Board Review Anatomic Sciences and Physiology
A.Both the statement and reason are correct and related. RATIONALE: The periodontal ligament experiences proprioceptive and tactile sensitivity provided by innervation to the ligament. The nerve supply is derived from branches of the trigeminal nerve and thus is sensory in nature. Nerve branches terminate in the periodontal ligament as well as the surface of alveolar bone, within gingival connective tissue. These nerves receive stimuli for pain through nocioceptors (sensory receptors) and for position and pressure (mechanoreceptors and proprioceptors).
A 40-year-old patient with a history of infrequent dental care was treated more than 2 years ago when a large restoration had been placed on tooth #30. As noted in the dental record, the restoration was placed close to the pulp. Immediately after the restoration was placed, the client said he experienced pain when biting down, but he did not return to the office for care. The pain subsided after a period of time.The periodontal ligament can perceive sensations of pain and pressure because it is equipped with sensory nerve fibers via the trigeminal nerve. A.Both the statement and reason are correct and related. B.Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. C.The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. D.The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
A.isotonic. RATIONALE: Isotonic contraction refers to contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same as the length of the muscle changes. Isotonic means 'same tension". Conversely, during isometric a contraction the muscular length remains the same while muscle tension increases. Isometric means "same length". Stretch reflex refers to the degree to which the load imposed on a muscle influences the strength of skeletal contraction. Synctium refers to a continuous, electrically coupled mass that is important for coordinating muscle contractions.
A contraction in which the tone or tension within a muscle remains the same while the length of the muscle changes is referred to as A.isotonic. B.isometric. C.stretch reflex. D.syncytium.
D.The first statement is false, the second is true. RATIONALE: Alkalosis describes a condition that develops when arterial blood pH is above normal. The normal range for arterial pH is 7.35 to 7.45. Correctly stated, an increase in arterial blood pH (above 7.45) is called alkalosis. Acidosis describes a condition that develops when the arterial blood pH is below normal. The normal range for arterial pH is 7.35 to 7.45.
A decrease in arterial blood pH below 7.45 is called alkalosis.A decrease in arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called acidosis. A.Both statements are true. B.Both statements are false. C.The first statement is true, the second is false. D.The first statement is false, the second is true.
A.Myocardial infarction RATIONALE: Myocardial infarction (MI) results from a diminished or interrupted supply of oxygenated blood to the heart and causes death (necrosis) of part of the heart muscle. Severe chest pain, often described as "crushing pressure", is the classic symptom of a myocardial infarction. Angina pectoris is manifested as a transient (temporary) ischemia (lack of oxygenated blood) of the heart muscle, usually described as chest pain or discomfort. Congestive heart failure results when the heart is unable to pump and an adequate amount of blood and has many symptom including swelling of the ankles, tachycardia (rapid heart beat), and weakness. Hyperventilation, often the result of pain, anxiety, or drugs causes rapid breathing that causes an excessive elimination of carbon dioxide resulting in respiratory alkalosis.
A diminished supply of oxygenated blood to the heart that causes necrosis of part of the heart muscle is called A.Myocardial infarction B.angina pectoris C.congestive heart failure. D.hyperventilation.
A.Multinucleated giant cells RATIONALE: Multinucleated giant cells are typically found in giant cell granulomas. Also typical of this benign lesion formed within a delicate connective tissue stroma is an overlying surface that is frequently ulcerated.
A histologic sample taken from a peripheral giant cell granuloma will have which of the following cell types? A.Multinucleated giant cells B.Few or no inflammatory cells C.Remnants of the enamel or cementum D.Necrosis of all cells
A.mitochondria. RATIONALE: Mitochondria are powerful cellular organelles that contain a single circular DNA, and synthesize the body's primary source of energy, adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes and lead the breakdown of foreign substances by the process of phagocytosis. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and the transport of nutrients to the nucleus. The golgi apparatus stores, packs, and transfers proteins and other cellular components to the exterior of a secretory cell.
A structure in the cell that contains a single, circular DNA, and synthesizes adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the A.mitochondria. B.lysosome. C.endoplasmic reticulum. D.golgi apparatus.
B.Typically erupted into oral cavity RATIONALE: Because most supernumerary teeth are unerupted, it is significant that supernumerary teeth are most often discovered radiographically. Although there are numerous causes of supernumerary teeth, their etiology may be familial or inherited. Supernumerary teeth may be seen in association with inherited disorders such as Cleidocranial dysplasia or Gardner's syndrome. The most common supernumerary tooth is called a mesiodens and is located between maxillary central incisors.
All of the following are characteristic of supernumerary teeth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Most often discovered radiographically B.Typically erupted into oral cavity C.May be associated with inherited disorders D.Most commonly mesiodens
D.Chlorine RATIONALE: While chlorine is not involved in the growth and formation of bones and teeth, this element is the primary anion connected with sodium in extracellular fluid to help maintain extracellular fluid balance, osmotic equilibrium, and electrolytic balance. Phosphorus, calcium, magnesium, and potassium are involved in the growth and formation of bones and teeth.
All of the following minerals are involved in the growth and formation of bones and teeth EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Phosphorous B.Calcium C.Magnesium D.Chlorine
A.Membranous structure is bound by fats, amino acids, and carbohydrates RATIONALE: Membranous structure of mitochondria is bounded by inner and outer cell membranes that contains enzyme complexes such as tricarboxylic acid cycle enzymes. The inner part is formed into folds called cristae that extend like shelves inside the mitochondria providing an additional work surface area for the organelle. It is also true that the number of mitochondria present in a cell depends on the amount of energy required by the cell. Mitochondria, called the powerhouse of the cell, provide the chief source of energy for the cell.
All of the following statements regarding mitochondria are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Membranous structure is bound by fats, amino acids, and carbohydrates B.The inner part of the membranous structure is formed into folds called cristae C. The number of mitochondria present in a cell depends on the amount of energy required by the cell D. Mitochondria provide the chief source of energy for the cell.
A.only antigen A. RATIONALE: The ABO blood group system is based on isoantigens A and B. Type A red cells display only antigen A. Type B red cells display only antigen B. Type AB red cells display both antigens A and B. Type O red cells display neither antigen A nor antigen B.
Blood type is determined by the assortment of glycolipids and glycoproteins, called isoantigens, present on the surfaces of red blood cells (RBCs). Surfaces of type A red blood cells display A.only antigen A. B.only antigen B. C.Type AB red cells display both antigens A and B. D.Type O red cells display neither antigen A nor antigen B.
B.number of heart beats per minute and stroke volume (SV). RATIONALE: Cardiac output, a function of both number of heart beats per minute and stroke volume, is the volume of blood ejected per minute from the left ventricle into the aorta. Although related physiologically, cardiac output is not directly determined by peripheral resistance, strength of contraction, or vascular dilation.
Cardiac output is determined by the A.number of heart beats per minute and peripheral resistance. B.number of heart beats per minute and stroke volume (SV). C.number of heart beats per minute and strength of contraction. D.number of heart beats per minute and vascular dilation
A.calcium. RATIONALE: During tooth formation, calcium is crucial to the calcification of the protein matrix for cementum. Protein, phosphorus, and vitamin D are also important components of calcification of the protein matrix in cementum. Note that different nutrients are essential for synthesis of the protein matrix for cementum. These nutrients are vitamin C, zinc, copper, and protein.
Cementoblasts calcify the protein matrix during tooth formation cementum. The essential nutrient for this process is A.calcium. B.copper. C.zinc. D.selenium.
C.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. RATIONALE: Congenital heart disease is associated with anomalies of the heart structure, which occur in the first 9 weeks in utero.
Congenital heart disease is associated with anomalies of the heart structure.Anomalies of the heart structure occur in utero during weeks 15 through 20. A.Both statements are TRUE. B.Both statements are FALSE. C.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. D.The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
B.Lateral nasal RATIONALE: The lateral nasal processes (area to the right and left of the nasal pits) form the sides of the nose. The remaining structures are involved in development of the corner of the mouth. Maxillary processes arise from the superolateral border of the first branchial arch. They grow downward to merge with the mandibular processes and form the closure at the corner of the mouth.
Development of the upper lip involves all of the following structures EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Mandibular processes B.Lateral nasal C.Maxillary processes D.First brachial arch
C.the lower reading in the blood pressure measurement. RATIONALE: Diastolic blood pressure, which is represented by the lower, or "bottom" reading, measures pressure in the arteries between heartbeats. It's important to note that the diastolic reading registers pressure when the heart muscle is resting. Diastolic pressure is not a form of hypertension but rather an indicator representing the blood pressure when the heart is at rest. Diastolic pressure is not a form of hypotension. Diastolic blood pressure is not the higher, or "upper" reading. The "upper" reading is known as the systolic pressure.
Diastolic pressure is A.a form of hypertension. B.a form of hypotension. C.the lower reading in the blood pressure measurement. D.the higher reading in the blood pressure measurement.
B.Facial RATIONALE: The facial nerve (Cranial nerve VII) innervates the muscles of facial expression; damage to this nerve can cause facial paralysis. Bell's palsy is manifested as abrupt paralysis without preceding pain. It occurs unilaterally and causes drooling because the corner of the mouth to droop. However, the exact cause is still unknown.
During a dental hygiene continued-care appointment, a client of record exhibits partial facial paralysis. She was recently diagnosed as having Bell's palsy. Damage to which of the following nerves caused this condition? A.Trigeminal B.Facial C.Glossopharyngeal D.Buccal
A.anterior lobe of the pituitary gland RATIONALE: During facial development Rathke's pouch, a small invagination in the roof of the stomodeum, deepens into the brain and forms the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Both the maxilla and the mandible develop from the first branchial arch. The medial nasal process (area between the nasal pits) gives rise to the center of the nose and the nasal septum.
During facial development Rathke's pouch deepens into the brain and forms the A.anterior lobe of the pituitary gland B.maxilla C.mandible D.center of the nose and the nasal septum
C.Congestive heart failure RATIONALE: Congestive heart failure is due to the inability of the heart to function efficiently as a pump; therefore, dyspnea (shortness of breath) and peripheral edema (fluid retention) result.
During her health history review, a patient indicates that she uses more than two pillows to sleep at night, becomes out of breath walking short distances, and has constant swelling in her feet and ankles. What condition is MOST likely causing these symptoms? A.Acute adrenal insufficiency B.Congenital heart disease C.Congestive heart failure D.Hypertension
D.Interphase RATIONALE: Chromosome replication takes place during the interphase stage; chromosomes are dispersed as chromatin material within the nucleus. During metaphase, chromatids line up at the center; spindle fibers attach at the centromere; and the centromere replicates. During prophase the chromosomes coil and contract; each chromosome consists of a pair of strands called chromatids, held together by a centromere. During anaphase spindle fibers pull the new chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell.
During which phase does chromosome replication of genetic material occur? A.Metaphase B.Prophase C.Anaphase D.Interphase
C.Pons RATIONALE: The pons connects the spinal cord to the brain and is not located within the cerebrum. The pons relays impulses related to voluntary skeletal movements from the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. Within the cerebrum are four cerebral lobes: frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital. White matter consisting of myelinated axons is also found within the cerebrum.
Each of the following are located within the cerebrum EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION? A.Frontal lobe B.Occipital lobe C.Pons D.White matter
D. Nerve RATIONALE: Nerve cells are radioresistant because they are resistant to radiation effects. Note that nerve cells are the most radioresistant cell type. Also radioresistant are liver and muscle cells. By contrast, radiosensitive cells, such as lymphatic, erythrocytes, and reproductive, are sensitive to effect of radiation.
Each of the following cell types are radiosensitive EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Lymphatic B.Erythrocytes C.Reproductive D.Nerve
D.Carry fluid away from the eye and toward the nasal cavity RATIONALE: It is the nasolacrimal duct that carries fluid away from the eye and toward the nasal cavity. The lacrimal glands are located bilaterally on the outer borders of the orbital cavity. These glands secrete about 1 milliliter (mL) of fluid per day. This fluid contains lysozyme, a protective substance that destroys bacteria.
Each of the following describes anatomic features of the lacrimal glands within the eye EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Located bilaterally on the outer borders of the orbital cavity B.Secrete about 1 milliliter (mL) of fluid per day C.Contain lysozyme to destroy bacteria D.Carry fluid away from the eye and toward the nasal cavity
A.Anabolism RATIONALE: The three main stages of cellular respiration are glycolosis, the citric acid cycle, and electron transport. Anabolism is not one of the three main stages of cellular respiration. Anabolism, the opposite of catabolism, is the breaking of large molecules into smaller ones; anabolism usually releases energy.
Each of the following is a main stage of cellular respiration EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Anabolism B.Glycolosis C.Citric acid cycle D.Electron transport
D.Organelles RATIONALE: The plasma membrane is not contained within cellular cytoplasm. The cytoplasm consists of all cellular content between the plasma membrane and the nucleus.
Each of the following is contained within cellular cytoplasm EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Cytosol B.Cytoskeleton C.Plasma membrane D.Organelles
A.Respiration consists of long, deep, slow breaths RATIONALE: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a general term for pulmonary disorders characterized by obstruction of airflow during respiration. Breathing is short, shallow and rapid. Wheezing, dyspnea, coughing, and chest pain are common. Due to impaired respiratory function, the likelihood of inhalation of periodontal bacteria into the lung is increased. To maintain open airways upright patient positioning is advised. Bronchitis causes obstruction or loss of airways. Note also that emphysema, the loss of elasticity and collapse of overinflated air sacs, causes loss of gas exchange and obstruction during expiration.
Each of the following is true of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Respiration consists of long, deep, slow breaths B.With impaired respiration periodontal bacteria can be carried into the lung C.Upright patient positioning is advised D.Bronchitis causes obstruction or loss of airways
A.The frontal bone is a paired bone RATIONALE: The frontal bone is a single bone that forms the forehead and the top portion of the orbits. It contains the frontal sinuses. The frontal bone articulates with many of the cranial and facial bones; articulation with the parietal bones forms the coronal suture.
Each of the following statements about the front bone is correct EXCEPT for one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.The frontal bone is a paired bone B.It forms the forehead and top portion of the orbits C.The frontal bone contains the frontal sinuses D.The frontal bone articulates with many of the cranial and facial bones
C.Upper lip and the nose RATIONALE: The marking referenced in the question is the philtrum which is located extraorally between the upper lip and the nose at the midline. Between the lower lip and the chin, there may be a horizontal groove extraorally called the labiomental groove. Moving up the face, between the lips and the cheek, there may be an extraoral groove during smiling called the nasolabial groove. Nearby, the labial commissure is the junction of the upper and lower lip.
Extraoral and intraoral findings on a client:Face/neck markings: an 8 × 1-mm scar between the borders of the philtrum.TMJ: 20-mm maximum opening.Lymph nodes: within normal limits.Lips: dry and cracked.Buccal mucosa: linea alba.Tongue: geographic.Palate: small (1-mm) red spots scattered throughout.Oropharyngeal area: right palatine tonsil enlarged.Frena: within normal limits.Salivary glands: prominent palatal duct openings.The facial marking noted is located between which of the following? A.Lower lip and the chin B.Lips and the cheeks C.Upper lip and the nose D.Junction of the upper and lower lip
A.Vermilion zone RATIONALE: The vermilion zone is the transition area between the epithelium of the outer lips (upper and lower) and the labial mucosa of the inner lip. The mucobuccal fold is located at the base and height of the oral vestibule whereas the labial mucosa lines the intraoral side of the lips and is smooth and slippery. Of note, the faucial isthmus is not a structure but rather an area where the oral cavity proper leads into the oropharynx.
Extraoral and intraoral findings on a client:Face/neck markings: an 8 × 1-mm scar between the borders of the philtrum.TMJ: 20-mm maximum opening.Lymph nodes: within normal limits.Lips: dry and cracked.Buccal mucosa: linea alba.Tongue: geographic.Palate: small (1-mm) red spots scattered throughout.Oropharyngeal area: right palatine tonsil enlarged.Frena: within normal limits.Salivary glands: prominent palatal duct openings.The observation noted for the lips would MOST likely be located on which of the following? A.Vermilion zone B.Mucobuccal fold C.Labial mucosa D.Faucial isthmus
D.Thrombin RATIONALE: Before a blood clot can form in a postextraction site, thrombin must convert soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin. Note that there are two prior steps in blood clotting: Prothrombinase is formed AND Prothrombin is converted to thrombin.
For a postextraction blood clot to form within a tooth socket, what substance must convert fibrinogen into fibrin? A.Soluble fibrinogen B.Insoluble fibrinogen C.Prothrombin D.Thrombin
B.Concentration of bile RATIONALE: The gallbladder, a sac located in a depression under the liver, stores and concentrates bile. The liver produces bile and detoxifies chemicals. Through the process of glycogenolysis, the liver converts stored liver glycogen into blood glucose, essential for energy production. The liver also stores lipid soluble vitamins (A,D,E,K) and metabolizes products of digestion and drugs.
Functions of the adult liver include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Bile formation B.Concentration of bile C.Glycogenolysis D.Detoxification of chemicals
A.Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar RATIONALE: In Angle's Class I (Orthognathic Profile), the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar. Note that alterations in other characteristics of the occlusion, such as versions, crossbites, excessive overjets, or overbites can occur in this classification.
In Angle's Class I occlusion, which of the following is the maxillary anatomic feature that occludes with the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first permanent molar? A.Mesiobuccal cusp of maxillary first molar B.Mesiolingual cusp of maxillary first molar C.Mesiobuccal (buccal) groove of maxillary first molar D.Mesiolingual groove of maxillary first molar
B.steroid hormones. RATIONALE: Steroid hormones, classified by their chemical structure, are synthesized from cholesterol. As with all hormones, steroids are secreted by the endocrine system and regulate physiologic activity of most cells. Carried to almost every point in the body, hormones last longer and work more slowly than neurotransmitters do. Tropic hormones, classified by general function, target other endocrine glands and stimulate their growth and secretion. Protein hormones, classified by chemical structure, are long folded chains of amino acids. Insulin and parathyroid hormone are examples of glycoprotein hormones. Anabolic hormones, classified by general function, stimulate anabolism in target cells. Anabolism is the synthesis of complex molecules.
Lipid-soluble endocrine secretions that are classified by chemical structure and synthesized from cholesterol are known as A.tropic hormones. B.steroid hormones. C.protein hormones. D.anabolic hormones.
B.cortical nephrons. RATIONALE: Microscopic functional units that make up the bulk of the kidney are called nephrons. Those nephrons located in the renal cortex are called cortical nephrons. Those nephrons near the junction of the cortical and medullary layers are called juxtamedullary nephrons. Each nephron is made up of various structures such as Bowman's capsule which is the cup-shaped mouth of the nephron.
Microscopic functional units that make up the bulk of the kidney are called A.nephrons. B.cortical nephrons. C.juxtamedullary nephrons. D.Bowman's capsule.
16 D.The first statement is false, the second is true. RATIONALE: Neuroglia are specialized tissue cells that support neurons; however, nerve impulses are conducted away from the cell body by axons. Neuroglia not only produce the myelin sheath around the axons of the central nervous system (CNS), but also attach neurons to blood vessels, carry out phagocytosis, and retain the ability to undergo mitosis.
Neuroglia, specialized tissue cells that support neurons, conduct nerve impulses away from the cell body.Neuroglia produce the myelin sheath around the axons of the central nervous system (CNS). A.Both statements are true. B.Both statements are false. C.The first statement is true, the second is false. D.The first statement is false, the second is true.
D.distal terminus (surface) of second primary molars in centric occlusion. RATIONALE: Occlusion in a primary dentition is assessed by examining the relationship of the distal surface (terminus) of the second primary molars when they are in centric occlusion. Note that distal surfaces of second primary molars are considered to be end vertical planes or termini of the primary dentition, hence the terminology. Also of significance, dynamic interarch relationships result from functional mandibular movements that start and end with centric occlusion during mastication.
Occlusion in a primary dentition is assessed by the relationship of the A.mesial surface of a maxillary first primary molar. B.distal surface (terminus) of a mandibular first primary molar. C.mesial surface of a maxillary second primary molar. D.distal terminus (surface) of second primary molars in centric occlusion.
D.The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct. RATIONALE: While it is true that osmosis is the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane, osmosis is a form of passive transport because expenditure of energy is not required. Other methods of passive transport are diffusion, simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and filtration. In contrast, active transport processes require expenditure of energy because this form of transfer moves, or pumps, materials against a concentration gradient. This can be thought of as moving substances from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. Endocytosis and exocytosis are examples of active transport mechanisms.
Osmosis, the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane, is a form of active transport because active transport methods move substances against a concentration gradient and requires the expenditure of metabolic energy. A.Both the statement and reason are correct and related. B.Both the statement and reason are correct but NOT related. C.The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT. D.The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.
A.The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone RATIONALE: The zygomatic arch (cheekbone) is composed of the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone. The zygomatic process articulates with the zygomatic bone and completes the infraorbital rim. The palatine processes articulate with each other to form the anterior major portion of the hard palate and the median palatine suture. The frontal process articulates with the frontal bone, forming the medial orbital rim with the lacrimal bone.
The cheek bone is composed of the A.The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone B.The zygomatic process and the zygomatic bone C.The palatine processes D.The frontal process and the frontal bone.
A.human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) RATIONALE: The corpus luteum is protected and maintained during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). This hormone is secreted by trophoblast cells during the first trimester of pregnancy. Luteinizing hormone (LH), secreted from the anterior pituitary, is not responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum. Estradiol, a form of the female hormone estrogen, is secreted by the granulosa cells as follicles grow. Although these substances are essential during pregnancy, it is hCG that maintains the corpus luteum during the first 10 weeks of pregnancy. Progesterone, which is negligible in the blood before ovulation and rises rapidly to reach a peak during the luteal phase, is essential to a healthy pregnancy.
The corpus luteum is maintained for the first 10 weeks of pregnancy by A.human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B.luteinizing hormone (LH) C.estrogen D.progesterone
B.Both statements are FALSE. RATIONALE: The eruption sequence for maxillary permanent teeth is first molars (age 6 to 7); central incisors (age 7 to 8); lateral incisors (age 8 to 9); first premolars (age 10 to 11); canines (age 11 to 12). In general, the mandibular permanent (as well as deciduous) teeth erupt prior to their maxillary counterparts.
The eruption sequence for maxillary permanent teeth is: central incisors, lateral incisors, first molars, canines, first premolars In general, maxillary permanent teeth erupt prior to mandibular permanent teeth. A.Both statements are TRUE. B.Both statements are FALSE. C.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. D.The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
B.sacrum. RATIONALE: The four to five modular pieces in the coccygeal vertebral area articulate with the sacrum. Note that the sacrum (5 fused vertebrae) provides strong foundation for the pelvic girdle. The vertebral artery passes through transverse processes in each of the seven cervical vertebrae (C1-C6). The twelve thoracic vertebrae (T1 to T12) have facets for articulating with the ribs. The lumbar vertebrae (L1 to L5), the largest and strongest vertebrae, are well adapted for attachment of large back muscles.
The four to five modular pieces in the coccygeal vertebral (coccyx) area articulate with the A.vertebra artery. B.sacrum. C.thoracic vertebrae. D.lumbar vertebrae
D.Transmission of chemical substances RATIONALE: The hypothalamus does not help to regulate the transmission of chemical substances. Among the chief functions of the hypothalamus are the integration of autonomic nerve impulses and the regulation of numerous endocrine functions including body temperature as well as hunger and satiety. The hypothalamus also maintains consciousness and sleep patterns.
The hypothalamus helps to regulate all of the following physiologic actions EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Body temperature B.Hunger and satiety C.consciousness and sleep patterns D.Transmission of chemical substances
B.Canine and incisor teeth on one side RATIONALE: The incisive branch of the inferior alveolar nerve supplies sensation to the canine and incisor teeth on one side of the mandible. It is the mental nerve that supplies sensation to the lower lip. Sensation to the mesial root of tooth #30 is supplied by the inferior alveolar nerve. The lingual nerve supplies sensation to the lingual vestibule.
The incisive branch of the inferior alveolar nerve supplies sensation to which of the following? A.Lower lip B.Canine and incisor teeth on one side C.Mesial root of tooth #30 D.Lingual vestibule
A.absence of keratinization and interproximal location. RATIONALE: Given the unkeratinized epithelium of the interdental col and its interproximal location, it is highly susceptible to inflammation and breakdown. The col is smooth in texture and is located between the facial and lingual aspects of interdental papilla of teeth that are in contact. The col is absent when teeth are not in contact. Note that while posterior teeth pose more of a challenge for self-care access, location alone is not a factor.
The interdental col area is particularly susceptible to destruction because of A.absence of keratinization and interproximal location. B.keratinization and a rough surface. C.facial location, where toothbrushing could easily destroy it. D.posterior location, where patient access for self-care is limited.
B.point angle. RATIONALE: A point angle is formed by the junction of three surfaces. The point angle also derives its name from the combination of the names of the surfaces forming it. For example, the junction of the mesial, buccal, and occlusal surfaces of a molar is called the mesiobucco-occlusal point angle. Each tooth has 4 point angles. By contrast, a line angle is formed by the junction of two surfaces and derives its name from the combination of the two surfaces that join. For instance, on an anterior tooth, the junction of the mesial and labial surfaces is called the mesiolabial line angle. Each tooth has 8 line angles. The occlusal surface is toward the opposite arch on a posterior tooth whereas the incisal surface is the surface of an incisor that is toward the opposite arch.
The junction of three surfaces on the crown of a tooth is referred to as a(n) A.line angle. B.point angle. C.occlusal surface. D.incisal edge.
A.tissue that the probe contacts at the base of the gingival sulcus. RATIONALE: The junctional epithelium is the tissue that the probe contacts at the base of the gingival sulcus/periodontal pocket. It is stratified squamous, nonkeratinized epithelium that surrounds and attaches to the tooth on one side and attaches on the other side to the gingival connective tissue. While the junctional epithelium attaches to the tooth, this protective barrier is not an extension of the alveolar bone nor is it part of the marginal gingiva. Anatomically, the junctional epithelium is not is not a portion of the gingival fiber group. Histologically, it is composed of stratified squamous epithelium.
The junctional epithelium is BEST described as A.tissue that the probe contacts at the base of the gingival sulcus. B.an extension of the alveolar bone that holds the gingiva against the tooth. C.part of the marginal gingiva. D.a portion of the gingival fiber group that consists of collagenous tissue fibers.
D.Sublingual salivary gland RATIONALE: Blood supply to the sublingual salivary gland is provided by the sublingual artery. Note that this artery arises from the lingual artery, an anterior branch of the external carotid artery. Blood is also supplied by the sublingual to the mylohyoid muscle and the mucous membranes of the floor of the mouth. The lingual artery, which is an anterior branch of the external carotid artery supplies blood to the floor of the mouth, the tongue and the suprahyoid muscles.
The lingual artery, an anterior branch of the external carotid artery supplies blood to each of the follow areas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.The floor of the mouth B.The tongue C.The suprahyoid muscles D.Sublingual salivary gland
A.Both statements are true. RATIONALE: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are the two main subdivisions of the autonomic nervous systems. Note that the autonomic nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system. The autonomic nervous system operates without conscious control and carries on automatically.
The main subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.The autonomic nervous system operates without conscious control. A.Both statements are true. B.Both statements are false. C.The first statement is true, the second is false. D.The first statement is false, the second is true.
A.are ear ossicles. RATIONALE: The ear ossicles are comprised of three tiny bones—the malleus, incus, and stapes. Located in the middle ear, the ossicles are involved in vibrations of the tympanic membrane which is more commonly known as the eardrum. The eustachian tube, also found in the middle ear, equalizes pressure.
The malleus, incus, and stapes A.are ear ossicles. B.are located in the outer ear. C.equalize pressure. D.maintain equilibrium.
B.has apical curvature of the cementoenamel junction on the mesial half. RATIONALE: The CEJ on the mesial half of the buccal surface curves apically around a very prominent cervical ridge. The first primary molars do not resemble any other tooth. The maxillary first primary molar has an H-shaped central groove pattern and usually has three to four cusps.
The maxillary first primary molar A.resembles the mandibular first primary molar. B.has apical curvature of the cementoenamel junction on the mesial half. C.has a C-shaped central groove pattern. D.has two to three cusps.
B.VII. RATIONALE: Cranial nerve VII (facial) has efferent (motor) and afferent (sensory) components. There are two branches: greater petrosal nerve (efferent) and chorda tympani nerve (parasympathetic efferent and afferent components). An afferent component of the chorda tympani nerve of VII carries taste sensation for the body of the tongue. Afferent nerve fibers from the greater petrosal nerve component of VII carry taste sensations for the palate. Efferent branches supply the muscles of facial expression. A complex nerve with great significance to the dental hygienist. See Table 4.15 for details.Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is the largest cranial nerve; both efferent and afferent components. Efferent (motor) component supplies muscles of mastication and some cranial muscles. Afferent (sensory) component supplies sensation to the teeth, tongue, oral cavity, and most of the skin of the face and head. A complex nerve with great significance to the dental hygienist. See Table 4.3 and 4.4 for details.Cranial nerve X (vagus nerve) is a mix of afferent and efferent nerves. Larger efferent (motor) component supplies muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, larynx, and parasympathetic fibers to the organs in thoracic and abdominal cavities. Smaller afferent (sensory) component conveys innervation to the skin around the ear and taste sensation of the epiglottis. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) is efferent (motor) only. It innervates all muscles of the tongue.
The muscles of facial expression and taste within the tongue are controlled by cranial nerve A.V. B.VII. C.X. D.XII.
C.at the junction of the lacrimal and maxillary bones. RATIONALE: The nasolacrimal duct is located at the junction of the lacrimal and maxillary bones. The medial wall of the orbit of the eye is located superior to the opening of this duct. The perpendicular plate projects downward from the crista galli; it assists in formation of the nasal septum. Fluid (tears) from the lacrimal gland is drained through the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus.
The nasolacrimal duct is located A.at the medial wall of the orbit of the eye. B.at the perpendicular. C.at the junction of the lacrimal and maxillary bones. D.within the inferior nasal meatus.
C.Mandibular foramen RATIONALE: The opening to the mandibular foramen is located on the ramus in the most posterior region of the mandible. It is not possible to image this posterior region on an intraoral radiograph. The incisive foramen may be imaged on a maxillary anterior periapical, appearing as an oval radiolucency between the maxillary central incisors. Located on the opposing arch, the lingual foramen may be imaged on a mandibular anterior periapical, appearing as a round radiolucency in the center of the genial tubercles. The mental foramen may be imaged on a mandibular posterior periapical, appearing as a round radiolucency near the apex of the second molar.
The opening of all of the following would be imaged on a full mouth series of intraoral radiographs, EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Incisive foramen B.Lingual foramen C.Mandibular foramen D.Mental foramen
C.Bile RATIONALE: Bile is a digestive secretion produced in the liver that helps digest fats. Note that bile is formed within the liver by specialized cells called hepatocytes. Pancreatic secretions include digestive enzymes, insulin, and glucagon. The pancreas contains enzymes that digest starch, glycogen and dextrins (pancreatic amylase) proteins (trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase) triglycerides (pancreatic lipase) nucleic acids (nucleases)
The pancreas contains enzymes that digest each of the following pancreas EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A.Starch B.Glycogen C.Bile D.Protein
D.stomodeum. RATIONALE: At the beginning of the fourth week of embryonic development, five facial swellings, called branchial arches, appear on the embryo. The stomodeum (primitive oral cavity) is the first sign of facial development; the stomodeum is located between the first branchial arch and the frontal process (forebrain).
The primitive oral cavity is/are called the A.branchial arches. B.frontal processes. C.forebrain. D.stomodeum.
D.The first statement is false, the second is true. RATIONALE: The sternohyoid muscle is classified as part of the infrahyoid muscle group. Originating on the sternum, the sternohyoid muscle inserts on the body of the hyoid and is one of the four pairs of infrahyoid muscles. Note that the thyrohyoid muscle originates on the thyroid cartilage.
The sternohyoid muscle is classified as a suprahyoid muscle.The sternohyoid muscle originates on the thyroid cartilage. A.Both statements are true. B.Both statements are false. C.The first statement is true, the second is false. D.The first statement is false, the second is true.
C.sternocleidomastoid muscle. RATIONALE: The superficial cervical lymph nodes are assessed for pain, enlargement, unusual hardness, and fixed position by placing the patient's head to one side with the chin slightly lowered as the clinician palpates with fingers along the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Note that the deep cervical lymph nodes are examined similarly except the patient's head remains upright and the clinician palpates deep tissues along the sternocleidomastoid muscle with the thumb and fingers. Both the stylohyoid and mylohyoid muscles are considered suprahyoid muscles and are located medial to the mandible. They are not in the location of the superior deep cervical lymph nodes. Although the trapezius is a muscle in the neck region, it is located more posteriorly.
The superficial cervical lymph nodes are assessed for pain, enlargement, unusual hardness, and fixed position by placing the patient's head to one side with the chin slightly lowered as the clinician palpates with fingers along the A.stylohyoid muscle. B.mylohyoid muscle. C.sternocleidomastoid muscle. D.trapezius muscle.
D.temporal bone. RATIONALE: The condyle articulates with temporal bone, forming the moving part of the TMJ. The external acoustic meatus is the ear canal and does not rotate within the condyle. The styloid process, a pointed piece of bone extending below the ear, projects down and forward from the inferior surface of the temporal bone. The coronoid notch, also called the coronoid process, is a concavity on the anterior border of the ramus of the mandible.
The surface of the condyle articulates with the A.external acoustic meatus. B.styloid process. C.coronoid notch. D.temporal bone.
A.initiate the "flight or fight" response. RATIONALE: The sympathetic division (thoracolumbar) of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) initiates the "flight or fight" response. This response involves motor (efferent) nerves from the ANS. Information is conveyed to the CNS from the receptors for the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell. Motor neurons conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles. The parasympathetic division (craniosacral) stimulates "resting and digesting" responses. This involves motor (efferent) nerves from the ANS.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) involves motor nerves that A.initiate the "flight or fight" response. B.convey information to the CNS from receptors for senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell. C.conduct impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles. D.stimulate "resting and digesting" responses.
C.Six week RATIONALE: During the sixth week of embryonic life, two lateral palatine processes (palatal "shelves") develop from each side of the maxilla and lie vertically on each side of the tongue. These palatal shelves form the secondary palate.
The two lateral palatine processes develop from each side of the maxilla during which week(s) of embryonic life? A.Fourth week B.Fifth week C.Six week D.Sixth to eighth weeks
A.stratified squamous epithelium. RATIONALE: Stratified squamous epithelium lines the cavity. Simple columnar epithelium is tall and narrow; it lines the intestines and cervix of the uterus. Simple cuboidal epithelium is cubical in shape and lines the ovaries. Note that pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium appears stratified, but is in fact, only one layer. Pseudo-stratified epithelium lines is found in the trachea.
The type of epithelial tissue that lines the oral cavity is called A.stratified squamous epithelium. B.simple columnar epithelium. C.simple cuboidal epithelium. D.pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium.
C.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. RATIONALE: Accounting for variations in temperature and humidity, total daily water intake ranges from 1000 to 3000 mL and includes ingested liquids and foods as well as metabolic water from oxidation of foods. For an individual, total water output is 1500 to 3000 mL /day. This output includes both sensible (measurable) losses and insensible (unmeasurable) losses,
Total daily water intake need ranges from 1000 to 3000 m L.Total daily water output is 1200 to 2000 mL. A.Both statements are TRUE. B.Both statements are FALSE. C.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE. D.The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
C.The temporal bones RATIONALE: The temporal bones (paired bones) form the lateral walls of the skull. The cranial bones, or neurocranium, (eight bones) surround the brain; four singular bones, two paired bones. The occipital bone (single bone) forms the posterior portion of the skull. The parietal bones (paired bones) constitute a large part of the vault and sides of the cranium.
What bones form the lateral walls of the skull? A.The cranial bones B.The occipital bone C.The temporal bones D.The parietal bones
D.Lateral pterygoid RATIONALE: When contracted the lateral pterygoid pulls the condyle forward, protrudes and depresses the mandible, and functions in the act of biting. Note that when only one lateral pterygoid is contracted, lateral excursion to the opposite side of the contracted muscle occurs. Both the medial pterygoid and the temporal muscles elevate the mandible and close the mouth. Contraction of the sternothyroid muscle depresses the larynx.
What muscle controls the lateral excursion of the mandible? A.Medial pterygoid B.Temporal C.Sternothyroid D.Lateral pterygoid
D.Primary molars have larger pulp chambers. RATIONALE: The pulp chambers of primary molars are larger than those of the permanent molars. Second primary molars, not first primary molars, have anatomy similar to that of the first permanent molars. Primary molars have the same number of roots as permanent molars; note that neither primary molars nor permanent molars are classified as succedaneous teeth. A succedaneous tooth is a permanent tooth that replaces a primary tooth. Thus, permanent incisors are succedaneous, but permanent molars are not. The root trunks of primary molars are very short in comparison with those of permanent molars.
When comparing permanent and primary molars, which of the following statements is TRUE? A.First primary and first permanent molars have similar occlusal anatomy. B.Primary molars have the same number of roots as the succedaneous teeth. C.Primary and permanent molars have root trunks of the same length. D.Primary molars have larger pulp chambers.
A.Atrioventricular (AV) valves are held in place by chordae tendineae at the edge of the valves RATIONALE: Atrioventricular (AV) valves are held in place by chordae tendineae at the edge of the valves and are composed of complex tough, fibrous tissue. The tricuspid atrioventricular valve (AV) is formed by three flaps and is located in the right side of the heart. The bicuspid AV valve (mitral valve) is formed by two parts.
Which description correctly describes an anatomic feature of the atrioventricular (AV) valves located within the heart? A.Atrioventricular (AV) valves are held in place by chordae tendineae at the edge of the valves B.The atrioventricular (AV) valves are composed of delicate, flexible tissue C.The tricuspid atrioventricular valve (AV) is formed by three flaps and is located in the left side of the heart D.The bicuspid AV valve (mitral valve) is formed by three parts
D.Bud, cap, bell, dentinogenesis, amelogenesis, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage RATIONALE: Sequentially the stages of tooth development are: Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage, dentinogenesis, amelogenesis, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage.
Which is the correct sequence of stages of tooth development A.Bud, cap, dentinogenesis, amelogenesis, bell, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage B.Bud, cap, bell, amelogenesis, dentinogenesis, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage C.Bud, cap, amelogenesis, dentinogenesis, bell, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage D.Bud, cap, bell, dentinogenesis, amelogenesis, appositional dentin and enamel, eruption and root development, functional stage
B.Anabolism RATIONALE: A major step in anabolism is de novo synthesis which requires deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA), and ribosomal ribonucleic acid (rRNA). During catabolism amino acids in excess of those needed for the synthesis of proteins and other biomolecules cannot be stored or excreted. However, they may be used as fuel for immediate energy needs or long-term storage. The amino acid pool is a collection of amino acids in a dynamic equilibrium in the liver, blood, and cells that provide the raw material for the body's protein and amino acid needs. Nitrogen balance is the comparison measurement of the amount of nitrogen ingested with the amount excreted (eg urinary nitrogen plus approximately 1 g/day for nail, hair, skin, and perspiration losses).
Which of the following aspect of metabolism includes de novo synthesis and requires DNA, RNA, mRNA, and rRNA? A.Catbolism B.Anabolism C.Amino acid pool D.Nitrogen balance
B.Neutrophils RATIONALE: Neutrophils, the most abundant type of white blood cells, are highly phagocytic and very active in the initial stages of infection. Note that phagocytes, essentially scavengers, are involved in all stages of infection by ingesting harmful foreign particles, microbes, and dead or dying cells. The remaining selections—eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and erythrocytes—do not function as phagocytes. Eosinophils and basophils are both a specialized type of white blood cell called a leukocyte. Erythrocytes (distinguished by the prefix "erythro") are a type of red blood cell that carries oxygen and contains hemoglobin.
Which of the following blood cells function as phagocytes? A.Eosinophils B.Neutrophils C.Basophils D.Lymphocytes
B.Lymphocyte RATIONALE: Lymphocytes, the second most abundant leukocyte, are considered agranulocytes because they lack granules in their cytoplasm. Note that the letter "a" before a description typically means "not." Lymphocytes produce antibodies and provide immune response. Referring to the remaining selections: Although a basophil is also a leukocyte (white blood cell), it is considered granular (as opposed to agranular). Platelets and erythrocytes are not leukocytes. A platelet is a cell fragment that circulates in the blood and is involved in hemostasis by forming blood clots. Again, the prefix has significance; erythro- (red) means that an erythrocyte is a red blood cell, whereas a thrombocyte is a specialized type of platelet.
Which of the following blood cells is an agranular leukocyte? A.Basophil B.Lymphocyte C.Platelet D.Erythrocyte
A.Inferior alveolar nerve RATIONALE: The mental nerve exits at the mental foramen and is a branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. Note that the mental foramen is not an exit point for the middle superior nerve, the lingual nerve, or the posterior superior alveolar nerve.
Which of the following is a branch of the nerve that exits at the mental foramen? A.Inferior alveolar nerve B.Middle superior alveolar nerve C.Lingual nerve D.Posterior superior alveolar nerve
A.Cricoid RATIONALE: The cricoid cartilage is one of three single layer laryngeal cartilages. The other two single layer laryngeal cartilages are the epiglottis and the thyroid cartilages. The arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages are each paired laryngeal structures. Note that the larynx is located between the root of the tongue and the upper end of the trachea; it functions as part of the airway to the lungs and produces the voice.
Which of the following is a single laryngeal cartilage? A.Cricoid B.Arytenoid C.Corniculate D.Cuneiform
C.Lingual RATIONALE: Of the three roots on a maxillary first molar, the lingual root is the largest.
Which of the following is the longest of the three roots on a permanent maxillary first molar? A.Mesiobuccal B.Distobuccal C.Lingual D.All are equal.
C.Hyoglossus RATIONALE: The hyoglossus muscle, an extrinsic tongue muscle, depresses the tongue. It originates on areas of the hyoid bone. The styloglossus muscle acts in the retraction of the tongue. The genioglossus muscle acts in the protrusion of the tongue. This muscle helps prevent airway obstruction; it originates from the genial tubercles. The mylohyoid muscle depresses the mandible and helps elevate the tongue.
Which of the following muscles depresses the tongue? A.Styloglossus B.Genioglossus C.Hyoglossus D.Mylohyoid
B.Suprahyoid RATIONALE: The suprahyoid muscle group raises both the larynx and hyoid during swallowing and depresses the mandible during mastication. The genioglossus, the styloglossus, and the hyoglossus are extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Respectively their primary actions are: protrusion, retraction, and depression of the tongue.
Which of the following muscles raises the larynx during swallowing? A.Genioglossus B.Suprahyoid C.Styloglossus D.Hypoglossus
C.Mandibular central incisor RATIONALE: Assuming ideal occlusal relations, the mandibular central incisor occludes with only the maxillary central incisor. The maxillary canine occludes with the mandibular canine and 1st premolar whereas the maxillary first molar occludes with both the mandibular first and second molars. Also occluding with more than one tooth is the mandibular 1st premolar which occludes with the maxillary canine and first premolar.
Which of the following permanent teeth occlude with only one tooth in the opposite arch, assuming ideal relations exist? A.Maxillary canine B.Maxillary first molar C.Mandibular central incisor D.Mandibular first premolar
C.Maxillary first RATIONALE: The maxillary first premolar usually has two roots: one facial and one lingual. The mandibular first and second premolars as well as the maxillary second premolars typically have only one root.
Which of the following premolars usually has facial and lingual roots? A.Mandibular first B.Mandibular second C.Maxillary first D.Maxillary second
B.Individual roots are basically cone shaped RATIONALE: Individual roots are basically cone shaped; they are widest at the CEJ and converge (taper) to the apex. Although furcations closer to the CEJ are more accessible, they are more likely to become involved in periodontal disease. More root surface area is present in the cervical third than the apical third. The length of root trunks vary considerably by type of tooth.
Which of the following statements is TRUE when comparing roots of permanent teeth? A.Furcations closer to the CEJ are less likely to become involved in periodontal disease B.Individual roots are basically cone shaped C.More root surface area is present in the apical third than in the cervical third D.All root trunks are of equal lengths
A.Mitochondria RATIONALE: Mitochondria are the intercellular organelle that provide the chief source of energy for the cell. Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles responsible for the breakdown of foreign substances that are engulfed by the cell. The endoplasmic reticulum, composed of lipoproteins, is a membrane system that functions to synthesize, circulate, and package intracellular and extracellular materials. The microfilaments act as a support system for the cell cytoskeleton.
Which of the following structures is responsible for energy production? A.Mitochondria B.Lysosomes C.Endoplasmic reticulum D.Microfilaments
D.Molars RATIONALE: Permanent teeth that replace deciduous teeth are classified as succedaneous. (They erupt posterior to the primary molars.) Molars do not have primary predecessors and are thus considered nonsuccedaneous. Because incisors, canines, and premolars are permanent teeth that replace a deciduous counterpart, they are classified as succedaneous.
Which of the following teeth are considered nonsuccedaneous? A.Incisors B.Canines C.Premolar D.Molars
C.Stratified squamous RATIONALE: The oral cavity is lined with a layer of stratified squamous epithelia. By contrast, stratified columnar epithelium lines the large ducts of the salivary glands; simple columnar epithelium lines the intestines and cervix of the uterus; and pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium lines trachea.
Which of the following types of epithelium lines the oral cavity? A.Stratified columnar B.Simple columnar C.Stratified squamous D.Pseudo-stratified columnar
D.Maxillary molars RATIONALE: Maxillary permanent molars have three roots (mesiobuccal, distobuccal, and lingual). Maxillary second premolars have one root. Maxillary first premolars and mandibular molars have two roots.
Which permanent teeth have 3 roots? A.Maxillary second premolars B.Maxillary first premolars C.Mandibular molars D.Maxillary molars
C.Canine RATIONALE: The canines are considered the cornerstone of the dentition because of the long, large root, which is externally manifested by the canine eminence of the maxillary alveolar bone.
Which teeth are considered the cornerstone of the dentition? A.Molars B.Premolars C.Canine D.Incisors
C.Congenital RATIONALE: A congenital disorder is present at birth and can either be inherited or developmental whereas a genetic defect is an abnormality in the genetic makeup of an individual and is transmitted from parent to offspring through the egg or sperm. An inherited defect is an abnormality in the genetic makeup of an individual and is transmitted from parent to offspring through the egg or sperm. As the name implies, a developmental defect is a failure or disturbance that occurs during the development of the human body.
Which term best refers to a defect present at birth? A.Genetic B.Inherited C.Congenital D.Developmental
C.Maxillary first premolar RATIONALE: In about 60% of maxillary 1st premolars a bifurcation occurs in the apical third to half of the root. This bifurcation forms one facial and one lingual root. The mandibular second premolar, the maxillary second premolar, and the mandibular first premolar each have only one root.
Which tooth is known for its bifurcated root? A.Mandibular second premolar B.Maxillary second premolar C.Maxillary first premolar D.Mandibular first premolar
