CCNA 3 v7.0 Final Exam Q&As – Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation

105. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement? 0.0.7.255 0.0.1.255 0.0.3.255 0.0.15.255

0.0.1.255

47. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 172.20.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement? 0.0.15.255 0.0.3.255 0.0.7.255 0.0.1.255

0.0.3.255

98. An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement? 0.0.0.127 0.0.0.31 0.0.3.255 0.0.0.63

0.0.3.255

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address? 192.168.0.100 10.1.1.2 any address in the 10.1.1.0 network 209.165.20.25

209.165.20.25

49. Refer to the exhibit. What is the OSPF cost to reach the West LAN 172.16.2.0/24 from East?​ 782 74 128 65

65

83. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it? 12 4 8 16 6

8

5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.) All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN connection. A small branch office with three employees has a Cisco ASA that is used to create a VPN connection to the HQ. A toy manufacturer has a permanent VPN connection to one of its parts suppliers. A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel. An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network.

A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel. An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network.

11. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.) A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload. A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date. A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords. A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks. A virus typically requires end-user activation.

A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date. A virus typically requires end-user activation.

7. What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network? All routers share a common forwarding database. All routers have the same neighbor table. All routers are in the backbone area. All routers have the same routing table.

All routers are in the backbone area.

97. What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type of interfaces? CDP SNMP NTP LLDP

CDP

25. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames? IP precedence DSCP ToS CoS

CoS

44. An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could achieve this? TCP SYN flood DNS tunneling DHCP spoofing ARP cache poisoning

DHCP spoofing

12. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection? ISDN DSL cable dialup

DSL

42. What are two syntax rules for writing a JSON array? (Choose two.) Each value in the array is separated by a comma. The array can include only one value type. A space must separate each value in the array. A semicolon separates the key and list of values. Values are enclosed in square brackets.

Each value in the array is separated by a comma. Values are enclosed in square brackets.

13. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need? packet-switched network Ethernet WAN circuit-switched network MPLS

Ethernet WAN

79. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended? Frame Relay Ethernet WAN VSAT ISDN

Ethernet WAN

102. Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast traffic over a secure site-to-site VPN? dynamic multipoint VPN SSL VPN IPsec virtual tunnel interface GRE over IPsec

GRE over IPsec

61. Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN? MD5 AES IPsec ESP

IPsec

67. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPsec? IPsec works at the application layer and protects all application data. IPsec is a framework of standards developed by Cisco that relies on OSI algorithms. IPsec is a framework of proprietary standards that depend on Cisco specific algorithms. IPsec works at the transport layer and protects data at the network layer. IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.

IPsec is a framework of open standards that relies on existing algorithms.

69. Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms? (Choose two.) Public and private keys may be used interchangeably. If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data. If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data. If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data. If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

If a private key is used to encrypt the data, a public key must be used to decrypt the data. If a public key is used to encrypt the data, a private key must be used to decrypt the data.

18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server? The IP NAT statement is incorrect. Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. The configuration is missing a valid access control list.

Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.

33. What functionality does mGRE provide to the DMVPN technology? It allows the creation of dynamically allocated tunnels through a permanent tunnel source at the hub and dynamically allocated tunnel destinations at the spokes. It provides secure transport of private information over public networks, such as the Internet. It is a Cisco software solution for building multiple VPNs in an easy, dynamic, and scalable manner. It creates a distributed mapping database of public IP addresses for all VPN tunnel spokes.

It allows the creation of dynamically allocated tunnels through a permanent tunnel source at the hub and dynamically allocated tunnel destinations at the spokes.

36. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline? It provides a statistical average for network performance. It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations. It manages the performance of network devices. It checks the security configuration of network devices.

It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.

78. What is the main function of a hypervisor? It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine. It is a device that filters and checks security credentials. It is a device that synchronizes a group of sensors. It is software used to coordinate and prepare data for analysis. It is used by ISPs to monitor cloud computing resources.

It is used to create and manage multiple VM instances on a host machine.

6. What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.) It utilizes end-user clients to do a substantial amount of data preprocessing and storage. It uses open-source software for distributed processing of large datasets. It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services. It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time. It turns raw data into meaningful information by discovering patterns and relationships. It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management.

It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services. It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time. It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management.

76. Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications? XML YAML HTML JSON

JSON

22. Which two IPsec protocols are used to provide data integrity? MD5 DH AES SHA RSA

MD5 SHA

19. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet? UPnP MAC filtering NAT QoS

NAT

39. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration? NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1. Interface Fa0/0 should be identified as an outside NAT interface. The NAT pool is incorrect. Access-list 1 is misconfigured.

NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.

101. What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a publicly available server on the internet? MPLS CBWFQ TFTP NTP

NTP

96. In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network? Determine ownership. Determine the symptoms. Narrow the scope. Document the symptoms. Gather information.

Narrow the scope.

62. Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches? They are best used as distribution layer switches. New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through. They are modular switches. They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.

New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.

84. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below. Router(config)# ip access-list extended 101 Router(config-ext-nacl)# no 20 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 5 permit tcp any any eq 22 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 20 deny udp any any Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration?​ (Choose two.) TFTP packets will be permitted.​ Ping packets will be permitted. Telnet packets will be permitted. SSH packets will be permitted. All TCP and UDP packets will be denied.​

Ping packets will be permitted. SSH packets will be permitted.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.) Both routers are configured to use NTPv2. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client The IP address of R2 is 192 168.1.2. Router R2 is the master, and R1 is the client The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2

Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client The IP address of R1 is 192.168.1.2

93. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR? Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR. Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR. Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

65. Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem? The NAT pool has been exhausted. The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool. Access-list 1 has not been configured properly. The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.

The NAT pool has been exhausted.

23. If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, how would the host gain access to the client image? The Cisco AnyConnect client is installed by default on most major operating systems. The host initiates a clientless VPN connection using a compliant web browser to download the client. The host initiates a clientless connection to a TFTP server to download the client. The host initiates a clientless connection to an FTP server to download the client.

The host initiates a clientless VPN connection using a compliant web browser to download the client.

87. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem? The inside and outside NAT interlaces have been configured backwards The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1. The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP

2. What is a characteristic of the two-tier spine-leaf topology of the Cisco ACI fabric architecture?​ The spine and leaf switches are always linked through core switches. The spine switches attach to the leaf switches and attach to each other for redundancy. The leaf switches always attach to the spines and they are interlinked through a trunk line. The leaf switches always attach to the spines, but they never attach to each other.

The leaf switches always attach to the spines, but they never attach to each other.

66. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.) They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests. They reduce the load on network and agent resources. They limit access for management systems only. They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices. They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.

They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests. They reduce the load on network and agent resources.

38. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs? They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only. They can be created with a number but not with a name. They are configured in the interface configuration mode. They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.

70. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has deployed QoS and has configured the network to mark traffic on the VoIP phones as well as the Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches. Where should initial marking occur to establish the trust boundary? Trust Boundary 4 Trust Boundary 3 Trust Boundary 1 Trust Boundary 2

Trust Boundary 1

15. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1# Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match) Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10. x . Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router. Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port. Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port.

Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.

90. In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted? ExStart Init Two-Way Exchange

Two-Way

40. Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers? Use a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it. Use the redistribute static command on R0-A. Use the default-information originate command on ISP. Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.

Use the default-information originate command on R0-A.

89. Which statement describes a VPN? VPNs use logical connections to create public networks through the Internet. VPNs use open source virtualization software to create the tunnel through the Internet. VPNs use dedicated physical connections to transfer data between remote users. VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network.

VPNs use virtual connections to create a private network through a public network.

17. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.) Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes. Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms. Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is. Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth. Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.

Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms. Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.

88. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications? Data communications must be given the first priority. Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency. Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS. Data communications are sensitive to jitter.

Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.

85. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator? a less-structured approach based on an educated guess an approach comparing working and nonworking components to spot significant differences a structured approach starting with the physical layer and moving up through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem is identified an approach that starts with the end-user applications and moves down through the layers of the OSI model until the cause of the problem has been identified

a less-structured approach based on an educated guess

57. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor? a dedicated VLAN a management console a host operating system

a management console

55. What are two types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers? (Choose two.) amplification and reflection resource utilization fast flux ARP poisoning cushioning

amplification and reflection resource utilization

58. In JSON, what is held within square brackets [ ]? nested values key/value pairs an object an array

an array

54. A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth . What is the effect of this setting? authenticates a packet by a string match of the username or community string authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC MD5 or 3.HMAC SHA algorithms and encrypts the packet with either the DES, 3DES or AES algorithms authenticates a packet by using the SHA algorithm only

authenticates a packet by using either the HMAC with MD5 method or the SHA method

73. A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is used to control these computers? botnet spyware virus rootkit

botnet

77. What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked? classifying shaping queuing policing

classifying

16. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear dynamic entries before the timeout has expired? clear ip dhcp clear ip nat translation clear access-list counters clear ip pat statistics

clear ip nat translation

68. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.) connect users to the network provide a high-speed network backbone connect remote networks provide Power over Ethernet to devices provide data traffic security

connect remote networks provide data traffic security

3. What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals? borderless converged managed switched

converged

9. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement? data center virtualization dedicated servers software defined networking

data center

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router? defines which addresses are allowed into the router defines which addresses can be translated defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool defines which addresses are allowed out of the router

defines which addresses can be translated

95. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.) packet addressing delay jitter packet routing link speed

delay jitter

56. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.15 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.101.45, a destination address of 64.100.40.4, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied? denied permitted

denied

56b. Case 2: access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.0.15 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.100.219, a destination address of 64.100.40.10, and a protocol of 54 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied? denied permitted

denied

74. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of 192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied? permitted denied

denied

81. An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of 10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied? denied permitted

denied

60. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician? top-down bottom-up divide-and-conquer substitution

divide-and-conquer

29. Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?​ does not require management console software has direct access to server hardware resources best suited for enterprise environments installs directly on hardware

does not require management console software

86. Refer to the exhibit. Many employees are wasting company time accessing social media on their work computers. The company wants to stop this access. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation? extended ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet standard ACL outbound on R2 WAN interface towards the internet standard ACL outbound on R2 S0/0/0 extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1

extended ACLs inbound on R1 G0/0 and G0/1

75. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS? flash memory NVRAM? RAM ROM a TFTP server?

flash memory

59. What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful API request? (Choose three.) resources protocol API server format key parameters

format key parameters

92. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence? loading established full two-way

full

10. Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency? link-state update hello database description link-state request

hello

4. What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.) hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses reduces CPU usage on customer routers creates multiple public IP addresses improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet conserves registered public IP addresses

hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses conserves registered public IP addresses

99. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources? inbound on router A Fa0/0 outbound on router B Fa0/0 outbound on router A Fa0/1 inbound on router B Fa0/1

inbound on router A Fa0/0

64. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.) device type cable specification interface identifier OS/IOS version connection type cable type and identifier

interface identifier connection type

24. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.) leased line cable digital subscriber line Ethernet WAN municipal Wi-Fi

leased line Ethernet WAN

100. Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change information? link-state acknowledgment link-state update hello database description

link-state update

53. Which two scenarios would result in a duplex mismatch? (Choose two.) connecting a device with autonegotiation to another that is manually set to full-duplex starting and stopping a router interface during a normal operation connecting a device with an interface running at 100 Mbps to another with an interface running at 1000 Mbps configuring dynamic routing incorrectly manually setting the two connected devices to different duplex modes

manually setting the two connected devices to different duplex modes

45. A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a predetermined code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect of secure communications is addressed? data integrity non-repudiation origin authentication data confidentiality

origin authentication

28. Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied? inbound on the R2 G0/0 interface outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface inbound on the R1 G0/1 interface outbound on the R2 S0/0/1 interface

outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface

71. What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.) reduced costs decreased number of critical points of failure increased flexibility increased bandwidth availability increased network management options

reduced costs increased flexibility

103. An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16, 10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors? router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

router(config-router)# network 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

35. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display information about NAT configuration parameters and the number of addresses in the pool? show running-config show ip nat statistics show ip cache show version

show ip nat statistics

30. What are the two types of VPN connections? (Choose two.) PPPoE Frame Relay site-to-site remote access leased line

site-to-site remote access

91. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks? Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN Frame Relay remote access VPN using IPsec Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL site-to-site VPN

site-to-site VPN

106. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center? improvement of business practices supply of consistent air flow support of live migration guarantee of power

support of live migration

94. Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of messages from monitored network devices? DNS print DHCP syslog authentication

syslog

34. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets? the FIB the routing table the ARP table the DSP

the ARP table

63. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming? the hypervisor​ the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller the Nexus 9000 switch the Application Network Profile endpoints

the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

2. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.) the system image file the NVRAM file system the configuration register value the startup configuration file system ROM

the configuration register value the startup configuration file

1. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network? the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume the installation of redundant power supplies the use of a collapsed core design the use of the building switch block approach

the use of the building switch block approach

6. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use packet sniffers? to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network to probe and test the robustness of a firewall by using specially created forged packets to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs

to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs

50. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use? to activate the OSPF neighboring process to influence the DR/BDR election process to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process to streamline and speed up the convergence process

to influence the DR/BDR election process

41. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use applications such as John the Ripper,THC Hydra, RainbowCrack, and Medusa? to capture and analyze packets within traditional Ethernet LANs or WLANs to probe and test the robustness of a firewall by using specially created forged packets to make repeated guesses in order to crack a password

to make repeated guesses in order to crack a password

14. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers? to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network

to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware

72. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.) to scan for accessibility to retrieve and modify data to gather information about the network and devices to prevent other users from accessing the system to escalate access privileges

to scan for accessibility to gather information about the network and devices

80. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used? traffic shaping weighted random early detection classification and marking traffic policing

traffic policing

20. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation? online collaboration BYOD virtualization maintaining communication integrity

virtualization