CCNA Routing&Switching 200-125 (part 9)

Which configuration register value can you set so that a Cisco device loads an IOS Software image from flash memory and then loads the startup configuration when the router boots? A. 0x2102 B. 0x2120 C. 0x2124 D. 0x2142

A. 0x2102

Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPOE on a client? A. Define a dialer interface. B. Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface C. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template E. Define a virtual template interface

A. Define a dialer interface. D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template or A. Define a dialer interface. C. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface

Which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN connections? (Choose two) A. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections. B. Dual-homed WAN connections have more management applications than single-homed connections. C. Dual-homed WAN connections a simpler topology than single-homed connections. D. Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single-homed connections. E. Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections.

A. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections. E. Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections.

Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.) A. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast. B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast. C. FC00::/7 is used in private networks. D. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses. E. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast. F. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.

A. FF00:/8 is used for IPv6 multicast. B. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast. C. FC00::/7 is used in private networks

Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two) A. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks. B. Service providers use EGP and BGP for intra AS routing. C. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks. D. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra AS routing. E. OSPF, EIGRP and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols

A. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks. C. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks.

Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options? A. LCP B. ISDN C. DLCI D. SLIP E. NCP

A. LCP Explanation:A protocol that establishes, configures, and tests data link connections used by the PPP Link Control Protocol offers PPP encapsulation different options, including the following:Authentication - options includes PAP and CHAP Compression - Data compression increases the throughput on a network link, by reducing the amount of data that must be transmitted. Error Detection -Quality and Magic numbers are used by PPP to ensure a reliable, loop-free data link. Multilink - Supported in IOS 11.1 and later, multilink is supported on PPP links between Cisco routers. This splits the load for PPP over two or more parallel circuits and is called a bundle.

Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two) A. NTP uses UDP over IP B. NTP uses TCP over IP C. Cisco routers can act only as NTP clients D. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative severs and NTP clients E. Cisco routers can act only as NTP servers

A. NTP uses UDP over IP D. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative severs and NTP clients

Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address? A. PAT B. SFTP C. RARP D. TFTP E. ARP

A. PAT

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.) A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin

Which two benefits can you get by stacking cisco switches? (choose Two) A. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails. B. Each switch in the stack can use a different IOS image C. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down D. you can license the entire stack with a single master license E. each switch in the stack handles the mac table independently from the others

A. The stack enables any active member to take over as the master switch if the existing master fails. C. You can add or remove switches without taking the stack down

Which two statements about RFC 1918 addresses are true? (Choose two) A. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet. B. They must be registered. C. They have reserved address space for Class A and Class B networks only. D. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet. E. They increase network performance

A. They provide security to end users when the users access the Internet. D. They require Network Address Translation or Port Address Translation to access the Internet.

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.) A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length. B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field. D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers. F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length. B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field. IPv6 eliminates the Header Checksum field, which handles error checking in IPv4. IPv6 depends on reliable transmission in the data link protocols and on error checking in upper-layer protocols instead -> Answer C is correct. While IPv4 header's total length comprises a minimum of 20 octets (8 bits per octet), IPv6 header has only 8 fields with a fixed length of 40 octets -> Answer A is correct. IPv4 header does not have a fixed length because of the Options fields. This field is used to convey additional information on the packet or on the way it should be processed. Routers, unless instructed otherwise, must process the Options in the IPv4 header. The processing of most header options pushes the packet into the slow path leading to a forwarding performance hit. IPv4 Options perform a very important role in the IP protocol operation therefore the capability had to be preserved in IPv6. However, the impact of IPv4 Options on performance was taken into consideration in the development of IPv6. The functionality of Options is removed from the main header and implemented through a set of additional headers called extension headers. The "Next Header" field in IPv6 can be used to point to the extension headers.

Which definition of a host route is true? A. a route to the exact /32 destination address B. a route used when a route to the destination network is missing C. a dynamic route learned from a server D. a route that is manually configured

A. a route to the exact /32 destination address

which address prefix does OSPFv3 use when multiple IPv6 address are configured on a single interface? A. all prefix on the interface B. the prefix that the administrator configure for OSPFv3 use C. the lowest prefix on the interface D. the highest prefix on the interface

A. all prefix on the interface In IPv6, you can configure manyaddress prefixes on an interface. In OSPFv3, all address prefixes on an interface are included by default. You cannot select some address prefixes to be imported into OSPFv3; either all address prefixes on an interface are imported, or no address prefixes on an interface are imported."

Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two) A. channel-group 10 mode desirable B. channel-group 10 mode on C. channel-group 10 mode active D. channel-group 10 mode auto E. channel-group 10 mode passive

A. channel-group 10 mode desirable D. channel-group 10 mode auto

Which command should you enter on an interface in a vendor-neutral EtherChannel so that it will be selected first to transmit packets? A. lacp system-priority 1024 B. pagp port-priority 1024 C. lacp port-priority 1024 D. pagp system-priority 1024

A. lacp system-priority 1024

Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two) A. lt uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm B. It sends periodic updates via broadcast C. It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table D. It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1. E. It supports CIDR and VLSM.

A. lt uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm E. It supports CIDR and VLSM.

Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two) A. next-hop address or exit interface B. incoming interface C. source network and mask D. administrative distance of the route E. destination network and mask

A. next-hop address or exit interface E. destination network and mask

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) A. one or more standby routers. B. one or more backup virtual routers C. exactly one standby active router D. exactly one backup virtual router E. exactly one active router

A. one or more standby routers. E. exactly one active router

Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded? A. standby 10 preempt B. standby 10 version 2 C. standby 10 version 1 D. standby 10 priority 150

A. standby 10 preempt

Which plane handles switching traffic through a cisco router? A. Control B. Data C. Performance D. Management

B. Data

Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.) A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information. B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains. C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information. D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port. F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address

B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains. D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network. E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->. Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

Which IPv6 address is the all-router multicast group? A. FF02::1 B. FF02::2 C. FF02::3 D. FF02::4

B. FF02::2 Well-known IPv6 multicast addresses: Address Description ff02::1 All nodes on the local network segment ff02::2 All routers on the local network segment

What happens to new traffic that is sent to a destination MAC address after the MAC aging time expires? A. It is dropped B. It is flooded. C. It is queued D. It is process-switched

B. It is flooded.

Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two) A. It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration B. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP. C. It allows packets to transit a different path if the topology changes D. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet E. Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF

B. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP. D. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet

Which technology in a service provider environment can use labels to tunnel customer data? A. PPPoE B. MPLS C. Metro Ethernet D. DMVPN

B. MPLS

Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms? A. HDLC B. PPP C. X.25 D. Frame Relay

B. PPP

Frame flooding can occur in which circumstance? A. The destination IP address is missing from the route table B. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table C. The source MAC address is missing from the CAM table D. The source IP address is missing from the route table

B. The destination MAC address is missing from the CAM table

Which task should you perform before you use the APIC-EM Path Trace tool to perform ACL analysis? A. Configure the IP address from which to generate the trace B. Verify that the devices of interest are included in the device inventory C. Execute a standard traceroute to the destination D. Verify that DNS is configured on the controller

B. Verify that the devices of interest are included in the device inventory or C. Execute a standard traceroute to the destination

Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three) A. transport B. application C. session D. presentation E. data link F. network

B. application C. session D. presentation

A network administrator enters the following command on a router: logging trap 3. What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three.) A. informational B. emergency C. warning D. critical E. debug F. error

B. emergency D. critical F. error

Which two a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two) A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto D. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk E. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active E. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attacks? (Choose three.) A. botnet attacks B. spoofing attacks C. brute force attacks D. DDOS attacks E. VLAN hooping F. ARP attacks

B. spoofing attacks E. VLAN hooping F. ARP attacks

Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two) A. whether access list are blocking incoming routes B. the interface on which traffic is sent C. whether a route was learned via IGP or EGP D. whether routes were summarized E. whether a route was tagged

B. the interface on which traffic is sent C. whether a route was learned via IGP or EGP

You configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, clients on VLAN 10 are given ip address assignments, but client on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP addresses. Which action must you take to correct the problem? A. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP server configuration B. Configure the ip helper-address command in the DHCP server configuration C. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20 D. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration

C. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20

What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192 168.2.1? A. Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192 168 2 1 B. Add a static route for host 192.168 2 1 to the routing table of the router C. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192 168.2.1. D. Execute a ping from the router to host 192 168.2.1

C. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192 168.2.1.

What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? (Choose two) A. It provides reliable TCP transport B. It enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously C. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously D. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously E. It supports distributed applications

C. It enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously D. It enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously

Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two.) A. It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configurable basis. B. It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data. C. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end device. D. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port. E. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance.

C. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end device. E. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance

Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter? A. CDP B. LLDP C. NTP D. EEM

C. NTP

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information? A. in the CAM table B. in the VLAN database C. in the DHCP binding database D. in the MAC address table

C. in the DHCP binding database

Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment? A. show ipv6 eigrp traffic B. show ipv6 eigrp topology C. show ipv6 eigrp events D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors

C. show ipv6 eigrp events

You are configuring a 100-Mb Fast Ethernet connection between a PC and a switch. Which action must you take to configure the speed on each of the two interfaces? A. Set the switch port to 100 Mb and the PC interface to auto-negotiate. B. Set both interfaces to 100 Mb. C. Set the switch port to auto-negotiate and the PC interface to 100 Mb. D. Set both interfaces to auto-negotiate

D. Set both interfaces to auto-negotiate.

Which value is used to build the CAM table? A. Source ip address B. Destination ip address C. Destination MAC address D. Source MAC address

D. Source MAC address

Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network? A. intrusion prevention device B. WLAN controller C. load balancer D. firewall

D. firewall

Which function does traffic shaping perform? A. it buffers traffic without queuing it B. it queues traffic without buffering it C. it drops packets to control the output rate D. it buffers and queues excess packets

D. it buffers and queues excess packets

What is the default Syslog facility level? A. local5 B. local4 C. local6 D. local7

D. local7

Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server? A. ntp authenticate B. ntp server C. ntp peer D. ntp master

D. ntp master

Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming? A. start of frame delimiter B. Type field C. Data field D. preamble

D. preamble

Which command must you enter to enable OSPFv2 in an IPv4 network? A. ip ospf hello-interval seconds B. router ospfv2 process-id C. router ospf value D. router ospf process-id

D. router ospf process-id

Which command must you use to test DNS connectivity? A. show hosts B. ipeon fig C. show interfaces D. telnet

D. telnet