BISC 336 Final

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31. Each of the following are common features of human cancer cells except ..... (2015, 4) A. Chromosomal aneuploidy B. Lower DNA mutation rate C. Ability to invade other tissues D. Uncontrolled progression through cell cycle checkpoints E. Cells with extensive DNA damage do not undergo apoptosis

33. When setting up the fly body plan, the Krüppel transcription factor is required for which of the following activities? (2016, 4) A. Specify segment identify B. Set up crude subdivisions C. Determine the anterior/posterior axis of the embryo D. Refine the segments E. None of the above

When examining the genetic code, it is apparent that ________. (slides 10/29) A. the same codon can encode two amino acids B. AUG is a terminating codon C. an amino acid can be encoded by more than one codon D. each codon encodes an amino acid

27-30. We have discussed how the fly body plan is specified by a cascade of factors. Match the appropriate genes with their corresponding functions below. (2016, 4) A. Wingless B. Hunchback C. Even-skipped D. Ultrabithorax E. Nanos 29. Determine the anterior/posterior axis of the embryo _______

31. What is the order of the activities described in questions 27-30 starting from the earliest event? (2016, 4) A. 29-27-30-28 B. 28-29-30-27 C. 29-30-28-27 D. 28-29-27-30 E. 29-28-30-27

T/F Two cells that have just made different choices in cell fate can be visibly distinguished from each other. (slides 11/7)

False

T/F When referring to tumor suppressor genes and cancer, loss of heterozygosity is likely to suppress cancer formation. (slides 12/3)

False

What do you think happens in a n Antennapedia LOF mutant? (slides 11/7) A. Development proceeds normally. B. The embryo is missing a head. C. The third thoracic segment has a set of wings and a set of legs. D. The legs of the second thoracic segment are transformed into antennae E. The antennae of the head are transformed into legs.

6. General transcription factors that promote transcription of eukaryotic genes bind cis-regulatory elements known as promoters. (2016, 3)

True

9. Isoforms produced due to alternative splicing of a primary mRNA transcript can have opposite functions. (2016, 3)

True

T/F Due to its tertiary structure, recombinant human insulin (humulin) is produced using two different strains of E. coli. (slides 10/31)

15. The length of a giraffe's neck is most likely an example of _____________ selection. (2016, 3) A. Directional B. Disruptive C. Stabilizing

17. What is the probability that a man with familial (inherited) retinoblastoma will pass on a mutant copy of the RB1 gene to his first child? You may assume that one mutant copy is somatic. (2016, 4) A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

26-29. We have discussed how the fly body plan is specified by a cascade of factors. Match the following genes with their corresponding functions below. (2015, 4) A. Hunchback B. Antennapedia C. Even-skipped D. Bicoid E. Engrailed 29. Set up broad subdivisions _______

39. Elegant sets of genetic experiments in Neurospora were used to determine the order of the biochemical steps in the biosynthesis of amino acids. For example, several mutants were identified that block synthesis of arginine; each mutant fails to grow on minimal medium. If you were given one of these mutants and found that it could grow if you added ornithine, citrulline or arginine to the minimal medium but not if you added their precursors, which mutant do you have? (2016, 3) A. arg4-7 B. arg2-3 C. arg1 D. None of the above

40. The human genome contains approximately 20,000 protein-coding genes, yet human cells have the capacity to produce at least a hundred thousand gene products. Which of the following best accounts for this difference? (2015,4) A. Alternative splicing B. Each gene can be transcribed in both directions C. The mitochondrial genome D. There are more exons than introns E. Analysis of the human genome has not yet revealed all the secrets of the genetic code

26. The local folding of amino acids within certain regions of a protein represents the ________________ level of its structure. (2016, 3) A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Quaternary

16-19. The following sequence is part of an mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCGGGACUUAGCAGUCU-3'. 17. If the third frame of the mRNA transcript is translated, what is the fifth amino acid? (2016, 3) A. Valine (Val) B. Alanine (Ala) C. Tyrosine (Tyr) D. Glycine (Gly) E. Arginine (Arg)

24. During the process of DNA repair after replication in prokaryotes, discrimination of the original vs. the newly synthesized strand is based on ... (2016, 3) A. Acetylation of histones associated with the original strand B. DNA methylation of the original strand C. Acetylation of histones associated with the newly synthesized strand D. DNA methylation of the newly synthesized strand

What keeps the large and small ribosomal subunits together? (slides 11/5) A) initiator tRNA B) initiation factors C) mRNA D) elongation factors

8. When referring to tumor suppressor genes, 'loss of heterozygosity' is likely to prevent cancer formation. (2015, 4)

False

10. The Ultrabithorax gene is one of the master regulators of segment identity. What happens in the classic Ultrabithorax partial loss-of-function mutant? (2015, 4) A. Development proceeds normally. B. The fly embryo is missing a tail. C. The third thoracic segment has a set of wings and a set of legs. D. The legs of the second thoracic segment are transformed into antennae. E. The antennae of the head are transformed into legs.

14-15. The Even-skipped (eve) pair rule gene is expressed in the odd-numbered parasegments of fly embryos. The expression profiles of the transcription factors that regulate expression of Eve in the third parasegment are shown in the adjacent figure. 14. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from this figure? (2016, 4) A. Eve is positively regulated by Giant and Krüppel, and negatively regulated by Hunchback and Bicoid. B. Eve is positively regulated by Giant and Hunchback, and negatively regulated by Krüppel and Bicoid. C. Eve is positively regulated by Hunchback and Bicoid, and negatively regulated by Giant and Krüppel. D. Eve is positively regulated by Krüppel and Bicoid, and negatively regulated by Giant and Hunchback. E. Eve is positively regulated by Hunchback and Krüppel, and negatively regulated by Giant and Bicoid

14. An E. coli mutant is highly sensitive to ultraviolet light. Which of the following molecular processes is likely to be defective in this mutant? (2016, 3) A. Translation B. Transcription C. DNA repair D. Recombination E. Replication

16-19. The following sequence is part of an mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCGGGACUUAGCAGUCU-3'. 19. The following sequence is part of a mutant version of this mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCAUGGCCGGGACUUAGCAGUCU-3'. What is the best description for this type of mutation? (2016, 3) A. A nonsense mutation B. A frameshift mutation C. A localized frameshift mutation D. A missense mutation E. A silent mutation

17. What is the probability that a woman with familial retinoblastoma will pass on a mutant copy of the RB1 gene to her first child? You may assume that one mutant copy is somatic. (2015, 4) A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100%

19. Which of the following statements is false? (2016, 4) A. Binding of the HPV viral E7 protein to RB prevents RB from inhibiting the E2F transcription factor. B. E2F activates a set of genes that allow the cell to begin replicating its DNA after the first growth phase of the cell cycle. C. If cells have a defective copy of the RB gene, they will not be able to regulate progression through a critical cell cycle check point. D. A spontaneous mutation in one copy of the RB gene is necessary for a familial (inherited) retinoblastoma tumor to develop.

20. Which of the following statements about the genetic code is false? (2016, 3) A. Some of the exceptions to the genetic code occur in the translation of mitochondrial transcripts. B. Most amino acids can be encoded by more than one codon. C. Each of the sixty-four possible nucleotide triplets specifies an amino acid. D. Genes on eukaryotic chromosomes can be transcribed in opposite directions. E. Relaxed base-pairing allows some tRNA anticodons to pair with more than one mRNA codon.

27. What are the allele frequencies for a locus in a population with three alleles? (2016, 3) A. p = 1 B. p + q = 1 C. p + q + r = 1 D. p + q + r + s = 1

29. Arrange the following steps of prokaryotic translation in order that they first happen. (Some of the steps are missing here. Some steps are repeated.) (2016, 3) 1. The large ribosomal subunit binds to the small ribosomal subunit. 2. A peptide bond is catalyzed by 23S rRNA. 3. An elongation factor helps with proofreading which charged tRNA enters the A site. 4. The charged initiator tRNA binds to the mRNA start codon in the P site. 5. An elongation factor stimulates translocation of the mRNA with respect to the ribosome. A. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 5 B. 4 > 1 > 3 > 2 > 5 C. 1 > 4 > 3 > 5 > 2 D. 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 > 5 E. 4 > 3 > 1 > 5 > 2

30. What is the order of the gene activities described in questions 26-29 starting from the earliest event? (2015, 4) A. 28-29-26-27 B. 29-28-27-26 C. 28-29-27-26 D. 29-28-26-27 E. 28-26-29-27

34. Each of the following are common features of human cancer cells except ... (2016, 4) A. Chromosomal translocations B. Uncontrolled cell division C. Excessive programmed cell death D. Ability to invade other tissues E. Higher mutation rate

T/F In flies, the gap genes are influential in deterring the placement of the head vs. the tail. (slides 11/7)

False

14-15. The Even-skipped (eve) gene is expressed in the odd-numbered parasegments of fly embryos. The expression profiles of the transcription factors that positively and negatively regulate expression of Eve in the third parasegment are shown in the adjacent figure. 14. What do you think would happen to Eve expression in a giant loss-of-function mutant? (2015, 4) A. Eve expression would expand into the second and fourth parasegments. B. Eve expression would expand into the second parasegment. C. Eve expression would expand into the fourth parasegment. D. Eve would be expressed at a lower level in the third parasegment. E. Eve expression would be unaltered.

14-15. The Even-skipped (eve) gene is expressed in the odd-numbered parasegments of fly embryos. The expression profiles of the transcription factors that positively and negatively regulate expression of Eve in the third parasegment are shown in the adjacent figure. 15. What do you think would happen to Eve expression in a hunchback loss-of-function mutant? (2015, 4) A. Eve expression would expand into the second and fourth parasegments. B. Eve expression would expand into the second parasegment. C. Eve expression would expand into the fourth parasegment. D. Eve would be expressed at a lower level in the third parasegment. E. Eve expression would be unaltered.

14-15. The Even-skipped (eve) pair rule gene is expressed in the odd-numbered parasegments of fly embryos. The expression profiles of the transcription factors that regulate expression of Eve in the third parasegment are shown in the adjacent figure. 15. What do you think would happen to Eve expression in a krüppel loss-of-function mutant? (2016, 4) A. Eve expression would be unaltered. B. Eve expression would expand into the second and fourth parasegments. C. Eve expression would expand into the second parasegment. D. Eve expression would expand into the fourth parasegment. E. Eve would be expressed at a lower level in the third parasegment.

16-19. The following sequence is part of an mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCGGGACUUAGCAGUCU-3'. 16. What was the sequence of the DNA template strand? (2016, 3) A. 3'-GGGCCATGCTCTGACGATTCA-5' B. 3'-CCCGGTACGAGACTGCTAAGT-5' C. 3'-CGTACCGGGACTTAGCAGTCT-5' D. 3'-GCATGGCCCTGAATCGTCAGA-5'

16-19. The following sequence is part of an mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCGGGACUUAGCAGUCU-3'. 18. The following sequence is part of a mutant version of this mRNA transcript: 5'-CGUACCGGGACUAAGCAGUCU-3'. What is the best description for this type of mutation? (2016, 3) A. A nonsense mutation B. A frameshift mutation C. A localized frameshift mutation D. A missense mutation E. A silent mutation

18. Which of the following statements is false? (2015, 4) A. Binding of the HPV viral E7 protein to RB prevents RB from inhibiting the E2F transcription factor. B. E2F activates a set of genes that allow human cells to begin replicating their DNA after the first growth phase of the cell cycle. C. If cells have two defective copies of the RB gene, they will not be able to regulate progression through the G1/S check point of the cell cycle. D. The HPV viral E6 protein inactivates p53 which leads to a dangerously high rate of apoptosis.

25. Tautomeric shifts ... (2016, 3) A. resolve thymine dimers B. are induced by X rays C. involve permanent alternative chemical forms of DNA bases D. cause a point mutation if they occur immediately before DNA replication E. lead to a codon deletion if they occur during transcription

28. An unprocessed RNA transcript contains two introns with 519 and 450 nucleotides each, and three exons with 329, 250 and 480 nucleotides each. What is the maximum number of amino acids present in the encoded protein? (2016, 3) A. 1059 B. 969 C. 675 D. 352 E. 322

32. Each of the following is considered to be a top carcinogen except... (2016, 4) A. Bacon B. UV light C. Certain viruses like HPV D. Coffee E. Cigarettes

39. In a Drosophila embryo, gap gene products are _________________ distributed, and influence zygotic gene expression in the embryo's _______________________. (2015, 4) A. non-uniformly; mitochondria B. uniformly; mitochondria C. uniformly; nuclei D. non-uniformly; nuclei

An auxotrophic mutant isolated from Neurosporathat is deficient in the synthesis of leucine should be able to grow on ... (slides 10/31) A. Minimal medium B. Minimal medium supplemented with vitamins C. Minimal medium supplemented with purines and pyrimidines D. Minimal medium supplemented with amino acids

Each of the following are situations that would lead to pre-zygotic reproductive isolation except.... (slides 12/3) A. A male's courtship display is not recognized by the females. B. Male and female genitalia are incompatible. C. A female is ready to mate at a different time of year than the males. D. The progeny that result from mating are sterile. E. The female reproductive tract is an inhospitable environment for certain sperm.

T/F Migration is the principal force that shifts allele frequencies within populations. (slides 11/12)

False

1. The fate of a determined cell has been decided. (2016, 4)

Depends

10. The Antennapedia gene is one of the master regulators of segment identity. What happens in the classic Antennapedia gain-of-function mutant? (2016, 4) A. Development proceeds normally. B. The embryo is missing a head. C. The third thoracic segment has a set of wings and a set of legs. D. The legs of the second thoracic segment are transformed into antennae. E. The antennae of the head are transformed into legs.

21. Which of the following types of DNA mutations could be passed from parent to offspring if it occurs in a somatic cell? (2016, 3) A. missense B. spontaneous C. frameshift D. all of the above E. none of the above

T/F The promoters of the fly runt gene and the mouse Cbfa1 gene are highly conserved and can be functionally exchanged. (slides 11/7)

False

A protein is 300 amino acids long. Which of the following is the minimum number of nucleotides in the section of DNA that encodes this protein? (slides 10/29) A. 303 B. 603 C. 903 D. 1206 E. 1806

An unprocessed RNA transcript contains two exons with 519 and 450 nucleotides, respectively, and an intron with 330 nucleotides. What is the maximum number of amino acids present in the encoded protein? (slides 10/31) A. 969 B. 330 C. 433 D. 110 E. 322

An unprocessed RNA transcript contains two exons with 519 and 450 nucleotides, respectively, and an intron with 330 nucleotides. What is the minimum number of nucleotides in the corresponding gene? (slides 10/31) A. 1938 B. 660 C. 969 D. 1299 E. 2598

2. A cluster of eukaryotic genes involved in axon guidance during fetal brain development is transcribed as polycistronic mRNA. (2016, 3)

False

3. When referring to proto-oncogenes, loss of heterozygosity is likely to promote cancer. (2016, 4)

False

32. In terms of genetic fitness, a man with five children and one grandchild is more "fit" than a woman with one child and five grandchildren. (2016, 3)

False

33. During splicing, the U1 Snurp binds to the AG consensus sequence at an intron's 3' splice site. (2016, 3)

False

34. Gain-of-function mutations in two different proto-oncogenes would be sufficient for a group of somatic cells to divide uncontrollably and metastasize. (2015, 4)

False

37. Proteins are composed of nucleotides connected by peptide bonds. (2016, 3)

False

38. During fertilization, the fruit fly oocyte receives Bicoid mRNA from the sperm. (2016, 4)

False

38. Two cells that have made different choices in cell fate can be visually distinguished from each other. (2015, 4)

False

4. Eukaryotic RNA transcripts contain exons which are not found in the processed mRNA transcripts. (2016, 3)

False

5. UV light causes double-stranded chromosomal breakage and can lead to skin cancer. (2016, 3)

False

6. p53 is targeted for degradation when a normal cell's DNA is damaged by UV light or ionizing radiation. (2016, 4)

False

7. The hemoglobin complex composed of two alpha- and two beta-globin subunits illustrates the tertiary structure of a protein. (2016, 3)

False

1. Differentiation is the process whereby a determined cell's fate is established. (2015, 4)

True

23. During human development, programmed cell death is the normal fate of some cells. (2016, 4)

True

3. The cells of individuals with the recessive disorder Xeroderma pigmentosum have difficulty repairing thymine dimers. (2016, 3)

True

32. During fetal development, humans with two mutant copies of the Cbfa1 gene show a complete absence of cartilage formation. (2015, 4)

True

33. Secondary tumors which become malignant are usually the cause of death in cancer patients. (2015, 4)

True

34. The hypnotic mating dance of male peacock spiders is an example of a pre-zygotic isolating mechanism. (2016, 3)

True

35. Mice with two mutant copies of the Cbfa1 gene show a complete absence of cartilage formation. (2016, 4)

True

35. The fruit fly oocyte receives Nanos mRNA from the nurse cells through cytoplasmic bridges. (2015, 4)

True

36. A zombie apocalpyse that decimates the human population would remove alleles from our gene pool. (2016, 3)

True

36. Primary tumors are usually not the cause of death in cancer patients. (2016, 4)

True

36. Within a cell, the presence of one normal copy of the ras proto-oncogene cannot prevent a gain-of- function mutation in the second copy from acting as an oncogene. (2015, 4)

True

39. Humans who have one mutant copy of the Runt ortholog can fold their shoulders across their chest due to defects in collar bone development. (2016, 4)

True

4. High risk strains of the human papilloma virus cause infected epithelial cells to become immortal due to a pair of viral proteins that behave like oncogenes. (2016, 4)

True

6. During human development, programmed cell death is the normal fate of some cells. (2015, 4)

True

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