CCNA 200 - 125
If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?
2
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
D
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
What is the most efficient subnet mask for a point to point ipv6 connection?
A. /127
Which one of these is a valid HSRP Virtual Mac Address?
A. 0000.0C07.AC15
What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?
A. 172.16.1.0/26
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0 C. 172.16.31.0 D. 172.16.20.0
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on the same network while providing the max number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
How is provided master redundancy on a stacked switches?
A. 1:N
Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
A. 24 hours
Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?
A. 30
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
A. 32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
Which two options are valid numbers for a standard access list? (Choose two.)
A. 50 D. 1550
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default. C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces. E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)
A. 802.1d E. STP
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop D. A modem terminates an analog local loop E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network traffic. C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure. G. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain
Which statement about ACLs is true?
A. An ACL have must at least one permit action, else it just blocks all traffic.
Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication?
A. CSMA/CD
Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default
For which two protocols can PortFast alleviate potential host startup issues? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP B. DNS
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (choose three)
A. Desirable B. Auto C. On
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose two.)
A. Enable RIP C. Enable no auto-summary
Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?
A. FHRP
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?
A. HSRP
Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Hop Limit
Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration D. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
A. It can run on a UNlX server. E. It uses a managed database.
Two features of the extended ping command? (Choose two.)
A. It can send a specific number of packet B. It can send packet from specified interface of IP address
A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a switch?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic
What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
A. It enables port address translation
Which three statements about DTP are true? (Choose three.)
A. It is a proprietary protocol. C. It is a Layer 2-based protocol. D. It is enabled by default.
Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
A. It makes network functions programmable. C. It automates network actions between different device types.
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
A. It must be manually enabled after RIP is configured as the routing protocol C. its default administrative distances 120
Which statement about RADIUS security is true?
A. It supports EAP authentication for connecting to wireless networks.
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination B. It is best used for small-scale deployments. C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
Standard industrialized protocol of EtherChannel?
A. LACP
Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose two)
A. MAC address E. Port numbers
What are three components that comprise the SNMP framework? (Choose three)
A. MIB B. manager D. agent
Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
What are two benefits of using NAT? (choose two)
A. NAT protects network security because private networks are not advertised. E. NAT eliminates the need to re-address all host that require extremal access.
Which three statements about link-state routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF is a link-state protocol. D. Routes are updated when a change in topology F. Updates are sent to a multicast address by default.
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
What are contained in layer 2 Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)
A. Preamble C. Type/length D. Frame check sequence
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (choose three)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure. B. RSTP expends the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles. F. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose three.)
A. Recursive Static routes B. Directly connected static routes C. Fully specified static routes
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP problem on a router and needs to confirm the IP addresses of the devices with which the router has established adjacency. The retransmit interval and the queue counts for the adjacent routers also need to be checked. What command will display the required information?
A. Router# show ip eigrp neighbors
After you configure the Loopback0 interface, which command can you enter to verify the status of the interface and determine whether fast switching is enabled?
A. Router#show ip interface loopback 0
Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 201
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
Which command can you enter to create a NAT pool of 6 addresses?
A. Router(config)#ip nat pool test 175.17.12.69 175.17.12.74 prefix-length 24
Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
A. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
What field is consisted of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?
A. SA
Which three statements about the features of SNMPv2 and SNMPv3 are true? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 enhanced SNMPv2 security features C. SNMPv2 added the Inform protocol message to SNMP E. SNMPv2 added the GetBulk protocol message to SNMP.
Which two protocols can detect native VLAN mismatch errors? (Choose two.)
A. STP C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables. E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)
A. Session C. presentation D. application
Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch errors between the switches? (Choose three.)
A. Set both side auto-negotiation B. Set both sides on half duplex D. Set both sides of connection
Which three options are switchport configurations that can always avoid duplex mismatch errors between two switches? (Choose three.)
A. Set both sides of the connection to auto-negotiate. B. Set both sides of the connection to half duplex. F. Set both sides of the connection to full duplex.
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices? (Choose two)
A. Show ntp associations. E. Show ntp status
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)
A. Spoofing attacks B. Vlan Hopping E. ARP Attacks
Which three commands must you enter to create a trunk that allows VLAN 20? (Choose three.)
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q E. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan dat.
Which two statements about IPv6 address 2002:ab10:beef::/48 are true? (Choose two.)
A. The embedded IPv4 address can be globally routed. E. It is used for a 6to4 tunnel
What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)
A. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state D. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
Which three statements about HSRP operation are true? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual IP address and virtual address are active on the HSRP Master router. B. The HSRP default timers are a 3 second hello interval and a 10 second dead interval. F. HSRP supports up to 255 groups per interface, enabling an administrative form of load balancing
Which two statements about firewalls are true?
A. They can be used with an intrusion prevention system B. They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data
Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two.)
A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs. E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They establish broadcast domains in switched networks. D. They can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network. E. They allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two.)
A. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance. C. They are used as backup routes when the primary route goes down.
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch. B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?
A. They must be configured on all IPv6 interface
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134. B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?
A. VRRP
When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you must perform? (choose three)
A. Verify that the router interface IP address IP address is correct. C. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask. F. Verify that the route appears in the Routing table
Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?
A. When a router has multiple subnets on a single physical link.
What is the authoritative source for an address lookup?
A. a recursive DNS search
If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
A. a switch with priority 20480
Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
A. access point
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose three)
A. authorization B. accounting C. authenticatio
Which mode are in PAgP? (Choose two.)
A. auto B. desirable
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number E. IP address
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. cdp run
Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-stick on a switch? (Choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port E. assign the access port to the vlan
Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. device management address. B. device type
Which two pieces of information can be shared with LLDP TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. device management address. B. device type
Which type of routing protocol operates by exchanging the entire routing information?
A. distance vector protocols
Which type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. dynamic
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two)
A. exactly one active router C. one or more backup virtual routers
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?
A. forwarding
Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)
A. frame check sequence E. type
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
A. in the DHCP binding database
If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting?
A. in the IP protocol
Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?
A. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
Which command is used to build DHCP pool?
A. ip dhcp pool DHCP pool
Which command can you enter in global configuration mode to create a DHCP address pool?
A. ip dhcp pool DHCP_pool
Which function does traffic shaping perform?
A. it buffers and queues excess packets
Which routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state protocols
What can you change to select switch as root bridge?
A. make lower priority
What are the three major components of cisco network virtualization? (Choose three.)
A. network access control B. path isolation C. virtual network services
Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
A. no additional configuration is required
Which function does the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?
A. packet-loss detection
Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
A. ping address
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
Which port security violation mode allows traffic from valid mac address to pass but block traffic from invalid mac address?
A. protect
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. provides common view of entire topology C. calculates shortest path D. utilizes event-triggered updates
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be used?
A. reflexive
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Which command can you enter to verify that a BGP connection to a remote device is established?
A. show ip bgp summary
Which command can you enter to display duplicate IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns?
A. show ip dhcp conflict 10.0.2.12
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show ip interface brief
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show session
Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. show snmp group
Which command do use we to see SNMP version
A. show snmp pending
Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
A. shutdown
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
Which value indicates the distance from the NTP authoritative time source?
A. stratum
Which command can you enter to configure the switch as an authoritative NTP server?
A. switch(config)#ntp master 3
Which command is used to configure a switch as an authoritative NTP server?
A. switch(config)#ntp master 3
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q B. switchport mode trunk C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?
A. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM
During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
A. the PPP Session phase
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of vlan 1?
A. the switch with the lowest MAC address
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA D. provide network isolation from the internet
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to confine network instability to single areas of the network. C. to speed up convergence F. to reduce routing overhead
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space
For which two reasons was RFC 1918 address space defining (Choose two.)
A. to preserve public IPv4 address space B. to reduce the occurrence of overlapping IP addresses
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?
A. trunk port
What are two statement for SSH?
A. use port 22 C. encrypted
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
A. virtual-template interface
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
A. when a network device fails to forward packets B. when you require ROMMON access
interface fa0/0 ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224 router bgp XXX neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
B. Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1.
After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF. Which action can you take to correct the problem?
E. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in
An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from Switch to Router with the results shown below: Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
Which option is the correct CIDR notation for 192.168.0.0 subnet 255.255.255.252?
B. /30
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
B. 11111100
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
B. 2
Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?
B. 6to4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose two.)
B. 802.3 Protocol D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch? Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
Which definition of default route is true?
B. A route used when a destination route is missing.
What does it take for BGP to establish connection? (Choose two)
B. AS number on local router C. AS number on remote router
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
B. Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
B. Addresses in a private range will not be routed on the Internet backbone.
Which two steps must you perform to enable router-on-a-stick on a switch? (Choose two.)
B. Assign the access port to a VLAN. D. Connect the router to a trunk port.
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in cisco routers?
B. Bandwidth
Which two authentication methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial interface? (Choose two.)
B. CHAP C. PAP
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)
B. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment E. CHAP uses a three-way handshake
Which address class includes network 191.168.0.1/27?
B. Class B
To enable router on a stick on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.
B. Configure encapsulation dot1q. E. Configure the subinterface with an IP address.
Which technology supports the stateless assignment of IPv6 addresses? (Choose two)
B. DHCPv6 D. autoconfiguration
Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
B. DMVPN
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
B. DTP negotiation settings
Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks. D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast. F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on
How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?
B. It assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session.
Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two)
B. It can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6 D. It uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
B. It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.
Which statement about EIGRP on IPv6 devices is true?
B. It is configured directly on the interface.
Which statement about LLDP is true?
B. It is configured in global configuration mode.
If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
B. It prefers the static route.
Which two options are benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)
B. It prevents the deployment of rogue DHCP servers. D. It tracks the location of hosts in the network.
Which two options describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two.)
B. It reduces management overhead. . D. It requires only one IP address per VLAN.
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort.
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
B. It uses a minimum amount of network E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Which option is the industry-standard protocol for EtherChannel?
B. LACP
Users complain that they are unable to reach Internet sites. You are troubleshooting Internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.
Which configuration command can you apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
B. No additional configuration is required
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing. E. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process
Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two.)
B. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network. C. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer.
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two task must you perform? (Choose two)
B. Ping the DNS Server. E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured
When troubleshooting client DNS issues, which two tasks must you perform? (Choose two.)
B. Ping the DNS server. E. Determine whether the name servers have been configured.
Which IPv6 routing protocol uses multicast group FF02::9 to send updates?
B. RIPng
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
B. RSTP defines new port roles. D. RSTP is a compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
B. Router IP address
Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
B. Switch#show vlan id 20
Which command can you enter in a network switch configuration so that learned mac addresses are saved in configuration as they connect?
B. Switch(config-if)#Switch port-security Mac-address sticky
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted. C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device. F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Refer to the exhibit. What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
B. The number of collision domains would increase. C. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
B. The port priority
Which three statements about IPv6 address fd14:920b:f83d:4079::/64 are true? (Choose three)
B. The subnet ID is 4079 C. The global ID is 14920bf83d F. The address is a unique local address
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
B. The tunnel source interface is down. C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table. D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? (Choose two.)
B. They can be configured as host ports. C. Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.
Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
B. Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol
Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
B. VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255
What is new in HSRPv2?
B. a greater number in hsrp group field
Which definition of a host route is true?
B. a route to the exact /32 destination address
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
B. access control
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
B. all levels except debugging
Which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 addresses are configured on a single interface?
B. all prefixes on the interface
Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router? (Choose two.)
B. allowing unicast updates for RIP D. enabling RIP on the router
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three.)
B. auto C. on D. desirable
Which two EtherChannel PAgP modes can you configure? (Choose two.)
B. desirable D. auto
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
B. electing designated ports
Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)
B. enable secret password C. vty password
Which feature facilitates the tagging of frames on a specific VLAN?
B. encapsulation
Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?
B. full mesh
Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite branches?
B. hub and spoke
Which two statements about access points are true? (Choose two)
B. in Most cases, they are physically connected to other network devices to provide network connectivity D. Most access points provide Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity.
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
B. internet
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
B. late collisions
Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)
B. learning C. forwarding
While viewing the running configuration of a router, you observe the command logging trap warning. Which syslog messages will the router send?
B. levels 0-4
Which type of routing protocol operates by using first-hand information from each device's peers?
B. link-state protocols
Which two Cisco IOS commands, used in troubleshooting, can enable debug output to a remote location? (Choose two)
B. logging host ip-address C. terminal monitor
In which two circumstances are private IPv4 addresses appropriate? (Choose two.)
B. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts D. on hosts that require minimal access to external resources
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?
B. on the router closest to the client.
When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
B. passive-interface
What are three features of the IPV6 protocol? (Choose three.)
B. plug-and-play C. no broadcasts F. autoconfiguration
Which option is the main function of congestion management?
B. queuing traffic based on priority
Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?
B. router#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
What does split horizon prevent?
B. routing loops, distance vector
What are three reasons that an organization with multiple branch offices and roaming users might implement a Cisco VPN solution instead of point-to-point WAN links? (Choose three.)
B. scalability C. reduced cost D. increased security
What command instructs the device to timestamp Syslog debug messages in milliseconds?
B. service timestamps debug datetime msec
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (Choose two.)
B. show interfaces trunk C. show interfaces switchport
Which command can you enter to troubleshoot the failure of address assignments?
B. show ip dhcp pool
Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?
B. show ip interface brief
Which option describes a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
B. simplicity of configuration
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
B. ssh
How to verify SSH connections was secured?
B. ssh -v 2 -l admin IP
Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
B. star
Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
B. the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
Which value must a device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate with a remote peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?
B. the local hostname
Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the destination over different routing protocols?
B. the path with the lowest administrative distance
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
C. 0-6
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?
C. 1
How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255 240?
C. 14
If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?
C. 4
How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?
C. 64
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over FastEthernet?
C. 802.1Q
Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network?
C. 802.1x
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
C. ACL blocking port 80
Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between two devices in a network?
C. ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.
After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is DNS spoofing enabled on the device? (Choose two.)
C. All configured IP name server addresses are removed D. The no ip domain lookup command is configured
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
C. Cisco APIC
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?
C. Cisco APIC-EM
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host. F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
C. D
Which mode is compatible with Trunk, Access, and desirable ports?
C. Dynamic Auto
Which feature facilitates the tagging of a specific VLAN?
C. Encapsulation
Which address block identifies all link-local addresses?
C. FE80::/10
If two OSPF neighbors have formed complete adjacency and are exchanging link-state advertisements, which state have they reached?
C. FULL
Which header field is new on IPv6?
C. Flow Label
Describe the best way to troubleshoot and isolate a network problem?
C. Gather facts
Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
C. IEEE 802 1Q
Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?
C. It blocks traffic from DHCP servers on untrusted interfaces.
Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)
C. It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber D. It supports both the SDH and SONET standards E. Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
Which two statements about the extended traceroute command are true? (Choose two.)
C. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address. E. It can use a specified TTL value.
Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?
C. It drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
Which functionality does split horizon provide?
C. It prevents routing loops in distance-vector protocols.
Which statement about SNMPv2 is true?
C. Its privacy algorithms use MD5 encryption by default.
At which layer of the OSI model dose PPP perform?
C. Layer 2
Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?
C. Layer 3 switch
Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)
C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise. D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
C. Level 15
Which two statements about syslog logging are true? (Choose two.
C. Messages are stored external to the device. E. Syslog logging is disabled by default.
Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?
C. NTP Master
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
C. PPP
What is one benefit of PVST+?
C. PVST+allow the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
Which two correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two.)
C. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment. E. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
Which command can you enter to re-enable Cisco Discovery Protocol on a local router after it has been disabled?
C. Router(config)#cdp run
Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?
C. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
C. The sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration. D. When dynamic MAC address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses, up to the maximum defined.
Which type of attack can be mitigated by configuring the default native VLAN to be unused?
C. VLAN hopping
Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two.)
C. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates as soon as a collision occurs. E. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3.
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
Which feature can you use to restrict SNMP queries to a specific OID tree?
C. a view record
What is known as "one-to-nearest" addressing in IPv6?
C. anycast
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
C. anycast
Which type of IP address of ipv6 that also exist in IPv4 but barely used?
C. anycast
Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
C. bootstrap
Which VTP mode prevents you from making changes to VLANs?
C. client
Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex mismatch?
C. collisions on the interface
Which two steps must you perform on each device that is configured for IPv4 routing before you implement OSPFv3? (Choose two)
C. configure a router ID
How is EIGRP for ipv6 configuration done? (Choose two.)
C. configured directly on interface E. have shutdown feature
Which type of cable must you use to connect two devices with MDI interfaces?
C. crossover
What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?
C. determine whether additional hardware has been added
Which three options are benefits of using TACACS+ on a device? (Choose three)
C. device-administration packets are encrypted in their entirely. E. It allows the users to be authenticated against a remote server. F. It supports access-level authorization for commands.
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
C. discarding
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)
C. discarding D. forwarding
Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
C. dynamic desirable
Which password types are encrypted?
C. enable secret
Which three technical services support cloud computing? (Choose three.)
C. extended SAN services D. redundant connections F. network-monitored power sources
In which CLI configuration mode can you configure the hostname of a device?
C. global mode
Which function allows EIGRP peers to receive notice of implementing topology changes?
C. goodbye messages
Which function does the IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting?
C. hop-by-hop response time
Which symptom most commonly indicates that two connecting interfaces are configured with a duplex mismatch?
C. late collisions on the interface
Which NTP type designates a router without an external reference clock as an authoritative time source?
C. master
Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?
C. neighbor discovery verification
Which three commands are required to enable NTP authentication on a Cisco router? (Choose three)
C. ntp authenticate D. ntp trusted-key E. ntp authentication-key
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
C. ping
What is the two benefits of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)
C. prevent DHCP rogue server D. track users hosts on the network.
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process?
C. priority
Which port security mode can assist with troubleshooting by keeping count of violations?
C. restrict
Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
C. router ID
Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?
C. show ip dhcp binding
How to see dhcp conflict?
C. show ip dhcp conflict
Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?
C. static
If all switches are configured with default values, which switch will take over when the primary root bridge experiences a power loss?
C. switch 0004.9A1A C182
If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
C. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?
C. the ToS byte
Which functionality does an SVI provide?
C. traffic routing for VLANs
When is a routing table entry identified as directly connected?
C. when an interface on the router is configure with an ip address and enabled
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)
C. when they detect no other devices are sending D. when the medium is idle
How many usable host are there per subnet if you have the address of 192.168.10.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?
D. 14
Which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
D. 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
What feature uses a random time to re-send a frame?
D. CSMA/CD
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
D. Change the administrative mode to access
When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?
D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table
Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?
D. Cisco Express Forwarding
How to enable vlans automatically across multiple switches?
D. Configure VTP
Which of the port is not part of STP protocol?
D. Discarding
Which IPsec security protocol should be used when confidentiality is required?
D. ESP
Which statement about spanning-tree root-bridge election is true?
D. Each VLAN must have its own root bridge.
A BPDU guard is configured on an interface that has PortFast Enable. Which state does the interface enter when it receives a BPDU?
D. Errdisable
Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the Internet?
D. Globa
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
D. ISPs
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
D. It is a proprietary protocol
Which statement about the IP SLAs ICMP Echo operation is true?
D. It is used to determine the frequency of ICMP packets.
Which option is a benefit of switch stacking?
D. It provides higher port density with better resource usage.
Which statement about recovering a password on a Cisco router is true?
D. It requires physical access to the router
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data. E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
D. It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.
On which layer tcp/ip is ACL Apic-EM path
D. Layer 4
Which protocol does ipv6 use to discover other ipv6 nodes on the same segment?
D. NDP
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
D. Network mask
Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
D. PVST+
In order to comply with new auditing standards, a security administrator must be able to correlate system security alert logs directly with the employee who triggers the alert. Which of the following should the security administrator implement in order to meet this requirement?
D. Periodic user account access reviews
Which command can you enter to block HTTPS traffic from the whole Class A private network range to a host?
D. R1(config)#access-list 105 deny tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 40.0.0.2 0.0.0.0 eq 443
Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
D. RFC 1918
Which feature can you implement to reserve bandwidth for VoIP calls across the call path?
D. RSVP
Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure connections and strong authentication?
D. Router>ssh -v 2 -l admin10.1.1.
Which six-byte field in a basic Ethernet frame must be an individual address?
D. SA
Which two commands correctly verify whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (choose two)
D. SW1#show running-config E. SW1#show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12
What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?
D. The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
D. The root port
Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.)
D. They are identical to IPv4 private addresses. E. They use the prefix FC00::/7.
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?
D. Under the multilink interface
Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
D. Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.
Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
D. binding database
Which RPVST+ port state is excluded from all STP operations?
D. disabled
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
D. errdisabled
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
D. ipv6 unicast-routing
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two)
D. it modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. E. it is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
Under normal operations, Cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which VLAN?
D. on any VLAN except the default VLAN
Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple inside address to be translated to a single outside address?
D. overload
Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and replies?
D. ping
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
D. ping ipv6
Which three technical services support cloud computing? (Choose three.)
D. redundant connections E. VPN connectivity F. extended SAN services
Which action can change the order of entries in a named access-list?
D. resequencing
Which function of the IP SLAs ICMP jitter operation can you use to determine whether a VoIP issue is caused by excessive end-to-end time?
D. round-trip time latency
Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?
D. router ospf process-id
Which logging command can enable administrators to correlate syslog messages with millisecond precision?
D. service timestamps log datetime mscec
Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?
D. show interface switchport
In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?
D. the DSCP byte
Which statement about upgrading a cisco IOS device with TFTP server?
D. the cisco IOS device must be on the same LAN as the TFTP server
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
D. transport input all
Which feature is configured by setting a variance that is at least two times the metric?
D. unequal cost load balancing
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model's INTERNET layer?
E. Network
hich condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are two possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
E. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas. F. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
While troubleshooting a DCHP client that is behaving erratically, you discover that the client has been assigned the same IP address as a printer that is a static IP address. Which option is the best way to resolve the problem?
E. Reserve the printer IP address.
What are the two minimum required components of a DHCP binding? (Choose two.)
E. a hardware address
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
E. application
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
E. path cost
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
E. the EIGRP route
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? A. the RIPv2 route
E. the EIGRP route
D. RIPv2 not enabled on R3.
Examine R2 configuration, the traffic that is destined to R3 LAN network sourced from Router R2 is forwarded to R1 instead R3. What could be an issue?
B. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
Examine the DCHP configuration between R2 and R3, R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as the client. What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?
A. one
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured on the switches?
A. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect.
R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router. R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1. But you observe that R2 clock is not synchronized with R1. What is the reason R2 is not receiving NTP updates from R1?
B. 90
Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1?
C. native vlan mismatches
Refer to the exhibit A frame on vlan 1on switch s1 is sent to switch s2 when the frame is received on vlan2, what causes this behavior?
B. Port security needs to be enabled on the interface. D. Port security needs to be configured to allow only one learned MAC address.
Refer to the exhibit. A junior network administrator was given the task of configuring port security on SwitchA to allow only PC_A to access the switched network through port fa0/1. If any other device is detected, the port is to drop frames from this device. The administrator configured the interface and tested it with successful pings from PC_A to RouterA, and then observes the output from these two show commands. Which two of these changes are necessary for SwitchA to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1 SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwithchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
B. Enable RIPv2
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to R1, you determine that it is failing to advertise the 172.16.10.32/27 network. Which action most likely to correct the problem.
B. Configure the default gateway.
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to a router, the DHCP clients behind the device cannot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
Refer to the exhibit. All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's fa0/2 port.
Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next action be?
B. 10.0.0.2 (Serial0.1), from 10.0.0.2, Send flag is 0x0 Composite metric is (53973248/128256), Route is Internal Vector Metric: Minimum bandwidth is 48 Kbit Total delay is 25000 Microseconds Reliability is 255/255 Load is 1/255 Minimum MTU is 1500 Hop count is 1
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output from the show ip eigrp topology command, which router is the feasible successor?
A. 192.168.14.4
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
A. FastEthernet0/1
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.10.45, the traffic is sent through which interface?
B. 192.168.2.0 C. 10.0.0.0 E. 172.16.0.0
Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network?
D. IP address of computer A
Refer to the exhibit. If computer A is sending traffic to computer B, which option is the source IP address when a packet leaves R1 on interface F0/1?
D. EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
B. switch-1 will flood the data out all of its port from which the data originated
Refer to the exhibit. Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do with this data?
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
Refer to the exhibit. The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1. D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.
Refer to the exhibit. The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch. 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)
B. Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254. D. Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2.
Refer to the exhibit. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding. C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree. E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? (Choose three.)
D. 52778
Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric for the route from R1 to 192.168.10.1?
B. 10.0.0.0 /22
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?
interface FastEthernet 0/3 channel-group 2 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
Refer to the exhibit. What set of commands was configured on interface Fa0/3 to produce the given the output?
B. The value of the dead timers on the router are different.
Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, what would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?
D. router#show interface gig 0/1
Refer to the exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
A. network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the Loopback0 interface to the BGP peers?
D. network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Refer to the exhibit. Which command do you enter so that R1 advertises the Loopback0 interface to the BGP peers?
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
C. Switch3
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet. D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other. E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5 B. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true of the interfaces on switch1? (choose two)
A. Telnet
Refer to the exhibit. Which user-mode password has just been set?
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
D. The computer A default gateway address is incorrect.
Refer to the exhibit. You have determined that computer A cannot ping computer B. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. The 192.168.12 0/24 network is missing from OSPF.
Refer to the exhibit. You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
C. The network command is missing.
Router R6 does not form an EIGRP neighbor relationship correctly with router R1. What is the cause for this misconfiguration?
A. The VLAN encapsulation is misconfigured on the router subinterfaces.
Server1 and Server2 are unable to communicate with the rest of the network. Your initial check with system administrators shows that IP address settings are correctly configured on the server side. What could be an issue?
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on AlSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-complaint trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown. What is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
Switch1(configif)#default-gateway 192.168.24.1
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
A. Ensure the switch has power. B. Reseat all cables. F. Ensure that cables A and В are straight-through cables.
The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which three would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
D. incompatible encapsulation
Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the correct configuration.
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 255.
Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach Internet sites. You observe that Internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1. What could be an issue?
A. 10.0.0.0 D. 172.15.0.0 E. 192.168.4.0
What are the address that will show at the show ip route if we configure the above statements? (Choose three.)
C. A shut command was executed on interface Fa0/1, causing the EIGRP adjacency to go down.
What is the cause of the Syslog output messages?
B. Traffic that is destined to 10.10.10.0/24 from the R1 LAN network uses RIPv2 instead of static route, because the static route AD that is configured is higher than the AD of RIPv2.
What is the correct statement below after examining the R1 routing table?
A. No host could connect to Router through s0/0/1
What would be the effect of issuing the command access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?
B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network
What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates
Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They can enhance network security. E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network. F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A. The traffic goes through R2.
Which path does traffic take from R1 to R5?
D. The Branch3 LAN network 192.168.11 0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
Which statement about the router configurations is correct?
A. Switch B - Fа0/0 B. Switch A - Fa0/1 C. Switch В - Fa0/l
Which three ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three.)
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1 network.
Why applications that are installed on PCs in R2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to communicate with server1?
. R4 has been incorrectly configured to be in another AS, so it does not peer with R5.
Why are the interfaces missing?
C. The network statement is missing on R1.
Why are the pings failing?
A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router
Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?
A. A PPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1
Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1? Use only show commands to troubleshoot because usage of the debug command is restricted on the Branch3 and R1 routers.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router
Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router
You work as a network engineer for SASCOM Network Ltd company. On router HQ, a provider link has been enabled and you must configure an IPv6 default route on HQ and make sure that this route is advertised in IPv6 OSPF process. Also, you must troubleshoot another issue. The router HQ is not forming an IPv6 OSPF neighbor relationship with router BR. Topology Details Two routers HQ and BR are connected via serial links. Router HQ has interface Ethernet0/1 connected to the provider cloud and interface Ethernet0/0 connected to RA1. Router BR has interface Ethernet0/0 connected to another router RA2. IPv6 Routing Details All routers are running IPv6 OSPF routing with process ID number 100. Refer to the topology diagram for information about the OSPF areas. The Loopback 0 IPv4 access is the OSPF router ID on each router. Configuration requirements ✑ Configure IPv6 default route on router HQ with default gateway as 2001:DB8:B:B1B2::1 ✑ Verify by pinging provider test IPv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1111::1 after configuring default route on HQ. ✑ Make sure that the default route is advertised in IPv6 OSPF on router HQ. This default route should be advertised only when HQ has a default route in its routing table. ✑ Router HQ is not forming IPv6 OSPF neighbor with BR. You must troubleshoot and resolve this issue. To gain the maximum numbers of points, you must complete the necessary configurations and fix IPv6 OSPF neighbor issue with router BR. IPv6 Special Note: OSPFv3 must be configured without using address families. Do not change the IPv6 OSPF process ID. Refer to the topology below and answer the following question.
Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?
cut-through switching
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?
late collisions
