Brunner and Suddharth Med Surg Chapter 35,36,37 (15th ed)

Patients who experience a fracture of the humeral neck are advised that healing will take an average of ______ weeks, with restricted activity for an additional _____ weeks.

10, 4

Approximately how many mg of calcium is needed daily to maintain adult bone mass?

1000-1200 mg

What is the daily recommended adequate intake level of calcium for all individuals?

1000mg -1500mg

The human body has how many bones?

206

The approximate percentage of total body calcium present in the bones is

98%

A patient is having a repeated tears of the joint capsule in the shoulder, and the physician prescribes an arthrogram. What interventions should the nurse provide after the procedure is completed? (Select all that apply) A. Apply a compression bandage to the area. B. Apply heat to the area for 48 hours. C. Administer a mild analgesic. D. Inform the patient that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days. E. Actively exercise the area immediately after the procedure.

A. Apply a compression bandage to the area. C. Administer a mild analgesic. D. Inform the patient that a clicking or crackling noise in the joint may persist for a couple of days.

A patient sustains a fracture of the arm. When does the nurse anticipate pendulum exercise should begin? A. As soon as tolerated, after a reasonable period of immobilization. B. In 2-3 weeks, when callus ossification prevents easy movements of bony fragments. C. in about 4-5 weeks, after new bone is well established. D. In 2-3 months, after normal activities are resumed.

A. As soon as tolerated, after a reasonable period of immobilization.

What type of fracture has a fragment of the bone pulled off by a ligament or a tendon? A. Avulsion B. Comminuted C. Complete D. Epiphyseal E. Greenstick

A. Avulsion

What diagnostic procedure for low back pain may disclose infections, tumors, and bone marrow abnormalities? A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

A. Bone Scan

The nurse is caring for a patient with a pelvic fracture. What nursing assessment for a pelvic fracture should be included? (Select all that apply) A. Checking the urine for hematuria B. Palpating peripheral pulses C. Testing the stool for occult blood. D. Assessing level of consciousness E. Assessing pupillary response.

A. Checking the urine for hematuria B. Palpating peripheral pulses C. Testing the stool for occult blood.

What type of fracture is the fractured bone compressed by another? A. Compressed B. Depressed C. Oblique D. Open E. Pathologic

A. Compressed

A patient sustains an open fracture of the left arm after an accident at the roller skating rink. What does emergency management of this fracture involve? (Select all that apply) A. Cover the area with a clean dressing if the fracture is open. B. Immobilize the affected site C. Splint the injured limb D. Have the patient demonstrate mobility of the arm E. Wrap the arm in a compression bandage

A. Cover the area with a clean dressing if the fracture is open. B. Immobilize the affected site C. Splint the injured limb

A nurse is caring for a patient who has had an amputation. What interventions can the nurse provide to foster a positive self-image? (select all that apply) A. Encouraging the patient to care for the residual limb. B. Allowing self-expression of grief C. Encouraging the patient to have family and friends view the residual limb to decrease self-consciousness D. Encouraging family and friends to refrain from visiting temporarily because this may increase the patient's embarrassment. E. Introducing the patient to local amputee support groups.

A. Encouraging the patient to care for the residual limb. B. Allowing self-expression of grief E. Introducing the patient to local amputee support groups.

The nurse is caring for a patient with bone metastasis from a primary breast cancer. The patient reports muscle weakness and nausea, and is voiding large amounts frequently. Cardiac dysrhythmias are observed on the tele monitor. What should the nurse suspect based on these clinical manifestations? A. Hypercalcemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyperkalemia

A. Hypercalcemia

A patient has suffered a femoral shaft fracture in an industrial accident. What is an immediate concern for this patient? A. Hypovolemic shock B. Infection C. Knee and hip dislocation D. Pain resulting from muscle spasm

A. Hypovolemic shock

The nurse is caring for a patient who sustained an open fracture of the right femur in an automobile crash. What does the nurse recognize is the most serious complication of an open fracture? A. Infection B. Muscle atrophy caused by loss of supporting bone structure C. Necrosis of adjacent soft tissue caused by blood loss D. Nerve damage

A. Infection

What is bursitis? A. Inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint B. New bone growth around a sequestrum C. Disease of a nerve root Inflammation of muscle tendons

A. Inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint Bursitis is inflammation of a fluid-filled sac in the joint. Involucrum is new bone growth around a sequestrum. Radiculopathy is disease of a nerve root. Tendinitis is inflammation of muscle tendons

A patient is diagnosed with osteomyelitis of the right leg. What signs and symptoms does the nurse recognize that are associated with this diagnosis? A. Pain in the right leg B. Erythema of the right leg C. Fever D. Leukopenia E. Purulent drainage

A. Pain in the right leg B. Erythema of the right leg C. Fever

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient who may have peripheral neurovascular dysfunction. What signs does the patient present with that indicate circulation is impaired. (Select all that apply) A. Pale, cyanotic, or mottled color. B. Cool temperature of the extremity C. More than 3 second capillary refill. D. Tenting skin turgor. E. Limited range of motion

A. Pale, cyanotic, or mottled color. B. Cool temperature of the extremity C. More than 3 second capillary refill.

A patient comes in to the clinic and informs the nurse of numbness, tingling, and a burning sensation in the arm from the elbow down to the fingers. What type of symptom would this be documented as? A. Paresthesia B. Flaccidity C. Atonia D. Effusion

A. Paresthesia

Which peripheral nerve sensation test does one prick the skin midway between the great and second toe? A. Peroneal B. Tibial C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Median

A. Peroneal

A patient has a fracture of the right femur sustained in a motor vehicle crash. What process of fracture healing does the nurse understand will occur with this patient? A. Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase. B. Primary phase, Secondary Phase, Third Phase C. First intention, Secondary intention, and third intention. D. Active phase, dormant phase, and restructure phase.

A. Reactive phase, reparative phase, remodeling phase.

Joint dislocation can lead to avascular necrosis if not treated. What rationale should be provided to the patient with the potential for developing AVN?

AVN is the tissue death due to anoxia and diminished blood supply

What are some musculoskeletal problems that can cause low back pain?

Acute lumbosacral strain, unstable lumbosacral ligaments, weak lumbosacral muscles, osteoarthritis of spine, spinal stenosis, intervertebral disc problems, and unequal leg length.

What is an isometric contraction?

Almost all energy is released in some form of heat

The leading cause of musculoskeletal related disability in the US is

Arthritis

A patient had an above-the-knee amputation of the left leg related to complications from peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The nurse enters the patient's room and observes the dressings and bed covers saturated with blood. What is the first action by the nurse? A. Notify the provider. B. Apply a tourniquet C. Use skin clips to close the wound D. Reinforce the dress

B. Apply Tourniquet

A patient has stepped in a hole in the yard, causing an ankle injury. The ankle is edematous and painful to palpation. How long should the nurse inform the patient that the acute inflammatory stage will last? A. Less than 24 hours B. Between 24-48 hours C. About 72 hours D. At least one week

B. Between 24-48 hours

What is a contusion? A. A musculotendinous injury B. Blunt force injury to soft tissue C. A break in the continuity of a bone D. An injury to ligaments and other soft tissues at a joint

B. Blunt force injury to soft tissue Strain is a musculotendinous injury. Contusion is blunt force injury to soft tissue. Fracture is a break in the continuity of a bone. Sprain is an injury to ligaments and other soft tissues at a joint

A patient has been diagnosed with osteomalacia. What commons symptoms does the nurse recognize correlate with the diagnosis? A. Bone fracture and kyphosis B. Bone pain and tenderness C. Muscle weakness and spasms D. Softened and compressed vertebrae

B. Bone pain and tenderness

What diagnostic procedure used for low back pain is useful in identifying underlying problems, such as obscure soft tissue lesions adjacent to the vertebral columns and problems of the vertebral discs? A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

B. CT Scan

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with pregnancy induced hypertension. When assessing reflexes in the ankle, the nurse observes rhythmic contractions of the muscle when dorsiflexing the foot. What would the nurse document this finding as? A. Positive Babinski reflex B. Clonus C. Hypertrophy D. Ankle Reflex

B. Clonus

What type of fracture is the bone splintered into several fragments? A. Avulsion B. Comminuted C. Complete D. Epiphyseal E. Greenstick

B. Comminuted

What type of fracture are the fragments driven inward? A. Compressed B. Depressed C. Oblique D. Open E. Pathologic

B. Depressed

A patient comes in to the clinic reporting low back pain radiating down to the left leg. After diagnostic studies rule out any pathology, the physician prescribes a SNRI (serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor). Which medication does the nurse anticipate educating the patient about? A. Amitriptyline B. Duloxetine C. Gabapentin D. Cyclobenzaprine

B. Duloxetine

A patient has had a stroke and is unable to move the right upper and lower extremities. During assessment the nurse picks up the arm and it is limp and without tone. How would the nurse document this finding? A. Rigidity B. Flaccidity C. Atonic D. Tetanic

B. Flaccidity

While riding a bicycle on a narrow road, the patient was hit from behind and thrown into a ditch, sustaining a pelvic fracture. What complications does the nurse monitor for that are common to pelvic fractures? A. Paresthesia and ischemia B. Hemorrhage and shock C. Paralytic ileus and a lacerate urethra D. Thrombophlebitis and infection

B. Hemorrhage and shock

The nurse is monitoring a patient who sustained an open fracture of the left hip. What type of shock should the nurse recognize can occur with this type of injury? A. Cardiogenic B. Hypovolemic C. Neurogenic D. Septicemic

B. Hypovolemic

A patient has a fracture that is being treated with open rigid compression plate fixation devices. How will the progress of bone healing be monitored? A. Remove the plate and determined if the bone is growing back. B. Perform serial X-Rays. C. Perform an arthroscopy. D. The bone will heal on its own without intervention.

B. Perform serial X-Rays.

The hospice nurse is assigned to care for a patient with metastatic bone cancer who wants to remain at home. What is the therapeutic goal in the care of this patient? A. Prevent the patient from having to go to the hospital for care B. Relieve pain and discomfort while promoting quality of life care. C. Increase the activity level of the patient to prevent complications related to immobilization. D. Ensure that the family accepts the patient's imminent death.

B. Relieve pain and discomfort while promoting quality of life care.

A patient reports experiencing low back pain. What position can the nurse suggest to relieve this discomfort? A. High Fowlers to allow for max hip flexion. B. Supine with the knees slightly flexed and the HOB elevated 30 degrees C. Prone, with a pillow under the shoulders D. Supine, with the bed flat and a firm mattress in place

B. Supine with the knees slightly flexed and the HOB elevated 30 degrees

Which peripheral nerve sensation test does one prick the medial and lateral surface of the sole? A. Peroneal B. Tibial C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Median

B. Tibial

When does Primary osteoporosis in women usually begin?

Between 45- 55, after menopause

What is the major consequence of osteoporosis?

Bone Fracture

How is bone formation enhanced?

By Calcium intake, muscular activity, weight bearing

A patient is diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome asks the nurse about numbness in the fingers and pain in the wrist. In responding to the patient, how would the nurse best describe carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)? A. "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by bursitis and tendonitis." B. "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by flexion contracture of the fourth and fifth fingers." C. "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist" D. "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by pannus formation in the shoulder"

C. "CTS is a neuropathy that is characterized by compression of the median nerve at the wrist"

The nurse had educated a patient with low back pain about techniques to relieve the discomfort and prevent further complications. What statement by the patient shows understanding of the education the nurse provided? A. "I will lie prone with my legs slightly elevated" B. "I will bend at the waist when I am lifting objects from the floor" C. "I will avoid prolonged sitting or walking" D. "Instead of turning around to grasp an object, I will twist at the waist"

C. "I will avoid prolonged sitting or walking"

A patient tells the nurse, "I was working out and lifting weights, and now that I have stopped, I am flabby and muscles have gone!" What is the best response by the nurse? A. "While you are limiting weights, endorphins are released, creating increase in muscle mass, but if the muscles are not used they will atrophy" B. "The muscle mass has decreased from the lack of calcium in the cells." C. "Your muscles were in a state of hypertrophy from the weight lifting but it will persist only if the exercise is continued." D. "Once you stop exercising, the contraction of the muscle does not regain its strength."

C. "Your muscles were in a state of hypertrophy from the weight lifting but it will persist only if the exercise is continued."

How long does a patient taking bisphosphonates need to stay upright after administration? A. 10 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 30 minutes 120 minutes

C. 30 minutes Bisphosphonates are administered on arising in the morning with a full glass of water on an empty stomach, and the patient must stay upright for 30 to 60 minutes

A patient is diagnosed with osteogenic sarcoma. What laboratory studies should the nurse monitor for in the presence of elevation? A. Magnesium B. Potassium C. Alkaline phosphatase D. Troponin

C. Alkaline phosphatase

A patient tells the healthcare provider about shoulder pain that is present even without any strenuous movement. The healthcare provider identifies a sac filled with synovial fluid. What condition should the nurse educate the patient about? A. A fracture of the clavicle B. Osteoarthritis of the shoulder C. Chronic Bursitis D. Ankylosing spondylitis

C. Chronic Bursitis

What type of fracture is a break that occurs across the entire section of the bone? A. Avulsion B. Comminuted C. Complete D. Epiphyseal E. Greenstick

C. Complete

The nurse is assessing the feet of a patient and observes an overgrown of the horny layer of the epidermis. What condition will the nurse education the patient about? A. Bunion B. Clawfoot C. Corn D. Hammer Toe

C. Corn

A patient shows the nurse a round, firm nodule on the wrist. The pain is described as aching, with some weakness off the fingers. What treatment does the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply) A. Educating the patient on the use of Gabapentin. B. Active range of motion exercises C. Corticosteroid injections D. Surgical excision E. Aspiration of the cyst

C. Corticosteroid injections D. Surgical excision E. Aspiration of the cyst

A patient is climbing a ladder, slipped on a rung, and fell on the right side of chest. X-Ray studies reveal 3 rib fractures and the patient reports pain with inspiration. What is the anticipated treatment for this patient? A. Chest strapping B. Mechanical Ventilation C. Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splinting D. Thoracentesis

C. Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splinting

A patient sustains an open fracture with extensive soft tissue damage. The nurse determines that this fracture would be classified as what grade? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

C. III

Which diagnostic procedure used for low back pain permits visualization of the nature and location of spinal pathology? A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

C. MRI scan

What type of fracture occurs at an angle across the bone? A. Compressed B. Depressed C. Oblique D. Open E. Pathologic

C. Oblique

The nurse is educating a patient with low back pain about the proper way to lift objects. What muscle should the nurse encourage the patient to maximize? A. Gastrocnemius b. Latissimus dorsi C. Quadriceps D. Rectus abdominis

C. Quadriceps

Which peripheral nerve sensation test does one prick the skin midway between the thumb and second finger? A. Peroneal B. Tibial C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Median

C. Radial

The nurse assesses soft subcutaneous nodules along the line of the tendons in the patient's hand and wrist. What does this finding indicate to the nurse? A. The patient has osteoarthritis. B. The patient has lupus erythematosus. C. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis. D. The patient has neurofibromatosis.

C. The patient has rheumatoid arthritis.

Which statement is false about magnetic resonance imaging? A. Credit cards with magnetic strips may be erased B. Nonremovable cochlear implant devices can become inoperable C. Transdermal patches that have a thin layer of aluminized back must be covered with gauze D. Jewelry and hair clips must be removed before the MRI is performed

C. Transdermal patches that have a thin layer of aluminized back must be covered with gauze. True statements are credit cards with magnetic strips may be erased. Nonremovable cochlear implant devices can become inoperable. Jewelry and hair clips must be removed before the MRI is performed. Transdermal patches that have a thin layer of aluminized back must be covered with gauze is false. Transdermal patches that have a thin layer of aluminized back must be removed before the MRI is performed because they can cause burns

What are the 3 medications used to treat Paget disease?

Calcitonin, biphosphates, plicamycin

How is closed reduction performed?

Close reduction is performed w/o a surgical incision and can be done when there is a dislocation of a fracture. Cast may be applied after the procedure.

What is the most common fracture of the distal radius?

Colles' fracture

What describes the grating, crackling sound heard over irregular join surfaces like the knee?

Crepitus

After a bone density test, an older adult female patient tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I have osteoporosis because I eat well and take my calcium." What is the best response from the nurse? A. "Everyone gets osteoporosis and there is nothing you can do to prevent it." B. "Men lose more bone mass than women but women lose some." C. "In order to prevent bone loss, you will have to take hormones." D. "The loss is from withdrawal of estrogen and a decrease in activity levels."

D. "The loss is from withdrawal of estrogen and a decrease in activity levels."

The nurse is caring for a patient after arthroscopic surgery for a rotator cuff tear. The nurse informs the patient that full activity can usually resume after what period of time? A. 3-4 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 3-4 months D. 6-12 months

D. 6-12 months

A patient is scheduled for a procedure that will allow the physician to visualize the knew joint in order to diagnose the patient's pain. What procedure will the nurse prepare the patient for? A. Arthrocentesis B. Bone Scan C. Electromyography D. Arthroscopy

D. Arthroscopy

Which diagnostic procedure used for low back pain is used to evaluate spinal nerve root disorders radiculopathies? A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

D. Electromyogram (EMG)

What type of fracture is one that occurs through the epiphysis? A. Avulsion B. Comminuted C. Complete D. Epiphyseal E. Greenstick

D. Epiphyseal

A patient sustained an open fracture of the femur 24 hours ago. While assessing the patient, the nurse observes the patient is having difficulty breathing, and O2 saturation decreases to 88% from a previous 99%. What does the nurse determine is likely occurring with this patient? A. Spontaneous pneumothorax B. Cardiac tamponade C. Pneumonia D. Fat emboli

D. Fat emboli

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult patient and observes the patient has an increased forward curvature of the thoracic spine. What does the nurse understand this common finding is known as? A. Lordosis B. Scoliosis C. Osteoporosis D. Kyphosis

D. Kyphosis

What type of fracture does the fracture extend through the skin? A. Compressed B. Depressed C. Oblique D. Open E. Pathologic

D. Open

A patient had hand surgery to correct a Dupuytren contracture. What nursing intervention is a priority post operatively? A. Changing the dressing B. Applying a cock-up splint and immobilization C. Having the patient exercise the fingers to avoid future contractures D. Performing hourly neurovascular assessments for the first 24 hours.

D. Performing hourly neurovascular assessments for the first 24 hours.

A patient stepped on an acorn while walking barefoot in the backyard and developed an infection progressing to osteomyelitis. What microorganism does the nurse understand is most often the cause of the development of osteomyelitis? A. Proteus B. Pseudomonas C. Salmonella D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

Which peripheral nerve sensation test does one prick the distal fat pad of the small finger? A. Peroneal B. Tibial C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Median

D. Ulnar

A patient falls while skiing and sustains a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. What serious complication of this injury should the nurse monitor for? A. Hemarthrosis B. Paresthesia C. Malunion D. Volkmann's ischemic contracture

D. Volkmann's ischemic contracture

What is the most common complication of hip fractures in the older adult patient?

Deep vein thrombosis

What are 3 early and serious complication associated with bed rest and reduced skeletal muscle contractions for a patient with an open fracture?

Deep vein thrombosis, thromboembolism, and pulmonary embolus.

What are 3 delayed complications of fractures?

Delayed: Delayed union and nonunion, avascular necrosis of the bone, reaction to internal fixation devices, complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), and heterotrophic ossification

Osteomyelitis with vascular insufficiency , which most commonly affects the feet, is seen most often among patients with which type of conditions?

Diabetes, peripheral vascular disease

What type of fracture is one side of the bone broken and the other side is bent? A. Avulsion B. Comminuted C. Complete D. Epiphyseal E. Greenstick

E. Greenstick

Which peripheral nerve sensation test does one prick the top or distal surface of the index finger? A. Peroneal B. Tibial C. Radial D. Ulnar E. Median

E. Median

Which diagnostic procedure used for low back pain permits visualization of segments of the spinal cord that may have been herniated or may be compressed (infrequently performed; indicated when MRI is contraindicated) A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

E. Myelogram

What type of fracture occurs through an area of diseased bone? A. Compressed B. Depressed C. Oblique D. Open E. Pathologic

E. Pathologic

What are 3 early complications of fractures?

Early: Shock, fat embolism, compartment syndrome, deep vein thrombosis, thromboembolism, DIC, and infection.

What is the role of the sex hormones testosterone and estrogen in bone remodeling?

Estrogen stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts; therefore bone formation is enhanced and resorption is inhibited. Testosterone has both direct and indirect effects on bone growth and formation. It directly causes skeletal grown in adolescence and has continued effects on skeletal muscle growth throughout the lifespan.

What diagnostic procedure used for low back pain is useful in detecting tears in ligaments, muscles, tendons, and soft tissues in the back? A. Bone Scan B. CT scan C. MRI scan D. Electromyogram E. Myelogram F. Ultrasound

F. Ultrasound

Function of osteoblasts

Function in bone formation by secreting bone matrix. Matrix consists of collagen and ground substances ( glycoproteins and proteoglycans) that provide a framework in which inorganic mineral salts are deposited. These minerals are primarily composed of calcium and phosphorus.

What is Kyphosis?

Increase convex curvature of the thoracic spine

What is Lordosis?

Increase in concave curvature of the lumbar spine

What is the layman's term for onychocryptosis, a common foot problem?

Ingrown toenail

What are the intervertebral discs that are most subject to the greatest mechanical stress and greatest degenerative changes?

L4, L5, S1

What is scoliosis?

Lateral curving of the spine

How is open reduction performed?

Open reduction is performed with plate and screws to provide mobilization of the bone, especially if there is displacement of the fracture.

What are 3 major complication risks for patients with open fractures?

Osteomyelitis, tetanus, gas gangrene

What is the process of fracture healing, including the 3 states of progression?

Phase I: Reactive Phase Phase II: Reparative Phase Phase III: Remodeling Phase

What are the general functions of the musculoskeletal system?

Provide protection for vital organs (brain, heart, and lungs); providers sturdy framework to support the body structures; and makes mobility possible.

Clinical manifestations associated with septic arthritis?

Pt will present with a warm, painful, and swollen joint with decreased ROM. System chills, fever, and leukocytosis are sometimes present. Any joint may be infected but 50% are in the knee.

What is an isotonic contraction?

Some energy is expended during mechanical work

What are some activities involved in the treatment of patient who is in early shock from a fracture?

Stabilizing the fracture to prevent further hemorrhage, restoring blood volume and circulation, reliving the patients pain, providing proper immobilization, and protecting against further injury.

What is a muscle tear that is microscopic and due to overuse?

Strain

The nurse feels a grating sensation in a patient's extremity. What is this sensation caused by and how would the nurse document the sensation?

The sensation is caused by the rubbing of bone fragments against each other; this would described and documented as crepitus

Function of Osteoclasts

These are located in shallow Howship lacunae (small pits in the bones); they are multinuclear cells involved in dissolving and resorbing bone.

Function of Osteocytes

These are mature bone cells involved in bone maintenance; they are located in the lacunae (bone matrix units)

What is the Assessment technique used for tinel sign?

This sign may be assessed in patients with carpal tunnel syndrome by percussing lightly over the median nerve, located on the inner aspect of the wrist. A patient reporting numbness, tingling, or pain means Tinel Sign is positive.

Why should the residual limb never be placed on a pillow?

To avoid flexion contracture of the hip

Is the following statement true or false? Bone is in a constant state of turnover

True Bone is in a constant state of turnover

Is the following statement true or false? Phantom limb pain is perceived in the amputated limb

True Phantom limb pain is perceived in the amputated limb

Is the following statement true or false? Proper standing posture occurs when the abdominal muscles contract, giving a feeling of upward pull, and the gluteal muscles contract, giving a downward pull

True Proper standing posture occurs when the abdominal muscles contract, giving a feeling of upward pull, and the gluteal muscles contract, giving a downward pull

Is the following statement true or false? Testing for crepitus can produce further tissue damage and should be avoided

True Testing for crepitus can produce further tissue damage and should be avoided

How does Vitamin D regulate the balance between bone formation and bone resorption?

Vitamin D increases calcium in the blood by promoting

What immediate nursing and medical management techniques are used for an open fracture?

With an open fracture, the wound is covered with sterile dressing to prevent contamination of deeper tissues. No attempt is made to reduce the fracture, even if one of the bone fragments is protruding through the wound. Splints are applied for immobilization.

What is the primary deficit in osteomalacia? This substance promotes calcium absorption from the GI tract.

a deficiency in activated vitamin D (calcitrol)

What 3 ROM activities that are avoided following a patient with a lower extremity amputation?

abduction, external rotation, flexion

What are common pulmonary complications for the older adult patient following a hip procedure?

atelectasis, pneumonia

A patient comes back to the clinic with continued reports of back pain. What time frame does the nurse understand constitutes "chronic pain"? A. 4 weeks b. 3 months C. 6 Months D. 1 year

b. 3 months

Flexion

bending a limb at a joint

What is impingement syndrome and what measures are necessary to promote should healing?

general term that describes impaired movement of the rotator cuff of the shoulder. Usually occurs from repetitive overhead movement of arm or from acute trauma resulting in irritation.

Tendonitis

inflamed muscle tendon sheaths

Bursitis

inflammation of a bursa sac

Depression

lowering a body part

Retraction

moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground

Protraction

moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground

Abduction

moving a limb away from the midline of the body

Adduction

moving a limb toward the midline of the body

Circumduction

moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder

Rotation

moving the head around a central axis

Inversion

moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle

Eversion

moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle

The femur fracture that common leads to avascular necrosis or nonunion due to an abundant supply of blood vessels is a fracture of what area?

neck

What is the most common benign bone tumor?

osteochondroma

What are the major hormonal regulators of calcium homeostasis?

parathyroid hormone, calcitonin

Elevation

raising a body part

In the shafts of which 4 long and flat bones is the bone marrow located?

sternum, ilium vertebrae, ribs

Extension

straightening a limb at a joint

A fracture of _____ has the longest immobilization time necessary for fracture union to occur.

tibial shaft

Pronation

turning the forearm so that the palm is down

Supination

turning the forearm so that the palm is up