CCNA questions

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. TCP D. FTP

B. SNMP

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. learning B. forwarding C. blocking D. listening

B. forwarding

6. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast

B. unique local

96. Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable? A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter B. Both have a 9 micron core diameter C. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter D. Both have a 100 micron core diameter

A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter

83. Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address? A. 0000.5E00.010a B. 0005.3711.0975 C. 0000.0C07.AC99 D. 0007.C070/AB01

A. 0000.5E00.010a

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions? A. 1,6,11 B. 1,5,10 C. 1,2,3 D. 5,6,7

A. 1,6,11

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection? A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2.048 Mbps C. 34.368 Mbps D. 43.7 Mbps

A. 1.544 Mbps

https://gyazo.com/24fe61ff7afaf76d0a57957ac8b42765?token=7e11e61ed9e636ef2369614209da953e Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet? A. 192.168.14.4 B. 192.168.12.2 C. 192.168.13.3 D. 192.168.15.5

A. 192.168.14.4

https://gyazo.com/5a9cf3b0233301b50594968bd7c79fcc Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three) A. 192.168.2.0 B. 10.4.3.0 C. 10.0.0.0 D. 172.16.0.0 E. 172.16.4.0 F. 192.168.0.0

A. 192.168.2.0 C. 10.0.0.0 D. 172.16.0.0

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation? A. 802.1x B. IP Source Guard C. MAC Authentication Bypass D. 802.11n

A. 802.1x

Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. : :1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10

A. : :1

Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data

A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.

57. Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? A. CPU ACL B. TACACS C. Flex ACL D. RADIUS

A. CPU ACL

https://gyazo.com/d138e04f60c649cf84d9b9e5da5063b6 Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC? A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two) A. ASCII B. base64 C. binary D. decimal E. hexadecimal

A. ASCII E. hexadecimal

https://gyazo.com/d6112e4f9ab27b3b1d022cc700b37d81 Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic? A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4. C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0. D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken? A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number B. Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable C. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number D. Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.) A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name B. All switches must be configured to perform trunk negotiation. C. All switches must be configured with a unique VTP domain name D. The VTP server must have the highest revision number in the domain E. All switches must use the same VTP version.

A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name E. All switches must use the same VTP version.

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes? A. Ansible B. Python C. Puppet D. Chef

A. Ansible

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment? A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

133. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(Config)#lldp run B. Device(Config)#cdp run C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

A. Device(Config)#lldp run

https://gyazo.com/657e6111897f7789ddb76eb2023540a7 Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? A. It is a broadcast IP address. B. The router does not support/28 mask. C. It belongs to a private IP address range. D. It is a network IP address.

A. It is a broadcast IP address.

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops B. It provides variable latency C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) A. Enable NTP authentication. B. Verify the time zone. C. Disable NTP broadcasts. D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server. E. Set the NTP server private key.

A. Enable NTP authentication. D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access? A. HTTPS B. RADIUS C. TACACS+ D. HTTP

A. HTTPS

28. A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. B. It drops the traffic. C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the native VLA

A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis. C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels. D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two) A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. E. It supports protocol discovery.

A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.

157. Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have? A. It enables AAA services on the device B. It configures the device to connect to a RADIUS server for AAA C. It associates a RADIUS server to an group. D. It configures a local user on the device.

A. It enables AAA services on the device

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.

https://gyazo.com/0d306b6581742a6cd4ef06cce783092f If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond? A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed. B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route. C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes . D. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1.

A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.

Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol. B. It runs on the network layer. C. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches. D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.

A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.) A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. B. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. C. It maintains neighbor relationships. D. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. F. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.

A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. C. It maintains neighbor relationships.

https://gyazo.com/d3f35f37bd6dcc8c316d46371de9614b Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16? A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. C. It load-balances traffic between all three routes D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.) A. It supports VLSM. B. It is used to route between autonomous systems. C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. D. It increases routing overhead on the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates. F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.

A. It supports VLSM. C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs. B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment. D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

hat are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two) A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections E. The data can pass through the cladding

A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode? A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC B. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC C. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use? A. NAT pool B. dynamic NAT C. static NAT D. one-way NAT

A. NAT pool

Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.) A. NTP uses UDP over IP. B. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients. C. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers. D. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients. E. NTP uses TCP over IP.

A. NTP uses UDP over IP. B. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients.

https://gyazo.com/195c8430a9bdf21310d90d91a53ceae7?token=5f43eb0f1e9e8737be038ed1543a1eed Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers? A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224 B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224 D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224 E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31 F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network? A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller C. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller. D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two) A. OSPF area B. OSPF MD5 authentication key C. iPv6 address D. OSPf process ID E. OSPf stub flag

A. OSPF area D. OSPf process ID

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API? A. OpenFlow B. Java C. REST D. XML

A. OpenFlow

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two ) A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. Thrift D. CORBA E. DSC

A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF

https://gyazo.com/4ad1b4d2a73f6905073072d8058e2013 Refer to the exhibit. An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

A. Option A

https://gyazo.com/9b172eec8794fb787f0a598cfbbde7cd https://gyazo.com/558f1f86cce1f4c53c2c94c05ae1dc46 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

A. Option A

https://gyazo.com/d203dc2856b6075d2810586f8fe26fd8 Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two ) A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D E. Option E

A. Option A C. Option C

When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected? A. Passive B. Desirable C. On D. Auto E. Active

A. Passive

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two) A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. B. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network. C. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices. D. Ensure timely data transfer between layers. E. Inspect packets for malicious activity.

A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. E. Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID? A. Reassociation Request B. Probe Request C. Authentication Request D. Association Request

A. Reassociation Request

You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way? A. Reload the OSPF process. B. Specify a loopback address C. Reboot the router. D. Save the router configuration

A. Reload the OSPF process.

https://gyazo.com/6de31e99b0eb2cdbbb97eb4156001df6 Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR? A. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR. B. Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR. C. Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR. D. Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.

A. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms. B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS.

A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.

132. Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.) A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. B. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network. C. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.

A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only. B. TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only. C. TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only. D. TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function? A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port B. Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table. C. The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses D. It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two) A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent? A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap. B. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

https://gyazo.com/621feff5b52a69725560280f7e9e1783 A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved. B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved. C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool. D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool. E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the applic secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen? A. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor B. the application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted C. The application requires an aadministrator password to reactivate after a configured interval D. The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor

A. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor

https://gyazo.com/b41c68e63b2c6e52f996f9bcdcf2d7c8?token=90c662dc454c946116d7af7a2075f233 Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ? A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched B. The IPv6 network addresses on R1 and R2 are mismatched C. The autonomous system numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched D. The router ids on R1 and R2 are mismatched

A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table.

A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.

https://gyazo.com/dfd03de1f1be64e0b76d01dfd702b2cf Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface? A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5. B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11 C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1 D. The frame is dropped

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

https://gyazo.com/7f5a3ab4bacd117d8942f25daeb7090c Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity? A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address. B. The inside global address is incorrect. C. The NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect. D. Interface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside

A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address.

https://gyazo.com/a1b5d8255b4e225de05dd6034d80f220 Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.) A. The security violation counter dose not increment B. The port LED turns off C. The interface is error-disabled D. A syslog message is generated E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address

A. The security violation counter dose not increment E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address

. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

Which statement about VLAN configuration is true? A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064 D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only

A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN

13. Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. D. A console password must be configured on the switch. E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.

A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

https://gyazo.com/51cc658d69beb8a114d7c264d771418e What is the effect of this configuration? A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted. B. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch. C. Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing. D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets.

A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.

Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two) A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device C. They can be created dynamically after the network statement is configured. D. The two devices must reside in the same autonomous system E. The two devices must have matching timer settings

A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

66. Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. D. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding. E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.

A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.

https://gyazo.com/9fcb63dc062e21e4c95fffa97ee76e32 After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected? A. There is a native VLAN mismatch. B. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. C. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. D. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk.

A. There is a native VLAN mismatch.

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization? A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization. B. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts. C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization. D. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

https://gyazo.com/ba98a16b64a12d17c5ad44ac979025bb Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment? A. VLAN 1 B. VLAN 5 C. VLAN 10 D. VLAN 20

A. VLAN 1

. Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment? A. WPA2 + AES B. WPA + AES C. WEP D. WPA + TKIP

A. WPA2 + AES

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching? A. WSA B. Firepower C. ASA D. FireSIGHT

A. WSA

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server? A. a DHCP Relay Agent B. DHCP Binding C. a DHCP Pool D. DHCP Snooping

A. a DHCP Relay Agent

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server? A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool B. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names C. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain D. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routers C. one or more backup virtual routers D. exactly one standby active router E. exactly one backup virtual router

A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routers

https://gyazo.com/8c359393dbb515abe104a634921d3706 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task? A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet D. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

101. Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.) A. anycast B. broadcast C. multicast D. podcast E. allcast

A. anycast C. multicast

Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true? A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface

A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two) A. asychronous routing B. single-homed branches C. dual-homed branches D. static routing E. dynamic routing

A. asychronous routing C. dual-homed branches

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture? A. broadband cable access B. frame-relay packet switching C. dedicated point-to-point leased line D. Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

A. broadband cable access

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network? A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network B. support standalone or controller-based architectures C. serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network D. provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

Which network action occurs within the data plane? A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table. B. run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP) C. make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC D. reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.) A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides B. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process C. configure the same router ID on both routing processes D. Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides. E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID

A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? A. connect wireless devices to a wired network B. support secure user logins to devices or the network C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

A. connect wireless devices to a wired network

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed? A. default-router B. default-gateway C. ip helper-address D. dns-server

A. default-router

After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two) A. deploy load balancers B. configure additional vlans C. configure multiple VRRP groups D. deploy POE switches E. configure additional security policies

A. deploy load balancers E. configure additional security policies

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency? A. different nonoverlapping channels B. different overlapping channels C. one overlapping channel D. one nonoverlapping channel

A. different nonoverlapping channels

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server? A. disk B. applications C. VM configuration file D. operating system

A. disk

What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command? A. displaying OSPF-related interface information B. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes C. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis

A. displaying OSPF-related interface information

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture? A. enforcing routing policies B. marking interesting traffic for data polices C. attaching users to the edge of the network D. applying security policies

A. enforcing routing policies

68. Which 802.11 frame type is association response? A. management B. protected frame C. control D. action

A. management

In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.) A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B

A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic? A. firewall B. switch C. access point D. wireless controller

A. firewall

Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled? A. forwarding B. listening C. blocking D. learning

A. forwarding

Which networking function occurs on the data plane? A. forwarding remote client/server traffic B. facilitates spanning-tree elections C. processing inbound SSH management traffic D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

A. forwarding remote client/server traffic

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization? A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11 C. include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing D. assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

A. group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

https://gyazo.com/76fdfe640cf3a5a4812d8a3337610ee3 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources? A. inbound on router A Fa0/0 B. outbound on router B Fa0/0 C. outbound on router A Fa0/1 D. inbound on router B Fa0/1

A. inbound on router A Fa0/0

https://gyazo.com/489060349ff3f0f0b96bdbaa29a6a1b5 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.) A. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active B. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode desirable C. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive D. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode auto E. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode on

A. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active C. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp client

A. ip address dhcp

.Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay? A. ip helper-address B. ip address dhcp C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp relay

A. ip helper-address

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B C. ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

https://gyazo.com/8b6d52679a1fb1e679de7145c5f7b768 Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two) A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3 C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0 D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route? A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5 B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop

A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5

https://gyazo.com/1c64fb3a406d7f3cf51c72ce007f751f An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012:1 5 C. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2 D. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023:2 5 E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5

Which function does an SNMP agent perform? A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS B. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server C. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. D. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table? A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric B. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router C. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric D. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

https://gyazo.com/3d2f28b8a4a6d796ef9620484e4532a4 Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity B. the interface is error-diabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address C. it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses D. it has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses E. the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address

A. learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity C. it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses

Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR? A. lldp run B. lldp enable C. lldp transmit D. cdp run E. cdp enable

A. lldp run

https://gyazo.com/206af8be2bb09a727995618e7b78b81f Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1? A. longest prefix B. metric C. cost D. administrative distance

A. longest prefix

Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail? A. no additional config is required B. standby 1 track ethernet C. standby 1 preempt D. standby 1 priority 250

A. no additional config is required

. Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable

A. on

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method? A. read B. update C. create D. delete

A. read

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security

A. reduced operational costs C. faster changes with more reliable results

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security

A. reduced operational costs C. faster changes with more reliable results

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration? A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

. How is the native VLAN secured in a network? A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain B. give it a value in the private VLAN range C. assign it as VLAN 1 D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded? A. standby 10 preempt B. standby 10 version 1 C. standby 10 priority 150 D. standby 10 version 2

A. standby 10 preempt

Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.) A. the native VLAN B. the trunking protocol C. the VTP domain D. the spanning-tree priority E. the spanning tree protocol

A. the native VLAN C. the VTP domain

https://gyazo.com/45b3e3a28d67fb2f552c47d8435056bc Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100 D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170

A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two) A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails D. to support load balancing via static routing E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead

A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space

Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three) A. to speed up convergence B. to reduce routing overhead C. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches . D. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth. E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network. F. to reduce the complexity of router configuration.

A. to speed up convergence B. to reduce routing overhead E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH? A. transport input telnet ssh B. transport input telnet C. no transport input telnet D. privilege level 15

A. transport input telnet ssh

Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? A. {"key":"value"} B. ["key","value"] C. {"key","value"} D. ("key":"value")

A. {"key":"value"}

https://gyazo.com/c30610a8f8ff14aa928198d46fcebd47 Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.) A.R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out B.R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255 C.R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in D.R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127 E.R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

A.R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.) A. 0 B. 1 C. 1005 D. 1006 E. 4096

B. 1 C. 1005

What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address? A. 00000000 B. 11111100 C. 11111111 D. 11111101

B. 11111100

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24

B. 172.28.0.0/16

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6to4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack

B. 6to4 tunneling

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII formar? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 18

B. 8

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115

B. 90

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two) A. The packets fail to match any permit statement B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined D. The ACL is empty E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two) A. CAR B. CBWFQ C. PQ D. PBR E. FRTS

B. CBWFQ C. PQ

https://gyazo.com/f9e644800010d41c5b242347ec5385ef Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13 What is the next step in the configuration? A. Add PDA to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation C. Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter VLAN routing D. Add PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication

B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

https://gyazo.com/2c7fab997cc9ec4b013c955efe48daa0 An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two) A. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101. D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1 E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2.

B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.

50. An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two) A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel. B. Administratively shut down the ports. C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99. D. Configure the ports as trunk ports. E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.

B. Administratively shut down the ports. C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99.

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two) A. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. C. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes D. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control? A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

51. Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Bronze B. Platinum C. Silver D. Gold

B. Platinum

You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? A. Change the maximum paths to 2 B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2 D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address

B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address? A. ARP B. DHCP C. CDP D. DNS

B. DHCP

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name? A. SNMP B. DNS lookup C. syslog D. NTP

B. DNS lookup

135. Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? A. IS-IS B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP E. RIP

B. EIGRP E. RIP

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture? A. Facilities communication between the controller and the applications B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware C. allows application developers to interact with the network D. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

https://gyazo.com/7f0899c4fc570c11fd3b7ebb1f2d4691 A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) A. FastEthernet0 /0 B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102 E. Serial0/1.103 F. Serial0/1.104

B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption? A. ISATAP B. GRE over iPsec C. iPsec over ISATAP D. GRE

B. GRE over iPsec

What describes the operation of virtual machines? A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources B. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time. C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment. D. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

B. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

https://gyazo.com/9f7977134fa3b889f748323e327010ed https://gyazo.com/6db95cb30390c65af602c4349b2ce7f7 The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4? A. Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry. B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1. C. Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame. D. Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two) A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server. D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.) A. It requires the use of ARP. B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks.

B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.

https://gyazo.com/724d5df181699baef7309eb8bdbd1871?token=2244d46bf5d50b12a568455d27860966 Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1? A. It forwards it out G0/3 only B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0. C. It drops the frame. D. It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

https://gyazo.com/4fae4b582c6e7b0241e0d32b6dcd2485 Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? A. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic. C. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2. D. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

38. What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

What is the function of a server? A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain. B. It provides shared applications to end users. C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices. D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

B. It provides shared applications to end users.

https://gyazo.com/d7701bac3c3c610be3b1ebfdd4161aa6 Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.) A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

What is a benefit of VRRP? A. It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source. B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers. C. It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other. D. It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

https://gyazo.com/f7daf31131a99aa0bc480183d92a1403 Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1? A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10. B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100. C. It drops the traffic. D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1.

B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state? A. BPDUfilter B. PortFast C. Backbonefast D. BPDUguard

B. PortFast

31. What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. E. It uses Telnet to report system issue

B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point.

35. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) A. YAML B. JSON C. EBCDIC D. SGML E. XML

B. JSON E. XML

https://gyazo.com/23fdcd3204ba6b52cb28c86d65563f5a . Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

B. Option B

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network? A. OpenFlow B. REST API C. NETCONF D. Southbound API

B. REST API

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration? A. Router loopback address B. Router IP address C. Router priority D. Router tracking number

B. Router IP address

https://gyazo.com/79b1bd67a6419b7183f697c41f77c405 Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem? A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched. B. Router2 is using the default hello timer. C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured. D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.

https://gyazo.com/70dc75beb33b72c34917742a82ce5fae Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165? A. Router2 B. Router3 C. Router4 D. Router5

B. Router3

https://gyazo.com/7560d9a752bf20ede576a52f680ff6df Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge? A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4

B. S2

10. Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. CDP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. ARP

B. SNMP

Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true? A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected. D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.

B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.

https://gyazo.com/65280c8f8d0bfb5a9471024ee1654a67 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch 3 D. Switch 4

B. Switch 2

39. What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame. B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.

B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration? A. No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run. B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID. C. The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID. D. The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

53. Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor. B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

https://gyazo.com/c3d86d1e01ef628e6460a44c375397f5 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch? A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity. B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1. C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected. D. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface? A. The interface number B. The port priority C. The VLAN priority D. The hello time

B. The port priority

45. Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256. B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route. D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link. E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.

B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.

https://gyazo.com/fa2757d027f4a416111d90eec9d1f1fd Refer to the exhibit Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B? A. The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same C. The source MAC address is changed D. The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff

B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same

https://gyazo.com/0eb86af058381e2324d6aaaf39c33a5e 46. Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status. B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link. D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two) A. There is a duplex mismatch B. There is a speed mismatch C. There is a protocol mismatch D. The interface is shut down E. The interface is error-disabled

B. There is a speed mismatch E. The interface is error-disabled

Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.) A. They determine the optimal within an autonomous system. B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems. C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol. D. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing. E. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing.

B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems. C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules? A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable C. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode D. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

354. What is the purpose of traffic shaping? A. to mitigate delays over slow links B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows C. to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to D. be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting A. False B. True

B. True

What is a DHCP client? A. a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically C. a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts. D. a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement? A. Cisco ACI B. cloud services C. APIC-EM D. data center

B. cloud services

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken? A. configure IEEE 802.1p B. configure IEEE 802.1q C. configure ISL D. configure DSCP

B. configure IEEE 802.1q

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information? A. data plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. management plane

B. control plane

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two) A. Layer 2 forwarding B. coordinating VTNs C. tracking hosts D. managing the topology E. protecting against DDoS attacks

B. coordinating VTNs D. managing the topology

Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology? A. GRE over IPsec B. dynamic multipoint VPN C. MPLS VPN D. IPsec virtual tunnel interface

B. dynamic multipoint VPN

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network B. enable SLAAC on an interface C. disable the EUI-64 bit process D. explicitly assign a link-local address

B. enable SLAAC on an interface

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network? A. connects each switch to every other switch in the network B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection C. provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users D. includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces? A. electing the designated router B. establishing neighbor adjacencies C. injecting the default route D. exchanging link-state advertisements

B. establishing neighbor adjacencies

What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame? A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01 B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08 E. 00:00:0c:ff:ff:ff

B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through? A. wireless access point B. firewall C. wireless LAN controller D. router

B. firewall

Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto D. interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk E. interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active E. interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor .What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0 C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128 D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface? A. ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B C. ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B D. ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

62. Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? A. autonomous B. lightweight C. bridge D. mobility express

B. lightweight

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process? A. local port ID B. lowest path cost to the root bridge C. lowest neighbor's bridge ID D. lowest neighbor's port ID

B. lowest path cost to the root bridge

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? A. action B. management C. control D. data

B. management

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured to support DHCP? A. on the router closest to the server B. on the router closest to the client C. on every router along the path D. on the switch trunk interface

B. on the router closest to the client

97. Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) A. one-to-many communication model B. one-to-nearest communication model C. any-to-many communication model D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

B. one-to-nearest communication model E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state? A. latency B. port security violation C. shutdown command issued on the port D. nothing plugged into the port

B. port security violation

https://gyazo.com/1d12f7772da7ef436f1579916a1869ea Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance? A. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1 B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5 C. router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 D. router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2

B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two) A. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests C. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers E. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests C. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. service password-encryption C. username Cisco password encrypt D. enable password

B. service password-encryption

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200? A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440 B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0 C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422 D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

https://gyazo.com/8033f95b57af1aff9c15cdf101e938a1?token=084be1a3c8dd6ec2ab1c31d9fe06664c Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1.0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24? A. eBGP B. static C. OSPF D. EIGRP

B. static

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented? A. switch#lldp port-description B. switch(config)#lldp port-description C. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description D. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description

B. switch(config)#lldp port-description

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dynamic desirable C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport nonegotiate

B. switchport mode dynamic desirable

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used? A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 B. switchport trunk native vlan 10 C. switchport mode trunk D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B. switchport trunk native vlan 10

Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two) A. whether the NTP peer is statically configured B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized C. the configured NTP servers D. whether the clock is synchronized E. the NTP version number of the peer

B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized D. whether the clock is synchronized

Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point? A. TACACS server B. wireless access point C. RADIUS server D. wireless LAN controller

B. wireless access point

https://gyazo.com/284a2ae3f802d26c684de11354806b74 Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24? A.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

https://gyazo.com/3fd702cda6ec1435ddfad3820146a2c4 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)A.R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 B.R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 C.R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown D.R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp E.R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

B.R2(config)# interface gi0/0 R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 C.R1(config)# interface fa0/0 R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp R1(config-if)# no shutdown

https://gyazo.com/4c7f7808486de1aa03f0cc436d3d6ed4 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic? A.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in B.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in C.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in D.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in

B.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in

https://gyazo.com/3eff3b2e1797b380e93e9a5224c0bf59?token=1b10bd10b3f55bc1d82b0dda3e53c77e Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic? A. 209.165.200.0/27 B. 10.10.10.0/28 C. 0.0.0.0/0 D. 10.10.13.0/24

C. 0.0.0.0/0

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5? A. Loopback 0 B. 10.0.1.4 C. 10.0.1.50 D. 10.0.1.3

C. 10.0.1.50

https://gyazo.com/6dc91afebc4f389594e0b8c2bf628690 What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1

C. 172.16.15.10

https://gyazo.com/06b607c3dca568c40bfa64cce3f2c775 Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router? A. 10.1.1.2 B. 10.154.154.1 C. 172.16.5.1 D. 192.168.5.3

C. 172.16.5.1

https://gyazo.com/18c013cc320fe44ad064398e4ea8df42 Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP? A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240 B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252 C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240 D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252 E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240 F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

https://gyazo.com/78b5472b00d5486bcea7d3e3239412ec Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet? A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0 B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0 C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1 D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

https://gyazo.com/6d8966e38cd858ef75d1ef43f85552d9 With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned? A. 0 B. 110 C. 38443 D. 3184439

C. 38443

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A. A network device has restarted. B. An ARP inspection has failed. C. A routing instance has flapped. D. A debug operation is running.

C. A routing instance has flapped.

. An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement? A. WEP B. RC4 C. AES D. TKIP

C. AES

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server? A. A TCP connection has been torn down B. An ICMP connection has been built C. An interface line has changed status D. A certificate has expired.

C. An interface line has changed status

27. What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password. C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.

C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

https://gyazo.com/fddb1dfab537d4479014dffa4010a722 Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1 priority 614440 Branch-2: priority 39082416 Branch-3: priority 0 Branch-4: root primary Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5? A. Branch-1 B. Branch-2 C. Branch-3 D. Branch-4

C. Branch-3

In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address? A. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor B. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor D. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor

C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks? A. Enable dynamic ARP inspection B. Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID D. Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch? A. Internet Group Management Protocol B. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol C. Cisco Discovery Protocol D. Neighbor Discovery Protocol

C. Cisco Discovery Protocol

https://gyazo.com/a23b787d294e5cb6f24dfc569ec998b2 The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet.Which action corrects the configuration issue? A. Add the default-information originate command on R2. B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1. C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1. D. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.

C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking? A. controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network. B. controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs C. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors D. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function E. controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

C. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors D. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request? A. Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10 B. Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10 C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10 D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

C. Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating p

48. An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Exchange B. 2-way C. Full D. Init

C. Full

https://gyazo.com/59368b57fd7af3616a078bd09b4bc6c1 Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue? A. Interface errors are incrementing B. An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA C. High usage is causing high latency D. The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

C. High usage is causing high latency

Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services? A. LLDP B. CDP C. IP SLA D. EEM

C. IP SLA

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data? A. IKEv2 B. IKEv1 C. IPsec D. MD5

C. IPsec

100. Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table A. IS-IS B. RIP C. Internal EIGRP D. OSPF

C. Internal EIGRP

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration. D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.

https://gyazo.com/c8ab0518dd3c18c18d08a5ee7568559d Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A? A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only. B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only. C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25. D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.

What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server. B. It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server. C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server D. It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.

C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.

C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address? A. lt drops the frame immediately. B. It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1. C. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1. D. It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

C. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

https://gyazo.com/e80ea9ab35a62e33a944f59393e90902 How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports. D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports.

C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.) A. It allows switches to read frame tags. B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically. C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface. E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.) A. It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user. B. It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access. C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. D. It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.) A. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. B. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSP C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. D. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. F. It maintains neighbor relationships

C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. F. It maintains neighbor relationships

https://gyazo.com/f0254fed2d855eb52736d718ed8542ba Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two) A. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 B. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

https://gyazo.com/7a3302c3b760c414844fd5b44ceeadad Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true? A. Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs. C. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface. D. One secure MAC address is dynamically configured on the interface.

C. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.

https://gyazo.com/050438240d49914b36c0ddedef1ba3be 26. Which output displays a JSON data representation? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

C. Option C

https://gyazo.com/a531494ca5ef49f1ea078a8defa3e486?token=7a5a65a398c9a30849c44cabced6054f A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

C. Option C

https://gyazo.com/b929d069f5afe55499e13b9332945341 https://gyazo.com/70c99dbe1e8d1e319ebdb22cb22e3945 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

C. Option C

Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server? A. Show ip DHCP database. B. Show ip DHCP pool. C. Show ip DHCP binding. D. Show ip DHCP server statistic.

C. Show ip DHCP binding.

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1 B. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 D. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

https://gyazo.com/c1b638188eadb27cbb91ed253a561b35 Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock? A. Router2(config)#ntp passive B. Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1 C. Router2(config)#ntp master 4 D. Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

C. Router2(config)#ntp master 4

https://gyazo.com/51ab69320943aa0e5650e61ca8cec337 Which switch in this configuration becomes the root bridge? A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4

C. SW3

https://gyazo.com/c48151de4d32867de9938a7c2d48a733 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19 A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4

C. SW3

https://gyazo.com/e2943b213af1d22b5bf1b271de2c249a Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements? A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4

C. SW3

https://gyazo.com/a871eea4bba5fe1425a1b4f7ee3093f8 Refer to the exhibit. After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch 3 D. Switch 4

C. Switch 3

https://gyazo.com/02e23d86058d044c4ced8087fd76a8a8?token=8ee45987473949c574b96fc4a6f0631d Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured? A. Switch trunk allowed vlan 12 B. Switchport trunk allowed vlan none C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13 D. Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

https://gyazo.com/d09fe8ab20d8b978f6fc985a5a6c7b34 A. The interface is not participating in OSPF. B. A point-to-point network type is configured. C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use. D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.

C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.

https://gyazo.com/fe9f616a99ed3667cbf1fe581bef46c1 Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface. C. The interface is error-disabled. D. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses. E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.

C. The interface is error-disabled. D. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames? A. The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. B. The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent. C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame. D. The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

https://gyazo.com/c8c870b5d06cf9dd1d26e490f36c8506 Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156? A. The router will forward the packet via either Serial0 or Serial1. B. The router will return the packet to its source. C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2. D. The router will drop the packet.

C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.

https://gyazo.com/fea466add36ec2b9f1dda61fc238a053?token=090b945c9284bbda69728d6cc1acf003 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

https://gyazo.com/8570929a979a302da97e1f9a23240570 Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two ) A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1 B. This is a root bridge C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in? A. PortFast B. BPDU guard C. UplinkFast D. BackboneFast

C. UplinkFast

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6

D. 6

https://gyazo.com/9612e828cd7afc8a88151bf9287f0a3b Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration? A. static NAT translation B. a DHCP pool C. a dynamic NAT address pool D. PAT

C. a dynamic NAT address pool

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count

C. administrative distance

3. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbp

C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? A. point-to-multipoint B. point-to-point C. broadcast D. nonbroadcast

C. broadcast

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken? A. configure switchport nonegotiate B. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto D. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization? A. infrastructure-as-a-service. B. Software-as-a-service C. control and distribution of physical resources D. services as a hardware controller.

C. control and distribution of physical resources

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions? A. policy plane B. management plane C. control plane D. data plane

C. control plane

What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation? A. data link B. access C. core D. network E. network access

C. core

https://gyazo.com/78336a251043f990b09819b8cb9fc494 Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet? A. floating static route B. host route C. default route D. network route

C. default route

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? A. enable dynamic MAC address learning B. implement static MAC addressing. C. enable sticky MAC addressing D. implement auto MAC address learning

C. enable sticky MAC addressing

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate? A. Layer 2 switch B. load balancer C. firewall D. LAN controller

C. firewall

34. Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flexconnect D. local

C. flexconnect

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flexconnect D. local

C. flexconnect

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two) A. listening B. blocking C. forwarding D. learning E. speaking

C. forwarding D. learning

What is the benefit of using FHRP? A. reduced management overhead on network routers B. balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads C. higher degree of availability D. reduced ARP traffic on the network

C. higher degree of availability

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two) A. configure static ARP entries B. enable the PortFast feature on ports C. implement port-based authentication D. configure ports to a fixed speed E. shut down unused ports

C. implement port-based authentication E. shut down unused ports

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information? A. in the MAC address table B. in the CAM table C. in the binding database D. in the frame forwarding database

C. in the binding database

14. Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local C. inside global D. insride local E. outside public F. inside public

C. inside global

https://gyazo.com/501462412e3f3775f6050cbb76955799 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulationdot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet? A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1 B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

C. ipv6 address autoconfig

https://gyazo.com/94aad24f2806c7b45d5bcba250009894 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router? A. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1 B. ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0 C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0 D. ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 E. ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

102. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 local B. ipv6 host C. ipv6 unicast-routing D. ipv6 neighbor

C. ipv6 unicast-routing

. Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp holdtimt C. lldp reinit D. lldp tlv-select

C. lldp reinit

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. cost B. adminstrative distance C. metric D. as-path

C. metric

https://gyazo.com/6899711c23ac503beffb798d07b82c04 Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency? A. modify priority B. modify process ID C. modify hello interval D. modity network type

C. modify hello interval

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two) A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN C. moves packets within a VLAN D. moves packets between different VLANs E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

C. moves packets within a VLAN E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

https://gyazo.com/1cf7fcfde6ad1a42d9237dd1fd60a143 A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior? A. trunk mode mismatches B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet

C. native VLAN mismatches

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs? A. array B. string C. object D. Boolean

C. object

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person? A. intrusion detection B. user awareness C. physical access control D. network authorization

C. physical access control

58. A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. port-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. nonbroadcast

C. point-to-point

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. port-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. non-broadcast

C. point-to-point

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability? A. partial mesh B. full mesh C. point-to-point D. hub-and-spoke

C. point-to-point

Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. preamble D. Data field

C. preamble

https://gyazo.com/f198850463acc4cd99e2d4c4ba2ad976 Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1? A. DHCP client B. access point C. router D. PC

C. router

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller? A. register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints. B. use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients. C. send LWAPP packets to access points. D. monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

C. send LWAPP packets to access points.

Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router? A. show ipv6 interface B. show access-list C. show ipv6 access-list D. show ipv6 route

C. show ipv6 access-list

https://gyazo.com/c458a24be266f50bf604c9a05f2ea307 When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2? A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2 B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1 C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10 D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2

C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200? A. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440 B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422 C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0 D. spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets? A. forwarding B. backup C. standby D. listening

C. standby

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it? A. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default B. switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk D. switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

https://gyazo.com/cf066238b039ba6b7e3df86be07384c3 Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode? A. switchport mode trunk B. switchport mode dot1-tunnel C. switchport mode dynamic auto D. switchport mode dynamic desirable

C. switchport mode dynamic auto

A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap? A. switchport port-security violation access B. switchport port-security violation protect C. switchport port-security violation restrict D. switchport port-security violation shutdown

C. switchport port-security violation restrict

https://gyazo.com/8437b33400be49b9c7367e65a700318f Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode? A. adminadmin123 B. default C. testing1234 D. cisco123

C. testing1234

If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? A. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface B. the IP address of the console management interface C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces D. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces E. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.) A. to prevent other users from accessing the system B. to escalate access privileges C. to gather information about the network and devices D. to scan for accessibility E. to retrieve and modify data

C. to gather information about the network and devices D. to scan for accessibility

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device? A. to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet B. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts C. to pass traffic between different networks D. forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

C. to pass traffic between different networks

Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two) A. whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface B. the EIGRP or BGP autonomous system C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured D. Which neighbor adjacencies are established E. the length of time that a route has been known

C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured ''E. the length of time that a route has been known

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 . Which configuration should be used? A.enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 route-map permit 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0 ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside B.enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.254 ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside C.enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside D.enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypoolinterface g1/1 ip nat insideinterface g1/2 ip nat outside

C.enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside

A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users* Floor 2 has 29 users* Floor 3 has 28 users* Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

https://gyazo.com/57013048e8b42e52a484c8d1c70ce244 Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A? A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29

D. 10.10.13.208/29

Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses? A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240 B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240 C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224 D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

https://gyazo.com/5388e4eb9b584f38da401c3a55a59fe7?token=8f42a7b1a53ee946c4f29f164fa71352 An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP? A. 10.4.4.4 B. 10.4.4.5 C. 172.23.103.10 D. 172.23.104.4

D. 172.23.104.4

In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

12. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. TKIP with RC4 B. RC4 C. AES-128 D. AES-256

D. AES-256

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported? A. Unicode B. base64 C. decimal D. ASCII

D. ASCII

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client? A. Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate B. Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8 C. Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8 D. Accept: application/json

D. Accept: application/json

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name

D. Assign a DNS domain name

25. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH. B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name.

D. Assign a DNS domain name.

What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) A. runts B. giants C. frame D. CRC E. input errors

D. CRC E. input errors

Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge? A. The designated port B. The backup port C. The alternate port D. The root port

D. The root port

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points? A. Re- Anchor Roamed Clients B. 11ac MU-MIMO C. OEAP Split Tunnel D. Client Band Select

D. Client Band Select

https://gyazo.com/83a19e7899c73d5bc6494ec93438079f The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? A. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router. B. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router. C. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router. D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

https://gyazo.com/2f763d8bc80a3677846fac5d4230bd66 Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1? A. RIP B. OSPF C. IGRP D. EIGRP

D. EIGRP

A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended? A. VSAT B. ISDN C. Frame Relay D. Ethernet WAN

D. Ethernet WAN

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12

D. FF00::/12

43. Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8

D. FF00::/8

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated. B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects. D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.

D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.

30. What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol? A. It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information. B. It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination. C. It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric. D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table. B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path. D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection? A. 802.1q trunks B. Cisco vPC C. LLDP D. LACP

D. LACP

156. Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter? A. LLDP B. EEM C. CDP D. NTP

D. NTP

https://gyazo.com/a53af8a9bfdddfe9336ada2603517b9f Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration? A. These commands need to be added to the configuration :C-router(config)# router eigrp 123C- router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ospf 1C -router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 C. These commands need to be added to the configuration :C-router(config)# router ripC -router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 D. No further routing configuration is required.

D. No further routing configuration is required.

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured. B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active". C. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane. B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management. C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations. D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.

https://gyazo.com/4e9ac1ac8d5fb91d1ee2440873fefe49 https://gyazo.com/449ab67cf09577cffe70573e57f439d4 Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

D. Option D

How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance D. Port blocking

D. Port blocking

https://gyazo.com/b60cdb87533af5b915cf13a7429593c6 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output? A. Ansible B. JSON C. Chef D. Puppet

D. Puppet

https://gyazo.com/3eba1412560a01f4dd5cb9f1ed9e425d Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers? A. R2 is using the passive-interface default command B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0 C. R2 should have its network command in area 1 D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts? A. OpenFlow B. OpenStack C. OpFlex D. REST

D. REST

https://gyazo.com/da45411cfd7acb3d45c96bfc70cd8fcc An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is a symmetrical D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table

D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network? A. TKiP encryption B. AES encryption C. scrambled encryption key D. SAE encryption

D. SAE encryption

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security? A. syslog B. NetFlow C. IP SLA D. SNMPv3

D. SNMPv3

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two) A. management interface settings B. QoS settings C. Ip address of one or more access points D. SSID E. Profile name

D. SSID E. Profile name

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750? A. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685 B. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary C. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440 D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports? A. The frame has zero destination MAC addresses. B. The source MAC address of the frame is unknown C. The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

https://gyazo.com/af0381088841bdf33d9dbcc6b5bc3726 The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. B. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch. C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0. E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. F. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.

D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0. E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.

https://gyazo.com/4d73acb9d0c0ba51226361cdb46d9efd Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

https://gyazo.com/ac90c5260f47a3365e26765d675fc4e4 A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? A. The OSPF area is not configured properly. B. The OSPF area is not configured properly. C. The cost on R1 should be set higher. D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

56. Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? A. The link is in a down state. B. The link is in an error disables state C. The link is becomes an access port. D. The link becomes a trunk port.

D. The link becomes a trunk port.

https://gyazo.com/2d2a41ccfc0c2b0799459467795d5f96 A. The port transitions to STP blocking B. The port transitions to the root port C. The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding. D. The port goes into error-disable state

D. The port goes into error-disable state

https://gyazo.com/8a800f956447c35e6c1993af8b011604 What is the effect of this configuration? A. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch. B. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. C. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted. D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings

https://gyazo.com/ea40a3305461590ba3253dc906722af8 Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration? A. Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration. B. Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument. C. Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument. D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

https://gyazo.com/887da3e40ce875eccf2ae82a69469878 Refer to the exhibit Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure? A. interface ports are shut down on the remote servers B. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted C. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.

D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment? A. wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network B. a cable connected to a physical switch on the network C. a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

https://gyazo.com/f1f063b16e5805317ad806f43e276fd8 Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? A. passive B. mode on C. auto D. active

D. active

. How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used? A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports B. to determine the hardware platform of the device C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices D. all of the above

D. all of the above

What is a function of a remote access VPN? A. used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously B. used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network C. establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two) A. channel-group 10 mode on B. channel-group 10 mode auto C. channel-group 10 mode passive D. channel-group 10 mode desirable E. channel-group 10 mode active

D. channel-group 10 mode desirable E. channel-group 10 mode active

https://gyazo.com/569bc8fa7ec935f11aca0df9013c53a7?token=39bf43adaa017ffd77c7b9c23cf9242d Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue? A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

https://gyazo.com/40889656713cc54b6dff6025f4d5345c Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem? A. Configure the dns server on the same subnet as the clients B. Activate the dhcp pool C. Correct the subnet mask D. configure the default gateway

D. configure the default gateway

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding? A. management plane B. control plane C. policy plane D. data plane

D. data plane

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement? A. enable AAA override B. enable RX-SOP C. enable DTIM D. enable Band Select

D. enable Band Select

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two) A. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations B. encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default C. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture? A. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware B. reports device errors to a controller C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast

D. global unicast

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? A. platform-as-a-service B. software-as-a-service C. network-as-a-service D. infrastructure-as-a-service

D. infrastructure-as-a-service

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table? A. VTP B. DTP C. egress traffic D. ingress traffic

D. ingress traffic

29. An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252

https://gyazo.com/5d835b6767cf01bd781ec55d5c1e0e87 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement? A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable B. interface gi0/1 clear cdp table C. interface gi0/0 no cdp advertise-v2 D. interface gi0/0 no cdp run

D. interface gi0/0 no cdp run

You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity.The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this? A. ip default-gateway B. ip route C. ip default-network D. ip address dhcp E. ip address dynamic

D. ip address dhcp

https://gyazo.com/119e1bf79c06497ef1aa0aa87bf7ee5c?token=e4aa09fce656298013a7779381828124 Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link? A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131 B. ip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130 C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224 D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments? A. collision B. CRC C. runt D. late collision

D. late collision

Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds? A. lldp timer 5000 B. lldp holdtime 5 C. lldp reinit 5000 D. lldp reinit 5

D. lldp reinit 5

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection? A. worm B. malware C. DDoS D. man-in-the-middle

D. man-in-the-middle

Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.) A. mismatched autonomous system numbers B. an ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10 C. mismatched process IDs D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers E. use of the same router ID on both devices

D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers E. use of the same router ID on both devices

What is a characteristic of the REST API? A. evolved into what became SOAP B. used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP C. considered slow, complex, and rigid D. most widely used API for web services

D. most widely used API for web services

https://gyazo.com/aadc4162e92c1ffc990c647413b2c540 Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? A. floating static route B. host route C. default route D. network route

D. network route

https://gyazo.com/22fb670478a524b6c05ccd005acc0382 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task? A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22 C. access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22 D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server? A. ntp sever B. ntp peer C. ntp authenticate D. ntp master

D. ntp master

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing? A. on the public-facing interface of a firewall B. to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization C. on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts? A. source B. static C. pool D. overload

D. overload

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles? A. role-based access control B. biometrics C. multifactor authentication D. physical access control

D. physical access control

Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices? A. partner B. open C. public D. private

D. private

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? A. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

What is a DNS lookup operation? A. DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available B. serves requests over destination port 53 C. DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output? A. internal BGP route B. /24 route of a locally configured IP C. statically assigned route D. route learned through EIGRP

D. route learned through EIGRP

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed? A. route with the lowest cost B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP C. route with the shortest prefix length D. route with the lowest administrative distance

D. route with the lowest administrative distance

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI? A. initiates a ping request to the URL B. prompts the user to specify the desired IP address C. continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer? A. virtual routing and forwarding B. network port ID visualization C. virtual device contexts D. server visualization

D. server visualization

Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP? A. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp B. show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 C. show ip interface dhcp D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 E. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief

D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database

D. show ip ospf database

Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment? A. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors B. show ipv6 eigrp topology C. show ipv6 eigrp traffic D. show ipv6 eigrp events

D. show ipv6 eigrp events

Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group? A. show hsrp B. show sessions C. show interfaces D. show standby

D. show standby

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend? A. infrastructure-as-a-service B. platform-as-a-service C. business process as service to support different types of service D. software-as-a-service

D. software-as-a-service

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? A. overlay B. northbound C. underlay D. southbound

D. southbound

https://gyazo.com/26fab6be7d78f5c9dff5da4b88ce2ba5 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task? A. switchport access vlan 67 B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67 C. switchport private-vlan association host 67 D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.) A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

What is a function of TFTP in network operations? A. transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password B. transfers files between file systems on a router C. transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view? A. read B. create C. replace D. update

D. update

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? A. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number C. composed of up to 65.536 available addresses D. used without tracking or registration

D. used without tracking or registration

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness

D. user awareness

https://gyazo.com/ee550f5341a84bdb3743066c58c55bad Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password? A.R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 B.R1(config)#username admin R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 R1(config-line)#transport input telnet C.R1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234 D.R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local

D.R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local

130. Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.) A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. B. STP does not block EtherChannel links. C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports. D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel. E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.

E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail. A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel.

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured? (Choose two) A. relay agent information B. database agent C. address pool D. smart-relay E. manual bindings

E. manual bindings C. address pool

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right. https://gyazo.com/6018fdff538425481648c835679737bc

https://gyazo.com/4ecd5035663bb74113d430b3b641c510

Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right. https://gyazo.com/3e1ad7c9dbd3537b6ff0406310465ee5

https://gyazo.com/542c120a956e4de4488c967da28d2c94

Drag and drop the descriptions of file transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right. https://gyazo.com/1c5c12da32ad987c9933b71cf73975ae

https://gyazo.com/5c966a942e51f89732c16ca39f445462

https://gyazo.com/b7d161f278e578dbdeb66456b140b52e Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

https://gyazo.com/5e7cb90f6896dadbd57803a0a09bb62e?token=3912af60f9ec2bfe0dc8dd8190c17f9a

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right. https://gyazo.com/8e066d96ad993aa16d50595b95620831

https://gyazo.com/617b0c781aa616e41d5adef77690818d

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right https://gyazo.com/45c7f15ded88e7135a1fa3da72917916

https://gyazo.com/7afdaf09c3c9bff06e0f4e60e05b6b06

Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right. https://gyazo.com/ffb80b93c9a07542fc0255aacf93dc52

https://gyazo.com/81a216ecf7e6aeb9ec8be000c7cd865e

Drag drop the descriptions from the left on to the correct configuration-management technologies on the right https://gyazo.com/7b4554ec5f47d62a9f74ced37db7955b

https://gyazo.com/b3f9321c3d0826b0e056145185564894

https://gyazo.com/9399195bf8566321a7f1612207cccee2 A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency. Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. No all parameters are used.

https://gyazo.com/ff04b4188cfb8c8f350c7c2550a060a8