CC E1

The registered nurse (RN) is orienting a new RN assigned to the care of a client with a cardiac disorder and is told that the client has an alteration in cardiac output. After educating the new RN about cardiac output, which statement made by the new RN indicates the need for further instruction? 1."A cardiac output of 2 L/min is normal." 2."A cardiac output of 4 L/min is normal." 3."A cardiac output of 6 L/min is normal." 4."A cardiac output of 7 L/min is normal."

1. "A cardiac output of 2 L/min is normal." Rationale: The cardiac cycle consists of contraction and relaxation of the heart muscle. In adults, the cardiac output ranges from 4 to 7 L/min. Therefore, option 1 identifies a low cardiac output.

**** The nurse has just completed education on myocardial infarction (MI) to a group of new nurses. Which statement made by one of the nurses indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1."Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the myocardium." 2."Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the vessels of the heart." 3."Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the parietal pericardium." 4."Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the visceral pericardium."

1. "Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the myocardium." Rationale: The myocardial layer of the heart is damaged when a client experiences an MI. This is the middle layer that contains the striated muscle fibers responsible for the contractile force of the heart. The obstruction, which causes the interruption in blood flow and ensuing hypoxia, affects the myocardial layer. The endocardiumis the thin inner layer of cardiac tissue. The parietal pericardium and visceral pericardium are outer layers that protect the heart from injury and infection.

The home care nurse has taught a client with a problem of inadequate cardiac output about helpful lifestyle adaptations to promote health. Which statement by the client best demonstrates an understanding of the information provided? 1."I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." 2."I will try to exercise vigorously to strengthen my heart muscle." 3."I will drink 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid daily to promote good kidney function." 4."Drinking 2 to 3 oz of liquor each night will promote blood flow by enlarging blood vessels."

1. "I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." Rationale: Standard home care instructions for a client with this problem include, among others, lifestyle changes such as decreased alcohol intake, avoiding activities that increase the demands on the heart, instituting a bowel regimen to prevent straining and constipation, and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Consuming 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid and exercising vigorously will increase the cardiac workload.

The nurse determines that a client requires further teaching after permanent pacemaker insertion if which statement is made? 1. "My pulse rate should be less than what my pacemaker is set at." 2. "I'll need to call my health care provider if I feel tired or dizzy." 3. "I'll have to avoid carrying the grocery bags into the house for the next 6 weeks." 4. "It's safe to use my microwave as long it is properly grounded and well shielded."

1. 1. "My pulse rate should be less than what my pacemaker is set at." Rationale: The client should call the health care provider (HCP) if the pulse rate is less than what the pacemaker is set at because this could be a sign of pacemaker or battery failure. Option 1 indicates the client needs further teaching, whereas the remaining options are correct statements.

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client scheduled for cardioversion. The nurse plans to set the defibrillator to which starting energy range level, depending on the specific health care provider (HCP) prescription? 1. 120 joules 2. 200 joules 3. 250 joules 4 .350 joules

1. 120 joules Rationale: For cardioversion procedures, the defibrillator is charged to the energy level prescribed by the HCP. Countershock usually is started at 120 to 200 joules. The number of joules in the remaining options are incorrect.

A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization to diagnose the extent of coronary artery disease. The nurse places highest priority on telling the client to report which sensation during the procedure? 1.Chest pain 2.Urge to cough 3.Warm, flushed feeling 4.Pressure at the insertion site

1. Chest pain Rationale: The client is taught to report chest pain or any unusual sensations immediately. The client also is told that he or she may be asked to cough or breathe deeply from time to time during the procedure. The client is informed that a warm, flushed feeling may accompany dye injection and is normal. Because a local anesthetic is used, the client is expected to feel pressure at the insertion site.

The nurse is caring for a client with cardiac disease who has been placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse notes that the client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a rapid ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute. The nurse should next assess the client for which finding? 1.Hypotension 2.Flat neck veins 3.Complaints of nausea 4.Complaints of headache

1. Hypotension Rationale: The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 110 beats/minute. The PR interval is 0.14 seconds, the QRS complex measures 0.08 seconds, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Sinus bradycardia 3. Sinus dysrhythmia 4. Normal sinus rhythm

1. Sinus tachycardia Rationale: Sinus tachycardia has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normal-width PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats/minute.

A client with rapid-rate atrial fibrillation asks the nurse why the health care provider (HCP) is going to perform carotid sinus massage. The nurse educates the client about the treatment. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1."The vagus nerve slows the heart rate." 2."The diaphragmatic nerve slows the heart rate." 3."The diaphragmatic nerve overdrives the rhythm." 4."The vagus nerve increases the heart rate, overdriving the rhythm."

1. The vagus nerve slows the heart rate. Rationale: Carotid sinus massage is one maneuver used for vagal stimulation to decrease a rapid heart rate and possibly terminate a tachydysrhythmia. Others include inducing the gag reflex and asking the client to strain or bear down. Medication therapy is often needed as an adjunct to keep the rate down or maintain the normal rhythm. The remaining options are incorrect descriptions of this procedure.

The nurse is participating in a class on rhythm strip interpretation. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of a PR interval of 0.20? 1."This is a normal finding." 2."This is indicative of atrial flutter." 3."This is indicative of atrial fibrillation." 4."This is indicative of impending reinfarction."

1. This is a normal finding. Rationale: The PR interval represents the time it takes for the cardiac impulse to spread from the atria to the ventricles. The normal range for the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 second. The remaining options are incorrect and indicate that further education is needed.

A client is at risk for vasovagal attacks that cause bradydysrhythmias. The nurse would tell the client to avoid which actions to prevent this occurrence? Select all that apply. 1.Applying pressure on the eyes 2.Raising the arms above the head 3.Taking stool softeners on a daily basis 4.Bearing down during a bowel movement 5.Simulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth

1.Applying pressure on the eyes 2.Raising the arms above the head 4.Bearing down during a bowel movement 5.Simulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth Rationale: Vasovagal attacks or syncope occurs when the client faints because the body overreacts to certain triggers. The vasovagal syncope trigger causes your heart rate and blood pressure to drop suddenly. That leads to reduced blood flow to the brain, causing the client to briefly lose consciousness. The client at risk should be taught to avoid actions that stimulate the vagus nerve. Actions to avoid include raising the arms above the head, applying pressure over the carotid artery, applying pressure over the eyes, stimulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth or putting objects into the mouth, and bearing down or straining during a bowel movement. Taking stool softeners is an important measure to prevent the bearing down and straining during a bowel movement.

A client who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why she should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The nurse provides education to the client based on which physiological concept? 1.Vagus nerve stimulation causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 2.Vagus nerve stimulation causes an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 3.Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 4.Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility.

1.Vagus nerve stimulation causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. Rationale: Bearing down as if straining to have a bowel movement can stimulate a vagal reflex. Stimulation of the vagus nerve causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system has the opposite effect. These two branches of the autonomic nervous system oppose each other to maintain homeostasis.

The nurse has provided self-care activity instructions to a client after insertion of an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD). The nurse determines that further instruction is needed if the client makes which statement? "I need to avoid doing anything that could involve rough contact with the ICD insertion site." 2."I can perform activities such as swimming, driving, or operating heavy equipment as I need to." 3."I should try to avoid doing strenuous things that would make my heart rate go up to or above the rate cutoff on the ICD." 4."I should keep away from electromagnetic sources such as transformers, large electrical generators, and metal detectors, and I shouldn't lean over running motors."

2. "I can perform activities such as swimming, driving, or operating heavy equipment as I need to." Rationale: Postdischarge instructions typically include avoiding tight clothing or belts over the ICD insertion sites; rough contact with the ICD insertion site; and electromagnetic fields such as with electrical transformers, radio/TV/radar transmitters, metal detectors, and running motors of cars or boats. Clients also must alert health care providers (HCPs) or dentists to the presence of the device because certain procedures such as diathermy, electrocautery, and magnetic resonance imaging may need to be avoided to prevent device malfunction. Clients should follow the specific advice of a HCP regarding activities that are potentially hazardous to self or others, such as swimming, driving, or operating heavy equipment.

The new registered nurse (RN) is reviewing cardiac rhythms with a mentor. Which statement by the new RN indicates that teaching about ventricular fibrillation has been effective? 1."Ventricular fibrillation appears as irregular beats within a rhythm." 2."Ventricular fibrillation does not have P waves or QRS complexes." 3."Ventricular fibrillation is a regular pattern of wide QRS complexes." 4."Ventricular fibrillation has recognizable P waves, QRS complexes, and T waves."

2. "Ventricular fibrillation does not have P waves or QRS complexes." Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by the absence of P waves and QRS complexes. The rhythm is instantly recognizable by the presence of coarse or fine fibrillatory waves on the cardiac monitoring screen. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) appear as irregular beats within a rhythm. Ventricular tachycardia is a regular pattern of wide QRS complexes. Sinus tachycardia has a recognizable P wave, QRS complex, and T wave. Each of the incorrect options has a recognizable complex that appears on the monitoring screen.

A client is scheduled for elective cardioversion to treat chronic high-rate atrial fibrillation. Which finding indicates that further preparation is needed for the procedure? 1.The client's digoxin has been withheld for the last 48 hours. 2.The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. 3.The defibrillator has the synchronizer turned on and is set at 120 joules (J). 4.The client has received an intravenous dose of a conscious sedation medication.

2. 2.The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. Rationale:During the procedure, any oxygen is removed temporarily because oxygen supports combustion, and a fire could result from electrical arcing. Digoxin may be withheld for up to 48 hours before cardioversion because it increases ventricular irritability and may cause ventricular dysrhythmias after the countershock. The defibrillator is switched to synchronizer mode to time the delivery of the electrical impulse to coincide with the QRS and avoid the T wave, which could cause ventricular fibrillation. Energy level typically is set at 120 to 200 J for a biphasic machine. The client typically receives a dose of an intravenous sedative or antianxiety agent.

A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hour for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL (16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Acute kidney injury 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Urinary tract infection

2. Acute kidney injury Rationale: The client who undergoes cardiac surgery is at risk for renal injury from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. Renal injury is signaled by decreased urine output and increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Normal reference levels are BUN, 10-20 mg/dL (3.6-7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine, male, 0.6-1.2 mg/dL (53-106 mcmol/L) and female 0.5-1.1 mg/dL (44-97 mcmol/L). The client may need medications to increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. No data in the question indicate the presence of hypovolemia, glomerulonephritis, or urinary tract infection.

A client's electrocardiogram shows that the ventricular rhythm is irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The nurse recognizes that this pattern is associated with which condition? 1.Atrial flutter 2.Atrial fibrillation 3.Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block 4.First-degree AV block

2. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: With atrial fibrillation, the ventricular rhythm is irregular and there are usually no discernible P waves. Therefore, an atrial rhythm cannot be determined. In atrial flutter, the QRS complexes may be either regular or irregular, and the P waves occur as flutter waves. A client in third-degree AV block (also known as complete heart block) has regular atrial and ventricular rhythms, but there is no connection between the P waves and the QRS complexes. In other words, the PR interval is variable and the QRS complexes are normal or widened, with no relationship with the P waves. With first-degree AV block, the PR interval is longer than normal, and there is a connection between the occurrence of P waves and that of QRS complexes.

The nurse is concerned about the adequacy of peripheral tissue perfusion in the post-cardiac surgery client. Which action should the nurse include within the plan of care for this client? 1.Use the knee gatch on the bed. 2.Cover the legs lightly when sitting in a chair. 3.Encourage the client to cross the legs when sitting in a chair. 4.Provide pillows for the client to place under the knees as desired.

2. Cover the legs lightly when sitting in a chair Rationale: Covering the legs with a light blanket during sitting promotes warmth and vasodilation of the leg vessels. The nurse plans postoperative measures to prevent venous stasis. These include applying elastic stockings or leg wraps, use of pneumatic compression boots, and discouraging crossing of the legs. Clients should be encouraged to perform passive and active range-of-motion exercises. The knee gatch on the bed and pillows under the knees should be avoided because they place pressure on the blood vessels in the popliteal area, impeding venous return.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein. Which activity will assist with preventing dislodgement of the pacing catheter? 1.Limiting both movement and abduction of the left arm 2.Limiting both movement and abduction of the right arm 3.Assisting the client to get out of bed and ambulate with a walker 4.Having the physical therapist do active range-of-motion exercises to the right arm

2. Limiting both movement and abduction of the right arm. Rationale: In the first several hours after insertion of a permanent or temporary pacemaker, the most common complication is pacing electrode dislodgement. The nurse helps prevent this complication by limiting the client's activities of the arm on the side of the insertion site. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure? 1. Glipizide 2. Metformin 3. Repaglinide 4. Regular insulin

2. Metformin Rationale: Metformin needs to be withheld 24 hours before and for 48 hours after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure. If the contrast medium affects kidney function, with metformin in the system the client would be at increased risk for lactic acidosis. The medications in the remaining options do not need to be withheld 24 hours before and 48 hours after cardiac catheterization.

The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority? 1. Blood pressure 2.Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness

2. Status of airway Rationale: Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance first of a patent airway, and then oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection.

**** The nurse educator is teaching the new registered nurse (RN) how to care for clients with a decrease in blood pressure. Which statement by the new RN indicates the need for further instruction? 1. "Decreased contractility occurs." 2. "Decreased heart rate is not a side effect." 3. "Decreased myocardial blood flow is not a concern." 4. "Increased resistance to electrical stimulation often occurs."

3. "Decreased myocardial blood flow is not a concern." Rationale: The primary effect of a decrease in blood pressure is reduced blood flow to the myocardium. This in turn decreases oxygenation of the cardiac tissue. Cardiac tissue is likely to become more excitable or irritable in the presence of hypoxia. Correspondingly, the heart rate is likely to increase, not decrease, in response to this change. The effects of tissue ischemia lead to decreased contractility over time.

The nurse notes that a client's cardiac rhythm shows absent P waves, no PR interval, and an irregular rhythm. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? 1.Bradycardia 2.Tachycardia 3.Atrial fibrillation 4.Normal sinus rhythm (NSR)

3. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: In atrial fibrillation, the P waves are absent and replaced by fibrillatory waves. There is no PR interval, and the QRS duration usually is normal and constant and the rhythm is irregular. Bradycardia is a slowed heart rate, and tachycardia is a fast heart rate. In NSR, a P wave precedes each QRS complex, the rhythm is essentially regular, the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 second, and the QRS interval is 0.06 to 0.10 second.

A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Call a code. 2. Call the health care provider. 3. Check the client's status and lead placement. 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console.

3. Check the client's status and lead placement. Rationale:Sudden loss of electrocardiographic complexes indicates ventricular asystole or possibly electrode displacement. Accurate assessment of the client and equipment is necessary to determine the cause and identify the appropriate intervention. The remaining options are secondary to client assessment.

A client has developed uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. What manifestation should the nurse observe for when performing the client's focused assessment? 1.Flat neck veins 2.Nausea and vomiting 3.Hypotension and dizziness 4.Clubbed fingertips and headache

3. Hypotension and dizziness Rationale:The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/min is at risk for low cardiac output due to loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

The nurse in the medical unit is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client who has been transferred from the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse notes that a cardiac troponin T assay was performed while the client was in the ICU. The nurse determines that this test was performed to assist in diagnosing which condition? 1.Heart failure 2.Atrial fibrillation 3.Myocardial infarction 4.Ventricular tachycardia

3. Myocardial infarction Rationale: Cardiac troponin T or cardiac troponin I have been found to be a protein marker in the detection of myocardial infarction, and assay for this protein is used in some institutions to aid in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction. The test is not used to diagnose heart failure, ventricular tachycardia, or atrial fibrillation.

The nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip for a client. The PP and RR intervals are regular. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complexes measure 0.08 second. The overall heart rate is 82 beats/min. The nurse should report the cardiac rhythm to be which rhythm? 1.Sinus bradycardia 2.Sick sinus syndrome 3.Normal sinus rhythm 4.First-degree heart block

3. Normal sinus rhythm Rationale: Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/min. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.04 to 0.10 second, respectively.

Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)? 1.Chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 2.Sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) 3.Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L 6.8 mmol/L) 4.Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L (0.8 mmol/L)

3. Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L 6.8 mmol/L) Rationale: Hyperkalemia can cause tall, peaked, or tented T waves on the ECG. Levels of potassium 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) or greater indicate hyperkalemia. Options 1, 2, and 4 are normal levels.

The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a hospitalized client with heart block about the fundamental concepts regarding the cardiac rhythm. The nurse explains to the client that the normal site in the heart responsible for initiating electrical impulses is which site? 1.Bundle of His 2.Purkinje fibers 3.Sinoatrial (SA) node 4.Atrioventricular (AV) node

3. SA node Rationale: The SA node is responsible for initiating electrical impulses that are conducted through the heart. The impulse leaves the SA node and travels down through internodal and interatrial pathways to the AV node. From there, impulses travel through the bundle of His to the right and left bundle branches and then to the Purkinje fibers. This group of specialized cardiac cells is referred to as the cardiac conduction system. The ability of this specialized tissue to generate its own impulses is called automaticity.

A client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 70 complexes/minute. The PR interval is 0.16 second, the QRS complex measures 0.06 second, and the PP interval is slightly irregular. How should the nurse report this rhythm? 1.Sinus tachycardia 2.Sinus bradycardia 3.Sinus dysrhythmia 4.Normal sinus rhythm

3. Sinus dysrhythmia Rationale: Sinus dysrhythmia has all of the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm except for the presence of an irregular PP interval. This irregular rhythm occurs because of phasic changes in the rate of firing of the sinoatrial node, which may occur with vagal tone and with respiration. Cardiac output is not affected.

The health care provider (HCP) has written a prescription for a client to have an echocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the client for the procedure? 1. Questions the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish 2.Has the client sign an informed consent form for an invasive procedure 3.Tells the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes 4.Keeps the client on nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 2 hours before the procedure

3. Tells the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes Rationale: Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, pain-free test that involves no special preparation. It commonly is done at the bedside or on an outpatient basis. The client must lie quietly for 30 to 60 minutes while the procedure is being performed. It is important to provide adequate information to eliminate unnecessary worry on the part of the client.

A client is scheduled to undergo cardiac catheterization for the first time, and the nurse provides instructions to the client. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1."It will really hurt when the catheter is first put in." 2."I will receive general anesthesia for the procedure." 3."I will have to go to the operating room for this procedure." 4."I probably will feel tired after the test from lying on a hard x-ray table for a few hours."

4. "I probably will feel tired after the test from lying on a hard x-ray table for a few hours." Rationale: It is common for the client to feel fatigued after the cardiac catheterization procedure. A local anesthetic is used, so little to no pain is experienced with catheter insertion. General anesthesia is not used. Other preprocedure teaching points include the fact that the procedure is done in a darkened cardiac catheterization room. The x-ray table is hard and may be tilted periodically, and the procedure may take 1 to 2 hours. The client may feel various sensations with catheter passage and dye injection.

The nurse has completed an educational course covering first-degree heart block. Which statement by the nurse indicates that teaching has been effective? 1."Presence of Q waves indicates first-degree heart block." 2."Tall, peaked T waves indicate first-degree heart block." 3."Widened QRS complexes indicate first-degree heart block." 4."Prolonged, equal PR intervals indicates first-degree heart block."

4. "Prolonged, equal PR intervals indicates first-degree heart block." Rationale: Prolonged and equal PR intervals indicate first-degree heart block. The development of Q waves indicates myocardial necrosis. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block. An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken during a pain episode is intended to capture ischemic changes, which also include ST segment elevation or depression.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. The nurse should assess which item based on priority? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2. Presence of a MedicAlert card for the client to carry 3. Knowledge of restrictions on postdischarge physical activity 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver

4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver Rationale: The nurse who is caring for the client after insertion of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator needs to assess device settings, similar to after insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Specifically, the nurse needs to know whether the device is activated, the heart rate cutoff above which it will fire, and the number of shocks it is programmed to deliver. The remaining options are also nursing interventions but are not the priority.

A client with myocardial infarction is experiencing new, multiform premature ventricular contractions and short runs of ventricular tachycardia. The nurse plans to have which medication available for immediate use to treat the ventricular tachycardia? 1.Digoxin 2.Verapamil 3.Acebutolol 4.Amiodarone

4. Amiodarone Rationale: Amiodarone is an antidysrhythmic that may be used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside; verapamil is a calcium channel-blocking agent; acebutolol is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent. Digoxin can be used to treat supraventricular dysrhythmias, but is inactive against ventricular dysrhythmias. Verapamil is used to slow the ventricular rate for a client with atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, or to terminate supraventricular tachycardia. Acebutolol is a beta blocker used to treat dysrhythmias.

A client with a complete heart block has had a permanent demand ventricular pacemaker inserted. The nurse assesses for proper pacemaker function by examining the electrocardiogram (ECG) strip for the presence of pacemaker spikes at what point? 1. Before each P wave 2. Just after each P wave 3. Just after each T wave 4. Before each QRS complex

4. Before each QRS complex. Rationale: If a ventricular pacemaker is functioning properly, there will be a pacer spike followed by a QRS complex. An atrial pacemaker spike precedes a P wave if an atrial pacemaker is implanted.

The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Check vital signs. 2. Check laboratory test results. 3. Notify the health care provider. 4. Continue to monitor for any rhythm change.

4. Continue to monitor for any rhythm change Rationale: Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring between 0.12 and 0.20 seconds and 0.04 and 0.10 seconds, respectively. There are no irregularities in this rhythm currently, so there is no immediate need to check vital signs or laboratory results, or to notify the health care provider. Therefore, the nurse would continue to monitor the client for any rhythm change.

A client with an acute respiratory infection is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of sinus tachycardia. Which nursing action should be included in the client's plan of care? 1.Limiting oral and intravenous fluids 2.Measuring the client's pulse each shift 3.Providing the client with short, frequent walks 4.Eliminating sources of caffeine from meal trays

4. Eliminating sources of caffeine from meal trays Rationale: Sinus tachycardia often is caused by fever, physical and emotional stress, heart failure, hypovolemia, certain medications, nicotine, caffeine, and exercise. Fluid restriction and exercise will not alleviate tachycardia. Measuring the pulse each shift will not decrease the heart rate. In addition, the pulse should be taken more frequently than each shift.

The nurse is listening to a cardiologist explain the results of a cardiac catheterization to a client and family. The health care provider (HCP) tells the client that a blockage is present in the large blood vessel that supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. The nurse determines that the blockage is located in which area? 1.Circumflex coronary artery 2.Right coronary artery (RCA) 3.Posterior descending coronary artery (PDA) 4.Left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD)

4. Left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) Rationale: The LAD bifurcates from the left main coronary artery to supply the anterior wall of the left ventricle and a few other structures. The circumflex coronary artery bifurcates from the left coronary artery and supplies the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. The RCA supplies the right side of the heart, including the right atrium and right ventricle. The PDA supplies the posterior wall of the heart.

Cardiac monitoring leads are placed on a client who is at risk for premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which heart rhythm will the nurse anticipate in this client if PVCs are occurring? 1. A P wave preceding every QRS complex 2. QRS complexes that are short and narrow 3. Inverted P waves before the QRS complexes 4. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause

4. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause Rationale: PVCs are abnormal ectopic beats originating in the ventricles. They are characterized by an absence of P waves, the presence of wide and bizarre QRS complexes, and a compensatory pause that follows the ectopy.

A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization using an iodineagent. Which assessment is most critical before the procedure? 1. Intake and output 2. Height and weight 3. Baseline peripheral pulse rates 4. Previous allergy to contrast agents

4. Previous allergy to contrast agents Rationale: A cardiac catheterization requires an informed consent because it involves injection of an iodine-based contrast agent into the blood vessel. The risk of allergic reaction and possible anaphylaxis is a concern, and the presence of allergies to previous received contrast agents must be assessed before the procedure. An antihistamine or corticosteroid may be given to a client with a positive history or to prevent a reaction. Although the remaining options are accurate, they are not the most critical preprocedure assessments.

A client has received antidysrhythmic therapy for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse evaluates this therapy as most effective if which finding is noted with regard to the PVCs? 1. They occur in pairs. 2. They appear to be multifocal. 3. They fall on the second half of the T wave. 4. They decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute.

4. They decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute. Rationale: PVCs are considered dangerous when they are frequent (more than 6 per minute), occur in pairs or couplets, are multifocal (multiform), or fall on the T wave. In each of these instances, the client's cardiac rhythm is likely to degenerate into ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, both of which are potentially deadly dysrhythmias.

The nurse is listening to a lecture on Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS). The instructor is discussing electrocardiographic (ECG) changes caused by myocardial ischemia. Which statement by the nurse indicates that teaching has been effective? 1."Tall, peaked T waves can indicate ischemia." 2."Prolonged PR interval can indicate ischemia." 3."Widened QRS complex can indicate ischemia." 4."ST segment elevation or depression can indicate ischemia."

4."ST segment elevation or depression can indicate ischemia." Rationale: An ECG taken during a chest pain episode captures ischemic changes, which include ST segment elevation or depression. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block. A widened QRS complex indicates delay in intraventricular conduction, such as a bundle branch block.

The nurse identifies that a client is having occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the cardiac monitor. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which result would be consistent with the observation? 1.Serum chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 2.Serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 3.Serum calcium level of 10.5 mg/dL (2.75 mmol/L) 4.Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)

4.Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) Rationale: The nurse should check the client's serum laboratory study results for hypokalemia. The client may experience PVCs in the presence of hypokalemia because this electrolyte imbalance increases the electrical instability of the heart. The values noted in the remaining options are normal.

A low calcium level could lead to:

A low calcium level could lead to: severe ventricular dysrhythmias, prolonged QT interval, and ultimately cardiac arrest.

A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. A nurse would place a priority on the assessment of which of the following items? A. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion. B. Sensation of palpitations. C. Causative factors such as caffeine. D. Precipitating factors such as infection.

A. Blood pressure and peripheral perfusion. Rationale: Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. The shortened ventricular filling time with the ectopic beats leads to decreased stroke volume and, if frequent enough, to decreased cardiac output. Physical examination findings would reveal an irregular heart rhythm upon auscultation if the patient is experiencing PVCs during the examination. In some patients, cannon A waves may cause chest or neck discomfort. Otherwise, there would not be any direct physical examination findings. A prolonged run of PVCs can result in hypotension.

What criteria should the nurse use to determine normal sinus rhythm for a client on a cardiac monitor? Select all that apply. A. The RR intervals are relatively consistent. B. One P wave precedes each QRS complex. C. Four to eight complexes occur in a 6-second strip. D. The ST segment is higher than the PR interval. E. The QRS complex ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 second.

A. The RR intervals are relatively consistent. B. One P wave precedes each QRS complex. Rationale: The consistency of the RR interval indicates regular rhythm. A normal P wave before each complex indicates the impulse originated in the SA node. Sinus arrhythmia is most typically present in young, healthy individuals. Studies have attempted to establish an increased prevalence in patients with underlying hypertension, obesity, and diabetes.

A nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are wavy lines. The QRS complexes measure 0.08 second, but they are irregular, with a rate of 120 beats a minute. The nurse interprets this rhythm as: A. Sinus tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Ventricular fibrillation

B. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a loss of P waves; an undulating, wavy baseline; QRS duration that is often within normal limits; and an irregular ventricular rate, which can range from 60 to 100 beats per minute (when controlled with medications) to 100 to 160 beats per minute (when uncontrolled). Atrial fibrillation is the most common type of cardiac arrhythmia. It is the leading cardiac cause of stroke. Risk factors for atrial fibrillation include advanced age, high blood pressure, underlying heart and lung disease, congenital heart disease, and increased alcohol consumption.

When ventricular fibrillation occurs in a CCU, the first person reaching the client should: A. Administer oxygen. B. Defibrillate the client. C. Initiate CPR. D. Administer sodium bicarbonate intravenously.

B. Defibrillate the client Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a death-producing dysrhythmia and, once identified, must be terminated immediately by precordial shock (defibrillation). This is usually a standing physician's order in a CCU. Pulseless VT and VF are both shockable rhythms, and once the staff identifies the rhythm as VF, patients should be shocked immediately with 120 to 200 joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 joules using a monophasic.

A nurse is caring for a client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse instructs the client to do which of the following, if prescribed, during an episode of ventricular tachycardia? A. Breathe deeply, regularly, and easily. B. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. C. Lie down flat in bed. D. Remove any metal jewelry.

B. Inhale deeply and cough forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Rationale: Cough Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) sometimes is used in the client with unstable ventricular tachycardia. The nurse tells the client to use cough CPR, if prescribed, by inhaling deeply and coughing forcefully every 1 to 3 seconds. Cough CPR may terminate the dysrhythmia or sustain the cerebral and coronary circulation for a short time until other measures can be implemented. A nurse or physician can instruct and coach the patients to cough forcefully every one to three seconds during the initial seconds of a sudden arrhythmia. But because it's not effective in all patients, it shouldn't delay definitive treatment.

While caring for a client who has sustained an MI, the nurse notes eight PVCs in one minute on the cardiac monitor. The client is receiving an IV infusion of D5W and oxygen at 2 L/minute. The nurse's first course of action should be to: A. Increase the IV infusion rate. B. Notify the physician promptly. C. Increase the oxygen concentration. D. Administer a prescribed analgesic.

B. Notify the physician promptly. Rationale: PVCs are often a precursor of life-threatening dysrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. An occasional PVC is not considered dangerous, but if PVCs occur at a rate greater than 5 or 6 per minute in the post-MI client, the physician should be notified immediately. More than 6 PVCs per minute is considered serious and usually calls for decreasing ventricular irritability by administering medications such as lidocaine.

A nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves or definable QRS complexes. Instead, there are coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. The nurse assesses this rhythm to be: A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Atrial fibrillation D. Asystole

B. Ventricular fibrillation Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular, chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles. VF is a WCT caused by irregular electrical activity and characterized by a ventricular rate of usually greater than 300 with discrete QRS complexes on the electrocardiogram (ECG). QRS morphology in VF varies in shape, amplitude, and duration with a prominent irregular rhythm.

A nurse is viewing the cardiac monitor in a client's room and notes that the client has just gone into ventricular tachycardia. The client is awake and alert and has good skin color. The nurse would prepare to do which of the following? A. Immediately defibrillate. B. Prepare for pacemaker insertion. C. Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously. D. Administer epinephrine (Adrenaline) intravenously.

C. Administer amiodarone (Cordarone) intravenously. Rationale: First-line treatment of ventricular tachycardia in a client who is hemodynamically stable is the use of antidysrhythmics such as amiodarone (Cordarone), lidocaine (Xylocaine), and procainamide (Pronestyl). Cardioversion also may be needed to correct the rhythm (cardioversion is recommended for stable ventricular tachycardia). Procainamide will terminate between 50% and 80% of ventricular tachycardias, and it will slow the conduction of those that it does not terminate. Amiodarone will convert about 30% of patients to sinus rhythm but is very effective in reducing the reversion rate of refractory SMVT.

A woman with severe mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation has a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. The physician orders pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, including pulmonary capillary wedge pressures. The purpose of this is to help assess the: A. Degree of coronary artery stenosis. B. Peripheral arterial pressure. C. Pressure from fluid within the left ventricle. D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration is the blood.

C. Pressure from fluid within the left ventricle. Rationale: The pulmonary artery pressures are used to assess the heart's ability to receive and pump blood. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure reflects the left ventricle end-diastolic pressure and guides the physician in determining fluid management for the client. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is frequently used to assess left ventricular filling, represent left atrial pressure, and assess mitral valve function. It is measured by inserting a balloon-tipped, multi-lumen catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter) into a central vein, and advancing the catheter into a branch of the pulmonary artery.

The adaptations of a client with complete heart block would most likely include: A. Nausea and vertigo B. Flushing and slurred speech C. Cephalalgia and blurred vision D. Syncope and slow ventricular rate

D. Syncope and slow ventricular rate Rationale: In complete atrioventricular block, the ventricles take over the pacemaker function in the heart but at a much slower rate than that of the SA node. As a result, there is decreased cerebral circulation, causing syncope. Patients with third-degree blocks can have varying clinical presentations. Rarely, patients are asymptomatic. Usually, they may present with generalized fatigue, tiredness, chest pain, shortness of breath, presyncope, or syncope. They may have significant hemodynamic instability and can be obtunded.