C of Q 310T Prep
239. When using the TMC method of adjusting wheel bearings, endplay must be within what range?! a. 0.001-0.005 inch b. 0.001-0.010 inch c. 0.005-0.010 inch d. 0.005-0.050 inch
a. 0.001-0.005 inch
282. A typical TIR specification for disc rotor lateral runout would more likely be which of the following?! a. 0.0015 inch (0.0381 mm) b. 0.0050 inch (0.127 mm) c. 0.0100 inch (0.254 mm) d. 0.0150 inch (0.381 mm)
a. 0.0015 inch (0.0381 mm)
273. A typical maximum rotor thickness variation specification required by an OEM would likely be?! a. 0.002 inch (0.0508 mm) b. 0.005 inch (0.127 mm) c. 0.020 inch (0.508 mm) d. 0.050 inch (1.270 mm)
a. 0.002 inch (0.0508 mm)
145. The U-joint working angles on most truck drive shaft assemblies should generally not exceed?! a. 3 degrees b. 5 degrees c. 8 degrees d. 10 degrees
a. 3 degrees
176. Which gear lube viscosity rating is usually recommended for use in a differential carrier for a truck operating in temperatures of −30°F (−34°C)?! a. 75W b. 80W c. 80W-90 d. 80W-140
a. 75W
297. Which of the following is likely to occur if an ABS ceases to function?! a. ABS shuts down and a driver warning light comes on. b. ABS shifts into default mode. c. The entire braking system shuts down. d. The LED directs the driver when to apply the brakes.
a. ABS shuts down and a driver warning light comes on.
96. Which letters in the suffix of the Eaton Roadranger transmission serial number indicate that the transmission is an AutoShift electronically automated version?! a. AS b. AC c. RT d. B
a. AS
107. What would be the performance outcome if Auto-Shift defaults to one-speed fallback mode?! a. All shifting is inhibited. b. First to second shifts are inhibited. c. Second to first downshifts are inhibited. d. Shifting is inhibited in one gear only.
a. All shifting is inhibited.
160. When a truck is traveling in a straight-ahead direction, which of the following should be true?! a. Differential pinions do not turn on the spider shafts. b. Differential pinions walk on the spider shafts. c. Differential side gears do not turn. d. Differential action is required.
a. Differential pinions do not turn on the spider shafts
150. What is the function of a drive shaft slip spline joint?! a. It allows the drive shaft to change length while transmitting torque. b. It accommodates variations in driveline angles. c. It multiplies drive torque. d. all of the above
a. It allows the drive shaft to change length while transmitting torque.
286. Which of the following is true of the ABS tractor warning light?! a. It illuminates when the ignition key is turned on. b. It illuminates when the vehicle is braked. c. It goes off when there is an ABS failure. d. It goes off only when the vehicle is stationary.
a. It illuminates when the ignition key is turned on.
270. Which of the following correctly describes the function of a load proportioning valve (LPV) in an air-over-hydraulic system?! a. It increases the percentage of braking performed by the rear axle(s) as vehicle load increases. b. It decreases the percentage of braking performed by the rear axle(s) as vehicle load increases. c. It changes the frame-to-axle height dimension. d. It compensates for front wheel lockup.
a. It increases the percentage of braking performed by the rear axle(s) as vehicle load increases.
195. After properly connecting a power steering analyzer into a steering circuit with the engine running, what should happen when the flow control valve on the analyzer is closed?! a. The system pressure goes up. b. The system pressure goes down. c. The wheels turn off-center. d. The gpm gauge reading increases.
a. The system pressure goes up.
267. As the pressure of fluid received by the wheel cylinder of a drum brake system increases, which of the following happens?! a. The wheel cylinder cups and pistons are forced apart. b. The brake shoe retracting springs push the pistons back together. c. The pads are pushed against the rotor. d. The brake drum locks to the wheel cylinder.
a. The wheel cylinder cups and pistons are forced apart.
113. For the CEC transmission to produce output torque from input rotation, which of the following must occur?! a. Two clutches must be applied. b. Three clutches must be applied. c. The converter must be in lockup phase. d. Two members of one planetary gearset must be driven together.
a. Two clutches must be applied.
10. In the procedure required to perform a clutch replacement on a truck, which of the following steps should be performed first?! a. Unbolt the clutch from the flywheel. b. Remove the clutch brake. c. Install a clutch alignment tool through the release bearing. d. Unbolt the transmission bell housing from the flywheel.
a. Unbolt the clutch from the flywheel
127. In which of the following applications would WT electronics require a dedicated TPS signal?! a. WT is the only chassis electronic system. b. WT is used with J1939 electronics. c. WT is used with a Caterpillar engine. d. WT is used with J1587/1708 electronics.
a. WT is the only chassis electronic system
279. What component in a hydraulic brake system helps fluid in the master cylinder return back to the reservoir after a brake application?! a. a compensating port b. a metering valve c. a pressure differential valve d. a check valve
a. a compensating port
32. What component retains a shift rail in position following a shift?! a. a detent ball b. a slave valve c. a range cylinder d. a dog clutch
a. a detent ball
335. When projecting a frame diagram to a floor when making a frame alignment check, what tool is used to transfer the reference points on the truck chassis to the floor?! a. a plumb bob b. a chalk line c. a measuring tape d. a bazooka
a. a plumb bob
98. Which of the following correctly describes the gear select motor used on an AutoShift transmission?! a. a reversing DC motor b. an unidirectional DC motor c. a reversing AC motor d. an unidirectional AC motor
a. a reversing DC motor
30. In a range shift air control system, which component distributes inlet air pressure to both the lowand high-range air hoses running to the range cylinder?! a. a slave valve b. a splitter valve c. an air regulator d. an air compressor
a. a slave valve
247. The brake shoes, retraction, and fastening hardware are mounted to?! a. a spider b. a backing plate c. the drum d. the axle spindle
a. a spider
23. Which type of gear is more likely to develop gear whine at higher speeds?! a. a spur gear b. a helical gear c. a worm gear d. all of the above
a. a spur gear
89. What procedure should be used to identify whether the engine or transmission is at fault after a drivetrain complaint in a chassis equipped with an automatic transmission?! a. a stall test b. shift point adjustment c. an oil analysis d. all of the above
a. a stall test
78. Which of the following devices has an operating principle similar to that of a hydraulic retarder?! a. a torque converter b. a planetary gearset c. a hydraulic clutch d. an S-cam brake
a. a torque converter
142. Which of the following tools should be used to measure the inclination of a driveline component?! a. an inclinometer b. a dial indicator c. a go-no-go gauge d. a slide hammer
a. an inclinometer
74. Which type of hydraulic retarder is located between the torque converter and the transmission gearing?! a. an input retarder b. an output retarder c. a torque retarder d. none of the above
a. an input retarder
91. If the engine stall speed is more than 150 rpm above the stall speed specified by the engine manufacturer, which of the following is more likely?! a. an internal transmission problem b. an engine problem c. a torque converter problem d. a drive axle carrier problem
a. an internal transmission problem
148. Grooves worn into the trunnions by the bearings are called?! a. brinnelling b. galling c. spalling d. pitting
a. brinnelling
3. Which of the following clutch components is splined to the input shaft of the transmission?! a. clutch friction disc b. pressure plate c. release bearing d. flywheel
a. clutch friction disc
253. The potential energy of an air brake system is?! a. compressed air b. foot pressure c. spring pressure d. vacuum over atmospheric
a. compressed air
165. In which of the following differentials would you find friction plates alternately splined to a driver and tanged to the gear support case?! a. controlled traction differentials b. no-spin locking differentials c. two-speed tandem axles d. all of the above
a. controlled traction differentials
256. The function of an air brake chamber is to?! a. convert the energy of compressed air into mechanical force b. multiply the mechanical force applied to the slack adjuster c. reduce the air pressure for a service application d. increase the air pressure for parking brakes
a. convert the energy of compressed air into mechanical force
178. When planning to drain and replace the lubricant in a differential carrier, which of the following is preferred?! a. drain when the lubricant is at operating temperature b. flush with kerosene c. drain after allowing to cool overnight d. flush with solvent
a. drain when the lubricant is at operating temperature
153. Which of the following correctly describes an Anglemaster instrument?! a. electronic inclinometer b. electronic caliper c. dynamic balance tool d. linear measurement tool
a. electronic inclinometer
277. In a hydraulic brake system, brake fluid transmits any pressure applied?! a. equally to all parts of the enclosed circuit b. to any surface that will yield c. only to slave cylinders in the circuit d. to any surface that will not yield
a. equally to all parts of the enclosed circuit
140. The OEM recommendation for U-joint lubrication interval scheduling on a truck used for an on-highway operation should be?! a. every 10,000 to 15,000 miles b. once a year c. 3,000 to 5,000 miles d. every 50,000 miles
a. every 10,000 to 15,000 miles
341. Which of the following methods would do most to ensure that a frame hole was exactly 3/4 inch in size?! a. finish with a 3/4-inch taper reamer b. finish with a 3/4-inch drill bit c. blow through with a 3/4-inch, carbon-arc electrode d. use a hand-driven auger drill
a. finish with a 3/4-inch taper reamer
217. What device is used to control the air in and out of the air springs in an air suspension system?! a. height control valve b. air pressure regulator c. pressure protection valve d. quick-release valve
a. height control valve
82. On most Allison transmissions, when the oil level reads at the FULL mark on the dipstick with the transmission at operating temperature, which of the following indicates the actual level of oil in the transmission?! a. if it is slightly below the planetary gearsets b. if it is slightly above the top of the oil pan c. if it is slightly above the ring gears d. if it is at the axis of the sun gears
a. if it is slightly below the planetary gearsets
81. Which of the following conditions can cause aerated oil in automatic transmissions?! a. low oil level b. high oil level c. a clogged breather d. both a and b
a. low oil level
4. What is the function of a current clutch brake used in a heavy-duty drivetrain?! a. minimize gear clash during a neutral to first gear shift b. minimize gear clash during downshifts to all ratios c. minimize gear clash during upshifts to all ratios d. none of the above
a. minimize gear clash during a neutral to first gear shift
163. Which of the following restricts normal differential action except during cornering?! a. no-spin locking differentials b. two-speed axles c. controlled traction differential d. double-reduction differential
a. no-spin locking differentials
228. Where is the brake drum mounted on a cast spoke wheel assembly?! a. on the inboard side of the wheel hub b. on the outboard side of the wheel hub c. the drum is mounted separately from the hub d. none of the above is correct
a. on the inboard side of the wheel hub
272. Which of the following devices would play a role in illuminating the brake warning light in the event of a complete hydraulic failure of the front brake circuit?! a. pressure differential valve b. metering valve c. proportioning valve d. load proportioning valve (LPV)
a. pressure differential valve
214. A leaf-type spring suspension that has a variable deflection rate obtained by varying the effective length of the spring assembly is known as?! a. progressive spring suspension b. constant-spring suspension c. an auxiliary spring suspension d. none of the above
a. progressive spring suspension
294. Which of the following best describes the type of sensor used to signal wheel speed data to an ABS module?! a. pulse generator b. transducer c. Hall effect sensor d. thermistor
a. pulse generator
224. Which type of tire tread is recommended for use on steering axles for on-highway trucks?! a. rib b. radials only c. lugs d. bias ply only
a. rib
24. When an idler gear is placed between the driving and driven gear, the driven gear?! a. rotates in the same direction as the driving gear b. rotates in the opposite direction of the driving gear c. remains stationary
a. rotates in the same direction as the driving gear
27. The component used to ensure that the main shaft and the main shaft gear about to be locked to it are rotating at the same speed is known as a?! a. synchronizer b. sliding clutch c. transfer case d. PTO unit
a. synchronizer
36. Which of the following OEM-approved lubricants would produce the longest service life in a standard transmission?! a. synthetic E-500 gear lube b. SAE 50 grade heavy-duty engine oil c. multipurpose or EP gear lube d. SAE 50 grade transmission fluid
a. synthetic E-500 gear lube
124. Which of the following components is splined to the WT output shaft?! a. the P3 pinion carrier b. the P3 sun gear c. the P3 ring gear d. the main shaft
a. the P3 pinion carrier
125. Which of the following is required to connect the WT to the chassis electrical system?! a. the VIM b. the transmission harness c. the DDR connector d. the TPS
a. the VIM
231. Oil-lubricated drive axle wheel bearings receive oil from?! a. the banjo housing b. a cavity built into the hub cap c. an on-chassis auto-lubricator d. all of the above
a. the banjo housing
201. Which of the following components connects the Pitman arm to the steering control arm?! a. the drag link b. the tie-rod c. the cross tube d. the steering column
a. the drag link
111. In an Allison CEC, which clutch, when applied, connects the turbine shaft to the main shaft?! a. the forward clutch b. the first clutch c. the second clutch d. the fourth clutch
a. the forward clutch
167. In a tandem axle power divider, which component drives the helical gear set?! a. the input shaft b. the drive pinion c. the ring gear d. the forward side gear
a. the input shaft
169. Which of the following would be a factor in defining the reduction ratio in differential carrier gearing?! a. the number of teeth on crown gear b. the number of splines on side gears c. the number of teeth on differential pinions d. the number of teeth on side gears
a. the number of teeth on crown gear
53. Which of the torque converter components is known as the driving member?! a. the pump/impeller b. the stator c. the turbine d. the lockup clutch
a. the pump/impeller
100. Which of the following components is responsible for effecting shifts in the transmission auxiliary box?! a. the range valve solenoid b. the rail select motor c. the power module d. the reverse switch
a. the range valve solenoid
245. Which of the following determines the amount of leverage gained by a slack adjuster?! a. the slack adjuster length b. the pushrod stroke length c. the S-cam geometry d. the number of internal splines
a. the slack adjuster length
116. When the "hot" light on the dash illuminates on a vehicle with an Allison CEC transmission, what else is likely to happen?! a. the top range shifts can be inhibited. b. the first range shifts are inhibited. c. The engine shuts down. d. The transmission reverts to hydromechanical operation.
a. the top range shifts can be inhibited.
68. When the planetary carrier of a simple planetary gearset is the held member?! a. there is a reverse in rotation direction at the output member b. direct 1?!1 drive occurs c. an overdrive condition results d. an underdrive condition results
a. there is a reverse in rotation direction at the output member
61. What is the function of split guide rings in a torque converter?! a. to reduce turbulence b. to maximize turbulence c. to cool transmission fluid d. to multiply torque
a. to reduce turbulence
204. Which of the following alignment angles has the potential to cause the most tire wear?! a. toe b. camber c. caster d. Ackerman angle
a. toe
64. At torque converter coupling phase?! a. vortex flow is at a minimum b. rotary flow is at a minimum c. the lockup clutch disengages d. slippage ratio is at a maximum
a. vortex flow is at a minimum
324. The highest stress that a material can stand without permanent deformation or damage is known as?! a. yield strength b. resist bend moment c. applied moment d. bending moment
a. yield strength
320. A tri-axle trailer is equipped with five S-cam slack adjusters correctly set at an effective length of 6 inches and one incorrectly installed at 51/2 inches. How much less brake torque will be applied at the brake with the incorrectly set slack adjuster when the service application pressure is 100 psi on a 30-square-inch chamber?! a. 150 lb-in. b. 1,500 lb-in. c. 15,000 lb-in. d. 150,000 lb-in.
b. 1,500 lb-in.
315. What is the adjustment stroke limit for a 24-Series brake chamber?! a. 1 inch b. 1.75 inches c. 2.25 inches d. 3 inches
b. 1.75 inches
227. What is the maximum allowable runout permitted on cast spoke wheels?! a. 1/16 inch (0.75 mm) b. 1/8 inch (1.5 mm) c. 3/16 inch (2 mm) d. 1/4 inch (3 mm)
b. 1/8 inch (1.5 mm)
126. When first put into service, for how many starts is the WT AutoDetect enabled?! a. 1 b. 12 c. 24 d. It is always enabled.
b. 12
114. How many reluctor teeth are on the tailshaft vehicle speed sensor (VSS) used on highway applications of Allison transmissions?! a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64
b. 16
316. What is the adjustment stroke limit for a standard 30-Series brake chamber?! a. 1.5 inches b. 2 inches c. 2.25 inches d. 3 inches
b. 2 inches
119. How many planetary gearsets are used in the basic WT gearbox?! a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
b. 3
289. What is the maximum modulation speed of a typical air brake ABS?! a. 2 times per second b. 7 times per second c. 20 times per second d. 200 times per second
b. 7 times per second
51. Which one of the following statements is true of a torque converter when comparing it with a standard fluid coupling?! a. A torque converter produces more fluid slippage. b. A torque converter is capable of multiplying torque. c. A torque converter has lower torque transfer efficiency. d. A torque converter has straight impeller and turbine blades.
b. A torque converter is capable of multiplying torque
292. Which of the following statements best describes how ABS prevents brake lockup?! a. ABS senses abnormal braking forces and corrects them. b. ABS monitors wheel speed and reduces service pressure when lockup is imminent. c. ABS decreases service application pressure for all braking. d. ABS adjusts braking force on every wheel, even in light braking situations.
b. ABS monitors wheel speed and reduces service pressure when lockup is imminent.
291. Before testing a dual-drive axle truck equipped with ATC on a chassis dynamometer, what should be done?! a. ATC must be enabled. b. ATC must be disabled. c. The power divider must be locked out. d. The drive shafts on the rear drive should be pulled.
b. ATC must be disabled.
41. Which of the following statements is true?! a. A transmission must be disassembled to replace an input shaft. b. An auxiliary section can be removed and overhauled without removing the transmission from the chassis. c. A shift rail assembly cannot be removed and repaired without first removing the transmission from the vehicle. d. A gearshift tower cannot be separated from a shift rail assembly.
b. An auxiliary section can be removed and overhauled without removing the transmission from the chassis.
152. For which of the following is an Anglemaster used?! a. Checking shaft runout b. Checking drive shaft angles c. Measuring phase angle d. all of the above
b. Checking drive shaft angles
103. What is the function of the inertia brake used in the AutoShift transmission?! a. It slows the input shaft during driveline torque release. b. It slows the countershaft during initial engagement. c. It is used to synchronize all shifts. d. It effects driveline retarding.
b. It slows the countershaft during initial engagement.
123. In which of the planetary gearsets in the WT does the reversal of input rotation take place?! a. P1 b. P2 c. P1 and P2 d. P2 and P3
b. P2
220. When lubing a spring pack assembly, neither the fixed bracket spring pin nor the shackle pin will take grease. What should you do first?! a. Change the zerk fitting. b. Remove the weight from the spring. c. Replace the spring pins. d. Replace the spring pack.
b. Remove the weight from the spring.
110. Technician A says that AMT faults can only be read by blink codes. Technician B says that transmission fault codes may be accessed using the Eaton 4-pin diagnostic connector located at the left rear of the transmission. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
12. Failure analysis determines that the facing of a clutch disc has burst. Technician A says that the cause is the driver using the clutch as a brake. Technician B says that the problem might be the driver coasting downhill with the transmission in gear and the clutch disengaged. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
141. Technician A says that a drive shaft is in phase when assembled so that the yokes are 90 degrees offset. Technician B says that drive shaft phasing will be altered by separating a drive shaft at the slip joint and turning by one spline tooth. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
143. Technician A says that when lubricating a U-joint and grease does not exit from one of the four trunnion seals, the U-joint must be immediately replaced. Technician B says that backing off the bearing cap on a U-joint sometimes helps a trunnion to take grease. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
154. Technician A says that new stub shafts are shipped coated with blue plastic that should be completely removed prior to assembly. Technician B says that male slip spline stubs are coated with Glidecoat because it is wear resistant and lasts the life of the drive shaft. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
185. The rear wheels on a tandem drive axle truck will not turn but the drive shaft does. Technician A says that the first step is to pull the forward differential carrier. Technician B says to pull both axle shafts. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
205. When performing a front-end alignment, Technician A checks and corrects the toe setting first. Technician B says that to measure toe using a tape and tram gauge, it is necessary to make measurements between the tires at both the front and back at hub height. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
226. Technician A says that he seats radial tire beads by igniting a charge of ether inside the tire. Technician B says that he seats radial tire beads using a metal ring inflation aid. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
262. Technician A says that in a tractor/trailer B-train combination, the crack pressures of the relay valves over the pup axles would be the highest on the rig. Technician B says that quick-release valves on the service gladhands can speed up service brake release times on multitrailer combinations. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
274. Technician A says that when replacing disc brake pads, most OEMs recommend that fluid be removed from the master cylinder before compressing the caliper piston with a C-clamp. Technician B says that the caliper bleed screw should be opened before compressing a caliper piston with a C-clamp. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
290. Technician A says that air brake ABS can be modulated at much higher speeds than hydraulic ABS because of the compressibility of air. Technician B says that a truck air brake ABS control module can "think" (clock speed) at a frequency of 200 times per second. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
305. A 161/2 inch brake drum specified to have a machine limit of 0.090 inch over and a maximum dimension of 0.120 inch over is measured at 0.098 inch over at a brake overhaul. Technician A says that the drum can be turned on a drum lathe, providing that the maximum dimension of 0.120 inch is observed. Technician B says that the drum can be legally returned to service without being turned. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
308. A set of brake linings has become glazed because of oil saturation by a failed wheel seal. Technician A says that pressure washing the foundation brake components should be sufficient to remove the effects of the oil saturation. Technician B says that the best practice is to replace the brake linings on both wheels on the affected axle. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
301. Technician A says that in a true EBS, the brake pedal does no more than produce an electrical signal to the EBS control module. Technician B says that current FMVSS 121 legislation requires that when EBS is used on North American highways, it is in addition to pneumatic controls. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
329. Technician A says that most highway tractors use tempered steel, C-channel frame rails. Technician B says that some aluminum alloy truck frame rails can have up to twice the yield strength of mild steel. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
340. When extending a frame, Technician A uses a 60-degree angle butt joint. After welding a frame extension butt joint, Technician B grinds the weld cap run flush with the frame. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
39. Oil is discovered to be leaking from the rear seal area of a standard transmission. Technician A says that the problem could be a damaged speedometer sleeve O-ring or gasket. Technician B says that the problem could be caused by a cracked bearing cover. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
40. Technician A says that a damaged transmission output yoke can be repaired by installing a yoke sleeve kit. Technician B says that a damaged transmission output yoke should always be replaced. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
47. When removing a transmission from a truck, Technician A states that it is usually necessary to uncouple the clutch from the flywheel before separating the transmission from the flywheel housing. Technician B says that when a transmission is being removed, it should be held in alignment with the engine to prevent the flywheel pilot bearing from being damaged. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
90. An automatic transmission upshifts prematurely. Technician A says that the mechanical modulator might have to be adjusted. Technician B says that the shift valve might have to be adjusted. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A or B
c. both A and B
87. The _________ is located on top of the transmission and its function is to prevent pressure buildup within the transmission housing. a. auxiliary filter b. governor c. breather d. release valve
c. breather
187. Which of the following can be defined as the inward or outward tilt of the top of the tires when viewed from the front of the vehicle?! a. turning radius b. Ackerman angle c. camber d. toe
c. camber
206. What is used to load the leaves in a spring pack under tension to provide its self-dampening properties?! a. spring clips b. U-bolts c. centerbolt d. spring pins
c. centerbolt
16. Which of the following adjustments is made on nonsynchronized transmissions only?! a. pedal height b. total pedal travel c. clutch brake squeeze d. free travel
c. clutch brake squeeze
300. An ABS light displays fault codes that are not interpreted in the OEM service literature. Which of the following is the likely problem?! a. defective wheel speed sensor b. defective modulator valve c. defective ECM d. defective data connector
c. defective ECM
166. In which of the following axles would you be likely to find a planetary gearset?! a. single-reduction differential carrier b. trailer axles c. double-reduction differential carrier d. lift axles
c. double-reduction differential carrier
337. What is the correct procedure and the material used to weld a hardened truck frame rail extension into position?! a. MIG with general-purpose wire b. TIG with high alloy steel rod c. electric arc with AWS E-11018 electrode d. electric arc with AWS E-6011 electrode
c. electric arc with AWS E-11018 electrode
20. Which of the following should be used to remove minor heat discoloration from a clutch pressure plate?! a. cleaning solvent with a nonpetroleum base b. ammonia c. emery cloth d. none of the above
c. emery cloth
246. Which of the following is an advantage of an open anchor brake shoe?! a. servo action b. the anchor pins never have to be changed c. faster brake jobs d. the retraction springs last longer
c. faster brake jobs
229. Which type of wheel assembly presents the least maintenance and alignment problems?! a. stud-piloted disc wheels b. cast spoke wheels c. hub-piloted wheels d. any wheels using radial lugs
c. hub-piloted wheels
14. When regarding the operation of a typical 15½- inch clutch, which of the following components constantly rotates at engine rpm?! a. rear clutch disc b. front clutch disc c. intermediate plate d. clutch brake
c. intermediate plate
71. In a close ratio transmission, all powerflows must pass through the __________ before reaching the output shaft. a. front planetary gearset b. rear planetary gearset c. low planetary gearset d. center sun gear shaft
c. low planetary gearset
261. In the event of a total failure of the primary circuit in an FMVSS 121 compliant vehicle, how is the relay/secondary circuit actuated in the foot valve?! a. pneumatically b. hydraulically c. mechanically d. cannot be actuated
c. mechanically
252. The function of the foot valve or dual-circuit application valve is to?! a. increase the flow of air to the service reservoirs b. reduce the flow of air from the service reservoirs c. meter air to the service brake circuit d. meter air to the brake hold-off chambers
c. meter air to the service brake circuit
298. Why do some ABS ECUs contain two microprocessor units?! a. to enable them to process large amounts of information to pneumatic controls. Who is correct?! a. to enable them to process large amounts of information b. to enable them to provide continuous diagnostic information c. one microprocessor acts as a fail-safe backup to the other d. to double the processing speed
c. one microprocessor acts as a fail-safe backup to the other
164. What is the usual way of supporting a differential carrier input shaft in front of the pinion?! a. bushings b. single tapered roller bearing c. opposed tapered roller bearings d. ball bearings
c. opposed tapered roller bearings
168. What type of bearing is used as a pilot/spigot for supporting a differential carrier input shaft behind the pinion?! a. bushings b. straight roller bearing c. opposed tapered roller bearings d. ball bearings
c. opposed tapered roller bearings
65. What is the most common lockup clutch design used in heavy-duty torque converters?! a. split ring b. centrifugal c. piston d. overrunning
c. piston
323. The longitudinal components of a truck chassis ladder frame are called?! a. cross-members b. walking beams c. rails d. gussets
c. rails
265. What is the usual color of the tractor-to-trailer supply hose?! a. green b. blue c. red d. white
c. red
218. Which type of air spring is mounted on a pedestal?! a. single convoluted b. double convoluted c. reversible sleeve d. jounce block
c. reversible sleeve
121. What drives the sun gear in the Allison WT P1 planetary gearset?! a. P1 pinion carrier b. main shaft c. rotating clutch drum d. P2 pinion carrier
c. rotating clutch drum
182. When a gear tooth separates, leaving a smooth, flat fracture pattern, what is the usual cause?! a. fatigue failure b. surface failure c. single shock load d. progressive torsional failure
c. single shock load
296. Which of the following is the control component in an ABS modulator valve?! a. engine ECM serial bus b. relay valve c. solenoid or motor d. data display window
c. solenoid or motor
94. Which of the following would be the most accurate method of checking transmission shift points?! a. engine speed (rpm) method b. speedometer method c. test stand method d. road test method
c. test stand method
95. When a valve body is mounted to a test stand, which of the following components is driven by the test equipment?! a. the modulator b. the transmission input shaft c. the governor d. the torque converter impeller
c. the governor
263. A trailer compliant with a spring brake priority system has no air in its on-board air tanks. When coupled to a tractor air supply, where is the air directed to first?! a. the service reservoirs b. the service brake chambers c. the hold-off chambers d. the main air reservoir
c. the hold-off chambers
158. Which of the following gear sets performs the first reduction in a double-reduction differential carrier?! a. the spider pinions and side gear set b. the planetary gearset c. the pinion and crown gear set d. the interaxle differential gear set
c. the pinion and crown gear set
120. Which of the following is responsible for converting a command electrical signal into mechanical movement in Allison electronic transmissions?! a. the actuator transistor b. the clutch piston c. the solenoid d. the main pressure
c. the solenoid
104. To which AutoShift component is the driver shift lever signal command directed?! a. the dash display ECU b. the gear select motor c. the transmission ECU d. the power module
c. the transmission ECU
73. What component helps avoid shift shock by reducing pressure to the clutch apply circuits during initial application and then gradually increasing the pressure?! a. the priority valve b. the modulator valve c. the trimmer valve d. the inhibitor valve
c. the trimmer valve
54. Which torque converter component is splined to a shaft that connects to the forward clutch of the transmission?! a. the pump/impeller b. the stator c. the turbine d. the flexplate
c. the turbine
70. What is the function of multiple-disc clutches in a truck hydromechanical automatic transmission?! a. to hold components stationary b. to lock components together to transfer torque c. to open and close hydraulic valves d. both a and b
c. to open and close hydraulic valves
135. Which of the following best describes the counter-rotating torque converter used in a Voith DIWA transmission?! a. torque converter only b. driveline retarder only c. torque converter and driveline retarder d. planetary gearset
c. torque converter and driveline retarder
202. How are straight kingpins secured to the steering knuckle?! a. with a nut and bolt b. with a cotter pin c. with a draw key d. with tapered bearings
c. with a draw key
22. Which of the following gear ratios indicates the most amount of overdrive?! a. 2.15:1 b. 1:1 c. 0.85:1 d. 0.64:1
d. 0.64:1
288. Which of the following ABS channel configurations is required in a truck equipped with stability control electronics (SCE)?! a. 2S/2M b. 4S/4M c. 6S/4M d. 6S/6M
d. 6S/6M
299. What type of tractor ABS is required to support most antirollover and directional stability control electronics?! a. 2S/2M b. 4S/2M c. 4S/4M d. 6S/6M
d. 6S/6M
269. In a typical air-over-hydraulic brake system, depressing the treadle causes which of the following?! a. Hydraulic fluid flows through quick-release valves. b. Air pressure forces the pistons of each wheel cylinder outward. c. An LPV redistributes air pressure to the front and rear brakes. d. Air pressure is sent to the booster assemblies.
d. Air pressure is sent to the booster assemblies.
132. How many gear speed ratios are used in a Caterpillar CX35 transmission?! a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Eight
d. Eight
243. What is the function of a system safety pop-off valve?! a. It releases excess pressure from the compressor. b. It pressure protects air in the supply tank. c. It alerts the driver when air pressure has dropped below system pressure. d. It relieves pressure from the supply tank in the event of governor cut-out failure.
d. It relieves pressure from the supply tank in the event of governor cut-out failure.
278. In a hydraulic brake system, which of the following best describes what happens when the driver's foot is applied to the brake pedal?! a. Hydraulic force is converted to mechanical force. b. Mechanical force is converted to hydraulic force. c. Hydraulic force is converted to mechanical force then back to hydraulic force. d. Mechanical force is converted to hydraulic force then back to mechanical force.
d. Mechanical force is converted to hydraulic force then back to mechanical force.
234. Which of the following is the preferred method of repairing a wheel seal leak that has glazed the brake shoe linings?! a. Replace the wheel seal only. b. Replace the wheel seal and bearings. c. Replace the wheel seal and damaged brake shoes. d. Replace the wheel seal and brake shoes on both sides of the axle.
d. Replace the wheel seal and brake shoes on both sides of the axle.
133. What is used to hold planetary members in CX transmissions?! a. ECPCs b. C-clutches c. Centrifugal force d. Solenoid pressure
d. Solenoid pressure
117. Which letter(s) in the transmission identification code would indicate that an Allison WT was equipped with a dropbox?! a. P b. HD c. DB d. T
d. T
139. When lubricating a U-joint, fresh grease appears at all four trunnion seals. Which of the following is probably true?! a. The bearings are worn and should be replaced. b. The seals are worn and should be replaced. c. The trunnions are worn and the U-joint should be replaced. d. The U-joint has been properly lubricated.
d. The U-joint has been properly lubricated.
197. When diagnosing a steering system using a power steering analyzer, which of the following should be true to obtain accurate results?! a. The engine oil should be at operating temperature. b. The steering system hydraulic oil should be cold. c. New steering system hydraulic oil must be used. d. The steering system hydraulic oil should be above 140°F (60° C).
d. The steering system hydraulic oil should be above 140°F (60° C).
180. Which of the following measuring tools should be used to check crown gear runout?! a. a fish scale b. a torque wrench c. thickness gauges d. a dial indicator
d. a dial indicator
146. Which of the following tools is preferred when separating a U-joint from a drive shaft?! a. a sledge hammer b. a slide hammer c. a hydraulic jack d. a puller
d. a puller
77. Which of the following does most to determine modulator pressure?! a. engine speed b. torque converter turbine speed c. range shift position d. accelerator pedal position
d. accelerator pedal position
2. Which of the following is not a part of the clutch cover assembly?! a. pressure spring b. release lever c. pressure plate d. adapter ring
d. adapter ring
37. After breaking in a new transmission filled with E-500 synthetic lube on a truck used in a linehaul application, when should the first oil change take place?! a. between 3,000 and 5,000 miles of service b. after 25,000 miles of vocational service c. after 100,000 miles of linehaul service d. after 500,000 miles of linehaul service
d. after 500,000 miles of linehaul service
136. U-joint failures, hanger bearing failures, and driveline vibrations are caused by?! a. loose yokes b. bent drive shafts c. missing balance weights d. all of the above
d. all of the above
156. What is the function of a rear drive axle on a truck?! a. It provides gear reduction necessary to drive the vehicle. b. It redirects the torque from the drive shaft to the drive wheels. c. It supports the weight of the truck and its load. d. all of the above
d. all of the above
203. What is the likely result of an out-of-alignment front end on a truck?! a. directional instability b. steer tire wear c. hard steering d. all of the above
d. all of the above
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct about geartrains?! a. They transmit speed and torque unchanged. b. They decrease speed and increase torque. c. They increase speed and decrease torque. d. all of the above
d. all of the above
212. What is the function of torque arms on a suspension system?! a. to retain axle alignment b. to control axle torque c. to adjust alignment d. all of the above
d. all of the above
222. If a set of dual tires were properly matched, which of the following would be true?! a. Both tires would have the same nominal size. b. Both tires would have the same tread design. c. Both tires would have equal wear. d. all of the above
d. all of the above
225. What should be done to match multipiece rim components properly?! a. measure the component size b. locate the part numbers and cross-check matching c. use components from a single OEM d. all of the above
d. all of the above
233. Which of the following methods is used to lock the bearing setting on an axle or spindle?! a. jam nuts b. castellated nuts with cotter pins c. split forging nuts d. all of the above
d. all of the above
236. Which of the following is said to be an advantage of low-profile radial tires?! a. better traction b. increased tread life c. greater vehicle stability d. all of the above
d. all of the above
25. When sliding gearshift mechanisms are used, which gears do they control?! a. high and low gears in the auxiliary section b. first and reverse gears in the main box c. direct and overdrive gears in the auxiliary section d. all of the above
d. all of the above
29. Which of the following is true of a twin-countershaft standard transmission?! a. It divides input torque between two separate shafts. b. It allows the face width of each gear to be reduced. c. It allows the main shaft to float between the countershafts. d. all of the above
d. all of the above
322. Which of the following is a function of the cross-members of the chassis frame?! a. to control axial rotation and longitudinal motion of the rails b. to protect wires and tubing that are routed from one side of the vehicle to the other c. to reduce torsional stress transmitted from one rail to another d. all of the above
d. all of the above
34. Which of the following statements is true regarding the function of a transfer case?! a. It transfers torque from the transmission to a front drive axle. b. It transfers torque from the transmission to the rear drive axle(s). c. It may provide an additional gear reduction in the drivetrain. d. all of the above
d. all of the above
5. Which of the following driving procedures will result in clutch or driveline damage?! a. driving with a foot on the clutch pedal b. using the clutch as a brake to hold the truck on a hill and incline c. coasting downhill with the transmission in gear and the clutch disengaged d. all of the above
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following could be a cause of poor clutch release?! a. damaged drive pins b. worn clutch linkage c. worn release bearing d. all of the above
d. all of the above
7. How often should a clutch be inspected and lubricated?! a. every month b. every 6,000 to 10,000 miles c. any time the chassis is lubricated d. all of the above
d. all of the above
83. Which of the following could result in an inaccurate dipstick reading?! a. failure to wipe the dipstick clean before taking the reading b. a clogged breather c. an unvented oil filler tube d. all of the above
d. all of the above
106. When a five-speed fallback fault is displayed by AutoShift electronics, where is the source of the fault?! a. fifth gear b. first gear c. fourth and fifth gears d. auxiliary section
d. auxiliary section
15. When inspecting the mating faces of a clutch bell housing, which of the following can be regarded as the critical wear area?! a. at the 12 o'clock position b. at the 3 o'clock position c. between 2 o'clock and 10 o'clock counterclockwise d. between 3 o'clock and 8 o'clock clockwise
d. between 3 o'clock and 8 o'clock clockwise
196. When adjusting drag link length before installing it, which of the following should be true?! a. The steering gear should be centered. b. The front wheel should be in a true straightahead direction. c. The steering wheels should be a full lock on one side. d. both a and b
d. both a and b
31. To provide for overdrive gearing in the high- and low-auxiliary transmission ranges, which of the following components is added to the basic range-shift air control system?! a. a splitter cylinder b. a button-actuated shift lever valve c. an additional slave valve d. both a and b
d. both a and b
334. A straight truck is involved in an offset collision. Which of the following types of frame damage would most likely result?! a. bow b. twist c. sag d. diamond
d. diamond
255. What is the minimum total storage volume of air dedicated to brake system requirements of an air brake-equipped trailer?! a. equal to the total volume of all the brake chambers b. two times total chamber volume c. four times total chamber volume d. eight times total chamber volume
d. eight times total chamber volume
42. A driver complains of driveline vibration. Which of the following would be the least likely cause?! a. clutch failure b. tires out of balance c. output shaft nut improperly torqued d. failed synchronizer
d. failed synchronizer
326. Which of the following frame materials has the highest yield strength?! a. mild steel b. high-strength, untempered alloy steel c. medium-strength, magnesium-silicon aluminum alloy d. high-strength, copper-aluminum alloy
d. high-strength, copper-aluminum alloy
327. When a frame is said to have excessive flexibility and twist, which of the following would do most to repair the problem?! a. increasing the resist bend moment b. decreasing the section modulus c. decreasing the resist bend moment d. increasing the section modulus
d. increasing the section modulus
191. Which of the following best describes a powerassist steering gear system used on most current trucks?! a. external air-assist b. external hydraulic assist c. hydrostatic d. integral hydraulic
d. integral hydraulic
60. In which of the following phases would the drive efficiency of a torque converter be at 100 percent?! a. coupling phase b. torque multiplication c. secondary phase d. lockup
d. lockup
295. Which of the following is the main output device on a truck ABS?! a. Wheatstone bridge b. wheel speed sensor c. power supply d. modulator assembly
d. modulator assembly
108. Technician A says that when an AMT is described as a two-pedal system, the clutch is eliminated. Technician B says that when an AMT is described as three-pedal, the clutch pedal is eliminated. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
175. Technician A says that spinout failures are often caused by a defect in the interaxle differential gearing. Technician B says that spinout failures are unavoidable during winter operation. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
240. Technician A says that wheel axial runout on a cast spoke wheel can be eliminated only by removing the wheel rims and breaking down the tires. Technician B adjusts cast spoke wheel radial runout by chalk-marking high points, then loosening the lug nuts on the chalk-marked side and tightening those 180 degrees opposite. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
283. Technician A says that when hydraulic ABS fails electronically, the system defaults to normal hydraulic braking. Technician B says that a failure of one ABS wheel sensor would result in a vehicle that should not be driven on the highway. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
307. When adjusting a manual slack adjuster on an Scam foundation brake, Technician A says that the lock collar should be retracted and the adjusting nut always rotated clockwise to decrease free travel. Technician B says that free travel can be reduced only when the adjusting nut is rotated counterclockwise. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
48. Technician A says that an advantage of using synthetic transmission lubes is that they are compatible with all other gear lubes. Technician B says that high gear lube level in a standard transmission can cause aeration and result in lubrication failures. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
d. neither A nor B
275. Which of the following best describes the electrical operation of a typical ABS wheel speed sensor?! a. Hall effect sensor b. thermistor c. potentiometer d. pulse generator
d. pulse generator
336. What procedure do most manufacturers recommend when a frame rail is damaged?! a. repaired by welding b. repaired by fishplating c. reinforced with an inverted L-section d. replacement
d. replacement
216. What device is used primarily to absorb energy and dampen suspension oscillation?! a. equalizer bracket b. torque rod c. springs d. shock absorber
d. shock absorber
97. Which component on the AutoShift transmission performs the mechanical function of the shift lever on the standard Roadranger transmission?! a. the gear select yoke b. the shift shaft c. the worm gear d. the shift finger
d. the shift finger
241. Which of the following air brake system components functions as a lever?! a. the brake chamber b. the rotor c. the caliper d. the slack adjuster
d. the slack adjuster
200. Which of the following components contains ball joints?! a. the steering gear b. the Pitman arm c. the steering knuckle d. the tie-rod end
d. the tie-rod end
181. Which type of failure is usually indicated when a shaft fails, producing a star-shaped fracture pattern?! a. fatigue failure b. surface failure c. single shock load d. torsional failure
d. torsional failure
310. An original equipment 45-degree elbow on a line exiting a relay valve supplying a service chamber is replaced by a 90-degree elbow. Technician A says that this should have no effect on brake performance because it is the service application pressure that determines braking force. Technician B says that the use of the 90-degree elbow increases flow restriction and can affect pneumatic timing. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
311. Technician A says that it is good practice to machine a new drum before putting it into service because it trues the drum to the wheel. Technician B says that most heat discoloration and checking is easy to remove on used drums when brakes are serviced by skimming the drum on a lathe. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
317. Technician A says that the service diaphragm in a spring brake can be safely changed, providing that the spring brake is properly caged with a cage bolt before removing it. Technician B says that it is no longer possible to change the hold-off diaphragms in most spring brake assemblies because the band clamp cannot be unbolted. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
321. A leaking axle seal has saturated the brake shoe linings and caused them to glaze. Technician A says that the shoes should be immersed in solvent before being returned to service. Technician B says that if the brake shoes on both sides of the axle are not replaced, brake torque balance could be affected. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
332. When assembling frame and suspension components, Technician A upgrades all SAE Grade 5 fasteners to Grade 8. Technician B says that replacing SAE Grade 8-rated Huck fasteners with Grade 8 nuts and bolts is acceptable. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
333. Technician A says that dump trucks usually require a lower section modulus than highway trucks. Technician B says that tempered frame rails allow highway tractors to achieve a higher specified RBM with lighter frame rails. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
45. Technician A says that lack of lubrication damage can be caused in a standard transmission when coasting with the clutch depressed. Technician B says that when towing a truck from the front, the axle shafts should be pulled. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
50. Technician A says that when disassembling a standard, twin countershaft transmission, the main shaft must be removed before removal of the countershaft bearings. Technician B says that before timing the auxiliary countershafts, the countershaft bearings must be fully seated. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. Technician B only
223. Which of the following methods should be used to completely deflate a truck tire?! a. The Schrader valve pin should be depressed. b. The Schrader valve core should be removed. c. The split rim should be separated. d. A hydraulic bead buster should be used.
b. The Schrader valve core should be removed
207. In an air suspension, what happens to the air in the air bags when a height control valve lever is raised upward off horizontal?! a. The air is exhausted. b. The bag is further inflated. c. The suspension air circuit is dumped. d. The chassis system pressure is reduced.
b. The bag is further inflated.
192. When setting worm shaft preload on a manual worm and sector-type steering gear, what would happen if you reduce the size of the shim pack?! a. The pump leaks. b. The preload increases. c. The preload reduces. d. The sector shaft seizes.
b. The preload increases.
248. In order for a service signal to pass through a TP valve, which of the following must be true?! a. The service gladhand must be connected to the trailer. b. The trailer supply dash control valve must be on. c. There must be air in the primary circuit. d. There must be air in the secondary circuit.
b. The trailer supply dash control valve must be on.
238. What must be done to install a ConMet PreSet hub to an axle?! a. Set bearings using the TMC method. b. Torque to specification. c. Install new bearing races. d. all of the above
b. Torque to specification.
63. Which of the following is true during the torque converter coupling phase?! a. Turbine speed exactly equals impeller speed. b. Turbine speed is just slightly slower than impeller speed c. Impeller speed is slightly slower than turbine speed. d. Torque multiplication is at maximum.
b. Turbine speed is just slightly slower than impeller speed
183. What is the correct method for removing rivets from a crown gear assembly?! a. Use a chisel and punch. b. Use a drill and punch. c. Use an oxyacetylene torch. d. Use a hammer and punch.
b. Use a drill and punch.
268. Which of the following safety devices delays application of front disc brakes in a disc/drum system until pressure is built up in the hydraulic system?! a. a pressure differential valve b. a metering valve c. a proportioning valve d. a load proportioning valve (LPV)
b. a metering valve
101. Which component in the AutoShift system protects the circuit electrical and electronic systems from voltage spikes by acting as an electronic voltage regulator?! a. a reverse voltage diode b. a reverse voltage zener diode c. a 25 amp circuit breaker d. a 10 amp circuit breaker
b. a reverse voltage zener diode
92. A stall speed test meets specification on a transmission with an oil overheat problem. Which of the following is a more likely cause?! a. an engine problem b. a stuck torque converter stator c. a freewheeling torque converter stator d. either a or c
b. a stuck torque converter stator
249. What actuates the relay piston in a foot valve on an air brake system when the valve is operating normally?! a. foot pressure b. air pressure c. spring pressure d. mechanical pressure
b. air pressure
230. Which type of hub requires heating in an oven to remove the bearing cups?! a. ferrous b. aluminum c. cast spoke hubs d. any hub using an aluminum hub cap
b. aluminum
162. Which pinion and crown gear arrangement positions the pinion gear above the centerline of the crown gear?! a. amboid b. hyboid c. spiral bevel d. spur bevel
b. amboid
75. Which type of hydraulic retarder applies a friction clutch while the unit is charging with hydraulic fluid?! a. an input retarder b. an output retarder c. a torque retarder d. all of the above
b. an output retarder
84. When performing an automatic transmission cold check level, at what temperature should the oil be?! a. between 0°F and 60°F ( -17°C and 16°C) b. between 60°F and 120°F (70°C and 49°C) c. between 120°F and 160°F (49°C and 70°C) d. between 160°F and 200°F (70°C and 93°C)
b. between 60°F and 120°F (70°C and 49°C)
57. Where is the stator located in a torque converter assembly?! a. between the flexplate and pump/impeller housing b. between the pump/impeller and turbine c. between the turbine and the first clutch of the transmission d. on the crankshaft
b. between the pump/impeller and turbine
264. What is the usual color of the tractor-to-trailer service hose?! a. green b. blue c. red d. white
b. blue
211. Which of the following would be the most likely road handling result when a spring pack centerbolt breaks on a front suspension?! a. hard steering b. bouncing front end c. U-bolt failure d. leaf breakage
b. bouncing front end
189. Which of the following truck alignment angles can usually only be adjusted by bending the front axle?! a. caster b. camber c. kingpin inclination d. toe-in
b. camber
221. Which of the following wheel types uses tires mounted to rims that mount to the wheel using lugs?! a. disc wheels b. cast spoke wheels c. hub piloted d. stud piloted
b. cast spoke wheels
186. Which of the following front-end angles is defined as the forward or rearward tilt of the kingpin centerline when viewed from the side of the vehicle?! a. camber b. caster c. toe d. kingpin inclination
b. caster
188. Which of the following alignment angles can be corrected using shims on a leaf spring front end?! a. toe b. caster c. camber d. turning radius
b. caster
1. Which of the following clutch components is a driven member?! a. clutch cover b. clutch friction disc c. intermediate plate d. pressure plate
b. clutch friction disc
259. When polarized gladhands are used, which of the following should be impossible?! a. a full circuit brake failure b. cross-connecting the trailer supply and service hoses c. compounding service and parking brakes d. wheel lock-up
b. cross-connecting the trailer supply and service hoses
67. What results when any two members of a simple planetary gearset are locked together to act as the input?! a. reverse output b. direct 1:1 drive c. overdrive d. underdrive
b. direct 1:1 drive
46. Which of the following is said by transmission OEMs to cause most transmission bearing failures?! a. lack of lubrication b. dirt c. improper shifting d. operation on rough highways
b. dirt
328. Which of the following causes galvanic corrosion between frame members?! a. unevenly distributed loads b. dissimilar metals in direct contact c. overtorquing suspension brackets d. lack of lubricant on suspension fasteners
b. dissimilar metals in direct contact
319. When an S-cam foundation brake slack adjuster is in the fully applied position, ideally the slack adjuster-to-pushrod angle should be?! a. less than 90 degrees b. exactly 90 degrees c. more than 90 degrees d. It does not matter.
b. exactly 90 degrees
161. Which pinion and crown gear arrangement positions the pinion gear below the centerline of the crown gear?! a. amboid b. hyboid c. spiral bevel d. spur bevel
b. hyboid
213. The most compressed condition of a spring is known as?! a. rebound b. jounce c. oscillation d. failed
b. jounce
44. Which of the following would most likely result in hard shifting?! a. sliding clutch gears worn to a taper b. lack of lubricant in remote shift linkage c. weak detent springs d. worn shift fork pads
b. lack of lubricant in remote shift linkage
122. What force is used to effect the mechanical movement of clutch pistons in a WT?! a. PWM signal b. main pressure c. electrical pressure d. clutch feed pressure
b. main pressure
250. Which of the following does the most to ensure that the driver has brake feel at the foot valve in a truck air brake system?! a. spring pressure b. metered primary circuit service pressure c. metered secondary circuit service pressure d. system cut-out pressure
b. metered primary circuit service pressure
138. Which of the following would be least likely to affect drive shaft balance?! a. missing balance weights b. missing U-joint zerk fitting c. asphalt buildup on the drive shaft tube d. dents in the drive shaft tube
b. missing U-joint zerk fitting
26. Which type of transmission requires double-clutching between shifts?! a. synchronized b. nonsynchronized
b. nonsynchronized
174. Which of the following would indicate that the level was correct when checking lube oil level in a differential carrier housing with the fill plug removed?! a. oil spilling from the fill hole b. oil level exactly even with the bottom of the fill hole c. oil level within one finger joint of the fill hole d. oil level within 1 inch of the fill hole
b. oil level exactly even with the bottom of the fill hole
102. What is the usual location of the AutoShift ECU?! a. on the shift tower b. on the left side of the transmission c. on top of the transmission d. under the cab dash
b. on the left side of the transmission
76. Which of the following does the most to determine the position of the governor valve?! a. input shaft speed b. output speed c. main pressure d. accelerator position
b. output speed
11. On which of the following types of flywheels would the center intermediate plate be driven by drive pins?! a. flat flywheel b. pot flywheel c. torque converter d. all of the above
b. pot flywheel
33. An auxiliary mechanical drive for truck accessories driven by the transmission is known as a(n)?! a. transfer case b. power take-off (PTO) unit c. auxiliary transmission d. synchronizer
b. power take-off (PTO) unit
271. In a hydraulic drum brake system, what force pulls the shoes away from the drum when the brakes are released?! a. hydraulic force at the master cylinder b. retraction spring force at the brake shoe assembly c. hydraulic force at the wheel cylinder d. brake pedal spring force
b. retraction spring force at the brake shoe assembly
209. Axle alignment on a tandem rear leaf spring suspension is adjusted by?! a. adjusting torque rods length b. rotating the eccentric adjustment bolts c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
b. rotating the eccentric adjustment bolts
49. Which of the following transmission components are splined to the main shaft in a standard, twin countershaft transmission?! a. first speed gear b. sliding clutch c. countershaft gears d. idler gear
b. sliding clutch
244. When an inversion valve becomes functional during a brake failure, what force is used to brake the vehicle?! a. air pressure b. spring pressure c. hydraulic pressure d. vacuum
b. spring pressure
251. Which of the following best describes the term coefficient of friction?! a. the heat rating of friction materials b. the aggressiveness of a friction material c. the longevity of friction materials d. the melting point of friction materials
b. the aggressiveness of a friction material
105. What component does a three-pedal AMT have that is not used on a two-pedal system?! a. a clutch b. the clutch pedal c. an auxiliary box d. the ECU
b. the clutch pedal
159. Which of the following gear combinations accommodates a speed difference between the two drive wheels on a drive axle?! a. the crown and pinion b. the differential pinions and side gear c. the idler pinions and sun gear d. the ring gear and sun gear
b. the differential pinions and side gear
112. In a CEC transmission, which clutch, when applied, connects the turbine shaft to the sun gear shaft?! a. the forward clutch b. the first clutch c. the second clutch d. the fourth clutch
b. the first clutch
242. Which of the following components sets the system cut-in and cut-out pressures?! a. the service reservoir b. the governor c. the air dryer d. the supply tank
b. the governor
80. What regulates main pressure in an Allison automatic transmission?! a. transmission input speed b. the main pressure regulator c. the trimmer valve d. the governor valve
b. the main pressure regulator
35. Which of the following components in a typical heavy-duty, twin-countershaft transmission could be described as floating?! a. countershafts b. the main shaft c. the input shaft d. the output shaft
b. the main shaft
72. What assists governor pressure in moving any shift signal shafts during an upshift?! a. the priority valve b. the modulator valve c. the trimmer valve d. the inhibitor valve
b. the modulator valve
157. Which of the following gear sets would determine the output gear ratio in a single-reduction rear axle carrier?! a. the interaxle differential gear set b. the pinion and crown gear set c. the planetary gearset d. the carrier differential gear set
b. the pinion and crown gear set
266. In hydraulic disc brakes, the pads are forced against the rotors by?! a. the shoes b. the pistons c. the braked anchors d. the return springs
b. the pistons
198. In a truck rack and pinion steering system, which of the following components is directly connected to the Ackerman arms?! a. the pinion b. the rack c. the power cylinder d. the Pitman arm
b. the rack
66. Which of the following can be considered the largest gear in a simple planetary gearset?! a. the sun gear b. the ring gear c. the carrier assembly d. the pinions
b. the ring gear
144. A drive shaft is in phase when?! a. the drive shaft yoke is aligned on the same plane as the transmission yoke b. the slip yoke and drive shaft tube yoke lugs are perfectly aligned c. the drive shaft is perfectly balanced d. all of the above
b. the slip yoke and drive shaft tube yoke lugs are perfectly aligned
55. Which of the torque converter components is responsible for torque multiplication?! a. the pump/impeller b. the stator c. the turbine d. the lockup clutch
b. the stator
199. Which of the following assemblies uses U-joints?! a. the steering wheel b. the steering column c. the tie-rod d. the drag link
b. the steering column
281. In hydraulic drum brakes, the shoes are mechanically forced against the drums by?! a. a master cylinder b. the wheel cylinders c. braked anchors d. return springs
b. the wheel cylinders
155. What is the minimum number of U-joints that would have to be used in the drive shaft assembly of a tandem drive axle truck equipped with a hanger bearing on the front drive shaft?! a. two b. three c. four d. six
b. three
86. What effect will an increase in oil temperature have on the transmission oil level?! a. to lower the oil level b. to raise the oil level c. no effect d. to aerate the oil
b. to raise the oil level
56. What medium is used to transfer energy through a torque converter when it is not in lockup mode?! a. engine oil b. transmission fluid c. friction discs d. brake fluid
b. transmission fluid
28. Which of the following is the most widely used standard transmission geartrain arrangement in heavy-duty trucks?! a. single countershaft b. twin countershaft c. triple countershaft d. double planetary
b. twin countershaft
232. Which type of wheel seal fits tightly to both the hub and axle spindle and moves within itself?! a. wiper ring b. unitized c. lip type d. all of the above
b. unitized
194. What type of hydraulic pump is used on most highway truck power-assist steering gear systems?! a. gear b. vane c. plunger d. centrifugal
b. vane
59. In a torque converter, which type of fluid flow has the effect of multiplying torque?! a. rotary flow b. vortex flow c. primary flow d. secondary flow
b. vortex flow
293. Which of the following provides the most critical input signal to the ABS module?! a. slack adjuster travel b. wheel speed sensor c. modulator valve d. engine ECM serial bus
b. wheel speed sensor
287. When does an ATC light illuminate?! a. when the interaxle differential engages b. whenever a spinout condition occurs c. whenever the ABS is cycling d. when a wheel speed sensor fails
b. whenever a spinout condition occurs
338. What are the factors of resist bend moment (RBM)?! a. tensile strength and frame length b. yield strength and section modulus c. section modulus and tensile strength d. load applied plus total frame length
b. yield strength and section modulus
314. What is the maximum S-cam endplay permitted when installing a slack adjuster?! a. none b. 0.030 inch c. 0.060 inch d. 0.120 inch
c. 0.060 inch
284. Which of the following would represent the typical maximum modulation cycle speed of a hydraulic ABS?! a. 2 times per second b. 5 times per second c. 15 times per second d. 60 times per second
c. 15 times per second
151. What is the most common drive shaft series rating used on linehaul highway tractors?! a. 1500 series b. 1600 series c. 1700 series d. 1800 series
c. 1700 series
303. What is the required amount of slack adjuster free travel on a properly adjusted, manual S-cam brake?! a. less than 1/4 inch b. 1/4 to 1/2 inch c. 3/8 to 5/8 inch d. 3/4 to 1 inch
c. 3/8 to 5/8 inch
313. At how much freestroke travel should a properly adjusted, automatic S-cam brake slack adjuster test?! a. marginal preload b. zero c. 3/8 to 5/8 inch d. 1 to 11/2 inch
c. 3/8 to 5/8 inch
134. What is the main pressure value used in Caterpillar CX transmissions?! a. 55 psi (3.8 bar) b. 250 psi (17 bar) c. 350 psi (24 bar) d. 580 psi (40 bar)
c. 350 psi (24 bar)
79. How many planetary gearsets are used in an Allison five-speed automatic transmission?! a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
c. 4
118. How many clutch assemblies are used in the basic WT gearbox?! a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
c. 5
257. An air brake-equipped truck is traveling on a highway at 60 mph and the driver makes a service brake application. Which of the following should be true in all of the spring brake chambers on the vehicle?! a. Only the hold-off chambers are charged with air. b. Only the service chambers are charged with air. c. Both the service and hold-off chambers are charged with air. d. Neither the service nor the hold-off chambers are charged with air.
c. Both the service and hold-off chambers are charged with air.
276. Which of the following components would best be described as the "brain" of a hydraulic ABS?! a. master cylinder b. wheel speed sensor c. ECU d. modulator valve
c. ECU
184. What is the correct method for fitting a crown gear to a flange case half?! a. Use an oxyacetylene torch. b. Place in an oven. c. Heat in a water tank to 170°F (77°C). d. Cold press into position.
c. Heat in a water tank to 170°F (77°C).
339. When C-channel stock is used for a frame reinforcement, which of the following must be true?! a. It should be welded directly to the frame rail. b. It must be of the same dimensions as the original frame rail. c. It must have the same yield strength as the original frame rail. d. It should be installed on only the outside of the frame rail.
c. It must have the same yield strength as the original frame rail.
318. What is the main function of a hold-off diaphragm?! a. It converts air pressure to mechanical service brake pressure. b. It prevents compounding of the foundation brakes. c. It prevents spring brake force from acting on the pushrod. d. It converts spring pressure into pneumatic pressure.
c. It prevents spring brake force from acting on the pushrod.
137. A truck driver complains of a driveline vibration. Technician A says that the problem might be a loose drive shaft yoke. Technician B says that the problem could be worn splines in the slip joint. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
147. Technician A says that drive shaft working angles can be adjusted by adding wedge shims to the spring seats of a leaf spring suspension system. Technician B says that loose engine or transmission mountings can cause excessive driveline angularity. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
149. Technician A says that a driveline vibration can be caused by worn clutch components. Technician B says that a truck should be road tested both loaded and unloaded to help determine the source of a driveline vibration. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
17. A driver complains of a hard clutch pedal. Technician A says that the problem may be damaged bosses on the release yoke assembly. Technician B says that the clutch linkage may be worn or damaged. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
170. Technician A says that during differential action on a drive axle in a turn, the speed increase on the outboard wheel has to be inversely proportional to the speed decrease on the inboard wheel. Technician B says that pinion spiders walk at any time there is differential action. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
18. Technician A says that when the driver releases (disengages) the clutch while coasting downhill, the clutch may overheat. Technician B says that overheating may result when the driver rides the clutch pedal. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
190. When inspecting a steering axle, Technician A uses a dial indicator to check knuckle vertical play. Technician B uses a protractor to check caster setting. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
193. Technician A states that, in a conventional power steering system, demand for power assistance is opposite to its availability. Technician B says that newer load-sensing hydraulically controlled power steering systems provide increased flow from the steering pump in response to an increase in steering pressure. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
219. A truck with an air suspension system is being unloaded. After unloading the truck, the driver observes that one side rises. Technician A says that this could be caused by a plugged quick-release valve. Technician B says that a defective leveling valve could cause this problem. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
235. Technician A says that an advantage of disc wheels over cast spoke is that they produce fewer wheel alignment problems. Technician B says that in stud-piloted disc wheel systems, a loose inner nut can easily go undetected, eventually pounding out the ball seat. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
237. Technician A always inflates severely underinflated tires in a safety cage. Technician B uses a clip-on air chuck with a remote in-line valve and gauge. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
260. Technician A says that air disc brakes usually produce higher mechanical braking efficiencies than equivalent S-cam brakes. Technician B says that the reason wedge brakes produce higher mechanical braking efficiencies than equivalent S-cam brakes is that they are usually double actuated. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
280. Technician A says that in non-servo drum brakes, the forward or leading shoe is energized in normal braking when the vehicle is in forward motion. Technician B says that in non-servo drum brakes, the leading and trailing shoes exchange roles when the vehicle reverses motion. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
285. Technician A says that an ABS ECU reads the frequency produced by a wheel speed sensor and interprets it as wheel speed. Technician B says that the basis of hydraulic ABS is that hydraulic pressure to the brakes over one wheel is relieved when a lockup condition is sensed. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
306. A tandem axle trailer equipped with S-cam brakes has all four slack adjusters originally set with a 6-inch dimension from the clevis pin to the camshaft. One slack adjuster is replaced, and because of a different hole arrangement in the new slack adjuster, it is set at 61/2 inches. Which of the following is more likely to result?! a. One of the four wheels will lock up ahead of the others under severe braking. b. One of the four wheels will lock up behind the others under severe braking. c. One of the service brake chambers will require more air pressure than the others. d. One of the service brake chambers will require less air pressure than the others.
a. One of the four wheels will lock up ahead of the others under severe braking.
129. Technician A says that WT trouble codes can only be accessed by using a DDR with the appropriate software card or cartridge. Technician B says that the shift selector mechanism may be used to read active codes. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
13. When installing a 14-inch clutch, Technician A installs new drive pins in the flywheel. Technician B files the drive pin slots to ensure that proper clearances are met. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
171. Technician A says that most OEMs recommend extended rear axle oil drain intervals when synthetic lubricants are used. Technician B says that the differential carrier should be flushed with kerosene at every oil change. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
172. A truck is producing some rear axle noise that can be heard only during turns. Technician A says that a likely cause of the problem is excessive backlash between the side gears and the differential pinions. Technician B says that the problem is probably excessive backlash between the drive pinion and the crown/ring gear. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
173. Technician A says that crown gear backlash is correctly adjusted by alternately loosening and tightening the bearing adjusting rings. Technician B says that the tooth contact pattern can be moved closer to the root by increasing the crown gear backlash. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
19. There are grooves worn in a clutch pressure plate. Technician A says that the clutch discs could be worn or damaged. Technician B says that the clutch pressure springs could be worn or damaged. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
208. A spring pack has a single cracked leaf. Technician A says that the spring pack should be replaced as a unit. Technician B says that the fractured leaf can be repair welded providing it is not the main leaf. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
210. A truck recently had both front spring packs replaced. The driver complains that it is difficult to steer the truck straight ahead. Technician A says that this could be caused by installing the caster shims backward. Technician B says that this condition could be caused by seized spring pins. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
258. Technician A says that automatic slack adjusters can improve brake balance and reduce downtime and maintenance costs. Technician B says that automatic slack adjusters should not be adjusted after installation. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
330. Technician A says that when fifth wheel brackets are bolted to frame rails, the section modulus over that section of the frame is increased. Technician B says that installing inverted L-section reinforcements is preferred to L-section reinforcements because the section modulus is not affected. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
331. In bolting equipment to the chassis frame, Technician A uses existing holes whenever possible. Technician B avoids drilling holes in the frame neutral fiber. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
43. A driver complains that the vehicle jumps out of gear when driven over a bumpy road surface. Technician A says that the problem could be worn detent notches in the shift rail. Technician B says that the problem could be worn gear clutch teeth. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
8. When adjusting clutch linkage, Technician A says that pedal free travel should be about 1½ to 2 inches. Technician B says that free travel should be more than ½ inch measured at the release forks. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
88. Technician A suggests that it is good practice to install an auxiliary filter after a transmission failure that resulted in debris being introduced into the hydraulic circuit. Technician B changes the auxiliary filter every 5,000 miles. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
9. When servicing clutches, Technician A always wears an OSHA-approved particulate mask. Technician B uses compressed air to clean off clutch components before removing a clutch pack. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
a. Technician A only
85. When the transmission input speed is increased, which of the following should happen to the oil level in the sump?! a. The oil level lowers. b. The oil level rises. c. There is no effect on the oil level. d. The oil aerates.
a. The oil level lowers.
62. In order for torque multiplication to take place in a torque converter, which of the following should be true?! a. The pump/impeller must turn faster than the turbine. b. The turbine must turn faster than the pump/ impeller. c. The stator must freewheel. d. The lockup clutch must be engaged.
a. The pump/impeller must turn faster than the turbine.
179. After a differential carrier overhaul, which of the following methods would best ensure that the wheel bearings receive proper initial lubrication?! a. Fill the differential carrier to the interaxle differential fill hole. b. Fill the differential carrier through the axle breather. c. Jack the axle up at each side for 1 minute, then level and check the fill hole level. d. Remove each axle shaft rubber fill plug and fill to the indicated oil level.
c. Jack the axle up at each side for 1 minute, then level and check the fill hole level.
38. Which of the following would indicate that transmission oil in a truck standard transmission is at the correct level?! a. Oil is visible through the filler hole. b. Oil is reachable with the first finger joint through the filler hole. c. Oil is level with the filler hole. d. Oil is at the high level on the dipstick.
c. Oil is level with the filler hole.
69. What results if a large external tooth gear is meshed with and driving a smaller external tooth gear?! a. Output speed increasesoutput direction is the same as input. b. Output speed decreases output direction is the reverse of input. c. Output speed increases output direction is the reverse of input. d. Output speed decreases output direction is the same as input.
c. Output speed increases output direction is the reverse of input.
302. Which of the following is the best practice when instructed to block the wheels on a tractor/trailer combination?! a. Place a pair of wedged wheel chocks on both sides of one steering axle wheel. b. Place a pair of wedged wheel chocks on one tractor steering axle wheel and one trailer axle wheel. c. Place a pair of wedged wheel chocks on one tractor drive axle wheel and one trailer axle wheel. d. Place a pair of wedged wheel chocks on one trailer axle wheel.
c. Place a pair of wedged wheel chocks on one tractor drive axle wheel and one trailer axle wheel
304. Which of the following foundation brake components are lubricated with chassis grease, either for component life or as part of a lube job?! a. S-cam profile b. S-cam roller face c. S-cam bushings d. brake shoe friction face
c. S-cam bushings
115. When the Allison CEC sump oil temperature is between −25°F and 25°F (−32°C and −3°C) how is shifting likely to be affected?! a. No shifting will occur. b. Shifts in all ranges will be modulated to higher tailshaft speeds. c. Shifts will be limited to neutral, first, and reverse ranges. d. A trouble code will be logged with unaffected shifting.
c. Shifts will be limited to neutral, first, and reverse ranges.
131. How many gear speed ratios are used in a Caterpillar CX31 transmission?! a. Four b. Five c. Six d. Eight
c. Six
325. When a load is applied to a C-channel frame rail from above, which of the following statements should be true?! a. The upper flange is under tensional stress. b. The neutral fiber is under compressional stress. c. The lower flange is under tensional stress. d. The lower flange is under compressional stress.
c. The lower flange is under tensional stress.
309. When adjusting S-cam brakes on a trailer equipped with manual slack adjusters, which of the following must be true?! a. The tractor parking brakes must be applied. b. The trailer service brakes must be applied. c. The trailer parking brakes must be released d. The tractor service brakes must be applied.
c. The trailer parking brakes must be released
312. When a safety pop-off valve continuously unloads, which of the following should be performed first?! a. The governor should be replaced. b. The compressor should be replaced. c. The unloader air circuit should be checked. d. The primary circuit pressure should be checked.
c. The unloader air circuit should be checked.
99. What type of sensor is used to signal shift finger position to the transmission ECU in a current AutoShift transmission?! a. a piezoelectric sensor b. a photoelectric sensor c. a Hall effect sensor d. an inductive pulse
c. a Hall effect sensor
254. Which of the following components is a requirement on every air tank?! a. an air dryer b. a safety valve c. a draincock d. a pressure protection valve
c. a draincock
52. What is commonly used to mount a torque converter to the engine crankshaft?! a. a lockup clutch b. a stator c. a flexplate d. a turbine
c. a flexplate
93. A stall speed that tests 35 percent below the OEM engine specification would most likely indicate?! a. an engine problem b. a stuck torque converter stator c. a freewheeling torque converter stator d. either b or c
c. a freewheeling torque converter stator
177. Which type of lubricant is recommended when hypoid gearing is used in a differential carrier?! a. petroleum-based lubes only b. API GL-4 c. any EP-rated lubricant d. any API-rated lubricant
c. any EP-rated lubricant
58. When is rotary fluid flow at a maximum during torque converter operation?! a. at full stall b. at initial pickup c. at coupling phase d. at torque multiplication phase
c. at coupling phase
215. What type of spring is usually mounted on top of the truck rear spring assemblies and is used only when a truck is under a heavy load?! a. progressive spring b. constant spring c. auxiliary spring d. air spring
c. auxiliary spring
109. An AutoShift transmission will not shift out of second gear and Technician A says that an inplace fallback failure strategy could be the cause. Technician B says that when AutoShift is in downshift fallback, only downshifts can be made until the vehicle is brought to a stand still. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
128. Technician A says that WT electronics will always display the most recently logged trouble code first. Technician B says that WT electronics are capable of logging up to five active codes. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
130. Technician A says that to put a WT into reverse, clutches C3 and C5 must be applied. Technician B says that in reverse range, the P3 pinion carrier becomes the reverse output. Who is correct?! a. Technician A only b. Technician B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
c. both A and B
