Brunner & Suddarths Chap 72-73
A patient is admitted to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient has multiple injuries. After establishing an airway and adequate ventilation, the ED team should prioritize what aspect of care? A) Control the patients hemorrhage. B) Assess for cognitive effects of the injury. C) Splint the patients fractures. D) Assess the patients neurologic status.
Ans: A Feedback: After establishing airway and ventilation, the team should evaluate and restore cardiac output by controlling hemorrhage. This must precede neurologic assessments and treatment of skeletal injuries.
A man survived a workplace accident that claimed the lives of many of his colleagues several months ago. The man has recently sought care for the treatment of depression. How should the nurse best understand the mans current mental health problem? A) The man is experiencing a common response following a disaster. B) The man fails to appreciate the fact that he survived the disaster. C) The man most likely feels guilty about his actions during the disaster. D) The mans depression most likely predated the disaster.
Ans: A Feedback: Depression is a common response to disaster. It does not suggest that the patient feels guilty about his actions or that he does not appreciate the fact that he survived. It is possible, but less likely, that the patient was depressed prior to the disaster.
A backcountry skier has been airlifted to the ED after becoming lost and developing hypothermia and frostbite. How should the nurse best manage the patients frostbite? A) Immerse affected extremities in water slightly above normal body temperature. B) Immerse the patients frostbitten extremities in the warmest water the patient can tolerate. C) Gently massage the patients frozen extremities in between water baths. D) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises of the affected extremities to promote circulation.
Ans: A Feedback: Frozen extremities are usually placed in a 37C to 40C (98.6F to 104F) circulating bath for 30- to 40- minute spans. To avoid further mechanical injury, the body part is not handled. Massage is contraindicated
A patient is admitted to the ED with suspected alcohol intoxication. The ED nurse is aware of the need to assess for conditions that can mimic acute alcohol intoxication. In light of this need, the nurse should perform what action? A) Check the patients blood glucose level. B) Assess for a documented history of major depression. C) Determine whether the patient has ingested a corrosive substance. D) Arrange for assessment of serum potassium levels.
Ans: A Feedback: Hypoglycemia can mimic alcohol intoxication and should be assessed in a patient suspected of alcohol intoxication. Potassium imbalances, depression, and poison ingestion are not noted to mimic the characteristic signs and symptoms of alcohol intoxication.
A hospitals emergency operations plan has been enacted following an industrial accident. While one nurse performs the initial triage, what should other emergency medical services personnel do? A) Perform life-saving measures. B) Classify patients according to acuity. C) Provide health promotion education. D) Modify the emergency operations plan.
Ans: A Feedback: In an emergency, patients are immediately tagged and transported or given life-saving interventions. One person performs the initial triage while other emergency medical services (EMS) personnel perform life- saving measures and transport patients. Health promotion is not a priority during the acute stage of the crisis. Classifying patients is the task of the triage nurse. EMS personnel prioritize life-saving measures; they do not modify the operations plan.
A nurse is participating in the planning of a hospitals emergency operations plan. The nurse is aware of the potential for ethical dilemmas during a disaster or other emergency. Ethical dilemmas in these contexts are best addressed by which of the following actions? A) Having an ethical framework in place prior to an emergency B) Allowing staff to provide care anonymously during an emergency C) Assuring staff that they are not legally accountable for care provided during an emergency D) Teaching staff that principles of ethics do not apply in an emergency situation
Ans: A Feedback: Nurses can plan for the ethical dilemmas they may face during disasters by establishing a framework for evaluating ethical questions before they arise and by identifying and exploring possible responses to difficult clinical situations. Ethical principles do not become wholly irrelevant in emergencies. Care cannot be given anonymously and accountability for practice always exists, even in an emergency.
A patient has been brought to the ED with multiple trauma after a motor vehicle accident. After immediate threats to life have been addressed, the nurse and trauma team should take what action? A) Perform a rapid physical assessment. B) Initiate health education. C) Perform diagnostic imaging. D) Establish the circumstances of the accident.
Ans: A Feedback: Once immediate threats to life have been corrected, a rapid physical examination is done to identify injuries and priorities of treatment. Health education is initiated later in the care process and diagnostic imaging would take place after a rapid physical assessment. It is not the care teams responsibility to determine the circumstances of the accident.
The ED staff has been notified of the imminent arrival of a patient who has been exposed to chlorine. The nurse should anticipate the need to address what nursing diagnosis? A) Impaired gas exchange B) Decreased cardiac output C) Chronic pain D) Excess fluid volume
Ans: A Feedback: Pulmonary agents, such as phosgene and chlorine, destroy the pulmonary membrane that separates the alveolus from the capillary bed, disrupting alveolarcapillary oxygen transport mechanisms. Capillary leakage results in fluid-filled alveoli and gas exchange ceases to occur. Pain is likely, but is acute rather than chronic. Fluid volume excess is unlikely to be a priority diagnosis and cardiac output will be secondarily affected by the pulmonary effects.
A major earthquake has occurred within the vicinity of the local hospital. The nursing supervisor working the night shift at the hospital receives information that the hospital disaster plan will be activated. The supervisor will need to work with what organization responsible for coordinating interagency relief assistance? A) Office of Emergency Management B) Incident Command System C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) D) American Red Cross
Ans: A Feedback: The Office of Emergency Management coordinates the disaster relief efforts at state and local levels. The Incident Command System is a management tool to organize personnel, facilities, equipment, and communication in an emergency situation. The CDC is the agency for disease prevention and control and it supports state and local health departments. The American Red Cross provides additional support.
Emergency department (ED) staff members have been trained to follow steps that will decrease the risk of secondary exposure to a chemical. When conducting decontamination, staff members should remove the patients clothing and then perform what action? A) Rinse the patient with water. B) Wash the patient with a dilute bleach solution. C) Wash the patient chlorhexidine. D) Rinse the patient with hydrogen peroxide.
Ans: A Feedback: The first step in decontamination is removal of the patients clothing and jewelry and then rinsing the patient with water. This is usually followed by a wash with soap and water, not chlorhexidine, bleach, or hydrogen peroxide.
The ED nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted following a sexual assault. The nurse knows that all of the nursing interventions are aimed at what goal? A) Encouraging the patient to gain a sense of control over his or her life B) Collecting sufficient evidence to secure a criminal conviction C) Helping the patient understand that this will not happen again D) Encouraging the patient to verbalize what happened during the assault
Ans: A Feedback: The goals of management are to provide support, to reduce the patients emotional trauma, and to gather available evidence for possible legal proceedings. All of the interventions are aimed at encouraging the patient to gain a sense of control over his or her life. The patients well-being should be considered a priority over criminal proceedings. No health professional can guarantee the patients future safety and having the patient verbalize the event is not a priority.
A nurse takes a shift report and finds he is caring for a patient who has been exposed to anthrax by inhalation. What precautions does the nurse know must be put in place when providing care for this patient? A) Standard precautions B) Airborne precautions C) Droplet precautions D) Contact precautions
Ans: A Feedback: The patient is not contagious, and anthrax cannot be spread from person to person, so standard precautions are initiated. Airborne, contact, and droplet precautions are not necessary.
The triage nurse is working in the ED. A homeless person is admitted during a blizzard with complaints of being unable to feel his feet and lower legs. Core temperature is noted at 33.2C (91.8F). The patient is intoxicated with alcohol at the time of admission and is visibly malnourished. What is the triage nurses priority in the care of this patient? A) Addressing the patients hypothermia B) Addressing the patients frostbite in his lower extremities C) Addressing the patients alcohol intoxication D) Addressing the patients malnutrition
Ans: A Feedback: The patient may also have frostbite, but hypothermia takes precedence in treatment because it is systemic rather than localized. The alcohol abuse and the alteration in nutrition do not take precedence over the treatment of hypothermia because both problems are a less acute threat to the patients survival.
Which patient should the nurse prioritize as needing emergent treatment, assuming no other injuries are present except the ones outlined below? A) A patient with a blunt chest trauma with some difficulty breathing B) A patient with a sore neck who was immobilized in the field on a backboard with a cervical collar C) A patient with a possible fractured tibia with adequate pedal pulses D) A patient with an acute onset of confusion
Ans: A Feedback: The patient with blunt chest trauma possibly has a compromised airway. Establishment and maintenance of a patent airway and adequate ventilation is prioritized over other health problems, including skeletal injuries and changes in cognition.
The paramedics bring a patient who has suffered a sexual assault to the ED. What is important for the sexual assault nurse examiner to do when assessing a sexual assault victim? A) Respect the patients privacy during assessment. B) Shave all pubic hair for laboratory analysis. C) Place items for evidence in plastic bags. D) Bathe the patient before the examination.
Ans: A Feedback: The patients privacy and sensitivity must be respected, because the patient will be experiencing a stress response to the assault. Pubic hair is combed or trimmed for sampling. Paper bags are used for evidence collection because plastic bags retain moisture, which promotes mold and mildew that can destroy evidence. Bathing the patient before the examination would destroy or remove key evidence.
The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a drug overdose. What is the nurses priority responsibility in caring for this patient? A) Support the patients respiratory and cardiovascular function. B) Provide for the safety of the patient. C) Enhance clearance of the offending agent. D) Ensure the safety of the staff.
Ans: A Feedback: Treatment goals for a patient with a drug overdose are to support the respiratory and cardiovascular functions, to enhance clearance of the agent, and to provide for safety of the patient and staff. Of these responsibilities, however, support of vital physiologic function is a priority.
A nurse has been called for duty during a response to a natural disaster. In this context of care, the nurse should expect to do which of the following? A) Practice outside of her normal area of clinical expertise. B) Perform interventions that are not based on assessment data. C) Prioritize psychosocial needs over physiologic needs. D) Prioritize the interests of older adults over younger patients.
Ans: A Feedback: During a disaster, nurses may be asked to perform duties outside their areas of expertise and may take on responsibilities normally held by physicians or advanced practice nurses.
An 83-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance from a long-term care facility. The patients symptoms are weakness, lethargy, incontinence, and a change in mental status. The nurse knows that emergencies in older adults may be more difficult to manage. Why would this be true? A) Older adults may have an altered response to treatment. B) Older adults are often reluctant to adhere to prescribed treatment. C) Older adults have difficulty giving a health history. D) Older adults often stigmatize their peers who use the ED.
Ans: A Feedback: Emergencies in this age group may be more difficult to manage because elderly patients may have an atypical presentation, an altered response to treatment, a greater risk of developing complications, or a combination of these factors. The elderly patient may perceive the emergency as a crisis signaling the end of an independent lifestyle or even resulting in death. Stigmatization and nonadherence to treatment are not commonly noted. Older adults do not necessarily have difficulty giving a health history.
A patient is brought to the ED by two police officers. The patient was found unconscious on the sidewalk, with his face and hands covered in blood. At present, the patient is verbally abusive and is fighting the staff in the ED, but appears medically stable. The decision is made to place the patient in restraints. What action should the nurse perform when the patient is restrained? A) Frequently assess the patients skin integrity. B) Inform the patient that he is likely to be charged with assault. C) Avoid interacting with the patient until the restraints are removed. D) Take the opportunity to perform a full physical assessment.
Ans: A Feedback: It is important to assess skin integrity when physical restraints are used. Criminal charges are not the responsibility of the nurse and the nurse should still interact with the patient. A full physical assessment, however, would likely be delayed until the patient is not combative.
The announcement is made that the facility may return to normal functioning after a local disaster. In the emergency operations plan, what is this referred to as? A) Demobilization response B) Post-incident response C) Crisis diffusion D) Reversion
Ans: A Feedback: The demobilization response occurs when it is deemed that the facility may return to normal daily functioning. This is not known as the post-incident response, crisis diffusion or reversion.
A patient is being treated in the ED following a terrorist attack. The patient is experiencing visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, and behavioral changes. The nurse suspects this patient has been exposed to what chemical agent? A) Nerve agent B) Pulmonary agent C) Vesicant D) Blood agent
Ans: A Feedback: Nerve agent exposure results in visual disturbances, nausea and vomiting, forgetfulness, irritability, and impaired judgment. This presentation is not suggestive of vesicants, pulmonary agents, or blood agents.
A patient has been exposed to a nerve agent in a biochemical terrorist attack. This type of agent bonds with acetylcholinesterase, so that acetylcholine is not inactivated. What is the pathologic effect of this type of agent? A) Hyperstimulation of the nerve endings B) Temporary deactivation of the nerve endings C) Binding of the nerve endings D) Destruction of the nerve endings
Ans: A Feedback: Nerve agents can be inhaled or absorbed percutaneously or subcutaneously. These agents bond with acetylcholinesterase, so that acetylcholine is not inactivated; the adverse result is continuous stimulation (hyperstimulation) of the nerve endings. Nerve endings are not deactivated, bound, or destroyed.
A patient admitted to the ED with severe diarrhea and vomiting is subsequently diagnosed with food poisoning. The nurse caring for this patient assesses for signs and symptoms of fluid and electrolyte imbalances. For what signs and symptoms would this nurse assess? Select all that apply. A) Dysrhythmias B)Hypothermia C) Hypotension D) Hyperglycemia E) Delirium
Ans: A, C, E Feedback: The patient is assessed for signs and symptoms of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, including lethargy, rapid pulse rate, fever, oliguria, anuria, hypotension, and delirium. Hyperglycemia and hypothermia are not typically associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
6-year-old is admitted to the ED after being rescued from a pond after falling through the ice while ice skating. What action should the nurse perform while rewarming the patient? A) Assessing the patients oral temperature frequently B) Ensuring continuous ECG monitoring C) Massaging the patients skin surfaces to promote circulation D) Administering bronchodilators by nebulizer
Ans: B
A 13-year-old is being admitted to the ED after falling from a roof and sustaining blunt abdominal injuries. To assess for internal injury in the patients peritoneum, the nurse should anticipate what diagnostic test? A) Radiograph B) Computed tomography (CT) scan C) Complete blood count (CBC) D) Barium swallow
Ans: B Feedback: CT scan of the abdomen, diagnostic peritoneal lavage, and abdominal ultrasound are appropriate diagnostic tools to assess intra-abdominal injuries. X-rays do not yield sufficient data and a CBC would not reveal the presence of intraperitoneal injury.
A 44-year-old male patient has been exposed to severe amount of radiation after a leak in a reactor plant. When planning this patients care, the nurse should implement what action? A) The patient should be scrubbed with alcohol and iodine. B) The patient should be carefully protected from infection. C) The patients immunization status should be promptly assessed. D) The patients body hair should be removed to prevent secondary contamination.
Ans: B Feedback: Damage to the hematopoietic system following radiation exposure creates a serious risk for infection. There is no need to remove the patients hair and the patients immunization status is not significant. Alcohol and iodine are ineffective against radiation.
The nurse is coordinating the care of victims who arrive at the ED after a radiation leak at a nearby nuclear plant. What would be the first intervention initiated when victims arrive at the hospital? A) Administer prophylactic antibiotics. B) Survey the victims using a radiation survey meter. C) Irrigate victims open wounds. D) Perform soap and water decontamination.
Ans: B Feedback: Each patient arriving at the hospital should first be surveyed with the radiation survey meter for external contamination and then directed toward the decontamination area as needed. This survey should precede decontamination efforts or irrigation of wounds. Antibiotics are not indicated.
A patient with a history of major depression is brought to the ED by her parents. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? A) Noting that symptoms of physical illness are not relevant to the current diagnosis B) Asking the patient if she has ever thought about taking her own life C) Conducting interviews in a brief and direct manner D) Arranging for the patient to spend time alone to consider her feelings
Ans: B Feedback: Establishing if the patient has suicidal thoughts or intents helps identify the level of depression and intervention. Physical symptoms are relevant and should be explored. Allow the patient to express feelings, and conduct the interview at a comfortable pace for the patient. Never leave the patient alone, because suicide is usually committed in solitude.
The nursing educator is reviewing the signs and symptoms of heat stroke with a group of nurses who provide care in a desert region. The educator should describe what sign or symptom? A) Hypertension with a wide pulse pressure B) Anhidrosis C) Copious diuresis D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Ans: B Feedback: Heat stroke is manifested by anhidrosis confusion, bizarre behavior, coma, elevated body temperature, hot dry skin, tachypnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. This health problem is not associated with anhidrosis or Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
A nurse is undergoing debriefing with the critical incident stress management (CISM) team after participating in the response to a disaster. During this process, the nurse will do which of the following? A) Evaluate the care that he or she provided during the disaster. B) Discuss own emotional responses to the disaster. C) Explore the ethics of the care provided during the disaster. D) Provide suggestions for improving the emergency operations plan.
Ans: B Feedback: In debriefing, participants are asked about their emotional reactions to the incident, what symptoms they may be experiencing (e.g., flashbacks, difficulty sleeping, intrusive thoughts), and other psychological ramifications. The EOP and the care the nurse provided are not evaluated.
A nurse is triaging patients after a chemical leak at a nearby fertilizer factory. The guiding principle of this activity is what? A) Assigning a high priority to the most critical injuries B) Doing the greatest good for the greatest number of people C) Allocating resources to the youngest and most critical D) Allocating resources on a first come, first served basis
Ans: B Feedback: In nondisaster situations, health care workers assign a high priority and allocate the most resources to those who are the most critically ill. However, in a disaster, when health care providers are faced with a large number of casualties, the fundamental principle guiding resource allocation is to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people. A first come, first served approach is unethical.
A group of military nurses are reviewing the care of victims of biochemical terrorist attacks. The nurses should identify what agents as having the shortest latency? A) Viral agents B) Nerve agents C) Pulmonary agents D) Blood agents
Ans: B Feedback: Latency is the time from absorption to the appearance of signs and symptoms. Sulfur mustards and pulmonary agents have the longest latency, whereas vesicants, nerve agents, and cyanide produce signs and symptoms within seconds.
A nurse is caring for patients exposed to a terrorist attack involving chemicals. The nurse has been advised that personal protective equipment must be worn in order to give the highest level of respiratory protection with a lesser level of skin and eye protection. What level protection is this considered? A) Level A B) Level B C) Level C D) Level D
Ans: B Feedback: Level B personal protective equipment provides the highest level of respiratory protection, with a lesser level of skin and eye protection. Level A provides the highest level of respiratory, mucous membrane, skin, and eye protection. Level C incorporates the use of an air-purified respirator, a chemical resistant coverall with splash hood, chemical resistant gloves, and boots. Level D is the same as a work uniform.
The nurse manager in the ED receives information that a local chemical plant has had a chemical leak. This disaster is assigned a status of level II. What does this classification indicate? A) First responders can manage the situation. B) Regional efforts and aid from surrounding communities can manage the situation. C) Statewide or federal assistance is required. D) The area must be evacuated immediately.
Ans: B Feedback: Level II disasters indicate that regional efforts and aid from the surrounding communities will be able to manage the situation. Local efforts are likely to be overwhelmed, while state and federal assistance are not likely necessary. The disaster level does not indicate the necessity of evacuation.
A patient is admitted to the ED with an apparent overdose of IV heroin. After stabilizing the patients cardiopulmonary status, the nurse should prepare to perform what intervention? A) Administer a bolus of lactated Ringers. B) Administer naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan). C) Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. D) Perform a focused neurologic assessment.
Ans: B Feedback: Narcan is an opioid antagonist that is administered for the treatment of narcotic overdoses. There is no definitive need for a urinary catheter or for a bolus of lactated Ringers. The patients basic neurologic status should be ascertained during the rapid assessment, but a detailed examination would be take precedence over administration of an antidote.
The nurse observes that the family members of a patient who was injured in an accident are blaming each other for the circumstances leading up to the accident. The nurse appropriately lets the family members express their feelings of responsibility, while explaining that there was probably little they could do to prevent the injury. In what stage of crisis is this family? A) Anxiety and denial B) Remorse and guilt C) Anger D) Grief
Ans: B Feedback: Remorse and guilt are natural processes of the stages of a crisis and should be facilitated for the family members to process the crisis. The familys sense of blame and responsibility are more suggestive of guilt than anger, grief, or anxiety.
The ED nurse admitting a patient with a history of depression is screening the patient for suicide risk. What assessment question should the nurse ask when screening the patient? A) How would you describe your mood over the past few days? B) Have you ever thought about taking your own life? C) How do you think that your life is most likely to end? D) How would you rate the severity of your depression right now on a 10-point scale?
Ans: B Feedback: The nurse should address the patients possible plans for suicide in a direct yet empathic manner. The nurse should avoid oblique or indirect references to suicide and should not limit questions to the patients depression.
A male patient with multiple injuries is brought to the ED by ambulance. He has had his airway stabilized and is breathing on his own. The ED nurse does not see any active bleeding, but should suspect internal hemorrhage based on what finding? A) Absence of bruising at contusion sites B) Rapid pulse and decreased capillary refill C) Increased BP with narrowed pulse pressure D) Sudden diaphoresis
Ans: B Feedback: The nurse would anticipate that the pulse would increase and BP would decrease. Urine output would also decrease. An absence of bruising and the presence of diaphoresis would not suggest internal hemorrhage.
A nurse who is a member of the local disaster response team is learning about blast injuries. The nurse should plan for what event that occurs in the tertiary phase of the blast injury? A) Victims pre-existing medical conditions are exacerbated. B) Victims are thrown by the pressure wave. C) Victims experience burns from the blast. D) Victims suffer injuries caused by debris or shrapnel from the blast.
Ans: B Feedback: The tertiary phase of the blast injury results from the pressure wave that causes the victims to be thrown, resulting in traumatic injury. None of the other listed events occurs in this specific phase of a blast.
An ED nurse is triaging patients according to the Emergency Severity Index (ESI). When assigning patients to a triage level, the nurse will consider the patients acuity as well as what other variable? A) The likelihood of a repeat visit to the ED in the next 7 days B) The resources that the patient is likely to require C) The patients or insurers ability to pay for care D) Whether the patient is known to ED staff from previous visits
Ans: B Feedback: With the ESI, patients are assigned to triage levels based on both their acuity and their anticipated resource needs. Ability to pay, the likelihood of repeat visits, and the history of prior visits are not explicitly considered.
A patient is being treated for bites that she suffered during an assault. After the bites have been examined and documented by a forensic examiner, the nurse should perform what action? A) Apply a dressing saturated with chlorhexidine. B) Wash the bites with soap and water. C) Arrange for the patient to receive a hepatitis B vaccination. D) Assess the patients immunization history.
Ans: B Feedback: After forensic evidence has been gathered, cleansing with soap and water is necessary, followed by the administration of antibiotics and tetanus toxoid as prescribed. The patients immunization history does not directly influence the course of treatment and hepatitis B vaccination is not indicated. Chlorhexidine bandages are not recommended.
An industrial site has experienced a radiation leak and workers who have been potentially affected are en route to the hospital. To minimize the risks of contaminating the hospital, managers should perform what action? A) Place all potential victims on reverse isolation. B) Establish a triage outside the hospital. C) Have hospital staff put on personal protective equipment. D) Place hospital staff on abbreviated shifts of no more than 4 hours.
Ans: B Feedback: Triage outside the hospital is the most effective means of preventing contamination of the facility itself. None of the other listed actions has the potential to prevent the contamination of the hospital itself.
A patient is admitted to the ED complaining of abdominal pain. Further assessment of the abdomen reveals signs of peritoneal irritation. What assessment findings would corroborate this diagnosis? Select all that apply. A) Ascites B) Rebound tenderness C) Changes in bowel sounds D) Muscular rigidity E) Copious diarrhea
Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Signs of peritoneal irritation include abdominal distention, involuntary guarding, tenderness, pain, muscular rigidity, or rebound tenderness along with changes in bowel sounds. Diarrhea and ascites are not signs of peritoneal irritation.
A patient is brought to the ED by ambulance after swallowing highly acidic toilet bowl cleaner 2 hours earlier. The patient is alert and oriented. What is the care teams most appropriate treatment? A) Administering syrup of ipecac B) Performing a gastric lavage C) Giving milk to drink D) Referring to psychiatry
Ans: C Feedback: A patient who has swallowed an acidic substance, such as toilet bowl cleaner, may be given milk or water to drink for dilution. Gastric lavage must be performed within 1 hour of ingestion. A psychiatric consult may be considered once the patient is physically stable and it is deemed appropriate by the physician. Syrup of ipecac is no longer used in clinical settings.
While developing an emergency operations plan (EOP), the committee is discussing the components of the EOP. During the post-incident response of an emergency operations plan, what activity will take place? A) Deciding when the facility will go from disaster response to daily activities B) Conducting practice drills for the community and facility C) Conducting a critique and debriefing for all involved in the incident D) Replacing the resources in the facility
Ans: C Feedback: A post-incident response includes critiquing and debriefing all parties involved immediately and at later dates. It does not include the decision to go from disaster response to daily activities; it does not include practice drills; and it does not include replacement of resources in the facility.
A nurse has had contact with a patient who developed smallpox and became febrile after a terrorist attack. This nurse will require what treatment? A) Watchful waiting B) Treatment with colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) C) Vaccination D) Treatment with ceftriaxone
Ans: C Feedback: All people who have had household or face-to-face contact with a patient with small pox after the fever begins should be vaccinated within 4 days to prevent infection and death. Watchful waiting would be inappropriate and CSFs are not used for treatment. Vaccination, rather than antibiotics, is the treatment of choice.
A patient has been admitted to the medical unit with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of anthrax infection. The nurse should anticipate what intervention? A) Administration of acyclovir B) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) C) Administration of penicillin D) Hemodialysis
Ans: C Feedback: Anthrax infection is treated with penicillin. Acyclovir is ineffective because anthrax is a bacterium. Dialysis and HSCT are not indicated.
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the ED complaining of stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The care team suspects food poisoning. What is the key to treatment in food poisoning? A) Administering IV antibiotics B) Assessing immunization status C) Determining the source and type of food poisoning D) Determining if anyone else in the family is ill
Ans: C Feedback: Determining the source and type of food poisoning is essential to treatment, and is more important than determining other sick family members. Antibiotics are not normally indicated and immunizations are not relevant to diagnosis or treatment of food poisoning.
A patient with multiple trauma is brought to the ED by ambulance after a fall while rock climbing. What is a responsibility of the ED nurse in this patients care? A) Intubating the patient B) Notifying family members C) Ensuring IV access D) Delivering specimens to the laboratory
Ans: C Feedback: ED nursing responsibilities include ensuring airway and IV access. Nurses are not normally responsible for notifying family members. Nurses collect specimens, but are not responsible for their delivery. Physicians or other team members with specialized training intubate the patient.
A patient is experiencing respiratory insufficiency and cannot maintain spontaneous respirations. The nurse suspects that the physician will perform which of the following actions? A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway. B) Perform the jaw thrust maneuver. C) Perform endotracheal intubation. D) Perform a cricothyroidotomy.
Ans: C Feedback: Endotracheal tubes are used in cases when the patient cannot be ventilated with an oropharyngeal airway, which is used in patients who are breathing spontaneously. The jaw thrust maneuver does not establish an airway and cricothyroidotomy would be performed as a last resort.
A group of disaster survivors is working with the critical incident stress management (CISM) team. Members of this team should be guided by what goal? A) Determining whether the incident was managed effectively B) Educating survivors on potential coping strategies for future disasters C) Providing individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions D) Determining if individuals responded appropriately during the incident
Ans: C Feedback: In defusing, patients are given information about recognizing stress reactions and how to deal with handling the stress they may experience. Debriefing involves asking patients about their current emotional coping and symptoms, following up, and identifying patients who require further assessment and assistance in dealing with the stress experienced. The CISM team does not focus primarily on the management of the incident or on providing skills for future incidents.
A nurse is giving an educational class to members of the local disaster team. What should the nurse instruct members of the disaster team to do in a chemical bioterrorist attack? A) Cover their eyes. B) Put on a personal protective equipment mask. C) Stand up. D) Crawl to an exit.
Ans: C Feedback: Most chemicals are heavier than air, except for hydrogen cyanide. Therefore, in the presence of most chemicals, people should stand up to avoid heavy exposure because the chemical will sink toward the floor or ground. For this reason, covering their eyes, putting on a PPE mask, or crawling to an exit will not decrease exposure.
There has been a radiation-based terrorist attack and a patient is experiencing vomiting, diarrhea, and shock after the attack. How will the patients likelihood of survival be characterized? A) Probable B) Possible C) Improbable D) Extended
Ans: C Feedback: Patients who experience vomiting, diarrhea, and shock after radiation exposure are categorized as improbable survival, because they are demonstrating symptoms of exposure levels of more than 800 rads of total body-penetrating irradiation.
A patient is brought to the ED by family members who tell the nurse that the patient has been exhibiting paranoid, agitated behavior. What should the nurse do when interacting with this patient? A) Keep the patient in a confined space. B) Use therapeutic touch appropriately. C) Give the patient honest answers about likely treatment. D) Attempt to convince the patient that his or her fears are unfounded.
Ans: C Feedback: The nurse should offer appropriate and honest explanations in order to foster rapport and trust. Confinement is likely to cause escalation, as is touching the patient. The nurse should not normally engage in trying to convince the patient that his or her fears are unjustified, as this can also cause escalation.
You are a floor nurse caring for a patient with alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What would be an appropriate nursing action to minimize the potential for hallucinations? A) Engage the patient in a process of health education. B) Administer opioid analgesics as ordered. C) Place the patient in a private, well-lit room. D) Provide television or a radio as therapeutic distraction
Ans: C Feedback: The patient should be placed in a quiet single room with lights on and in a calm nonstressful environment. TV and radio stimulation should be avoided. Analgesics are not normally necessary, and would potentially contribute to hallucinations. Health education would be inappropriate while the patient is experiencing acute withdrawal.
A patient is brought by friends to the ED after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The patient sustained blunt trauma to the abdomen. What nursing action would be most appropriate for this patient? A) Ambulate the patient to expel flatus. B) Place the patient in a high Fowlers position. C) Immobilize the patient on a backboard. D) Place the patient in a left lateral position.
Ans: C Feedback: When admitted for blunt trauma, patients must be immobilized until spinal injury is ruled out. Ambulation, side-lying, and upright positioning would be contraindicated until spinal injury is ruled out.
A patient is brought to the ED by friends. The friends tell the nurse that the patient was using cocaine at a party. On arrival to the ED the patient is in visible distress with an axillary temperature of 40.1C (104.2F). What would be the priority nursing action for this patient? A) Monitor cardiovascular effects. B) Administer antipyretics. C) Ensure airway and ventilation. D) Prevent seizure activity.
Ans: C Feedback: Although all of the listed actions may be necessary for this patients care, the priority is to establish a patent airway and adequate ventilation
A patient suffering from blast lung has been admitted to the hospital and is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an air embolus. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Place the patient in the Trendelenberg position. B) Assess the patients airway and begin chest compressions. C) Position the patient in the prone, left lateral position. D) Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises.
Ans: C Feedback: In the event of an air embolus, the patient should be placed immediately in the prone left lateral position to prevent migration of the embolus and will require emergent treatment in a hyperbaric chamber. Chest compressions, deep breathing, and coughing would exacerbate the patients condition. Trendelenberg positioning is not recommended.
A group of medical nurses are being certified in their response to potential bioterrorism. The nurses learn that if a patient is exposed to the smallpox virus he or she becomes contagious at what time? A) 6 to 12 hours after exposure B) When pustules form C) After a rash appears D) When the patient becomes febrile
Ans: C Feedback: A patient is contagious after a rash develops, which initially develops on the face, mouth, pharynx, and forearms. The patient exposed to the smallpox virus is not contagious immediately after exposure; only when pustules form, or with a body temperature of 38C.
A patient with a fractured femur presenting to the ED exhibits cool, moist skin, increased heart rate, and falling BP. The care team should consider the possibility of what complication of the patients injuries? A) Myocardial infarction B) Hypoglycemia C) Hemorrhage D) Peritonitis
Ans: C Feedback: The signs and symptoms the patient is experiencing suggest a volume deficit from an internal bleed. That the symptoms follow an acute injury suggests hemorrhage rather than myocardial infarction or hypoglycemia. Peritonitis would be an unlikely result of a femoral fracture.
After a radiation exposure, a patient has been assessed and determined to be a possible survivor. Following the resolution of the patients initial symptoms, the care team should anticipate what event? A) A return to full health B) Internal bleeding C) A latent phase D) Massive tissue necrosis
Ans: C Feedback: A latent phase commonly follows the prodromal phase of radiation exposure. The patient is deemed a possible survivor, not a probable survivor, so an immediate return to health is unlikely. However, internal bleeding and massive tissue necrosis would not be expected in a patient categorized as a possible survivor.
The emergency response team is dealing with a radiation leak at the hospital. What action should be performed to prevent the spread of the contaminants? A) Floors must be scrubbed with undiluted bleach. B) Waste must be promptly incinerated. C) The ventilation system should be deactivated. D) Air ducts and vents should be sealed.
Ans: D Feedback: All air ducts and vents must be sealed to prevent spread. Waste is controlled through double-bagging and the use of plastic-lined containers outside of the facility rather than incineration. Bleach would be ineffective against radiation and the ventilation system may or may not be deactivated.
A patient is admitted to the ED who has been exposed to a nerve agent. The nurse should anticipate the STAT administration of what drug? A) Amylnitrate B) Dimercaprol C) Erythromycin D) Atropine
Ans: D Feedback: Atropine is administered when a patient is exposed to a nerve agent. Exposure to blood agents, such as cyanide, requires treatment with amyl nitrate, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate. Dimercaprol is administered IV for systemic toxicity and topically for skin lesions when exposed to vesicants. Erythromycin is an antibiotic, which is ineffective against nerve agents.
A patient who has been diagnosed with cholecystitis is being discharged home from the ED to be scheduled for surgery later. The patient received morphine during the present ED admission and is visibly drowsy. When providing health education to the patient, what would be the most appropriate nursing action? A) Give written instructions to patient. B) Give verbal instructions to one of the patients family members. C) Telephone the patient the next day with verbal instructions. D) Give verbal and written instructions to patient and a family member
Ans: D Feedback: Before discharge, verbal and written instructions for continuing care are given to the patient and the family or significant others. Discharge teaching is completed prior to the patient leaving the ED, so phoning the patient the next day in not acceptable.
A triage nurse is talking to a patient when the patient begins choking on his lunch. The patient is coughing forcefully. What should the nurse do? A) Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind. B) Lay him down, straddle him, and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver. C) Leave him to get assistance. D) Stay with him and encourage him, but not intervene at this time.
Ans: D Feedback: If the patient is coughing, he should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction. If complete obstruction occurs, the nurse should perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with the patient standing. If the patient is unconscious, the nurse should lay the patient down. A nurse should never leave a choking patient alone.
A patient who attempted suicide being treated in the ED is accompanied by his mother, father, and brother. When planning the nursing care of this family, the nurse should perform which of the following action? A) Refer the family to psychiatry in order to provide them with support. B) Explore the causes of the patients suicide attempt with the family. C) Encourage the family to participate in the bedside care of the patient. D) Ensure that the family receives appropriate crisis intervention services.
Ans: D Feedback: It is essential that family crisis intervention services are available for families of ED patients. It would be inappropriate and insensitive to explore causes of the patients suicide attempt with the family. Family participation in bedside care is often impractical in the ED setting. Psychiatry is not the normal source of psychosocial support and crisis intervention.
Level C personal protective equipment has been deemed necessary in the response to an unknown substance. The nurse is aware that the equipment will include what? A) A self-contained breathing apparatus B) A vapor-tight, chemical-resistant suit C) A uniform only D) An air-purified respirator
Ans: D Feedback: Level C incorporates the use of an air-purified respirator, a chemical resistant coverall with splash hood, chemical-resistant gloves, and boots. Level A provides the highest level of respiratory, mucous membrane, skin, and eye protection, incorporating a vapor-tight, chemical-resistant suit and self- contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). Level B personal protective equipment provides the highest level of respiratory protection, with a lesser level of skin and eye protection, incorporating a chemical- resistant suit and SCBA. Level D is the same as a work uniform.
A patient was exposed to a dose of more than 5,000 rads of radiation during a terrorist attack. The patients skin will eventually show what manifestation? A) Erythema B) Ecchymosis C) Desquamation D) Necrosis
Ans: D Feedback: Necrosis of the skin will become evident within a few days to months at doses of more than 5,000 rads. With 600 to 1,000 rads, erythema will occur; it can disappear within hours and then reappear. At greater than 1,000 rads, desquamation (radiation dermatitis) of the skin will occur. Ecchymosis does not occur.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been the victim of sexual assault. The nurse documents that the patient appears to be in a state of shock, verbalizing fear, guilt, and humiliation. What phase of rape trauma syndrome is this patient most likely experiencing? A) Reorganization phase B) Denial phase C) Heightened anxiety phase D) Acute disorganization phase
Ans: D Feedback: The acute disorganization phase may manifest as an expressed state in which shock, disbelief, fear, guilt, humiliation, anger, and other such emotions are encountered. These varied responses to the assault are not associated with a denial, heightened anxiety, or reorganization phase.
A patient has been witness to a disaster involving a large number of injuries. The patient appears upset, but states that he feels capable of dealing with his emotions. What is the nurses most appropriate intervention? A) Educate the patient about the potential harm in denying his emotions. B) Refer the patient to social work or spiritual care. C) Encourage the patient to take a leave of absence from his job to facilitate emotional healing. D) Encourage the patient to return to normal social roles when appropriate.
Ans: D Feedback: The patient should be encouraged to return to normal social roles when appropriate if he is confident and genuine about his ability to cope. The nurse should use active listening to the patients concerns and emotions to enable the patient to process the situation. The patient is not necessarily being unrealistic or dishonest. As a result, social work or spiritual care may not be needed. Time away from work may not be required.
A workplace explosion has left a 40-year-old man burned over 65% of his body. His burns are second- and third-degree burns, but he is conscious. How would this person be triaged? A) Green B) Y ellow C) Red D) Black
Ans: D Feedback: The purpose of triaging in a disaster is to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people. The patient would be triaged as black due to the unlikelihood of survival. Persons triaged as green, yellow, or red have a higher chance of recovery.
The nurse has been notified that the ED is expecting terrorist attack victims and that level D personal protective equipment is appropriate. What does level D PPE include? A) A chemical-resistant coverall with splash hood, chemical-resistant gloves, and boots B) A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) and a fully encapsulating, vapor-tight, chemical- resistant suit with chemical-resistant gloves and boots. C) The SCBA and a chemical-resistant suit, but the suit is not vapor tight D) The nurses typical work uniform
Ans: D Feedback: The typical work uniform is appropriate for Level D protection
The nurse is preparing to admit patients who have been the victim of a blast injury. The nurse should expect to treat a large number of patients who have experienced what type of injury? A) Chemical burns B) Spinal cord injury C) Meningeal tears D) Tympanic membrane rupture
Ans: D Feedback: Tympanic membrane (TM) rupture is the most frequent injury after subjection to a pressure wave resulting from a blast injury because the TM is the bodys most sensitive organ to pressure. In most cases, other injuries such as meningeal tears, spinal cord injury, and chemical injuries are likely to be less common.
A patient has been brought to the ED after suffering genitourinary trauma in an assault. Initial assessment reveals that the patients bladder is distended. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Withhold fluids from the patient. B) Perform intermittent urinary catheterization. C) Insert a narrow-gauge indwelling urinary catheter. D) Await orders following the urologists assessment.
Ans: D Feedback: Urethral catheter insertion when a possible urethral injury is present is contraindicated; a urology consultation and further evaluation of the urethra are required. The nurse would withhold fluids, but urologic assessment is the priority.
A patient is brought to the ER in an unconscious state. The physician notes that the patient is in need of emergency surgery. No family members are present, and the patient does not have identification. What action by the nurse is most important regarding consent for treatment? A) Ask the social worker to come and sign the consent. B) Contact the police to obtain the patients identity. C) Obtain a court order to treat the patient. D) Clearly document LOC and health status on the patients chart.
Ans: D Feedback: When patients are unconscious and in critical condition, the condition and situation should be documented to administer treatment quickly and timely when no consent can be obtained by usual routes. A social worker is not asked to sign the consent. Finding the patients identity is not a priority. Obtaining a court order would take too long.
An obtunded patient is admitted to the ED after ingesting bleach. The nurse should prepare to assist with what intervention? A) Prompt administration of an antidote B) Gastric lavage C) Administration of activated charcoal D) Helping the patient drink large amounts of water
Ans: D Feedback: The patient who has ingested a corrosive poison, such as bleach, is given water or milk to drink for dilution. Gastric lavage is not used to treat ingestion of corrosives and activated charcoal is ineffective. There is no antidote for a corrosive substance such as bleach.
When assessing patients who are victims of a chemical agent attack, the nurse is aware that assessment findings vary based on the type of chemical agent. The chemical sulfur mustard is an example of what type of chemical warfare agent? A) Nerve agent B) Blood agent C) Pulmonary agent D) Vesicant
Ans: D Feedback: Sulfur mustard is a vesicant chemical that causes blistering and results in burning, conjunctivitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, hematopoietic suppression, and death. Nerve agents include sarin, soman, tabun, VX, and organophosphates (pesticides). Hydrogen cyanide is a blood agent that has a direct effect on cellular metabolism, resulting in asphyxiation through alterations in hemoglobin. Chlorine is a pulmonary agent, which destroys the pulmonary membrane that separates the alveolus from the capillary bed
A patient who has been exposed to anthrax is being treated in the local hospital. The nurse should prioritize what health assessments? A) Integumentary assessment B) Assessment for signs of hemorrhage C) Neurologic assessment D) Assessment of respiratory status
Ans: D Feedback: The second stage of anthrax infection by inhalation includes severe respiratory distress, including stridor, cyanosis, hypoxia, diaphoresis, hypotension, and shock. The first stage includes flu-like symptoms. The second stage of infection by inhalation does not include headache, vomiting, or syncope.
The nursing supervisor at the local hospital is advised that your hospital will be receiving multiple trauma victims from a blast that occurred at a local manufacturing plant. The paramedics call in a victim of the blast with injuries including a head injury and hemorrhage. What phase of blast injury should the nurse expect to treat in this patient? A) Primary phase B) Secondary phase C) Tertiary phase D) Quaternary phase
Ans: A Feedback: Pulmonary barotraumas, including pulmonary contusions; head injuries, including concussion, other severe brain injuries; tympanic membrane rupture, middle ear injury; abdominal hollow organ perforation; and hemorrhage are all injuries that can occur in the primary phase of a blast. These particular injuries are not characteristic of the subsequent phases.
A patient is brought to the ED by ambulance with a gunshot wound to the abdomen. The nurse knows that the most common hollow organ injured in this type of injury is what? Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017) 1351 A) Liver B) Small bowel C) Stomach D) Large bowel
Ans: B Feedback: Penetrating abdominal wounds have a high incidence of injury to hollow organs, especially the small bowel. The liver is also injured frequently, but it is a solid organ.