Blood bank success questions

A ficin (enzyme) treated panel can be a useful tool for determining the identity of an antibody. On a ficin-treated panel, reactions with which system would be enhanced? A. Rh B. Duffy C. MNS D. Kell

A. Rh

The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in all the following EXCEPT: A. Transfusion reactions B. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn D. Detection of alloantibodies in serum

D. Detection of alloantibodies in serum

Who would be a candidate, at 28 weeks gestation and had a negative antibody screen, to be injected with Rh immune globulin (RhIg)? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Rh positive mother with Rh negative fetus B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive fetus C. Rh negative mother with Rh negative fetus D. Rh negative mother with Rh positive fetus

D. Rh negative mother with Rh positive fetus

How many milliliters of Rh positive whole blood is one dose of Rh immune globulin capable of neutralizing? A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 450

B. 30

In order to prevent a loss of viability in platelet concentrates during storage, the pH must be maintained at or above what level? A. 7.5 B. 6.2 C. 5.0 D. 4.5

B. 6.2

After birth, which of the following is the biggest concern for a newborn infant suffering from hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Accumulation of bilirubin B.Anemia due to red blood cell destruction C. Decrease in bilirubin level D. Low hematocrit values

A. Accumulation of bilirubin

A newborn presents with neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely cause of this condition? Please select the single best answer A. Maternal antibodies to neonatal platelet antigens B. Maternal antibodies to neonatal ABO antigens C. Maternal antibodies to neonatal white cell antigens D. Maternal antibodies to neonatal D antigen

A. Maternal antibodies to neonatal platelet antigens

Platelets that are not collected by an apheresis method must be prepared within ________ of the collection of whole blood. The correct answer is highlighted below A.30 minutes B. 8 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

B. 8 hours

A primary immune response is generally associated with which antibody? A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD

C. IgM

Almost all individuals possess which Lutheran antigen profile? A. Lu(a-b-) B. Lu(a+b-) C. Lu(a-b+) D. Lu(a+b+)

C. Lu(a-b+)

What blood system is often tested to either establish or dispute paternity? A. HLA B. ABO C. Rh D. Duffy

A. HLA

An antibody to which platelet antigen is most commonly encountered in blood bank? The correct answer is highlighted below A. HPA-1a B. HPA-2a C. HPA-3a D. HPA-4a

A. HPA-1a

What is the appropriate deferral period from donating blood for a 34-year-old female who miscarried in her first trimester? A. 8 weeks B. 6 weeks C. 2 weeks D. No deferral

D. No deferral

An individual with group AB blood does not have which of the following antigens present on their red blood cells? A. A B. B C. H D. O

D. O

Which adsorption technique removes cold (IgM) antibodies, particularly anti-I specificities? A. Cold autoadsorption B. Warm autoadsorption C. Differential (allogeneic) D. Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

D. Rabbit erythrocyte stroma (RESt)

What is the required storage temperature for red blood cells? Please select the single best answer A. 1-6 degrees Celsius B. 5-15 degrees Celsius C. -18 degrees Celsius D. 20-24 degrees Celsius

A. 1-6 degrees Celsius

The concentration of sodium chloride in an isotonic solution is: Please select the single best answer A. 8.5 % B. 0.85 % C. 0.08 % D. 85%

B. 0.85 %

Approximately what percent of the Caucasian population is Rh negative? A. 10 % B. 15 % C. 25 % D. 35 %

B. 15 %

Platelets should be stored at what temperature? The correct answer is highlighted below A. 1-6 degrees Celsius B. Less than -18 degrees Celsius C. 20-24 degrees Celsius D. 34-37 degrees Celsius

C. 20-24 degrees Celsius

Antenatal Rh Immune Globulin (RhIG) is typically given at how many weeks gestation? The correct answer is highlighted below A. 20 B. 24 C. 28 D. 32

C. 28

What is the minimum acceptable hematocrit value for a female who wants to donate an autologous unit of blood for an upcoming surgery? A. 39% B. 38% C. 33% D. 25%

C. 33%

The A1 subgroup represents approximately what percentage of group A individuals? Please select the single best answer A. 25 - 30% B. 50 - 60% C. 75 - 80% D. 95 - 98%

C. 75 - 80%

Which of the following statements is correct regarding blood bank adverse event reporting to the FDA? A. All patient deaths while being transfused must be reported to the FDA, even when it has been confirmed that the death was not related to the transfusion. B. When a transfusion reaction is the result of an error it must be reported to the FDA in writing. C. A transfusion-related death must be reported to the FDA within 24 hours of the patient's death. D. The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.

D. The initial notification to the FDA of a transfusion-related death must be made by fax, telephone, express mail, or electronically as soon as possible after the death is confirmed to be associated with the transfusion.

Which of the following immunoglobulins are capable of fixing complement by the classical pathway? A. IgG and IgA B. IgM and IgA C. IgG and IgM D. IgG and IgD

C. IgG and IgM

Which of the following viruses or diseases is screened for in blood donors only using questions asked during the donor screening and selection process? A. Hepatitis B B. West Nile Virus C. Malaria D. HIV

C. Malaria

FFP that has been thawed at 30 - 37°C and maintained at 1 - 6°C must be transfused within ___________ after it has been thawed. A. 24 hours B. 8 hours C. 12 hours D. 5 days

A. 24 hours

Unless an alternative has been approved by the FDA, what is the expiration and storage temperature of rejuvenated (non-frozen) RBC's? Please select the single best answer A. 24 hours; 1 °C to 6 °C B. 48 hours; 1 °C to 10 °C C. 72 hours; 1 °C to 6 °C D. 24 hours; Room temperature

A. 24 hours; 1 °C to 6 °C

In an emergency release, why do blood bankers seldom encounter patients who have experienced hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTR) from transfusion of uncrossmatched packed RBCs? Select the best response. A. The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low. B. They usually receive group O Rh-negative red blood cells; a hemolytic transfusion reaction will never occur if O Rh-negative red blood cells are transfused. C. They hemorrhage so severely that incompatible donor red blood cells "bleed out" before a reaction occurs. D. Some patients have cold-reactive antibodies that will not react at body temperature.

A. The incidence of unexpected red blood cell antibodies is relatively low.

Which of the following transfusion reactions can a diagnosis be more firmly established by evaluating B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels before and after transfusion? A. Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO) B. Delayed Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions C. Transfusion Associated Sepsis D. Allergic Transfusion Reactions

A. Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

Following the treatment of an IgG molecule with papain, which of the following will remain? Please select the single best answer A. Two Fab fragments each with a light chain and a partial heavy chain attached with a disulfide bond B.Four separate light chains and two separate heavy chains C. One unit that consist of a two partial heavy chains, two light chains all attached with a disulfide bond D. Eight units, two complete light chains, and two heavy chains split in half

A. Two Fab fragments each with a light chain and a partial heavy chain attached with a disulfide bond

When a unit of packed RBC's is split using the open system, each portion of the unit must be issued: A. Within 24 hours B. Within 48 hours C. Within 30 days D. By the original expiration date

A. Within 24 hours

What is the acceptable temperature range for maintaining red blood cell components during transport? The correct answer is highlighted below A. 1 - 6ºC B. 1 - 10ºC C. 10 - 15ºC D. 20 - 24ºC

B. 1 - 10ºC

Which of the following is the deferral period following the collection of double red blood cell units? Please select the single best answer A. 1 year B. 16 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 4 weeks

B. 16 weeks

A D-negative mother gives birth to a D-positive child. The result of the fetal maternal hemorrhage (FMH) test is positive. The Kleihauer-Betke test is performed next to quantify the volume of the fetal bleed. The result of this test indicates that the mother has been exposed to 20 mL of fetal blood. How many 300 microgram vials of RhIG should the mother receive? A. 1 vial B. 2 vials C. 3 vials D. RhIG is not indicated for this mother.

B. 2 vials

What is the increase in the risk percentage for developing antibodies against red cell antigens (RBC alloimmunization) for patients who are characterized as chronically transfused patients? Please select the single best answer A. 1% - 4% B. 2% - 8% C. 5% - 10% D. 20% - 50%

B. 2% - 8%

What is the maximum interval during which a recipient sample may be used for compatibility testing if the patient has recently been transfused or was pregnant within the past 3 months? Please select the single best answer A. 24 hours B. 3 days C. One week D. Two weeks

B. 3 days

The lectin Dolichus biflorus agglutinates which types of cells? A. B B. A1B C. A2 D. Both A1B and A2

B. A1B

What is the most common Rh haplotype among whites? Please select the single best answer A. Dce B. DCe C. DcE D. dce

B. DCe

Which of the following is the MOST likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates an "acquired B-antigen" phenomenon? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is O. B. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A. C. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is B. D. Forward typing appears to be B, but reverse group type is AB.

B. Forward typing appears to be AB, but reverse group type is A.

Which of the following genotypes are known to be resistant to P. vivax (malaria) merozoites? A. Fy(a+b+) B. Fy(a-b-) C. Jk(a-b-) D. Jk(a+b+)

B. Fy(a-b-)

In which system are DR antigens found? Please select the single best answer A. Kell system B. HLA system C. Duffy system D. ABO system

B. HLA system

Recombinant Factor IX is indicated for which of the following? A. Hemophilia A B. Hemophilia B C. Hemophiliacs with inhibitors D. Persons with acquired Factor VII deficiency

B. Hemophilia B

A primary immune response typically presents with which class of antibody? Please select the single best answer A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD

B. IgM

Proteolytic enzyme techniques may be useful in identifying which of the following antigen groups: A. Kell system B. Kidd system C. MNS system D. Duffy system

B. Kidd system

Which Lewis antigen(s) would be detected when phenotyping the red cells of an adult who has the Le, Se, and H genes? Please select the single best answer A. Lea B. Leb C. Both Lea and Leb D. Neither Lea or Leb

B. Leb

Donation of which apheresis blood product more than once every four weeks requires monitoring of total plasma protein and antibody levels? A. Red cell apheresis B. Plateletpheresis C. Plasmapheresis D Leukapheresis

C. Plasmapheresis

Which group of conditions increases the risk of HbS polymerization? A. Acid pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG B.Alkaline pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG C. Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG D. Alkaline pH, dehydration, decreased level of 2,3-DPG

C. Acid pH, dehydration, increased level of 2,3-DPG

If detected in antibody screen testing, which of the following antibodies is NOT considered clinically significant in prenatal patients? A. Anti-M B. Anti-N C. Anti-Leb D. Anti-Fya

C. Anti-Leb

Which of the following characteristics of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is NOT different for ABO and Rh HDFN? Please select the single best answer A. Disease predicted in titers B. Anemia at birth C. Antibody is IgG D. Bilirubin at birth

C. Antibody is IgG

Antibodies to which of the following blood components is the most frequent cause of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Platelets B. Packed red blood cells C. Granulocytes D. Plasma

C. Granulocytes

Patients with which of the following conditions would benefit most from washed red cells: A. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia B. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia C. IgA deficiency with anti-IgA D. Multiple red cell alloantibodies

C. IgA deficiency with anti-IgA

A patient is experiencing prolonged bleeding following a transfusion. The complete blood count indicates that the patient's platelet count has decreased following the transfusion. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload B. Transfusion reaction to red cell antigens C. Posttransfusion purpura D. Transfusion related acute lung injury

C. Posttransfusion purpura

What is the explanation for a discrepancy in the following front type and back type in a newborn? Anti-A = neg Anti-B = neg A1 cells = neg B cells = neg A. Red cells are totally coated with antibody. B. The newborn is missing antigens. C. The baby's antibodies are undeveloped. D. Unable to determine.

C. The baby's antibodies are undeveloped.

A refrigerator used to store whole blood must be able to maintain a temperature in the ranges of: The correct answer is highlighted below A. 0 - 4 degrees Celsius B. 2 - 4 degrees Celsius C. 2 - 8 degrees Celsius D. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius

D. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius

A 300 µg dose of RhIg can suppress immunization up to a maximum of _____ mL of D-positive whole blood. Please select the single best answer A. 15 mL B. 20 mL C. 25 mL D. 30 mL

D. 30 mL

Which blood group is considered the universal recipient for transfusion of red blood cells? The correct answer is highlighted below A. O B. A C. B D. AB

D. AB

In the antibody screening test, at what phase of reactivity is it most important to read the reactions for detection of clinically significant antibodies? A. 4°C B. Immediate spin C. 37°C D. AHG

D. AHG

A patient is group AB with one copy of the Se gene. What will they have in their secretions? Please select the single best answer A. A, B, & H B. Only B & H C. Only A & H D. Only H

A. A, B, & H

Which patient population benefits from HLA matching to provide patients with the best outcomes? Please select the single best answer A. Transfusion recipients B. Organ transplant recipients C. Neonates D. Patients with high-incidence antibodies

B. Organ transplant recipients

If possible, what is the recommended time interval for Rh immune globulin administration to the Rh negative mother following the delivery of an Rh positive or weak-D positive infant? Please select the single best answer A. 72 hours B. One week C. Two weeks D. Prior to another pregnancy

A. 72 hours

For which of the following antibodies is the DAT most likely to be NEGATIVE when testing a newborn for possible HDFN? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Anti-A,B B. Anti-c C. Anti-D D. Anti-K

A. Anti-A,B

Which finding best distinguishes immune hemolytic anemia from other hemolytic anemias? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Rouleaux B. Positive DAT C. Splenomegaly D. Increased erythrocyte count

B. Positive DAT

Which is in the correct order from the lowest concentration of H antigen to the highest concentration of H antigen? Please select the single best answer A. Bombay, A1B, A1, A2B, B, A2, O B. A1, O, B, A2, Bombay, A1B, A2B C. Bombay, O, A1B, A2, A1, B, A2B D. A1B, A2B, A2, O, B, A1, Bombay

A. Bombay, A1B, A1, A2B, B, A2, O

In which of the following cases should Rh Immune Globulin (RhIG) be given? A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Rh positive mother carrying an Rh negative fetus C. Rh postive mother carrying an Rh positive fetus D Rh negative mother with anti-D formed from previous pregnancy

A. Ectopic pregnancy

Which of the following contains all the possible phenotypes that could be the result of parents who are group O and group A? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Groups A or O only B. Group A only C. Group O only D. All possible blood groups

A. Groups A or O only

Which one of the physical examination results below may be cause to reject a donor from blood donation? Please select the single best answer A. Hemoglobin of 12.0 g/dL B. Pulse of 80 beats per minute C. Temperature of 98.3ºF (36.8ºC) D. Blood pressure of 100/75 mm Hg

A. Hemoglobin of 12.0 g/dL

Which situation will cause a positive DAT (direct antiglobulin test) in the newborn? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn B. Mother is group AB and newborn is group O C. Mother is Rh positive and newborn is Rh positive D. Mother is Rh positive and newborn in Rh negative

A. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

Which of the following patients are at risk for transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) and require irradiated cellular blood products? Please select the single best answer A. Immunocompromised patients including neonates less than 4 months of age and patients receiving chemotherapy. B. Post-surgical recipients of pre-operatively donated autologous blood products. C. Patients with chronic anemias who are frequently transfused cellular blood products. D. Patients with a history of urticarial (allergic) reactions to transfused blood products.

A. Immunocompromised patients including neonates less than 4 months of age and patients receiving chemotherapy.

Which of the following activities would require that a label be added to the blood label indicating the name and location of a second manufacturer? Please select the single best answer A. Irradiating a unit of red cells or platelets B. Shipping a unit to another facility C. Thawing a unit of plasma D. Receiving a unit from another facility

A. Irradiating a unit of red cells or platelets

Platelet specific antigens, also referred to as human platelet antigens (HPAs), are expressed on which of the following? A. Membrane glycoproteins B. Membrane lipids C. Nucleus surface D. Nucleus nucleolus

A. Membrane glycoproteins

Can an autologous donor donate blood at 4 PM on Monday if she is having surgery at 10 AM on Wednesday? A. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours. B. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is eight weeks. C. Yes, the patient can donate, but only half a unit. D. Yes, an autologous donor can donate up to 24 hours prior to surgery.

A. No, the minimal allowable time between the last donation and surgery is 72 hours.

Why is Rh immune globulin (RhIg) administered within 72 hours of delivery to an Rh negative mother if the newborn is found to be D-positive or weak-D positive? A Prevent future children from producing antibodies B. Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother C. Prevent antibody response in a previously sensitized mother D. Neutralize any natural maternal antibodies present

B. Prevent fetal cells from initially sensitizing the mother

A 40-year-old female receives two units of Red Blood Cells during a surgical procedure. The patient has no prior history of transfusions. Seven days later, she presents with extensive bruising of the extremities and bleeding of the gums, with no additional symptoms. Her platelet count is 5 x 109/L (reference interval 150 - 400 x 109/L). What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Post transfusion purpura (PTP) B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) C. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) D. Allergic reaction

A. Post transfusion purpura (PTP)

Which of these units of Red Blood Cells, that has been issued and returned to the blood bank, can be returned to inventory and is acceptable to use? Please select the single best answer A. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 1 hour previously but not transfused and kept at room temperature. B. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours. C. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued 15 minutes previously, but returned unused with one of the sterile ports opened. D. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was issued to the ER with other units in a temperature controlled blood bank emergency cooler, returned to the blood bank 5 hours after issue, with internal temperature of the system reading 15o C.

B. A unit of Red Blood Cells that was not transfused but stored in a temperature-controlled remote refrigerator in the operating room for 2 hours.

Which listed transfusion reaction is MOST OFTEN associated with transfused patient's lacking IgA? A. Hemolytic B. Anaphylaxis C. Febrile D. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)

B. Anaphylaxis

Which of the following has the correct interpretation for the ABO group based on the forward and reverse testing? Please select the single best answer A. Anti-A & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells & B cells = positive; interpretation = group AB B. Anti-A = positive & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells = negative & B cells = positive; interpretation = group A C. Anti-A = negative & Anti-B = positive; A1 cells = positive & B cells = negative; interpretation = group A D. Anti-A & Anti-B = positive; A1 cells & B cells = negative; interpretation = group O

B. Anti-A = positive & Anti-B = negative; A1 cells = negative & B cells = positive; interpretation = group A

What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for crossmatch after recipient antibodies have been identified? A. Perform DAT on patient serum and donor units B. Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched C. Perform IAT on patient cells and donor units D. Obtain a different sample for repeat antibody panel testing

B. Antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched

Glycine-HCL/EDTA treatment of red cells can destroy which of the following antigens, allowing for confirmation of a suspected antibody and detecting additional antibodies? Please select the single best answer A. Kidd B. Bg and Kell C. Ss D. Duffy

B. Bg and Kell

Which procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample to monitor severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) can also be used to deliver intrauterine transfusions? Please select the single best answer A. Amniocentesis B. Cordocentesis C. Doppler sonography D. Exchange transfusion via maternal circulation

B. Cordocentesis

At what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the FDA's current good manufacturing practices requirements? A. At the beginning of each work shift B. Each day of use C. Only at the time of receipt D. By each new user

B. Each day of use

If an autologous blood component is shipped from the donor center without the completion of infectious disease testing, the unit must be labeled with: Please select the single best answer A. A blue sticker indicating which tests are in process. B. The phrase "Donor Untested". C. A statement from the ordering physician requesting the release. D. A red warning tag.

B. The phrase "Donor Untested".

What is the most common treatment for hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) due to ABO incompatibility? A. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) B. Intrauterine transfusion C. Phototherapy D. Exchange transfusion

C. Phototherapy

A patient, who recently received a transfusion of three units of red cells, is DAT-positive with an IgG specificity. What would be the best method to identify the patient's phenotype? A. Adsorption and elution B. Type and Screen C. Polymerase chain reaction-based assay D. Antigen typing

C. Polymerase chain reaction-based assay

Red cells units containing CPDA-1 as an anticoagulant-preservative may be stored for how long prior to transfusion? Please select the single best answer A. 5 days B. 15 days C. 25 days D 35 days

D 35 days

When would unexpected positive reactions be encountered during ABO forward typing? A. A or B subgroups B. Antigen depression due to leukemia C. Hypogammaglobulinemia D. Acquired B antigen

D. Acquired B antigen

What action should be taken if a large clot is noticed in a red blood cell unit while the product is being prepared for release to the patient? A. Issue the product as you normally would but with a filter. B. Issue the product, but note the presence of the clot in the computer records. C. Filter the product prior to issue and record the process. D. Do not issue the product.

D. Do not issue the product.

All of the following red blood cell phenotypes will react with Anti-Fy3, EXCEPT? The correct answer is highlighted below A. Fy(a+b+) B. Fy(a+b-) C. Fy(a-b+) D. Fy(a-b-)

D. Fy(a-b-)

When testing for the quality of platelet concentrates, all of the following must be included EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer A. pH B. Platelet count C. Bacterial detection D. Gas production

D. Gas production

Which of the following packed RBCs could be transfused to a group O patient? A. Group A B. Group B C. Group AB D. Group O

D. Group O

Which of the following antigens is classified as a Major Histocompatibility Complex Class II antigen (MHCII)? Please select the single best answer A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C D. HLA-DR

D. HLA-DR

Which occurrence is a medical error? Choose the correct answer and click OK. A. Technologist drops and breaks a bottle of chemistry reagent B.Patient is tested and diagnosed with acute leukemia C. Analyzer malfunctions and test results are rejected as invalid D. Incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery

D. Incompatible blood is transfused into a patient during surgery

For granulocyte concentrations, all of the following laboratory tests must be performed on the unit by the donor center EXCEPT? Please select the single best answer A. ABO and Rh B. Red Cell antibodies C. Infectious disease markers D. Lymphocyte enumeration

D. Lymphocyte enumeration

Enzyme panel reactions cannot be used as the only source of rule-outs during antibody identification. Why is this? A. Enzyme panels only detect warm autoantibodies B. Enzyme panels only detect IgM antibodies C. All antigens on the panel cells are destroyed by enzymes D. Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present

D. Some antigens are destroyed and may not detect an antibody that is present

Why is it dangerous to transfuse a blood group O person with a unit of blood group A? The correct answer is highlighted below A. The patient will make antibodies to the type A blood. B. The group A blood may become the prominent blood group. C. The patient's Anti-O would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient. D. The patient's anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient.

D. The patient's anti-A would destroy the donor's cells with severe consequences to the patient.

Which of the following clinical findings characterizes post-transfusion purpura (PTP)? Please select the single best answer A. Increased hemoglobin B. Pancytopenia C. High ferritin levels D. Thrombocytopenia

D. Thrombocytopenia