Blood Bank - Blood Products
6. Can an autologous donor donate blood at 4 PM on Monday if she is having surgery at 10 AM on Wednesday? A. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours. B. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is eight weeks. C. Yes, the patient can donate, but only half a unit. D. Yes, an autologous donor can donate up to 24 hours prior to surgery.
A
36. Which term listed below refers to the process that must be followed when notification is received that a donor of a unit transfused now tests positive for an infectious disease? A. Look-back B. Donor notification C. Minor crossmatch D. Major crossmatch
A
37. Which of the following tests has been recommended by the FDA to replace the HIV-1 p24 antigen test in the screening of donated blood for infectious diseases? A. HIV-1 NAT B. Anti-HIV-1 C. Anti-HIV-2 D. HCV NAT
A
43. Which is the first marker (antigen or antibody) which will become positive after exposure to Hepatitis B? A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBs C. Anti-HBe D. IgG anti-HBc
A
44. When processing umbilical cord blood samples for hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC), what tests are performed on both the mother's blood and cord blood? A. ABO & Rh B. HIV-1 & HIV-2 C. HBV & HCV D. HTLV-I & HTLV-II
A
46. Which of the following activities would require that a label be added to the blood label indicating the name and location of a second manufacturer? A. Irradiating a unit of red cells or platelets B. Shipping a unit to another facility C. Thawing a unit of plasma D. Receiving a unit from another facility
A
100. Antibodies to which of the following blood components is the most frequent cause of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions? A. Platelets B. Packed red blood cells C. Granulocytes D. Plasma
C
101. What is the acceptable way to thaw Fresh Frozen Plasma? A. Leaving it at room temperature away from agitation B. Refrigerating the FFP on a bottom rack C. Placing the FFP in a 37º C water bath D. Placing the FFP in a 121º C or higher in a steam sterilizer
C
107. Donation of which apheresis blood product more than once every four weeks requires monitoring of total plasma protein and antibody levels? A. Red cell apheresis B. Plateletpheresis C. Plasmapheresis D. Leukapheresis
C
108. In an extreme emergency, if the ABO and Rh type are unknown, which of the following should be given to the patient? A. Group O, Rh positive blood B. Group AB, Rh negative blood C. Group O, Rh negative blood D. Any blood type is OK
C
95. A unit of leukocyte-reduced red blood cells must retain at least what percentage of red blood cells following leukoreduction? A. 65% B. 75% C. 85% D. 95%
C
96. Rejuvenation solutions for donated red blood cell units may be used to improve what factor that is affected by storage lesion? A. Hemoglobin B. Potassium C. 2,3 DPG D. Sodium
C
99. Which of the following fresh frozen plasma ABO types would be suitable for transfusion to an AB negative patient? A. AB negative only. B. O negative only. C. AB negative and AB positive only. D. O negative and O positive only.
C
56. After frozen RBC's have been thawed and washed, they must be used within how many hours? A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
C
60. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? A. 37 degrees Celsius B. 4 degrees Celsius C. - 20 degrees Celsius D. - 10 degrees Celsius
C
4. How can a hematoma from venipuncture be prevented? A. Apply pressure to venipuncture site immediately after drawing blood B. Do not allow the needle to fully penetrate the upper wall of the vein C. Leave on tourniquet until after removing the needle D. Mix the tubes immediately after blood collection
A
9. What is the deferral period from donating blood for someone who is or has taken Tegison© for severe psoriasis? A. Permanent deferral B. 1 month following last dose C. 2 weeks D. No deferral
A
90. When administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP), which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practice? A. Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's red blood cells B. Must be the same Rh type as the recipient C. Is appropriate for use as a volume expander D. Component should remain frozen when it is issued
A
94. What red blood cell component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)? A. Irradiated Red Blood Cells B. Washed Red Blood Cells C. Leukocyte-reduced Red Blood Cells D. HLA matched Red Blood Cells
A
97. Unless an alternative has been approved by the FDA, what is the expiration and storage temperature of rejuvenated (non-frozen) RBC's? A. 24 hours; 1 °C to 6 °C B. 48 hours; 1 °C to 10 °C C. 72 hours; 1 °C to 6 °C D. 24 hours; Room temperature
A
Which of the following is used as a source for irradiation of blood products? A. Cs137 B. I131 C. C14 D. P51
A
93. When giving a whole blood donation to a patient, what consideration must be made in regards to the ABO/Rh compatibility between the recipient and the donor? A. The recipient and the donor ABO or Rh compatibilities are not a concern. B. The recipient and donor ABO and Rh types must be compatible. C. The recipient and donor ABO and Rh types must be identical. D. The recipient and donor ABO types must be identical, but the Rh does not matter.
C
126. Transfusion of which blood product is most likely to cause circulatory overload in patients? A. Platelets B. Fresh frozen plasma C. Red blood cells D. Whole blood
D
130. Which of the following blood components will provide the best source of fibrinogen for a patient with hypofibrinogenemia? A. Whole blood B. Fresh frozen plasma C. Platelets D. Cryoprecipitate
D
133. Washing red cells may be performed to remove what from the unit? A. White blood cells B. Platelets C. Plasma D. Proteins
D
14. Which of the following donors could be accepted for blood donation? A. 22-year female who is currently pregnant B. 40-year-old female who lived in London from 1988 - 1995 C. 44-year-old male who used a needle to administer nonprescription drugs D. 24-year-old man who had a tooth extraction two months ago
D
16. A patient's serum reacts with all reagent red cell samples. The autocontrol is negative. An alloantibody to a high incidence antigen is suspected. Which of the following would most likely be a compatible donor? A. Patient's parents B. Patient's siblings C. Patient's children D. Autologous donation
D
2. Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood bank adverse event reporting to the FDA? A. All patient deaths while being transfused must be reported to the FDA, even when it has been confirmed that the death was not related to the transfusion. B. When a transfusion reaction is the result of an error it must be reported to the FDA in writing. C. A transfusion-related death must be reported to the FDA within 24 hours of the patient's death. D. The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.
D
28. Following a major trauma event, a family of four walks into your donor center hoping to donate blood. Which one of the following individuals may donate blood today? A. A 14-year-old girl who received an ear piercing 6 weeks ago. B. A 53-year-old man who worked and resided in the United Kingdom from 1983-1989. C. A 49-year-old woman who donated whole blood 5 weeks ago. D. A 22-year-old woman using oral contraceptives.
D
31. Which one of the following statements about directed donations is TRUE? A. They are safer than random donor units. B. They will never cause graft-versus-host disease. C. They do not cause logistical problems for blood banks. D. They are often perceived by the recipient as safer than random donor units.
D
35. Persons who have received a dura mater transplant are not eligible to donate blood and are permanently deferred. This is due to an increased risk of which of the following? A. HIV B. Leishmaniasis C. Chagas Disease D. CJD or vCJD
D
42. All of the following are required to be in a machine-readable format on a blood component label, EXCEPT: A. ABO & Rh of the donor B. Product code C. Collection facility D. Outdate
D
47. Which is NOT a requirement for information on the donor tag once the appropriate compatibility testing has been completed and the unit or units are suitable for transfusion? A. Patient's full name and identification number B. Name of the product and donor number C. ABO & D phenotype of the unit D. Doctor's name and patient room number
D
50. Which test is NOT used as a screen for retroviruses in donated blood? A. Antibody to HIV type 1 or type 2 B. Nucleic acid testing to detect HIV-1 RNA C. Antibody to HTLV types I and II D. Nucleic acid testing for HCV
D
58. A unit of red blood cells that was collected on 15 June 2009 and frozen with glycerol at -80° C on 20 June 2009 will expire on what date? A. 14 June 2010 B. 15 June 2010 C. 20 June 2019 D. 15 June 2019
D
61. The proper storage requirements for granulocyte concentrates is: A. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius,12 hours B. - 20 degrees Celsius, 48 hours C. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius, 24 hours D. 20 - 24 degrees Celsius, 24 hours
D
72. A refrigerator used to store whole blood must be able to maintain a temperature in the ranges of: A. 0 - 4 degrees Celsius B. 2 - 4 degrees Celsius C. 2 - 8 degrees Celsius D. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius
D
78. What is the purpose of adding citrate to donated red cell units? A. It stabilizes the pH of the unit during storage. B. It is a substrate in ATP synthesis. C. It supports ATP generation by the glycolytic pathway. D. It prevents coagulation.
D
86. A 28 year old female patient is experiencing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) following the delivery of her newborn. Her Complete Blood Count (CBC) results are normal. What would be the best blood product for this patient to receive? A. Apheresis platelets B. Leukocyte-reduced packed red blood cells C. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor D. Fresh frozen plasma
C
12. All of the following represent a 2 week temporary deferral from donating blood or blood products EXCEPT: A. Measles (rubeola) vaccine B. German measles (rubella) vaccine C. Mumps vaccine D. Polio vaccine
B
120. Frozen red blood cells that have been thawed, deglycerolized and reconstituted in an open system must be used within _______. A. 1 hour B. 24 hours C. 14 days D. 7 days
B
121. Leukocyte reduction may be performed at the same time as which step in blood component collection? A. During the initial light spin B. At the same time the additive solution is added C. During the heavy spin D. During the preparation of fresh frozen plasma
B
123. Leukocyte-reduced blood products may be administered to reduce the risk of febrile reactions and what disease or condition? A. Graft-vs-host disease B. Cytomegalovirus C. Malaria D. Bacteremia
B
124. A severe hemophiliac, with a Factor VIII activity of less than 1%, is actively bleeding due to a serious accident. The blood product of choice is: A. Single-donor plasma B. Factor VIII concentrate C. Factor IX concentrate D. Cryoprecipitate
B
129. Fresh frozen plasma should be used for which of the following? A. Platelet replacement B. Coagulation deficiencies C. Volume replacement D. Albumin replacement
B
134. Units of A-negative, B-negative, and O-negative red blood cells are shipped to your transfusion service. What testing MUST be performed by your facility prior to placing these units into your inventory? A. ABO B. ABO and Rh C. ABO, Rh and antibody screen D. ABO, Rh and Weak D to confirm negative status
B
17. All of the following are benefits of autologous donation EXCEPT: A. Reduces exposure to infectious diseases B. Readily available in case of an unexpected emergency C. Reduces demand for homologous blood transfusions D. Eliminates sensitization to cellular blood components
B
23. A standard blood donation of 450-500 mL requires a minimum anticoagulant-preservative solution volume of: A. 57 mL B. 63 mL C. 70 mL D. 82 mL
B
24. What is considered the definition of allogeneic blood? A. Donated by the donor for self-use B. Donated by a donor for a recipient other than the donor to use C. Blood salvaged during surgery D. Blood collected through normovolemic hemodilution
B
34. Which of the following is the deferral period following the collection of double red blood cell units? A. 1 year B. 16 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 4 weeks
B
38. Donor and recipient blood samples must be kept for at least how long after transfusion? A. 10 days B. 7 days C. 3 days D. 24 hours
B
45. If an autologous blood component is shipped from the donor center without the completion of infectious disease testing, the unit must be labeled with: A. A blue sticker indicating which tests are in process. B. The phrase "Donor Untested". C. A statement from the ordering physician requesting the release. D. A red warning tag.
B
52. What additional information is required on a label or tie tag of an autologous unit? A. Name of the ordering physician B. Identification of the recipient C. Location of the collection facility D. The statement "For Emergency Use Only"
B
53. Platelets that are not collected by an apheresis method must be prepared within ________ of the collection of whole blood. A. 30 minutes B. 8 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
B
54. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmission of HBV infections is: A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. HBcAg D. HBiAg
B
58. What is the proper storage temperature for thawed cryoprecipitate? A. 4 - 8 ºC. B. 20 - 24 ºC. C. 35 - 37 ºC. D. -20 ºC or colder
B
67. After irradiating a unit of packed red blood cells, how is the expiration date affected? A. The expiration date is changed to 28 days from the date of irradiation regardless of the original expiration date. B. The expiration date shortens to 28 days from the date of irradiation or the original expiration date, whichever is first. C. The expiration date is shortened to 24 hours from time of irradiation. D. The expiration date is not affected.
B
70. Compared to plasma frozen within 8 hours of collection, plasma frozen within 24 hours of collection will likely have reduced levels of Factor: A. II B. VIII C. X D. XI
B
75. Which of these units of Red Blood Cells, that has been issued and returned to the blood bank, can be returned to inventory and is acceptable to use? A. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 1 hour previously but not transfused and kept at room temperature. B. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours. C. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 15 minutes previously, but returned unused with one of the sterile ports opened. D. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued to the ER with other units in a temperature controlled blood bank emergency cooler, returned to the blood bank 5 hours after issue, with internal temperature of the system reading 15o C.
B
79. What is the acceptable temperature range for maintaining red blood cell components during transport? A. 1 - 6ºC B. 1 - 10ºC C. 10 - 15ºC D. 20 - 24ºC
B
80. In order to prevent a loss of viability in platelet concentrates during storage, the pH must be maintained at or above what level? A. 7.5 B. 6.2 C. 5.0 D. 4.5
B
84. Whole blood or red blood cell units will be shipped from the American Red Cross to the transfusion facility. At what temperature should the units be kept during transportation? A. 1-4 °C B. 1-10 °C C. 2-6 °C D. 2-8 °C
B
85. How soon must granulocyte concentrates be administered after donation? A. 12 hours B. 24 hours C. 3 days D. 30 days
B
89. Recombinant Factor IX is indicated for which of the following? A. Hemophilia A B. Hemophilia B C. Hemophiliacs with inhibitors D. Persons with acquired Factor VII deficiency
B
92. What is the first line treatment for moderate to severe hemophilia A? A. Platelets B. Lyophilized Factor VIII concentrate C. Factor IX complex D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
B
102. In a closed system, thawed FFP and PF24 blood components may be labeled as "Thawed Plasma" 24 hours after the original thaw time and given a shelf life of? A. 5 days B. 60 minutes C. 24 hours D. 2 days
A
104. A patient with a documented history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) should receive __________ blood components. A. Leukoreduced B. Irradiated C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative D. Hemoglobin S negative
A
106. A rejuvenation solution may be used up to how many days following expiration of a red cell unit? A. 1 day B. 3 days C. 7 days D. 10 days
B
116.A patient who demonstrates a history of an allergic reaction from red blood cell transfusions will benefit from receiving which red cell component? A. Frozen red blood cells B. Washed red blood cells C. Irradiated red blood cells D. Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells
B
118. Which of the following blood components contains the most factor VIII concentration relative to the unit volume? A. Whole Blood B. Cryoprecipitated AHF C. Fresh Frozen Plasma D. Platelet Concentrate
B
48.Which of the procedures listed below will increase the platelet concentration in the preparation of platelets? A. Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a low speed. B. Centrifuge the blood at a low speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed. C. Centrifuge the blood at a high speed, remove the plasma and spin the plasma again at a high speed. D. Decrease the duration of rotation of the initial spin.
B
51. What percentage of glycerol is most commonly used when freezing red blood cell units? A. 70% B. 40% C. 10% D. 20%
B
109. What step must be performed before a rejuvenated blood unit may be transfused to the patient? A. The unit must be thawed. B. The unit must be warmed to room temperature. C. The unit must be washed. D. The unit must be agitated.
C
11. When collecting routine blood product donations, the venipuncture site is first cleaned with: A. 70% Isopropyl alcohol B. 50% Iodine C. 0.7% Iodophor compound D. 2% Chlorhexidine
C
110. After frozen RBC's have been thawed and washed, they must be used within how many hours? A. 6 B. 12 C. 24 D. 48
C
112. Persons with hemophilia A or hemophilia B that demonstrate inhibitors should be given which of the following products? A. Factor VIII concentrates B. Factor IX concentrates C. Factor VIIa D. Factor X
C
117. Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells: A. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. IgA deficiency with anti-IgA D. Multiple red cell alloantibodies
C
125. Which of the following is an example of proper transfusion practices regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? A. Contains all labile coagulation factors except cryoprecipitate B. Has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than whole blood C. Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing D. ABO-compatible units are not required for transfusion purposes
C
1. A blood donor shows signs of syncope, or fainting, shortly after donating. What should be done to treat the patient? A. Ensure the donor's airway is open B. Perform chest compressions C. Ask the donor to cough D. Apply a cold compress to the back of the neck
D
10. What is the appropriate deferral period from donating blood for a 34-year-old female who miscarried in her first trimester? A. 8 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 2 weeks D. No deferral
D
103. What action should be taken if a large clot is noticed in a red blood cell unit while the product is being prepared for release to the patient? A. Issue the product as you normally would but with a filter. B. Issue the product, but note the presence of the clot in the computer records. C. Filter the product prior to issue and record the process. D. Do not issue the product.
D
113. Which of the following refers to the most common procedure for donating whole blood for use by the general population? A. Autologous donation B. Hemapheresis C. Directed donation D. Allogeneic donation
D
114. Which of the following criteria for donor RBC should be used for an exchange transfusion related to both HDFN due to anti-D and ABO HDFN? A. Reconstituted with group O fresh frozen plasma B. Negative for hemoglobin F C. Reconstituted with cryoprecipitate D. Irradiated
D
115. Which is the best component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency? A. Red Blood Cells B. Platelet Concentrate C. Fresh Whole Blood D. Cryoprecipitated AHF
D
105. Once Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) has been thawed, it should be stored at what temperature? A. 1 - 6 ºC B. 30 - 37 ºC C. 20 - 24º C D. 45 - 56º C
A
111. Which blood component is the most commonly used component for the replacement of multiple coagulation factor deficiencies in bleeding patients? A. Fresh Frozen Plasma B. Red Blood Cells C. Cryoprecipitate D. Whole Blood
A
119. All of the following are appropriate indications for the use of fresh frozen plasma (FFP) EXCEPT? A. Volume expansion B. Severe bleeding in the presence of significantly elevated PT secondary to vitamin K deficiency C. Replacement component after plasma exchange in patients with TTP or HUS D. Dilutional coagulopathy with significant active bleeding, and PT and PTT twice normal
A
122. Which of the following patients are at risk for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) and require irradiated cellular blood products? A. Immunocompromised patients including neonates less than 4 months of age and patients receiving chemotherapy. B. Post-surgical recipients of pre-operatively donated autologous blood products. C. Patients with chronic anemias who are frequently transfused cellular blood products. D. Patients with a history of urticarial (allergic) reactions to transfused blood products.
A
131. What is the maximum number of white blood cells allowed in a leukocyte-reduced unit of red blood cells? A. 5 x 10^6 B. 1 x 10^10 C. 5.5 x 10^10 D. 3 x 10^11
A
15. Platelet products will be prepared from a whole blood donation. What must be used to prevent potential contamination of the platelets with skin cells and bacteria? A. Diversion pouch B. 70% Isopropyl alcohol C. Attached segments D. Irradiation
A
18. What is the minimum hemoglobin concentration required for autologous blood donation? A. 11 g/dL B. 10 g/dL C. 13 g/dL D. 12.5 g/dL
A
21. Which one of the physical examination results below may be cause to reject a donor from blood donation? A. Hemoglobin of 12.0 g/dL B. Pulse of 80 beats per minute C. Temperature of 98.3ºF (36.8ºC) D. Blood pressure of 100/75 mm Hg
A
26. What is the minimum acceptable hematocrit level for a male that wants to donate double RBC units through RBC apheresis? A. 40% B. 39% C. 38% D. 33%
A
27. All of the following are cause for donor deferral EXCEPT? A. An individual weighs 115 pounds at the time of donor screening. B. Potential donor is currently pregnant in her second trimester. C. Donated a whole blood product within the last 30 days. D. He/she lived in the United Kingdom (UK) for a consecutive 12-month period between 1980 - 1996.
A
30. If the unit is going to be transfused within the collection facility, autologous blood must always be tested for which of the following before transfusion? A. ABO, Rh B. ABO, Rh, HBsAg C. ABO, Rh, HIV D. ABO, Rh, HBsAg, HIV
A
33. What procedure utilizes leukapheresis to collect the buffy coat from whole blood? A. Photopheresis B. Plasmapheresis C. Therapeutic apheresis D. Erythrocytapheresis
A
39. Which one of the following procedures is used for the proper preparation of platelet concentrate from random whole-blood donors? A. Light spin followed by a hard spin B. Light spin followed by two hard spins C. Two light spins D. Hard spin followed by a light spin
A
40. When preparing platelet concentrates from whole blood, after the second spin and excess plasma has been expressed from the platelets, what is the next step in platelet preparation? A. Allow the platelets to rest for 1-2 hours at 20-24°C. B. Agitate the platelets vigorously for 1-2 hours at 20-24°C. C. Pool several platelet concentrates together immediately and irradiate. D. Freeze the platelet concentrate immediately at < 18°C.
A
63. Once Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) has been thawed, it should be stored at what temperature? A. 1 - 6 ºC B. 30 - 37 ºC C. 20 - 24º C D. 45 - 56º C
A
65. Which component can be shipped with fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? A. Cryoprecipitate B. Platelets C. Packed red blood cells D. Whole blood
A
71. What is the required storage temperature for red blood cells? A. 1-6 degrees Celsius B. 5-15 degrees Celsius C. -18 degrees Celsius D. 20-24 degrees Celsius
A
73. Red blood cell units that contain CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) can be stored for up to how many days? A. 21 days B. 28 days C. 35 days D. 42 days
A
74. Frozen red cells that have been prepared with high glycerol methods (40% glycerol) can be stored up to 10 years if held at which of the following temperatures? A. - 65o C or lower B. - 20o C or lower C. - 10o C or lower D. 0o C or lower
A
77. Which blood product should be shipped on dry ice? A. Fresh frozen plasma B. Whole blood C. Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells D. Apheresis granulocytes
A
83. FFP that has been thawed at 30 - 37°C and maintained at 1 - 6°C must be transfused within ___________ after it has been thawed. A. 24 hours B. 8 hours C. 12 hours D. 5 days
A
88. When a unit of packed RBC's is split using the open system, each portion of the unit must be issued: A. Within 24 hours B. Within 48 hours C. Within 30 days D. By the original expiration date
A
91. When preparing platelet concentrates from whole blood, after the second spin and excess plasma has been expressed from the platelets, what is the next step in platelet preparation? A. Allow the platelets to rest for 1-2 hours at 20-24°C. B. Agitate the platelets vigorously for 1-2 hours at 20-24°C. C. Pool several platelet concentrates together immediately and irradiate. D. Freeze the platelet concentrate immediately at < 18°C.
A
127. Bacterial contamination is MOST likely in which of the following blood products? A. Packed red blood cells B. Frozen red blood cells C. Platelets D. Fresh frozen plasma
C
13. Based on the evaluation of hematocrit (Hct), blood pressure (BP), pulse, age, and gender, which of the following individuals represents an acceptable allogeneic donor? A. Hct is 39%, BP is 160/105, Temp is 99.8, Pulse is 75, Age is 40, and Sex is female B. Hct is 37%, BP is 135/85, Temp is 98.6, Pulse is 80, Age is 15, and Sex is male C. Hct is 41%, BP is 110/80, Temp is 99.4, Pulse is 65, Age is 65, and Sex is male D. Hct is 32%, BP is 120/80, Temp is 98.9, Pulse is 70, Age is 22, and Sex is female
C
19. A potential apheresis platelet donor must be deferred for how long following the use of aspirin? A. 4 weeks B. 2 weeks C. 48 hours D. No deferral - can donate immediately given they meet all other requirements.
C
20. Which blood group is considered the "universal" donor when transfusing Red Blood Cells? A. Group A B. Group B C. Group O D. Group AB
C
22. Louisa is a healthy 24-year-old woman that wants to donate blood today. Her hemoglobin, temperature, blood pressure, and pulse are all within the acceptable limits for donating. She's in good health and not taking any medications. She recently divorced her spouse who was a hemophiliac that regularly received factor concentrates. Can Louisa donate blood today? A. Yes. There is no deferral for this situation. B. No. Louisa can't donate because her husband received factor concentrates. C. Maybe, depending on Louisa's last sexual contact with her ex-spouse. D. Maybe, depending on what kind of factor concentrate Louisa's ex-spouse received.
C
25. A person who lived in the United Kingdom between the years of 1980 and 1996 for 3 or more months is indefinitely deferred from donating blood or blood products based on an increased risk of which of the following? A. Malaria B. Leishmaniasis C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) and/or variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) D. Chagas disease
C
29. Which one of these physical exam results would cause a donor to be deferred? A. A hemoglobin of 13.0 g/dL. B. A pulse of 75 C. A diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg D. A temperature of 99.3 ºF
C
3. What is the minimum acceptable hematocrit value for a female who wants to donate an autologous unit of blood for an upcoming surgery? A. 39% B. 38% C. 33% D. 25%
C
32. The accepted interval between whole blood donations is: A. 2 days B. 4 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 16 weeks
C
41. Which of the following steps must be followed to prepare a platelet concentrate? A. Whole blood centrifuged at low speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at low speed B. Whole blood centrifuged at high speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed C. Whole blood centrifuged at low speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed D. Whole blood centrifuged at high speed - plasma separated then centrifuged at low speed
C
49. Which of the following viruses or diseases is screened for in blood donors only using questions asked during the donor screening and selection process? A. Hepatitis B B. West Nile Virus C. Malaria D. HIV
C
5. Marcus had a transfusion of packed RBC's 8 months ago following a surgery after a car accident. He is fully recovered and is otherwise healthy. How soon can Marcus donate a unit of blood? A. He can never donate a unit of blood. B. He can donate in 12 months. C. He can donate in 4 months. D. He can donate today.
C
55. Once the seal on a unit of packed red blood cells is opened, how long can the unit be stored in the refrigerator prior to administration? A. 4 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours
C
59. Which of the following is an example of proper transfusion practices regarding fresh frozen plasma (FFP)? A. Contains all labile coagulation factors except cryoprecipitate B. Has a higher risk of transmitting hepatitis than whole blood C. Should be transfused within 24 hours of thawing D. ABO-compatible units are not required for transfusion purposes
C
62. When transporting donated platelet units, what is the maximum amount of time that agitation of platelets can be stopped for? A. 1 hour B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 3 days
C
7. Which of the prospective donors below would be an acceptable blood donor? Donor number 1: Blood pressure: 90/55 Pulse: 105 Temperature: 36.4ºC (97.6 ºF) Donor number 2: Blood pressure: 200/90 Pulse: 72 Temperature: 37ºC (98.6 ºF) Donor number 3: Blood pressure: 110/72 Pulse:66 Temperature: 37.2ºC (99.0 ºF) Donor number 4: Blood pressure: 100/70 Pulse: 98 Temperature: 38.3 (101.0 ºF)
C
76. Platelets should be stored at what temperature? A. 1-6 degrees Celsius B. Less than -18 degrees Celsius C. 20-24 degrees Celsius D. 34-37 degrees Celsius
C
82. An aliquot of AS-1 red blood cells is being prepared from an intact packed cell unit using a sterile connection device.During the process of preparing an aliquot, the sterile device fails and blood drips onto the counter from the product tubing. What should be done with the primary unit? A. Destroy the unit. B. Keep the original expiration date C. Change the expiration date to 24 hours D. Change the expiration date to 48 hours
C
128. Plasma exchange is the current treatment for all of these conditions, EXCEPT: A. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) B. Diarrhea-associated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) C. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) D. Pernicious anemia
D
64. Red cells units containing CPDA-1 as an anticoagulant-preservative may be stored for how long prior to transfusion? A. 5 days B. 15 days C. 25 days D. 35 days
D
66. Which of the following is the proper storage temperature for whole blood? A. - 20 degrees Celsius B. - 12 degrees Celsius C. 12 degrees Celsius D. 4 degrees Celsius
D
68. Donated red cell units contain which substance to stabilize the pH of the unit during storage? A. Dextrose B. Adenine C. Citrate D. Sodium biphosphate
D
69. Donor red blood cells (RBCs) were collected on July 12th of this year. The RBCs were then frozen in glycerol on July 17th (5 days later) and stored at -65o C. What should the expiration date read on the frozen RBC unit? A. July 12th; 1 year from collection date B. July 17th; 1 year from freezing date C. July 17th; 10 years from freezing date D. July 12th; 10 years from collection date
D
8. How long after potential donors have been diagnosed with malaria should they be deferred from doing a blood donation? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years D. 3 years
D
81. Storage lesion, or the biochemical changes in red blood cells during storage, will result in: A. Decreased hemoglobin B. Increased plasma sodium C. Decreased plasma potassium D. Decreased plasma pH
D
87. How much time must elapse between apheresis red blood cell donations? A. 48 hours B. 7 days C. 8 weeks D. 16 weeks
D
98. A platelet component prepared from a unit of whole blood (random donor platelet) must contain at least how many platelets? A. 3.8 x 1010 platelets/unit B. 4.0 x 1010 platelets/unit C. 4.5 x 1010 platelets/unit D. 5.5 x 1010 platelets/unit
D