its environment.

White eyes is a recessive X-linked trait in fruit flies. How could you determine whether a red-eyed female was heterozygous at the white eye gene locus?

Mate her with a male with the recessive allele Mate her with a male with the dominant allele

Crossing over increases chromosome diversity. At what stage does crossing over occur? Interphase S phase Mitotic Prophase Meiotic Prophase I Meiotic Metaphase I Meiotic Prophase II Meiotic Metaphase II

Meiotic Prophase I

Crossing over increases chromosome diversity. At what stage does crossing over occur?

Meiotic Prophase I Crossing over occurs only between homologous chromosomes. Homologous chromosomes separate at during anaphase I, so crossing over must occur before this point. Crossing over must also occur prior to metaphase I, because as soon as all chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate, the homologous separate. If crossing over were still occurring during metaphase, then the DNA would be ripped into fragments at the crossover points.

What cellular macromolecules contain large amounts of phosphorus?

Membrane lipids Nucleic acids

LInkage violates

Mendel's law of independent assortment

the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early twentieth century?

Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and, in turn, segregate during meiosis.

Some species of bacteria live inside eukaryotic host cells in an endosymbiotic relationship. What modern cellular organelles are thought to have evolved from prokaryotic endosymbionts?

Mitochondria and chloroplasts

The chemical equation for respiration of a molecule of glucose is: C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 + 6 H2O. This is the same reaction as when a marshmallow catches fire and burns. In this oxidation-reduction reaction, which molecule(s) is(are) reduced?

Molecular oxygen is reduced

The majority of actual weight (dry biomass) gained by plants as they progress from seed to adult plant comes from which one of the following substances?

Molecules in the air that enter through holes in the plant leaves.

A fish cell membrane will be more fluid at low temperature if it contains:

More cis-unsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids

Newborn babies have "brown fat" cells that make a mitochondrial inner membrane protein called UCP1, that acts as a channel for facilitated diffusion of protons. When this channel opens, and ATP synthesis decreases while oxygen consumption increases, what happens to the free energy released by the electron transport chain?

More of the free energy released by the electron transport chain is converted to heat energy

Which reagents added to the mud around the anode would boost electric power output?

More organic food molecules

If evolution were noticeably occurring in one of these opossum populations, its causes include

Mutation, natural selection, and genetic drift

Five populations A-E of damselflies are located along a river bank. The species has two genetically determined and heritable morphs, light and dark, with ratios indicated in the pie diagrams above. • The upstream populations C, D, and E are situated on black rock, while the downstream populations A and B live on white sand. • Bird predators use visual cues to detect the damselflies.• Damselflies who attempt to leave their habitat can migrate 1 km with 90% success and up to 5 km with 1% success. No damselflies have been observed migrating further than 10 km.• All five populations are large in size with approximately the same numbers of individuals. Which evolutionary mechanism can best explain why light morphs are more abundant than dark morphs in Population A in the presence of bird predators?

Natural selection when theres only one type instead of another now

Which mechanism(s) of evolution always increase(s) fitness and leads to adaptation? Natural selection Mutation Gene flow Genetic drift Sexual selection

Natural selection always increases the average fitness of a population and leads to adaptation. Most mutations are deleterious, and mutations are rare enough that they do not affect allele frquencies much at all. Gene flow tends to reduce the average fitness of a population. Populations are well-adapted to their local environments. Migrants from a population adapted to a different environment will introduce variants with lower fitness for the local environment. Genetic drift is random, and therefore usually not adaptive. Sexual selection can be non-adaptive by increasing homozygosity (inbreeding from assortative mating) or favoring extreme phenotypes (like peahens favoring peacocks with larger tail feathers).

stabilizing selection

Natural selection that favors intermediate variants by acting against extreme phenotypes

Which statement is true?

Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.

Are histone deacetylases (HDACs) associated with negative or positive control of gene expression? Why?

Negative control, because they make DNA less accessible for transcription

Similar organisms differentiate into different niches as a result of which type of interaction?

Negative effect on both organisms

If top-down control explains the size of songbird populations, which graph best illustrates the critical population interactions?

Negative linear hawks vs songbirds. First, recall that top-down means that higher trophic levels control lower ones. Then identify in the choices how the two organisms along each axis are trophically-related. Then remember that, on a graph, the Y-axis variable depends on the X-axis variable; in this case, if it's top controlling bottom, the lower trophic level (y-axis) depends on the higher trophic level (x-axis). So, find the graph with the higher level along the Y and the lower level along the X. If thinking graphically in terms of dependent and independent variables doesn't help you, think about what each graph means. A positive slope means as one species increases, so does the other. A negative slope means one species increases, the other *decreases*. Thinking about the biology behind each of the species and how they interact, would you expect a predator to increase or decrease the abundance of its prey?

Why should you get a flu vaccine every year?

New strains of flu virus arise rapidly; this year's strain may be antigenically different from last year's

C3 plants have a growth advantage over C4 plants in cool moist conditions because:

No additional ATP cost from C4 carbon fixation

Under which conditions are the lac structural genes expressed in the greatest amounts?

No glucose, high lactose

What happens in a community when two species directly compete for a limited resource?

The superior competitor wins

Which of the following represents a scenario where the biological and morphological species concepts would yield the SAME conclusions about whether two populations are different species? Eastern and Western meadowlarks look extremely similar, have overlapping territories, and are not observed to interbreed in the wild. Kingsnakes and corn snakes both display banded patterns, where kingsnakes have alternating bright red, white, and black bands, and corn sakes have orange, red, and black bands. Their ranges overlap in the southeastern United States, and they occasionally interbreed in the wild, producing viable, fertile offspring. Fossils of horse ancestors show distinct morphological structural changes over evolutionary history. Some populations are highly localized in both space and time, others fossils appear across many geographic regions and throughout greater evolutionary time. There is no information available about interbreeding. None of the above are situations where the biological and morphological species concepts would yield the same conclusions

None of the above are situations where the biological and morphological species concepts would yield the same conclusions

Two types of sticklebacks (fish), benthic and limnetic, live in Paxton Lake, British Columbia. The benthic type has the same number of chromosomes as the limnetic type. Researchers working on the sticklebacks have made the following observations: 1.Limnetic and benthic sticklebacks differ in number of dorsal spines, number of lateral plates, and presence of a pelvic girdle. 2.Limnetic and benthic stickleback males build their nests in the same region on the nearshore lakebottom of Paxton Lake. However, benthic males select heavily vegetated areas while limnetic males select bare areas of the lake bottom. Limnetic and benthic males differ in courtship behaviors. 3. When given a choice in laboratory experiments, male and female benthics and limnetics choose to mate with their own kind. 4. Benthics are stout-bodied fish with wide mouths that feed on invertebrates in the mud in the shallow margins of the lake. Limnetics are slim-bodied fish with narrow mouths that feed on zooplankton in the center of the lake. 5. 1-2% of sticklebacks in Paxton Lake are natural hybrids. 6. Lab-bred hybrid fish were released in a small BC lake that lacked a resident stickleback population. 20 years later, a small, healthy population of sticklebacks is well established in the lake. Which of these show evidence of pre-zygotic reproductive isolation between the two forms? Number 1 only Number 2 only Numbers 2, 3 Numbers 2, 5 Numbers 1, 3

Numbers 2, 3

Which of these molecules is a competitive inhibitor of Rubisco?

The oxygenase activity of Rubisco (choose all that apply, or none)

Occurs when oxygen levels are high and carbon dioxide levels are low Increases in hot weather

How is it that the open ocean supports the highest total net primary productivity of Earth's ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low?

Oceans have the greatest total area.

The electron transport chain in bacteria is located

On their plasma membranes

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding non-Mendelian inheritance patterns?

Polygenic inheritance is responsible for continuous phenotypes of traits

Which of the following is not an input to photosynthesis?

Oxygen

The origin of life on Earth required all of the following EXCEPT: oxygen gas in the water and atmosphere synthesis or accumulation of organic molecules linkage of small organic molecules to form polymers a mechanism for inheritance lipid vesicles that enclose enzymes and genetic material

Oxygen gas in the water and atmosphere

The majority of oxygen that exists in our atmosphere came from

Oxygenic photosynthesis

In the chloroplast, which complex produces oxygen gas by splitting water molecules? a. PS I b. PS II c. the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain d. ATP synthase

PS II

Fatty acids, like palmitic acid, stimulate cyclooxygenase activity allosterically. This means that:

Palmitic acid binds to a different site than the substrate

evolutionary radiations

Periods of increasing biodiversity and rapid speciation; occur when new biological niches become available, after mass extinctions, also occur in response to an evolutionary innovation

Hershey and Chase grew bacteriophage in the presence of either radioactively-labelled phosphorus or radioactively-labelled sulfur. Radioactive phosphorus will label:

Phage DNA

The gluten in the bun of this burger are a family of proteins, which of these elements is NOT a primary components of the bun?

Phosphorous

Algae gain energy from

Photosynthesis

In the chloroplast, which complex produces oxygen gas by splitting water molecules?

Photosystem II

Which of the following represents a food chain in this food web that decreases in energy converted?

Pine>Red squirrel>Red fox Food chains begin with producers and decrease in energy converted as more trophic levels are added.

Chromatin:

Plays a role in positive and negative gene regulation Is composed of DNA wrapped around histones Affects how loosely or tightly compacted the DNA is Chromatin (the complex of DNA and protein - primarily histones- that make up eukaryotic chromosomes) is present only in eukaryotes.

Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding non-Mendelian inheritance patterns? For a trait controlled by mulitiple alleles, an individual may have more than one allele present at a single gene locus controlling the trait Polygenic inheritance is responsible for continuous phenotypes of traits Gene-by-gene interactions occur when one gene controls many different traits Co-dominant inheritance results in a blending or intermediate phenotype between two extremes Non-Mendelian inheritance patterns cannot be explained by the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis Most traits are due to simple Mendelian inheritance patterns (one gene with two alleles that are either dominant or recessive)

Polygenic inheritance is responsible for continuous phenotypes of traits

Inbreeding can cause increased homozygosity in the population. Which of the following would also likely result in increase homozygosity?

Positive assortative mating

Which of these terms means "organisms that can make their own sources of organic carbon"?

Primary producers

Enzymes like cyclooxygenases increase the rate of the reaction by

Providing a transition state with lower activation energy

What pathways release the carbon atoms from glucose as CO2? Select all that apply.

Pyruvate oxidation Citric acid cycle

White eyes is a recessive X-linked trait in fruit flies. A cross between a white-eyed female fruit fly and a red-eyed male would generate which of the following types of progeny?

Red-eyed females and white-eyed males. The female must be homozygous for the recessive white allele. The female will pass the white allele to all her progeny. Because the trait is X-linked, the male only has one copy of the gene which must be the red allele. The male will pass the red allele to all his daughters, and no allele to all his sons (since the gene is located on the X chromosome but not the Y chromosome). Thus all female progeny will have red eyes due to the dominant red allele they inherit from the father, and all male progeny will have white eyes due to the white allele on the X chromosome they inherit from the mother.

Which of the following is produced during the citric acid cycle?

Reduced electron carriers

Connell (1961) noticed that two species of barnacle do not overlap in the Scottish marine intertidal: adult Chthamalus species (resistant to dessication) occur higher along the rocks than Balanus species (rapid grower with a heavy shell). Which would be the best way to directly test the hypothesis that Chthamalus is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by Balanus?

Remove Balanus but not Chthamalus from some rocks in the lower intertidal zone and monitor over time.

What hypotheses should we reject based upon the results of Karpicke and Blunt's study?

Repeated study is the most effective study method for long-term learning concept mapping is a better study method for inference test questions Students can reliably gauge their own learning

How would DNA replication be affected if ligase were absent?

Replication would result in multiple small segments of DNA instead of a complete molecule

How would DNA replication be affected if ligase were absent?

Replication would result in multiple small segments of DNA instead of a complete molecule. The RNA primers created by primase must be removed after DNA synthesis and replaced by DNA. These replacement nucleotides leave gaps between the 3'hydroxyl of one chain and the 5'phosphate of another chain. These gaps are sealed by ligase. In the absence of ligase, the newly synthesized DNA chain would not be contiguous but would be composed of short fragments (especially on the lagging strand side).

Properties of Life

Reproduce, DNA, evolve,

Metamorphic

Rock whose crytal structure is altered by extreme head and high pressure when buried miles deep in the Earth's crust; may be formed from either igneous or sedimentary rock. any fossils contained in sedimentary rock are destroyed during the transformation to metamorphic rock

The context for this and other questions in this module on cystifc fibrosis (CF) and the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductor (CFTR) protein is provided in this blost post: Cystic fibrosis, a case study for membranes and transport. CFTR is a plasma membrane protein with multiple transmembrane domains. In what cellular compartment will the CFTR protein be synthesized?

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

If Rubisco is inhibited, what will happen to the intermediates in the Calvin cycle? a. RuBP will increase, 3PG will decrease b. RuBP will decrease, 3PG will increase c. RuBP and 3PG will stay the same d. more G3P will be made

RuBP will increase, 3PG will decrease

Meiosis results in the formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus. Which of the steps takes place in both mitosis and meiosis?

Separation of sister chromatids.

What trophic level are songbirds?

Secondary Consumer

Which of the following statements is/are true? Select all correct answers.

Sedimentary rocks form on top of older, existing rocks Although newer sedimentary rocks always form on top of older rocks, crustal uplifts and collisions between plates can cause local deformations that tilt and sometimes even invert sedimentary layers

D. Directional

Selection that results in a shift in the population toward one extreme phenotype is best described as A. Disruptive B. Stabilizing C. Balancing D. Directional

B. Stabilizing

Selection that results in elimination of extreme phenotypes and enrichment for the 'average' phenotype in the population is best described as: A.Disruptive B. Stabilizing C. Balancing D. Directional

Which cartoon below shows the semi-conservative model of DNA replication? B

Semi-conservative replication results in one "old" DNA strand paired with a "new" DNA strand to form a double helix. Conservative replication reults in the "old" DNA double helix remaining and a "new" DNA double helix made of two "new" DNA strands. Dispersive replication resulits in "old" and "new" DNA fragments scattered throughout the resulting two DNA double helices.

Which chromosomal event in meiosis explains Mendel's principal of segregation?

Separation of homologs at anaphase I

Which of the following events takes place in both mitosis and meiosis? Formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus crossing over between homologous chromosomes Separation of sister chromatids Separation of the homologous chromosomes in anaphase Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Separation of sister chromatids

Some insects are now resistant to all commonly used pesticides. Which is the better explanation for this observation?

Some beetles carried alleles for resistance to the pesticide before contact with the pesticides and their numbers increased after pesticides became common.

B. allopatric

Speciation that can occur in a sexually reproducing species split into two populations by a geographic barrier to gene flow is best described as A. sympatric B. allopatric C. hybrid D. Any of the above. E. B and C

What did Darwin propose in his theory of evolution?

Species evolve by natural selection Currently existing species share a common ancestor

If species contains another in (resource breadth, # individuals using resource) graph

Species that contains, wins.

What group in this experiment best fits the purpose of a negative control?

Students who studied once for 5 min- ans Students who studied 4 times for 5 min each Students who studied 5 min, then drew concept maps Students who studied 5 min, then wrote what they could remember, 2x

Glycolosis is an example of:

Substrate level phosphorylation

Two types of sticklebacks (fish), benthic and limnetic, live in Paxton Lake, British Columbia. The benthic type has the same number of chromosomes as the limnetic type. Researchers working on the sticklebacks have made the following observations: 1.Limnetic and benthic sticklebacks differ in number of dorsal spines, number of lateral plates, and presence of a pelvic girdle. 2.Limnetic and benthic stickleback males build their nests in the same region on the nearshore lakebottom of Paxton Lake. However, benthic males select heavily vegetated areas while limnetic males select bare areas of the lake bottom. Limnetic and benthic males differ in courtship behaviors. 3. When given a choice in laboratory experiments, male and female benthics and limnetics choose to mate with their own kind. 4. Benthics are stout-bodied fish with wide mouths that feed on invertebrates in the mud in the shallow margins of the lake. Limnetics are slim-bodied fish with narrow mouths that feed on zooplankton in the center of the lake. 5. 1-2% of sticklebacks in Paxton Lake are natural hybrids. 6. Lab-bred hybrid fish were released in a small BC lake that lacked a resident stickleback population. 20 years later, a small, healthy population of sticklebacks is well established in the lake. The speciation process occurring in the sticklebacks is Allopatric Sympatric An example of polyploidy Both A and C. Both B and C.

Sympatric

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

Synapsis of chromosomes

Meiosis results in the formation of four new nuclei, each with half the chromosomes present in the parental nucleus. What order for the following events best illustrates a sequence of meiosis? Alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate. Separation of sister chromatids. Separation of the homologous chromosomes. Synapsis; pairs of homologous chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids associate with each other.

Synapsis; pairs of homologous chromosomes each consisting of two sister chromatids associate with each other. < Alignment of pairs of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate. < Separation of the homologous chromosomes. < Separation of sister chromatids.

How would DNA replication be affected if primase were not functional?

Synthesis of a complementary DNA chain would not initiate. DNA polymerase has to add a 5'phosphate to the 3'hydroxyl of an existing DNA chain. That means there has to be a starting point to extend from, so DNA polymerase cannot start DNA synthesis on its own. It relies on an enzyme called primase (actually a type of RNA polymerase) which CAN synthesize a starting point. DNA polymerase takes over after primase has created a short strand of RNA nucleotides. In the absence of primase, DNA synthesis would not begin.

What is the correct sequence of these major events in the origin of life? Use "<" to mean "before", "=" to mean "simultaneously with", and ">" to mean "after" Formation of protocells (protobionts) Synthesis of organic monomers Synthesis of organic polymers Development of a hereditary mechanism

Synthesis of organic monomers < Synthesis of organic polymers < Formation of protocells (protobionts) < Development of a hereditary mechanism

What is the correct sequence of these major events in the origin of life? (list in order) Formation of protocells (protobionts) Synthesis of organic monomers Synthesis of organic polymers Development of a hereditary mechanism

Synthesis of organic monomers < Synthesis of organic polymers < Formation of protocells (protobionts) < Development of a hereditary mechanism

Terrestrial biomes are defined by

Temperature and precipitation

Photosynthetic bacteria are grown in a closed flask. What will happen to the CO2 content in the flask if the flask is kept in complete darkness?

The CO2 content will increase

A. cooler than for most of Earth's history

The Earth's climate for the past 10,000 years (the period of recorded human history), has been ____ A. cooler than for most of Earth's history B. warmer than for most of Earth's history C. about average compared to most of Earth's history D. alternating between cool glacial periods and warm periods E. cooler than for most of Earth's history

DNA Replication

The RNA primers created by primase must be removed after DNA synthesis and replaced by DNA. These replacement nucleotides leave gaps between the 3'hydroxyl of one chain and the 5'phosphate of another chain. These gaps are sealed by ligase. In the absence of ligase, the newly synthesized DNA chain would not be contiguous but would be composed of short fragments (especially on the lagging strand side).

Oxygenic photosynthesis provides an important advantage over anoxygenic photosynthesis because (select all that apply)

The ability to extract electrons from water frees oxygenic photosynthesizers from dependence on reducing compounds like hydrogen sulfide

A. Prezygotic

The antennae of male moths can only detect sex pheromones released by a female in his species. This reproductive barrier is: A. Prezygotic B. Postzygotic

Which of the following is true of the DNA template strand?

The template strand is copied by RNA polymerase to make an RNA copy

A protein synthesized on cytoplasmic ribosomes may function in (select all that apply)

The cytoplasm The mitochondria The nucleus

You are investigating the role of a specific protein in an organism. If you wanted to distinguish between whether it bound to the substrate or bound to an allosteric regulator, which of the following pieces of evidence would support allosteric binding?

The enzyme changes shape after you add the protein you're investigating

Suppose the sequence below is the 5' end of the FOXP2 mRNA; what are the first three amino acids of the polypeptide that will be translated from it? 5'-UACGAGUAUGCCAGGU...

The first amino acid translated is always methionine, in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes (it is evolutionarily conserved across all lineages of life). In eukaryotes, the ribosome scans the mRNA, starting at the 5' end, until it encounters the first AUG codon; translation then begins. In prokaryotes, there is a specific sequence in the mRNA that directs that ribosome to the first AUG. For the sequence in this question, the first AUG is highlighted in bold: 5'-UACGAGUAUG CCAGGU... The first three codons are thus AUG, CCA, and GGU

B. RNA (a polymer of ribonucleotides)

The first genetic material was most likely a(n): A. protein (a polymer of amino acids) B. RNA (a polymer of ribonucleotides) C. DNA (a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides) with enzymatic activity D. ribonucleotide (a monomeric unit of RNA) E. DNA (a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides)

The proton gradient will decrease

The rate of ATP synthesis will decrease

Newborn babies have "brown fat" cells that make a mitochondrial inner membrane protein called UCP1, that acts as a channel for facilitated diffusion of protons. When this channel opens, what will be the effect on the rate of oxygen consumption? Assume there is no limitation on availability of either NADH or oxygen.

The rate of oxygen consumption will increase

Which membranes or organelles are responsible for transporting packaged proteins to the cell periphery?

The secretory vesicles

Many bacteria are capable of anaerobic respiration, meaning that________

They use a different terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen

What would be the most likely effect if a person were homozygous for mutations in the first intron of the otherwise wild type HBB gene?

They would make normal HBB protein and be healthy

At what point in the steps leading to the origin of life does chemical evolution switch to biological evolution?

There is broad agreement that abiotic synthesis of organic molecules and their spontaneous polymerization into macromolecules represent chemical evolution. Self-replicating RNA molecules can evolve if they can reproduce, while making copying errors that produce variation. This would be considered molecular evolution. Protocells containing RNA molecules may exhibit evolution by natural selection, if they contain an assortment of catalytic RNAs that can reproduce themselves and each other, and whose catalytic activities help the protocell grow and reproduce. Such protocells may even be considered actual living cells - the distinction between a complex protocell and a true living cells then becomes fuzzy.

If you then sample a second opossum population that has the same starting allele frequency, and find that the proportion of A1 homozygotes (A1A1 individuals) is 90%, you would likely say that

There is strong evidence that evolution is occurring in the second opossum population. bc 80--> 90 change is seen

The diagram below shows a cartoon of the FOXP2 gene, with a copy of the gene from three different individuals. Which individual is LEAST likely to have a genetic disorder associated with the mutation? ("X" indicates a mutation of any kind.)

These mutations could be insertions, deletions, or nucleotide changes. Individual 1 has a mutation at the 3' end of the gene; if this is a frameshift mutation, the impact on the protein will be minimal because it so close to the end of the gene. If it causes an amino acid change, it depends on the nature of the amino acid change and the importance of that region of the protein as to how detrimental the mutation will be. Individual 2 has a mutation in the middle of the gene. If this is a frameshift, the impact on the protein will be substantial, as all following amino acids will be wrong. If it causes an amino acid change, it depends on the nature of the amino acid change and the importance of that region of the protein as to how detrimental the mutation will be. Individual 3 has mutations in the promoter. Whether these are insertions/deletions or changes in nucleotides, mutations in the promotor are likely to impact the ability of RNA polymerase to bind and transcribe the gene.

The Hershey-Chase and Meselson-Stahl experiments were good experiments because:

They gave a clear answer by supporting only one hypothesis and ruling out all others The major feature of a "good" experiment is that it can clearly differentiate between multiple hypotheses (support only one while ruling out all others). The particular method that an experiment uses to accomplish this goal (labeling biomolecules, using bacteria, etc) will vary based on the particular experiment. An experiment designed to give the answer a researcher believes is true is a poor experiment which does not help us learn new information.

The sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA. What is the significance of the 3' and 5' ? 3'-GTCGAA-5'

They refer to the polarity (orientation) of the nucleotide chain, where 3' refers to the hydroxyl group and 5' refers to the phosphate group New nucleotides can only be added to the 3' end of a nucleotide chain, whether RNA or DNA DNA and RNA each have polarity, defined by the orientation of the sugar-phopsphate backbone of the molecule. the 5' carbon is attached to a phosphate group, and the 3' carbon is attached to a hydroxyl group. in both DNA and RNA, new nucleotides can only be added to the 3' end of the molecule.

Suppose the sequence below is a portion of the template strand of DNA in the FOXP2 gene. What is the RNA sequence transcribed from this template? 5'-GTCGAA-3' Include only the appropriate letters in your answer (no numbers or symbols), and write your answer in the 5' to 3' direction.

UUCGAC the template strand is the strand that is copied by RNA polymerase to make an mRNA. because nucleic acids are antiparallel, this means that the mRNA sequence is the same sequence and orientation as the coding strand, except it is composed of RNA instead of DNA. To answer this question you have to know the nucleotide pairs in RNA (vs DNA), and you have to know the orientation of the mRNA molecule. RNA has U instead of T, so between DNA and RNA the pairing would be A-U, G-C. Synthesis of both RNA and DNA always occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, and is always antiparallel to the template, so the 5' RNA nucleotide in this case would be U (paired with A).

Which of these patterns would you predict for the extinction on a habitat island? (Note the x-axis)

Upwards log growth. number of species vs rate graph The extinction rate is highest when the greatest number of niches are occupied. This means individuals cannot arrive and establish themselves in the new habitat because few niches are open, as they are already occupied by other species. Keep in mind that the Island Biogeography model is using predictive rates for niches open for immigrants on an island, not the actual rates seen of immigrants to an island.

Viewed from above the North Pole, the earth rotates counterclockwise on its axis. If the earth instead rotated clockwise on its axis, but nothing else changed, which of the following patterns would be altered most dramatically?

Upwelling locations along the coast. The location of rain shadows inland of coastal ranges

Increasing concentrations of atmospheric oxygen:

Was caused by the evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis Caused a major extinction event among obligate anaerobic organisms May have ultimately allowed for evolution of larger body size and greater organismal mobility

B and C

What conditions lead to evolution by natural selection? A.unlimited resources B. competition for limiting resources C. heritable variation in the population D. large population

E. A and B. Darwin did NOT propose that heritable changes appear or occur suddenly.

What did Darwin propose in his theory of evolution? A. Species evolve by natural selection B. Currently existing species share a common ancestor C. Evolution occurs by sudden occurrence of many heritable changes D. All of these. E. A and B.

D. Enzymes and ribozymes enclosed in a lipid bilayer bubble

What is a protocell? A. A bacterium B. An archaeal cell C. The first eukaryotic cell D. Enzymes and ribozymes enclosed in a lipid bilayer bubble E. The first cell with DNA as the genetic material

Synthesis of organic monomers < Synthesis of organic polymers < Formation of protocells (protobionts) < Development of a hereditary mechanism

What is the correct sequence of these major events in the origin of life? Use "<" to mean "before", "=" to mean "simultaneously with", and ">" to mean "after" 1st choice Formation of protocells (protobionts)2nd choice Synthesis of organic monomers3rd choice Synthesis of organic polymers4th choice Development of a hereditary mechanism

D. Cyanobacteria

Which free living cells were the earliest contributors to the formation of Earth's oxidizing atmosphere? A. Flowering pants B. Mitochondria C. Chloroplasts D. Cyanobacteria E. protocells

B. Gene flow

Which mechanism of evolution results from interbreeding after migration of one population into an area containing another population? A. Genetic drift B. Gene flow C. Non-random mating D. Mutation E. Selection F. None of these

A. Natural selection Natural selection always increases the average fitness of a population and leads to adaptation. Most mutations are deleterious, and mutations are rare enough that they do not affect allele frquencies much at all. Gene flow tends to reduce the average fitness of a population. Populations are well-adapted to their local environments. Migrants from a population adapted to a different environment will introduce variants with lower fitness for the local environment. Genetic drift is random, and therefore usually not adaptive. Sexual selection can be non-adaptive by increasing homozygosity (inbreeding from assortative mating) or favoring extreme phenotypes (like peahens

Which mechanism(s) of evolution always increase(s) fitness and leads to adaptation? A. Natural selection B. Mutation C. Gene flow D. Genetic drift E. Sexual selection

A, C, and D The geological fossil record generally agrees quite well with phylogenetic reconstruction from DNA sequence comparisons. Scientists now use one to help resolve ambiguities in the other. Biological evolution refers only to populations - change in the frequency of heritable variants in a population over generations. Therefore, it cannot apply to an individual (unless studying the population of microbes in the individual's gut, or the population of cancer cells in an individual patient's tumor). Although genetic variants that may not be useful at the time may be useful in an altered environment of the future, they are not maintained in anticipation of such changes, because no organism or population can predict the future. Predictable, recurring changes (day/night, seasons) are a different story. Changing environments do not induce new mutations (unless we're talking about exposure to mutagens), and they certainly do not induce new mutations that are favorable for adaptation. Changing environments select among pre-existing genetic variants in the population. Evolution and natural selection are constrained by the variants that exist in the population. These variants in turn are constrained and influenced by the prior evolutionary history of the organism. For example, the optimal design for humans may be to have another pair of eyes in the back of our heads, or another pair of arms, but that kind of genetic variation is not possible given the constraints of mammalian body plans, which are constrained by tetrapod body plans, that evolved upon a framework of vertebrate body plans.

Which of the following is NOT true of evolution? A. Evolutionary relationships determined by the geological record generally do not match evolutionary relationships determined by gene sequence comparisons B. Only populations can evolve; individual organisms cannot evolve C. The gene pool of a species may containe alleles that are not useful now in anticipation of a time when changing environmental conditions will make them useful D. Changes in the environment induce (cause) new adaptive (helpful) heritable variation among individuals in the population E. Natural selection does not always result in an ideal fit between an organism and its environment

C. Drift generates a random shift in phenotypic frequencies, while selection generates a shift toward the environmentally favored phenotype.

Which of the following is a key difference between natural selection and genetic drift? A. Drift occurs in the absence of natural selection. B. Drift favors the phenotype that increases survival, while selection generates a shift in frequencies towards the more common phenotype. C. Drift generates a random shift in phenotypic frequencies, while selection generates a shift toward the environmentally favored phenotype. D. Drift is directed towards the less favored phenotype, while selection is directed toward the more favored phenotype.

A. Natural selection works on variation already present in a population.

Which of the following statements is/are accurate? A. Natural selection works on variation already present in a population. B. Evolution by natural selection results from selection on both heritable and non-heritable traits. C. Individuals evolve through natural selection. D. Organisms evolve structures that they need. E. None of the statements are true.

Which of the following is true of genomes? a. Larger, more complex organisms typically have larger genomes than smaller, simpler organisms b. The vast majority of the human genome is composed of protein-coding genes c. The genome size of most prokaryotes correlates with metabolic complexity d. In eukaryotic genes, multiple exons allow creation of alternatively spliced mRNAs from a single gene

c. The genome size of most prokaryotes correlates with metabolic complexity d. In eukaryotic genes, multiple exons allow creation of alternatively spliced mRNAs from a single gene

The electron transport chain in bacteria is located a. in their mitochondrial inner membrane b. in their mitochondrial outer membrane c. on their plasma membranes d. in the cytoplasm e. in the nucleoid

c. on their plasma membranes

Which of the following is NOT one of the six major elements that make up biological macromolecules?

calcium

Which statement describes the canary with the greatest biological fitness?

canary that lives to be 2 years old and has four offspring, all of which survive to reproduce themselves

The estrogen receptor protein is a positive transcriptional regulator which promotes transcription of estrogen target genes when bound to estrogen. A cell does not have the estrogen receptor protein

cannot transcribe estrogen target genes

Considering the Lotka-Volterra predator-prey equations, the variable a represents:

capture rate

What are the substrates for Rubisco (ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase)?

carbon dioxide and RuBP (ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate)

The cardiac myosin gene is located on human chromosome 14. Cardiac myosin is a protein found only in heart muscle cells. What best explains the presence of cardiac myosin in heart muscles but not other types of cells?

cardiac myosin DNA is transcribed only in heart muscles

The Origin of Species

carefully reasoned that all life on earth evolved from a common ancestor

evolution

change in the gene pool of a population, measurable as changes in allele frequencies

causes of large swings in global temperatures

changes in solar output, extreme volcanic activity, meteor strikes, and atmospheric greenhouse gasses (like carbon dioxide)

In eukaryotes, the first step in the control of gene expression is _

chromatin remodeling

how do eukaryotic genomes differ from prokaryotic genomes

chromosomes are linear, genomes are fragmented, genes are split with non-coding intron sequences

If cells are fed 14C-labeled fatty acids to metabolize, what pathway(s) will release radioactive 14CO2? a. glycolysis b. pyruvate oxidation c. citric acid cycle d. electron transport chain e. both pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle

citric acid cycle

What is a protocell? a. bacterium b. archaeal cell c. the 1st eukaryotic cell d. enzymes and ribozymes enclosed in a lipid bilayer bubble e. the first cell with DNA as the genetic material

enzyme and ribozymes enclosed in a lipid bilayer

unconformities

erosion can cause loss of layers and gaps in the rock record

What activates transcription of estrogen-responsive genes?

estrogen bound to estrogen receptor

A mutation in the DNA binding domain of the estrogen receptor would most likely lead to

estrogen-responsive genes not being transcribed estrogen receptor never binding to the estrogen-response element the production of non-functional estrogen receptor

Microfossils with cells that appear to have nuclei would indicate what domain of life?

eukarya

chromatin is only present in

eukaryotes

In what ways do eukaryotic genomes differ from prokaryotic genomes?

eukaryotic chromosomes are linear; prokaryotic chromosomes are circular eukaryotic genomes are fragmented into multiple chromosomes - bacterial genomes typically have a single chromosomes eukaryotic genes are often split, with non-coding intron sequences interrupting exons

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene expression differ in that:

eukaryotic transcription and translation are separated in space and time, while prokaryotic transcription and translation occur together

five key mechanisms that cause a population, a group of interacting organisms of a single species, to exhibit a change in allele frequency from one generation to the next

evolution by: mutation, genetic drift, gene flow, non-random mating, and natural selection

apply the principles of evolution by natural selection to pre-biotic scenarios

evolutionary processes driving populations of self-replicating RNA molecules or protocells containing RNA cells. RNA molecules that replicated imperfectly produce daughter molecules with slightly different sequences. the ones that replicate better would have more progeny. molecular evolution of self-replicating RNA molecules or protocell populations with RNA molecules would favor the eventual formation of the first cells

Rank the speed of exchange of carbon in the ecosystem from slowest to fastest. Note: Assume some exchange levels may be approximately equal.

exchange within the ocean = exchange between the soil and atmosphere < exchange between the ocean and atmosphere < fossil fuel emissions = plant growth and decay

The RNA segments joined to one another by spliceosomes are

exons

DNA polymerase can start DNA synthesis on its own. True or false?

false

Species are going extinct, but no new species are forming on Earth

false

True or false: according to Platt, the purpose of designing and performing an experiment is to prove a hypothesis.

false

Speciation can only be observed over millions of years

false guh

True or False: Speciation always occurs in allopatry because there's no mechanisms for two species to evolve in sympatry.

false. allo and sympatry

Crossing over is most likely to occur between genes which are:

far apart on the same chromosome

Crossing over is most likely to occur between genes which are: close together on the same chromosome far apart on the same chromosome on different chromosomes

far apart on the same chromosome

Crossing over is most likely to occur between genes that are:

far apart on the same chromosome Crossing over is a random event. The farther apart two genes are on a chromosome, the more locations there are available for a crossover event to occur.

crossing over is most likely to occur between genes that are:

far apart on the same chromosomes

disruptive selection

favors individuals at both extremes of the phenotypic range

Mendel's laws can be explained by the behavior of chromsomes during meiosis (information that he didn't have at the time). What behavior of chromosomes below explains the law of segregation? homologous chromosomes synapse during prophase I tetrads align randomly during metaphase I homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I replicated chromosomes condense during prophase II replicated chromosomes align randomly during metaphase II sister chromatids separate during anaphase II

homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I

phylogenic species concept

how closely related individuals are evolutionarily

interpret and construct phylogenic trees as illustrations of evolutionary relationships

how evolutionary biologists diagram evolutionary relationships among organisms. vertical lines called branches represent a lineage, and nodes are where they diverge, representing a speciation event from a common ancestor. the base of the tree is called the root, and the root node represents the most recent common ancestor. time is represented by proceeding from the oldest at the bottom to the most recent at the top. a clade is a group of taxa that includes a common ancestor and all of its descendants, and is also monophyletic. taxa is a species or gene

In this equation, (modeling competition) alpha expresses

how individuals species 2 compete with species 1. slide 17 lecture 4.05

What does the intersection of immigration and extinction indicate on graphs of biogeography?

how many species can live there

In the examples we've discussed in class, which of the following is a case of multiple allelism?

human ABO blood type HLA locus

For a molecule to be considered organic, it should have a carbon atom with a covalent bond to___ a. nitrogen b. phosphorus c. oxygen d. hydrogen e. all of the above

hydrogen

Both alpha- and beta-hemoglobin chains have mostly alpha-helices, and no beta-sheets. What forces or bonds are responsible for formation and stabilization of alpha-helices?

hydrogen bonds

What type of bonds link nucleotides on anti-parallel DNA strands?

hydrogen bonds

Which of the bonds below are responsible for forming the secondary structures of proteins? a. peptide bonds b. hydrophobic interactions c. ionic bonds d. hydrogen bonds e. disulfide bonds

hydrogen bonds

- Hydrogen bond- btwn N&O - Nitrogenous base - btwn C&O - Sugar-phosphate backbone - entire outside part - Phosphodiester bond - on the backbone PO4

hydrogen bonds form between complementary bases. the sugar-phosphate backbone lies on the outside of the DNA double helix, and the nitrogenous bases lie inside. phosphodiester bonds, between the 5' phosphate of one nucleuotide and the 3' hydroxyl of the next, physically link adjacant nucleuotides to form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA.

Which of these amino acids would most likely be present in the transmembrane domains of aquaporin facing the fatty acid tails of the phospholipids?

hydrophobic amino acid like valine

Put the steps to unique to mitosis i. homologues separate ii. crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids iii. chromosomes condense & homologues pair iv. new diploid cells form

iii, ii, i

The Foxp2 protein is a transcription factor which binds to DNA at specific genes to cause them to be transcribed. Analysis of KE family DNA sequences identified a single nucleotide mutation in the FOXP2 gene located on chromosome 7 region 7q31 which correlated with the speech disorder. This single nucleotide change results in an amino acid change from an arginine to a histidine. Arginine is positively charged and has a long, linear side group. Histidine is sometimes positively charged, and sometime neutral, and has a bulky ring structure side group. The mutant Foxp2 protein cannot bind DNA. These two amino acids are shown below. Where in the Foxp2 protein do you predict this amino acid is located?

in a region of the protein which binds to DNA; the mutation probably directly affects the ability of the protein to bind DNA

If you inherited one allele for a genetic disorder for kidney disease from your mother that is known to be located somewhere on chromosome 12, the disease allele will be present:

in all of your somatic (body) cells in half of your gametes (sperm or eggs)

The gene that controls blood type is present on chromosome 9, and has three different alleles: A, B, and I. If you inherited the A allele from your mother and the B allele from your father, the A allele will be present in

in all of your somatic cells only half of the gametes

in all of your somatic cells and in half of your gametes An allele is a specific versions of a gene, present on one of the two homologous chromosomes. The allele will be present in all somatic cells of the body, because they all have the same genome. The allele will be present in only half of the gametes, because each gamete contains only one version of each homologous chromosome, and thus either the normal or the disease allele in this example.

If you inherited an allele for a genetic disorder for kidney disease from your mother that is known to be located somewhere on chromosome 12, it will be present:

in all your somatic cells

In the nitrogen cycle below, nitrogen that is currently in living organisms is

in nucleic acids Nitrogen-fixing organisms are able to convert nitrogen into forms accessible to all organisms; N is required by all life for protein and nucleic acids synthesis.

Hemoglobin is a water-soluble, globular protein made of 2 alpha-hemoglobin and 2 beta-hemoglobin polypeptide chains. Hemoglobin is present in large amounts in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. Where in the cell are the alpha- and beta-hemoglobin proteins made?

in the cytoplasm, by free cytoplasmic ribosomes

Webster (1994) discovered that rats infected with Toxoplasma gondii no longer fear the smell of cats. Cats are the final host for T. gondii. This is an example of a parasite altering host behavior to

increase parasite fitness.

The synthesis of fatty acid desaturases (FADS) is regulated by temperature in many single-celled organisms. When the surrounding water or air temperature decreases substantially, should the cell increase or decrease the synthesis of FADS to prevent what from happening to the membrane? a. increase the synthesis of FADS to keep the membrane from becoming too solid/rigid b. decrease the synthesis of FADS to keep the membrane from becoming too solid/rigid c. increase the synthesis of FADS to keep the membrane from becoming too fluid/leaky d. decrease the synthesis of FADS to keep the membrane from becoming too fluid/leaky

increase the synthesis of FADS to keep the membrane from becoming to solid/rigid

The effect of mutation on a population (select all that apply)

increases genetic diversity

Many mature mRNAs in eukaryotes are much shorter than primary mRNA transcripts because

introns are removed

In the presence of cyanide, what would happen to the rate of ATP synthesis in the mitochondria?

it would decrease

You are now convinced that you know the cause of death for these victims and quickly report it back to the police as this is a very dangerous situation. After realizing that the electron transport chain was no longer functioning, you started to suspect poisoning and ran a blood test for various poisons that you knew affected the electron transport chain. The test of all seven patients came back positive for cyanide. Cyanide irreversibly binds to cytochrome c oxidase (CcOX) of the electron transport chain and prevents the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final electron acceptor. In the presence of cyanide, what would happen to the flow of electrons down the electron transport chain (ETC)?

it would decrease

You are now convinced that you know the cause of death for these victims and quickly report it back to the police as this is a very dangerous situation. After realizing that the electron transport chain was no longer functioning, you started to suspect poisoning and ran a blood test for various poisons that you knew affected the electron transport chain. The test of all seven patients came back positive for cyanide. Cyanide irreversibly binds to cytochrome c oxidase (CcOX) of the electron transport chain and prevents the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final electron acceptor. In the presence of cyanide, what would happen to the proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane?

it would decrease

To which part of the centromere do mitotic spindle fibers attach?

kinetochore

what is the inducer of the lac operon?

lactose

Why does HW assume an extremely large population size?

large population minimizes the likelihood of genetic drift

According to the Shannon Diversity Index, a species composition ratio of 7:1:1 is ____________ a ratio of 3:3:3.

less diverse than

In the energy diagram shown on the right, which letter corresponds to the free energy change of the reaction? a. letter a b. letter b c. letter c d. letter d e. letter e

letter d ...

Short segments of newly synthesized DNA are joined into a continuous strand by

ligase

White eyes is a recessive X-linked trait in fruit flies. How could you determine whether a red-eyed female was heterozygous at the white gene?

mate her with a male with the recessive allele

Match each enzyme or factor involved in DNA replication to its function: -ligase, primase, helicase, origin of replication, DNA polymerase -nucleotide sequence where the two strands of the DNA double helix are separated, to allow DNA replication to begin -break the hydrogen bonds holding together the two strands of the DNA molecule -add new nucleotides to an existing nucleotide chain -seal together DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand -synthesize short RNA sequences to allow DNA synthesis to initiate

ligase - seal together DNA fragments synthesized on the lagging strand primase - synthesize short RNA sequences to allow DNA synthesis to initiate helicase - break the hydrogen bonds holding together the two strands of the DNA molecule origin of replication - nucleotide sequence where the two strands of the DNA double helix are separated, to allow DNA replication to begin DNA polymerase - add new nucleotides to an existing nucleotide chain

match deez

lin's mother must have at least one color-blind allele lucy is heterozygous for the color-blind trait lin will pass on his color-bind allele to all of his daughters

These growth curves from Wolfe-Simon et al. 2011 show ____

logistic growth of the bacterial population

The estrogen receptor protein is a positive transcriptional regulator which promotes transcription of estrogen target genes when bound to estrogen. A mutation in the estrogen-binding domain of the protein that made it incapable of binding estrogen would most likely result in:

low levels of transcription of estrogen target genes, regardless of the amount of estrogen

At what age are the most offspring per female produced?

lx*mx ! This is the product of how many females are alive by how many offspring are generally produced, aka lxmx. Search for the age at which this number is maximized.

only eukaryotic cells have

mRNA processing, alternative mRNA splicing, and regulation of transcription by chromatin.

Which of these have been associated with, and may have contributed to, the end-Permian mass extinction? an increase in atmospheric oxygen to near-present day levels massive flood basalt eruptions that created the Siberian Traps a change in oceanic chemistry a large increase greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide and methane the Cambrian explosion

massive flood basalt eruptions that created the Siberian Traps A change in oceanic chemistry A large increase in greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide, and methane

Which of these are possible origins for organic molecules before life began on Earth?

meteorites and dust from outer space synthesis from inorganic compounds at deep sea hydrothermal vents synthesis from inorganic compounds in the atmosphere, with energy from UV light or lightning

Starting with point "a," tap or select the high population density dot that would generate a pattern of density independence.

middle dot. slide 23 lecture 4.03. top left graph

PRE-zygotic Reproductive Isolation

might include behavioural differences in mating song or dance, differences in when and where individuals attempt to mate, or sperm-egg incompatiblity

Which of these eukaryotic organelles is NOT part of the endomembrane system, nor derived from the endomembrane system?

mitochondria chloroplasts

How do mitochondria maintain a supply of NAD+ to run pyruvate oxidation and the citric acid cycle?

mitochondria oxidize NADH to NAD+ by reducing the electron transport chain

All plants and animals have mitochondria, but only plants have chloroplasts, which enable the formation of chemical energy from light through the same mechanism as in cyanobacteria. The endosymbiosis theory would predict that:

mitochondria were engulfed in the ancestor of all eukaryotic life; chloroplasts were engulfed later.

During RNA processing a(n) _____ is added to the 5' end of the RNA.

modified guanine nucleotide

A major cause of coral bleaching in recent years has been warmer ocean temperatures. The membranes of the photosynthetic algal symbiont appears particularly sensitive to increase in temperature. At higher temperatures, membranes with a given lipid composition will become _____

more fluid, and more leaky

Predator-prey interactions have led to the co-evolution (in the direction indicated) of all of the following except

more showy tails as secondary sexual traits in male birds

You examine fossils of extinct trilobites. All the specimens look identical and were collected from the same fossil bed. They are members of the same

morphological species. bc they look similar

Why is accounting for survivorship in calculating lxmx always going to yield a smaller population size estimate than measuring fecundity alone?

mortality Individuals fail to survive (die) at each age class, so survivorship is always of declining probability, falling from 1 to 0 over the possible lifespan of an individual. A hypothetical female of age 5 should produce 6.5 kids that year, but very few females live to reach age 5.

what are operons

multiple coding genes transcribed as a single mRNA from a common promoter

genetic drift

occurs when the alleles that make it into the next generation in a population are a random sample of the alleles in a population in the current generation. by random chance, not every allele will make it through, and some will be over represented while others decline in frequency regardless of how well those alleles are encoded for phenotypic suitability to the environment, so sometimes drift reduces the average fitness of a population for its environment. populations are always under the influence of this. the effect is more subtle in larger populations. causes changes in populations by chance alone.

mutation

occurs whenever a mistake in the DNA occurs in the heritable cells of an organism. the raw stuff of evolution because it creates new heritable phenotypes, irrespective of fitness or adaptation, alone, do not have much of an effect on evolution. combined with other mechanisms of evolution can result in meaningful changes in allele frequencies in a population. generations variation.

E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

one low-density and one intermediate-density band

How many chromosomes are shown below

one replicated

If you inherited one allele for a genetic disorder for kidney disease from your mother that is known to be located somewhere on chromosome 12, the protein encoded by the disease allele will be present:

only in the cells where the gene is expressed

The diagram shows a simple microbial fuel cell (Mudwatt by KeegoTech). Soil bacteria in the anoxic zone grow on the surface of the anode, by metabolizing organic molecules in the soil. They carry on anaerobic respiration, and use the anode as the terminal electron acceptor. These electrons are then conducted by a wire to the cathode at the surface of the soil, where the electrons combine with oxygen gas to make water. What is the ultimate source of electrons collected by the anode?

organic molecules

Addition of pyruvate to the suspension of mitochondria stimulates oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis. Oligomycin is a drug that inhibits the transfer of electrons from NADH to the mitochondrial electron transport chain. What would happen to oxygen consumption if oligomycin is added along with pyruvate? a. oxygen consumption would be inhibited compared to pyruvate alone b. oxygen consumption would be stimulated compared to pyruvate alone c. oxygen consumptin would be unaffected compared to pyruvate alone

oxygen consumption would be inhibited compared to pyruvate alone

What data in the autopsy seems inconsistent with hypoxia as the immediate cause of death?

oxygen levels in the patients' blood at 110 mm Hg

If photosynthetic bacteria that had only a type I photosystem were cultured in the flask with the oxygen electrode, what would happen to oxygen levels in the flask when illuminated with light? a. oxygen levels will increase b. oxygen levels will decrease c. oxygen levels will remain constant

oxygen levels will decrease

Reproductive isolation

reduces gene flow between populations include PRE-zygotic or POST-zygotic

Where is NPP (per unit area) the highest?

reefs and algal beds

the Cambrian "explosion"

refers to an increase in biodiversity of multicellular organisms at the start of the Cambrian, 540 million years ago.

he action of helicase creates

replication forks and replication bubbles

how would DNA replication be affected if ligase were absent

replication would result in multiple small segments of DNA instead of a complete molecule

The alleles of the HLA-A and HLA-B genotype for Molly Nash are always listed together because the HLA-A and HLA-B

represent two tightly linked gene

The alleles in the HLA-A and HLA-B genotype are always listed together because the HLA-A and HLA-B.

represent two tightly linked genes

The alleles in the HLA-A and HLA-B genotype are always listed together because the HLA-A and HLA-B. are polygenic are an example of multiple allelism represent two partially linked genes represent two tightly linked genes represent the same gene none of these.

represent two tightly linked genes

When a regulated promoter, such as the promoter of the Lac operon, is bound by a negative regulatory protein and a positive regulatory proteins at the same time, the result is

repression of transcription

When a regulated promoter, such as the promoter of the Lac operon, is bound by a negative regulatory protein and a positive regulatory protein at the same time, the result is

repression of transcription.

a mutation in the DNA binding domain of the lac repressor would lead to

repressor protein never binding to the operator site

resource partitioning

nonrandom mating

results from mating choice

What is not associated with meiosis

results in 4 cells identical to original cell

All of the following are associated with meiosis, except 1. crossing over 2. duplication of DNA followed by two divisions 3. produces gametes 4. results in four cells, each identical to the original cell 5. homologous chromosomes separating into two cells 6. reduction in the chromosome number from diploid to haploid

results in four cells, each identical to the original cell

where does translation of cytoplasmic proteins occur

ribosomes

In a eukaryotic cell, secreted proteins and integral plasma membrane proteins are synthesized by___

ribosomes docked to the rough ER

What has the greatest number of protein coding genes?

rice

Variation for traits within a population is a prerequisite for evolution because offspring that look like their parents do so because they share genes for those traits. variation prevents mutations from arising, which might be detrimental to the offspring. selective agents act on traits, differentially removing or retaining individuals with certain trait values. otherwise all offspring would have traits values that were the averages of their parents values.

selective agents act on traits, differentially removing or retaining individuals with certain trait values.

What causes cells to become haploid during meiosis?

separation of homologous chromosomes

what step takes place in both mitosis and meiosis

separation of sister chromatids

The reason for differences in the sets of proteins expressed in a nerve and a pancreatic cell of the same individual is that nerve and pancreatic cells contain different

sets of regulatory proteins

homologous structures

similar structures due to inheritance from a common ancestor (ie. tail fins of dolphins, orcas, and whales)

analogous structures

similar structures that evolved independently (ie. tail fins of orcas and sharks)

Which type of mutation is MOST likely to render a protein non-functional?

single nucleotide deletion near the 5' end of the coding region

which type of mutation is most likely to render a protein non-functional

single nucleotide deletion near the 5' end of the coding region

Which type of mutation is MOST likely to render a protein non-functional?

single nucleotide deletion near the 5' end of the coding region any nucleotide deletion that is NOT in multiples of three will impact the reading frame, causing every subsequent amino acid to be 'wrong'. A framreshift near the 5' end of the mRNA will have much greater impact than one near the 3' end of the mRNA

Spliceosomes are composed of

snRNPs and other proteins

Mammalian cells are cultured in medium containing approximately 0.15 M NaCl. What will happen if the cells are put into water containing only 0.05 M NaCl? a. water will enter the cell and cause the cell to swell and perhaps burst b. water will exit the cell and cause the cell to shrivel up c. nothing will happen because the cell membrane is impermeable to water molecules

water will enter the cell and cause the cell to swell up and perhaps burst

Explain the connection between understanding meiosis and understanding patterns of inheritance of genetic traits.

we inherit half of our alleles from each of our parents via sex cells (sperm and eggs); meiosis is the process that generates the genetic material in sex cells

Allopatric Speciation

when two populations are isolated from each other (allopatry), creating the absence of gene flow. Small changes can occur in each isolated population over time, and if changes occur that prevent successful production of fertile offspring, then when the isolation "barrier" is removed, the two populations can no longer interbreed.

Sympatric Speciation

when two populations in the SAME location become unable to interbreed. this is the product of REPRODUCTIVE ISOLATION

morphological species concept

whether individuals look similar

ecological species concept

whether the individual use or can use the same set of biological resources; whether they occupy the same "niche"

If bottom-up control explains the size of songbird populations, which graph best illustrates the critical population interactions?

willlow vs songbirds, positive linear right First, recall that bottom-up means that lower trophic levels control higher ones. Then identify in the choices how the two organisms along each axis are trophically-related. Then remember that, on a graph, the Y-axis variable depends on the X-axis variable; in this case, if it's bottom controlling top, the higher trophic level (y-axis) depends on the lower trophic level (x-axis). So, find the graph with the higher level along the Y and the lower level along the X. If thinking graphically in terms of dependent and independent variables doesn't help you, think about what each graph means. A positive slope means as one species increases, so does the other. A negative slope means one species increases, the other *decreases*. Thinking about the biology behind each of the species and how they interact, would you expect a predator to increase or decrease the abundance of it's prey

how would DNA synthesis be affected if primase were not functional

would not initiate

Vesicles made from mitochondrial membranes containing ATP synthase were placed in an acidic solution to create a pH difference across the membrane that is of the same magnitude and direction as in mitochondria. Given ADP and phosphate, will ATP synthase make ATP? Indicate yes or no.

yes

Is it possible for a female to be affected by an X-linked recessive trait? What about a Y-linked trait?

yes for x-linked, no for y-linked

How is the adaptive immune response similar to evolution by selection? Select all that apply

- B cell and T cell populations have genetic diversity in their antigen receptors - B cells and T cells whose antigen receptors best bind a foreign antigen produce more progeny cells B cell and T cell populations have genetic diversity in their antigen receptors B cells and T cells whose antigen receptors best bind a foreign antigen produce more progeny cells

The adaptive immune response:

- Is specific for a particular antigen - Exhibits long-term memory of prior exposure to a particular antigen

The proposed "therapeutic cloning" approach to treat human patients____

- Uses somatic cell nuclear transfer technology - Involves creation and destruction of a cloned human embryo - Is a means of deriving embryonic stem cell lines with the same genotype as the patient

DeWitt et al. 2016 results clearly show that CRISPR-Cas9 system produces more deletion mutations than homologous recombination events, even when a homologous DNA segment is electroporated into the cells along with the Cas9-sgRNA ribonucleoprotein (RNP) complex. These deletions are of just a few nucleotides. What will be the consequence of these small deletions in the beta-hemoglobin (HBB) gene? Select all true statements below.

- a one- or two-nucleotide deletion will render the protein completely non-functional - a three-nucleotide deletion has a good chance of still making a functional beta-hemoglobin protein a deletion of one or two nucleotides will cause a frameshift, so that all the rest of the codons will be changed, resulting in a completely messed up protein (review module 2.02). A deletion of 3 nucleotides will cause one amino acid to be missing, but all the rest will be made correctly.

Suppose that the Cas9-sgRNA cuts the chromosomal DNA in the sickle cell disease (SCD) allele at the dotted line indicated. In the presence of the WT donor DNA fragment, what are the possible outcomes? Select all that apply.

- homology-dependent repair replaces the SCD allele with WT allele - non-homologous end-joining creates a deletion mutation Homologous recombination will allow the wild type sequence to incorporate into the genome. The Cas9 cut site and the WT donor DNA fragment do not have sticky ends, to allow the full WT donor exon to insert into the mutant exon to create a duplication.

Hematopoiesis, from Wikimedia Commons. The CD34+ HSPCs give rise to both red blood cells and white blood cells. What types of genetic diseases could be cured/treated by genome editing of HSPCs?

- red blood cell disorders like sickle cell disease or thalassemias - immune cell disorders like B-cell or T-cell lymphomas or leukemias - Fanconi's anemia (recall the Nash family from the genetics module)

To express (transcribe and translate) a eukaryotic gene in E. coli bacteria, you should:

-Clone the coding sequence of the gene into a plasmid -Use a plasmid vector with a promoter that is recognized by E. coli RNA polymerase

Which of the following is NOT required for a plasmid to be used for molecular cloning?

-restriction site that only occurs once in the plasmid -An origin of DNA replication -selectable gene or "marker" (e.g., drug resistance)

If the frequency of the sickle cell is 1/8, what fraction of the population is born with sickle cell disease? Sickle cell is an autosomal recessive disease.

1/64 The frequency of homozygotes should be p2 (or q2). (1/8)(1/8) = 1/64

In regions where the frequency of the sickle cell allele is 1/8 (12.5%), what fraction of children born are heterozygous, assuming that sickle cell genotype does not affect mating?

14/64 If the frequency of SC is 1/8, then the frequency of the normal allele is 7/8. Heterozygotes are predicted at a frequency of 2pq for random mating. Therefore, 2(1/8)(7/8) = 14/64

Male fitness is calculated as the total of how many offspring he has that survive to reproduce + ½ the number of kids his sibling has that survive to reproduce. Consider two brothers, Chirpy and Silent Bob. Chirpy mates with 2 females, and fertilizes 10 eggs from each female. Chirpy dies from parasites before he has the chance to mate again. Silent Bob lives to the end of the breeding season and mates with 5 females, fertilizing 10 eggs from each female. All eggs have a 10% chance to survive to become adult crickets. What is Chirpy's fitness? What is Silent Bob's fitness?

2 + 2.5 = 4.5 5 + 1 = 6

Given 200 V domain genes, 10 J segment genes and 10 D segment genes for the heavy chain, plus 20 V domain genes and 5 J segment genes for the light chain, how many different antibodies can be made?

2,000,000 Heavy chain has random combinations of V, D and J segments; therefore, the number of possible V-D-J combinations to make a heavy chain is 200 x 10 x 10 = 20,000 The light chain has random combinations of V and J segments, so there are 20 x 5 = 100 possible light chains. An antibody uses both a heavy chain and a light chain to make a single antigen-binding pocket, so there are 20,000 x 100 = 2 million possible antibody molecules via random combinatorial assembly. Each developing B cell makes a single heavy chain and a single light chain - different B cells express different heavy and light chains.

Rachel's sister has sickle cell disease. Rachel and all other members of her family do not have symptoms. What is the probability that Rachel is a carrier of the SCD allele?

2/3 . Given that Rache's sister has SCD, a recessive autosomal disease, their parents must be both heterozygous. From heterozygous parents, we expect: 1/4 homozygous normal - Rachel could be this 1/2 heterozygous, phenotypically normal - Rachel could be this 1/4 homogyzous SCD (affected with sickle cell disease) - Rachel cannot be this We know that Rachel is phenotypically normal. So among the 3/4 of phenotypically normal children in these families where both parents are heterozygous, 2 of every 3 will be heterozygous for the SCD allele.

A key to recombinant DNA technology (genetic engineering) is the ability to cut DNA at specific sites. In a genome with 50% GC content, a restriction endonuclease with a 6-base pair recognition site (such as EcoRI, that cuts at GAATTC) will cut, on average, once every ______ nucleotides. Answer with a whole number to fill in the blank. Another way to think about this question is: what is the probability that a random 6-nucleotide sequence will have the sequence GAATTC?

4096

A plasmid for expression of a gene in a mammalian cell should have what features that would NOT be needed in a plasmid for expression of the gene in a bacterium? Select all that apply.

A eukaryotic promoter instead of a bacterial promoter Only the promoter must be different, of the features listed. The other features are all required in plasmid vectors for expression of cloned genes in bacteria. Plasmids for eukaryotic expression also usually contain a polyadenylation site next to the restriction site where the gene will be inserted. That way, the RNA transcribed from the plasmid will be polyadenylated.

Which of these enzymes is most likely to cut a 3,000 bp plasmid DNA molecule once and just once?

A restriction endonuclease at GGATCC

Match the direction of the force with the correct effect

A.North-South currents 1.Hadley cell movements B.Perpendicular to Earth's rotation 2.Coriolis effect C.Dependent on density in water bodies 3.Turnover

Phylogenetic analyses based on DNA sequences are consistent with an origin of modern humans from which continent or geographic region?

Africa

Which continent contains the greatest human genetic diversity?

Africa

Population genetics data can indicate that a genetic locus in an isolated human population may be undergoing natural selection for adaptation to their local environment. Rank the three observations below from the least indicative of selection < somewhat indicative < most strongly indicative. Genotype and allele frequencies that deviate from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium High frequency of a strongly deleterious allele Allele frequencies significantly different from other populations nearby

Allele frequencies significantly different from other populations nearby < Genotype and allele frequencies that deviate from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium < High frequency of a strongly deleterious allele

Behavior is best described as

An action in response to stimulus

The Cas9 gene was cloned into a plasmid for expression of the Cas9 protein at high levels in E. coli bacterial cells. What features must this plasmid have? Select all that apply.

An origin of DNA replication A selectable marker, such as antibiotic resistance Plasmids require an origin of replication (ori) to self replicate, creating many identical copies of itself. To screen to confirm that the E coli cell contains the plasmid requires a selectable marker. Because the gene will be expressed using bacterial gene regulation, any eukaryotic regulatory elementions such as a promoter will not function in the bacterial system.

HIV infects helper T cells and macrophages. If these cell populations are depleted, which aspects of the immune system will be affected?

Antibody production by B cells Cytotoxic T cell activation Immune system memory

HIV virus infects the body for the first time. It infects CD4+ (helper) T cells and begins to reproduce exponentially. What must happen next before all the rest can happen?

Antigen-presenting cells process and present viral protein fragments on MHC molecules

The hepatitis C virus (HCV) infects the body for the first time. It infects liver cells and begins to reproduce exponentially. What must happen next in the immune response?

Antigen-presenting cells process and present viral protein fragments on MHC molecules

Cloned animals...

Are genetically identical to the nuclear donor

The high frequency of the sickle cell allele in regions where malaria is endemic is the result of:

Balancing selection This is a classic example of heterozygote advantage, where heterozygotes are resistant to malaria. The result is balancing selection - selection against homozygotes is balanced by the selection for heterozygotes. The allele frequency is determined by the strength of selection for heterozygotes - how severe a problem malaria is for the population.

Many modern human populations have small amounts of DNA from what now-extinct archaic humans?

Both Neanderthals and Denisovans, but not Homo floresiensis

Which of the following statements regarding elevation and climate is false?

Both sides of a mountain range generally receive equal amounts of precipitation.

How are HIV-reactive helper T-cells activated?

By TCR recognition of HIV peptides presented by MHC II

How are terrestrial biomes arranged?

By latitude and elevation

How does the immune system recognize and eliminate HIV-infected cells?

CTLs signal apoptosis in HIV-infected cells and release toxic proteins

Many Class I and Class II MHC alleles exist in the human population; which must be matched for successful tissue grafts or organ transplants? Recall that graft rejection is mediated by cytotoxic T cells (CTLs).

Class I only

Which MHC class molecules would you expect to be more important for a patient to generate protective antibodies after vaccination?

Class II

How does immune system recognize and eliminate HCV-infected cells?

Cytotoxic T cells initiate apoptosis in HCV-infected cells and release toxic proteins

Depletion of which cell type would most severely cripple the adaptive immune system?

Helper T cells Helper T cells help activate both B cells and CTLs, so killing them off will affect both antibody production and CTL activity. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) specifically infects and kills helper T cells.

What aspect of mammalian cloning does NOT pose an ethical issue when applied to human cloning?

Human clones will have the memories of the original

Sickle cell disease results from a mutation in hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. The hemoglobin protein is located in the cytoplasm. Where are the ribosomes that translate beta-globin mRNA located in the cell?

In the cytoplasm, not associated with any organelle membranes Proteins that are part of the endomembrane system, or that must go through the endomembrane system to get to the plasma membrane or be secreted, are translated by ribosomes that are docked to the rough ER membrane. All other proteins, including cytosolic proteins, nuclear proteins, and mitochondrial or chloroplast proteins encoded by nuclear genes, are made by free ribosomes in the cytoplasm.

How can this behavior be passed on from parent to offspring?

It's controlled by a gene that has at least two variants (alleles) that confer different survival and/or reproductive success.

During a field trip, your TA startled a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. Your classmate Jimal predicted that the moth lifted its wings because sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. Another student Chen responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?

Jimal described proximate causation, whereas Chen described ultimate causation.

Kit has gone to visit Disney World. Unknown to him, he was exposed to someone with measles. Measles is an airborne disease that is one of the most infectious known. The R0 is 12-18 (on average, a single infected person will infect 12-18 other people in a population where no one is resistant). A few measles virus particles enter his lungs. Kit had never been infected with measles before, and had not been vaccinated because his parents were anti-vaxxers. The measles virus particles enter macrophages and dendritic cells in the lining of his lung airways. Which of the events listed below happens first?

Macrophages and dendritic cells that have endocyted the virus particles process measles virus proteins and present viral peptide fragments on cell surface MHC Class II proteins

Why can't an adult skin cell undergo embryonic development?

NONE OF THESE The skin cells contain only the genes required for skin cell proteins The skin cells have lost the genes for embryonic development The skin cells have created new genes that instruct the cells to become skin cells

If the genome-edited HSPCs are transferred back to the patients with SCDs, will the edited allele be passed on to their future children?

No The HSPCs are multipotent somatic cells - they can only produce white and red blood cells. They cannot produce sperm or egg cells, so any genome edits in the HSPCs will not be heritable.

What does current US law say about human cloning?

No legal restrictions on privately funded research.

For the purpose of human gene therapy, DeWitt et al. want to avoid genetically engineering a patient's cells to express Cas9 and sgRNA. Instead, they chose to treat a patient's cells with purified recombinant Cas9 protein and sgRNA. What is the most direct and easiest way to make a copy of the Cas9 gene, which is naturally found in a bacterium called Streptococcus pyogenes? The entire genome of S. pyogenes has been sequenced and is publicly available in Genbank.

PCR to amplify the gene from S. pyogenes PCR acts like a molecular photocopier, making millions of copies of the target gene of known sequence. Restriction enzymes cut up the DNA present into smaller segments, but do not generate new copies.

Modern humans and Neanderthals have different anatomical features, but they existed in the same habitats, hunted for similar foods, and had some limited interbreeding before Neanderthals became extinct. Modern humans of European and Asian ancestry carry up to 5% Neanderthal DNA. Modern humans and Neanderthals would be considered different species under which of the species concepts listed below?

Phylogenetic species concept Morphological species concept

The movement of the Hadley Cell below is initiated and driven by heat applied at which numbered point, and from what source?

Point 1; sunlight

Natural selection shapes optimal foraging patterns when organisms seek food resources. Evidence consistent with these patterns should include all but which of the following:

Predation risk does not influence foraging decisions when food resources are abundant.

What are possible ways to get recombinant DNA molecules into the cells of an adult animal, or into the cells of an adult human for gene therapy?

Put the recombinant DNA molecules into a viral vector that will infect the desired cells and tissues transform stem cells from the animal or person with the recombinant DNA, then implant the genetically modified stem cells into the animal or patient

The human HBB gene has 3 exons. Which of these additional steps are required, after transcription of the gene by RNA polylmerase, before the mature HBB mRNA exits the nucleus?

RNA splicing to remove introns The three steps in eukaryotic nuclear processing of pre-mRNAs are: 1) addition of a cap at the 5' end (not the 3' end) 2) splicing to remove introns, leaving only the exons spliced together 3) addition of a polyA tail at the 3' end (not the 5' end)

According to Hamilton's rule (rB > C), altruistic behaviors can be maintained in a population when

Relatedness combined with an increase in fitness more than balance the fitness costs to the altruist

Theoretically, which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell?

Remove all moisture and convection from the equator.

Peacocks are males and peahens are females of a sexually dimorphic species. How could you test whether a peacock's tail was an important cue for peahen egg production?

Remove tails from courting males and measure corresponding female egg production.

Which is not true of sexual selection: Females exert strong selection by choosing mates. Males develop exaggerated secondary sexual characteristics. Males often fight each other for mates. Sexual selection is usually correlated with natural selection, so that both forces enhance the trait value. All of these are true of sexual selection.

Sexual selection is usually correlated with natural selection, so that both forces enhance the trait value.

The human CFTR gene is a transmembrane chloride channel that moves chloride ions into and out of cells. The gene is located on at molecular location 117,478,367 to 117,668,665 base pairs on chromosome 7. Mutations in this gene lead to cystic fibrosis. Why can't we use PCR to clone the CFTR gene from human genomic DNA?

The CFTR gene is too big

What would a human clone be like?

The clone will be essentially an identical twin, offset in time.

Which of the following are important in the cycling of nutrients in lakes?

The relationship between density and temperature of water

What do reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning have in common, when applied to humans?

They both involve somatic cell nuclear transfer They both require human women as egg donors

What is the likely response of the beech species range to increases in average temperature?

Tree seeds may slowly establish in areas further north

The human CFTR gene has 27 exons. To clone the human CFTR gene into a plasmid vector for expression in bacteria, one could______

Use reverse transcriptase to make a cDNA from human cell mRNA, and then ligate adaptors containing restriction enzyme sites for cloning into the plasmid vector Cloning the human gene with restriction enzymes includes all the introns, and thus cannot be expressed in bacteria, as bacteria have no RNA splicing machinery. PCR of the human gene also will copy the introns, and therefore cannot be expressed in bacteria. In any case, with that many exons and introns, the human gene is likely far too big to fit onto a plasmid, and also far too big to make copies by PCR.

Which human chromosomes or DNA molecules do not undergo meiotic recombination? Select all that apply.

Y chromosome mitochondrial DNA

Can Georgia scientists legally produce cloned human embryos or people?

Yes, both therapeutic and reproductive cloning of humans are currently allowed

Imagine you are a limnetic (near surface) alga in summer in a temperate pond. What happens to you as the fall season sets in?

You cycle down to the bottom of the pond.

Which of these is NOT immunogenic (does not induce the immune response) when implanted into a vertebrate body?

a plastic bead

The exponential equation of population growth describes

a population growing at its intrinsic rate of natural increase.

Sexual selection selects against males that ________, while natural selection on Kauai selects against males that

are quiet; chirp Sexual and natural selection act in opposite directions on traits, when females prefer a trait state that is unfavorable to male survival.

CRISPR-Cas9 system ______

cuts DNA at sites that are complementary to a short guide RNA CRISPR-Cas9 cuts DNA at sequences that pair with its associated sgRNA. The homologous recombination or nonhomologous end-joining are performed by the cell's own DNA break repair system.

In mammalian reproductive cloning, the ability of a transplanted somatic cell nucleus to support embryonic development

depends on undoing chemical modifications of chromatin that restrict gene expression.

Definitions of diff cells

embryonic stem cell - naturally occuring, has the potential to differentiate into any cell or tissue in the body induced pluripotent stem cell - genetically engineered to express transcription factors that stimulate embryonic growth adult stem cell - multipotent, can differentiate into some cell types but not others

B cells are activated to secrete anti-HCV antibodies by:

helper T cell whose T cell receptor recognizes HCV peptide presented by B cell

Which of the following statements about induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) is/are true?

iPSCs have the capacity to turn into many, possibly all, types of cells in the mammalian body

Where in a soluble globular protein would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like valine?

in the interior of the protein Hydrophobic non-polar amino acids do not interact with water and tend to join other non-polar amino acids; they end up inside the globular protein away from the aqueous interactions.

Existing human embryonic stem cell lines were created from:

in-vitro fertilized embryos at the blastocyst stage

Silent males reproduce by

intercepting females who approach a calling male.

Silent Bob is a mutant, but his brother Chirpy can call for mates. Given the scenario above, Silent Bob is _______ his brother Chirpy.

more fit than

A seed gets trapped in the ice on the surface of a pond in winter. As the pond thaws in early spring, the seed

moves with the water currents, initially down to the lake bottom.

The prediction regarding the evolution of altruism that can be made from Hamilton's "rule" rB > C is

natural selection will favor cooperation among close relatives

Arid regions are defined as areas receiving very low annual precipitation. Where are the world's arid regions found today?

near the poles because of low water availability AND at 30°N and S latitude because of atmospheric circulation patterns.

If the silent mutation arose on an island without parasitic Ormia, you would predict that

noisy crickets would gain the most matings.

Dewitt et al. found that the sgRNA and Cas9 system they developed for HBB exon 1 cut at only one other place in the human genome, at an intergenic site. From your web page reading of genome editing with CRISPR-Cas9, what would be the most common consequence of Cas9 cutting at this intergenic site, in cells treated with the sgRNA-Cas9 complex plus wild-type HBB exon 1 DNA?

non-homologous end-joining repair creates a deletion mutation at this intergenic location While the sgRNA has found a match for Cas9 to cut, the cut site is not homologous to the WT exon 1 of HBB for recombination to occur. Instead of recombination, the double strand break will be repaired using non-homologous end-joining, creating a small deletion mutation in the intron that should not impact cellular function.

If you ask a question about behavior that concerns how it works, or what its mechanism is, you are asking a question that involves

proximate causation

Sickle cell disease results in severe anemia - not enouogh red blood cells to carry oxygen to the cells in the body. In an anemic patient's cells, what effect(s) does the lack of oxygen have on cellular respiration? Select all that apply.

reduced rate of electron flow in the mitochondrial electron transport chain a decrease in the rate of ATP synthesis by ATP synthase (oxidative phosphorylation) Recall that oxygen (O2) is the terminal electron acceptor for the mitochondrial ETC. Therefore, with less oxygen, the rate of electrons shuttling down the ETC will decrease. Electrons flowing down the ETC pumps protons to generate and maintain the pH (proton concentration) gradient across the mitochondrial inner membrane. With less electron flow, proton pumping will decrease, so the pH gradient should also decrease (not increase as given in the answer choice). Since the pH gradient provides the energy for ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation, a lower pH gradient means less ATP will be produced.

Which enzymes generate "sticky ends" when they cut DNA molecules?

restriction endonucleases

Measles virus also infects and kills memory lymphocytes. Kit had contracted and recovered from chicken pox as a child. His younger brother has chicken pox. What should Kit do?

stay away from his younger brother or anyone with chicken pox because he could get it again

If a savannah (grassland) experiences centuries of drought, the biome will likely convert to

subtropical desert

The Cas9 is a protein enzyme that cuts DNA at targets specified by a short guide RNA bound to it. The sgRNA includes a 20-nucleotide sequence that is complementary to the DNA strand that it will cut. If the target DNA site has to be perfectly complementary to all 20 nucleotides, approximately how many sites will be cut in the human genome for a particular sgRNA? The human genome is 3 billion (3 x 10E9) nucleotides per haploid set of chromosomes. In other, very pertinent terms for human gene therapy, if you design an sgRNA to cut at a particular site in a human gene, how many off-target sites do you think the sgRNA-Cas9 complex will cut in the rest of the genome? (Set up and solve the problem with your group.)

Bio Final Practice

Related study sets

Chapter 4- The National Income and Product Accounts

traumatology

Finance 450-test 2

Study

the intricacies of trade: washing machine (2)

Positive and Negative feedback

ACC 555 Exam 3

Ethics and Laws (Chapter 15)

117 final

Human Development quiz 2Di

Ch. 10 Management

AP Style Quiz 2

Ch. 20: Eating Disorders

in what ways can humans respond to climate change?

Proulx Exam 3 - Econ 101

Chapter 13: Marketing Channels

SPANISH FERIADOS Y FIESTAS

Accounting Ch. 8

MGT Ch. 6

Physical Processes