CCRI Nursing 1010 HESI 1 NCLEX Questions

A prescription reads 3000 mL of D5W to be administered over a 24-hour period. The nurse determines that how many milliliters (mL) per hour will be administered to the client? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ mL/hr

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A prescription reads potassium chloride 30 mEq to be added to 1000 mL normal saline (NS) and to be administered over a 10-hour period. The label on the medication bottle reads 40 mEq/20 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) of potassium chloride to administer the correct dose of medication? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ mL

15

A prescription reads to administer an intravenous (IV) dose of 400,000 units of penicillin G benzathine. The label on the 10-milliliters (mL) ampule sent from the pharmacy reads penicillin G benzathine, 300,000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using 1 decimal place. Answer: _______ mL

1.3

A prescription reads morphine sulfate, 8 mg stat. The medication ampule reads morphine sulfate, 10 mg/mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ mL

0.8

A prescription reads heparin sodium, 1300 units/hr by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. The pharmacy prepares the medication and delivers an IV bag labeled heparin sodium 20,000 units/250 mL D5W. An infusion pump must be used to administer the medication. The nurse sets the infusion pump at how many milliliters (mL) per hour to deliver 1300 units/hour? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number. Answer: _______ mL/hr

16 Rationale: Calculation of this problem can be done using a 2-step process. First, you need to determine the amount of heparin sodium in 1 mL. The next step is to determine the infusion rate, or milliliters per hour.

A prescription reads 1000 mL of normal saline (NS) to infuse over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number. Answer: _______ drops per minute

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Cefuroxime sodium, 1 g in 50 mL normal saline (NS), is to be administered over 30 minutes. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ drops per minute

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A prescription reads 1000 mL of normal saline 0.9% to infuse over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number. Answer: _______ drops per minute

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Gentamicin sulfate, 80 mg in 100 mL normal saline (NS), is to be administered over 30 minutes. The drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number. Answer: _______ drops per minute

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A prescription reads 1000 mL D5W to infuse at a rate of 125 mL/hr. The nurse determines that it will take how many hours for 1 L to infuse? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ hour(s)

8 Rationale: You must determine that 1 L equals 1000 mL. Next, use the formula for determining infusion time in hours.

A prescription reads levothyroxine, 150 mcg orally daily. The medication label reads levothyroxine, 0.1 mg/tablet. The nurse administers how many tablet(s) to the client? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ tablet(s)

1.5 Rationale: You must convert 150 mcg to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert smaller to larger, divide by 1000 or move the decimal 3 places to the left. Therefore, 150 mcg equals 0.15 mg. Next, use the formula to calculate the correct dose

A prescription reads to infuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 4 hours. The unit of blood contains 250 mL. The drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 mL. The nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number. Answer: _______ drops per minute

10

A prescription reads phenytoin 0.2 g orally twice daily. The medication label states that each capsule is 100 mg. The nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to administer 1 dose? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ capsule(s)

2 Rationale: You must convert 0.2 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal point 3 places to the right. Therefore, 0.2 g equals 200 mg. After conversion from grams to milligrams, use the formula to calculate the correct dose.

A prescription reads clindamycin phosphate 0.3 g in 50 mL normal saline (NS) to be administered intravenously over 30 minutes. The medication label reads clindamycin phosphate 900 mg in 6 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) of the medication to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ mL

2 You must convert 0.3 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal 3 places to the right. Therefore, 0.3 g = 300 mg. After conversion from grams to milligrams, use the formula to calculate the correct dose.

The nurse is caring for a client with several broken ribs. The client is most likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance? 1. Respiratory acidosis from inadequate ventilation 2. Respiratory alkalosis from anxiety and hyperventilation 3. Metabolic acidosis from calcium loss due to broken bones 4. Metabolic alkalosis from taking analgesics containing base

Answer: 1 Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is most often caused by hypoventilation. The client with broken ribs will have difficulty with breathing adequately and is at risk for hypoventilation and resultant respiratory acidosis. The remaining options are incorrect. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with hyperventilation. There are no data in the question that indicate calcium loss or that the client is taking analgesics containing base products.

A client is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services (EMS) after being hit by a car. The name of the client is unknown, and the client has sustained a severe head injury and multiple fractures and is unconscious. An emergency craniotomy is required. Regarding informed consent for the surgical procedure, which is the best action? 1. Obtain a court order for the surgical procedure. 2. Ask the EMS team to sign the informed consent. 3. Transport the victim to the operating room for surgery. 4. Call the police to identify the client and locate the family.

17. Answer: 3 Rationale: In general, there are two situations in which informed consent of an adult client is not needed. One is when an emergency is present and delaying treatment for the purpose of obtaining informed consent would result in injury or death to the client. The second is when the client waives the right to give informed consent. Option 1 will delay emergency treatment, and option 2 is inappropriate. Although option 4 may be pursued, it is not the best action because it delays necessary emergency treatment.

The nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 1.8 mg/dL (0.58 mmol/L). Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level? 1. Malnutrition 2. Renal insufficiency 3. Hypoparathyroidism 4. Tumor lysis syndrome

Answer: 1 Rationale: The normal serum phosphorus (phosphate) level is 3.0 to 4.5 mg/dL (0.97 to 1.45 mmol/L). The client is experiencing hypophosphatemia. Causative factors relate to malnutrition or starvation and the use of aluminum hydroxide- based or magnesium-based antacids. Renal insufficiency, hypoparathyroidism, and tumor lysis syndrome are causative factors of hyperphosphatemia.

A prescription reads regular insulin, 8 units/hr by continuous intravenous (IV) infusion. The pharmacy prepares the medication and then delivers an IV bag labeled 100 units of regular insulin in 100 mL normal saline (NS). An infusion pump must be used to administer the medication. The nurse sets the infusion pump at how many milliliters (mL) per hour to deliver 8 units/hr? Fill in the blank. Answer: _______ mL/hr

8 Rationale: Calculation of this problem can be done using a 2-step process. First, you need to determine the amount of regular insulin in 1 mL. The next step is to determine the infusion rate, or milliliters per hour.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older adult client. Which assessment data would indicate a potential complication associated with the skin? 1. Crusting 2. Wrinkling 3. Deepening of expression lines 4. Thinning and loss of elasticity in the skin

Answer: 1 614 Rationale: The normal physiological changes that occur in the skin of older adults include thinning of the skin, loss of elasticity, deepening of expression lines, and wrinkling. Crusting noted on the skin would indicate a potential complication.

A client with a history of heart failure is due for a morning dose of furosemide. Which serum potassium level, if noted in the client's laboratory report, should be reported before administering the dose of furosemide? 1. 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L) 2. 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L) 3. 2 mEq/L (4.2 mmol/L) 4. 8 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L)

Answer: 1 Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in the adult is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). The correct option is the only value that falls below the therapeutic range. Administering furosemide to a client with a low potassium level and a history of cardiac problems could precipitate ventricular dysrhythmias. The remaining options are within the normal range.

Which client is at risk for the development of a sodium level at 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L)? 1. The client who is taking diuretics 2. The client with hyperaldosteronism 3. The client with Cushing's syndrome 4. The client who is taking corticosteroids

Answer: 1 Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) indicates hyponatremia. Hyponatremia can occur in the client taking diuretics. The client taking corticosteroids and the client with hyperaldosteronism or Cushing's syndrome are at risk for hypernatremia.

The nurse is assessing a client with a lactose intolerance disorder for a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Twitching 2. Hypoactive bowel sounds 3. Negative Trousseau's sign 4. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

Answer: 1 Rationale: A client with lactose intolerance is at risk for developing hypocalcemia, because food products that contain calcium also contain lactose. The normal serum calcium level is 9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L). A serum calcium level lower than 9 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) indicates hypocalcemia. Signs of hypocalcemia include paresthesias followed by numbness, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, and a positive Trousseau's or Chvostek's sign. Additional signs of hypocalcemia include increased neuromuscular excitability, muscle cramps, twitching, tetany, seizures, irritability, and anxiety. Gastrointestinal symptoms include increased gastric motility, hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea.

The home health nurse is visiting a client for the first time. While assessing the client's medication history, it is noted that there are 19 prescriptions and several over-the-counter medications that the client has been taking. Which intervention should the nurse take first? 1. Check for medication interactions. 2. Determine whether there are medication duplications. 3. Determine whether a family member supervises medication administration. 4. Call the prescribing primary health care provider (PHCP) and report polypharmacy.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Polypharmacy is a concern in the older client. Duplication of medications needs to be identified before medication interactions can be determined, because the nurse needs to know what the client is taking. Asking about medication administration supervision may be part of the assessment but is not a first action. The phone call to the PHCP is the intervention after all other information has been collected.

The home care nurse is visiting an older client whose spouse died 6 months ago. Which behaviors by the client indicates effective coping? Select all that apply. 1. Neglecting personal grooming 2. Looking at old snapshots of family 3. Participating in a senior citizens program 4. Visiting the spouse's grave once a month 5. Decorating a wall with the spouse's pictures and awards received

Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Coping mechanisms are behaviors used to decrease stress and anxiety. In response to a death, ineffective coping is manifested by an extreme behavior that in some cases may be harmful to the individual physically or psychologically. Neglecting personal grooming is indicative of a behavior that identifies ineffective coping in the grieving process. The remaining options identify appropriate and 612 effective coping mechanisms.

The long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. Which are normal age-related physiological changes the nurse should expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Increased heart rate 2. Decline in visual acuity 3. Decreased respiratory rate 4. Decline in long-term memory 5. Increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections 6. Increased incidence of awakening after sleep onset

Answer: 2, 5, 6 Rationale: Anatomical changes to the eye affect the individual's visual ability, leading to potential problems with activities of daily living. Light adaptation and visual fields are reduced. Although lung function may decrease, the respiratory rate usually remains unchanged. Heart rate decreases and heart valves thicken. Agerelated changes that affect the urinary tract increase an older client's susceptibility to urinary tract infections. Short-term memory may decline with age, but long-term memory usually is maintained. Change in sleep patterns is a consistent, age-related change. Older persons experience an increased incidence of awakening after sleep onset.

The nurse is providing an educational session to new employees, and the topic is abuse of the older client. The nurse helps the employees identify which client as most typically a victim of abuse? 1. A man who has moderate hypertension 2. A man who has newly diagnosed cataracts 3. A woman who has advanced Parkinson's disease 4. A woman who has early diagnosed Lyme disease

Answer: 3 Rationale: Elder abuse includes physical, sexual, or psychological abuse; misuse of property; and violation of rights. The typical abuse victim is a woman of advanced age with few social contacts and at least 1 physical or mental impairment that limits her ability to perform activities of daily living. In addition, the client usually lives alone or with the abuser and depends on the abuser for care.

The nurse is performing an assessment on an older client who is having difficulty sleeping at night. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching regarding measures to improve sleep? 1. "I swim 3 times a week." 2. "I have stopped smoking cigars." 610 3. "I drink hot chocolate before bedtime." 4. "I read for 40 minutes before bedtime."

Answer: 3 Rationale: Many nonpharmacological sleep aids can be used to influence sleep. However, the client should avoid caffeinated beverages and stimulants such as tea, cola, and chocolate. The client should exercise regularly, because exercise promotes sleep by burning off tension that accumulates during the day. A 20- to 30-minute walk, swim, or bicycle ride 3 times a week is helpful. Smoking and alcohol should be avoided. Reading is also a helpful measure and is relaxing.

The nurse is providing instructions to the assistive personnel (AP) regarding care of an older client with hearing loss. What should the nurse tell the AP about older clients with hearing loss? 1. They are often distracted. 2. They have middle ear changes. 3. They respond to low-pitched tones. 4. They develop moist cerumen production

Answer: 3 Rationale: Presbycusis refers to the age-related irreversible degenerative changes of the inner ear that lead to decreased hearing ability. As a result of these changes, the older client has a decreased response to high-frequency sounds. Low-pitched voice tones are heard more easily and can be interpreted by the older client. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not accurate characteristics related to aging.

The visiting nurse observes that the older male client is confined by his daughter-in-law to his room. When the nurse suggests that he walk to the den and join the family, he says, "I'm in everyone's way; my daughter-in-law needs me to stay here." Which is the most important action for the nurse to take? 1. Say to the daughter-in-law, "Confining your father-in-law to his room is inhumane." 2. Suggest to the client and daughter-in-law that they consider a nursing home for the client. 3. Say nothing, because it is best for the nurse to remain neutral and wait to be asked for help. 4. Suggest appropriate resources to the client and daughter-in-law, such as respite care and a senior citizens center.

Answer: 4 Rationale: Assisting clients and families to become aware of available community support systems is a role and responsibility of the nurse. Observing that the client has begun to be confined to his room makes it necessary for the nurse to intervene legally and ethically, so option 3 is not appropriate and is passive in terms of advocacy. Option 2 suggests committing the client to a nursing home and is a premature action on the nurse's part. Although the data provided tell the nurse that this client requires nursing care, the nurse does not know the extent of the nursing care required. Option 1 is incorrect and judgmental.

The nurse is caring for an older client in a long-term care facility. Which action contributes to encouraging autonomy in the client? 1. Planning meals 2. Decorating the room 3. Scheduling haircut appointments 4. Allowing the client to choose social activities

Answer: 4 Rationale: Autonomy is the personal freedom to direct one's own life as long as it does not impinge on the rights of others. An autonomous person is capable of rational thought. This individual can identify problems, search for alternatives, and select solutions that allow continued personal freedom as long as others and their rights and property are not harmed. Loss of autonomy, and therefore independence, is a real fear of older clients. The correct option is the only one that allows the client to be a decision maker.

The nurse hears a client calling out for help, hurries down the hallway to the client's room, and finds the client lying on the floor. The nurse performs an assessment, assists the client back to bed, notifies the primary health care provider, and completes an occurrence report. Which statement should the nurse document on the occurrence report? 1. The client fell out of bed. 2. The client climbed over the side rails. 3. The client was found lying on the floor. 4. The client became restless and tried to get out of bed.

16. Answer: 3 Rationale: The occurrence report should contain a factual description of the occurrence, any injuries experienced by those involved, and the outcome of the situation. The correct option is the only one that describes the facts as observed by the nurse. Options 1, 2, and 4 are interpretations of the situation and are not factual information as observed by the nurse.

The nurse caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous (IV) diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a fluid volume deficit. Which assessment finding would the nurse note in a client with this condition? 1. Weight loss and poor skin turgor 2. Lung congestion and increased heart rate 3. Decreased hematocrit and increased urine output 4. Increased respirations and increased blood pressure

Answer: 1 Rationale: A fluid volume deficit occurs when the fluid intake is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body. Assessment findings in a client with a fluid volume deficit include increased respirations and heart rate, decreased central venous pressure (CVP), weight loss, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, decreased urine volume, increased specific gravity of the urine, increased hematocrit, and altered level of consciousness. Lung congestion, increased urinary output, and increased blood pressure are all associated with fluid volume excess

The nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is most likely at risk for a fluid volume deficit? 1. A client with an ileostomy 2. A client with heart failure 3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy 4. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations

Answer: 1 Rationale: A fluid volume deficit occurs when the fluid intake is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body. Causes of a fluid volume deficit include vomiting, diarrhea, conditions that cause increased respirations or increased urinary output, insufficient intravenous fluid replacement, draining fistulas, and the presence of an ileostomy or colostomy. A client with heart failure or on long-term corticosteroid therapy or a client receiving frequent wound irrigations is most at risk for fluid volume excess.

The nurse has just assisted a client back to bed after a fall. The nurse and primary health care provider have assessed the client and have determined that the client is not injured. After completing the occurrence report, the nurse should implement which action next? 1. Reassess the client. 2. Conduct a staff meeting to describe the fall. 3. Contact the nursing supervisor to update information regarding the fall. 4. Document in the nurse's notes that an occurrence report was completed.

Answer: 1 Rationale: After a client's fall, the nurse must frequently reassess the client, because potential complications do not always appear immediately after the fall. The client's fall should be treated as private information and shared on a "need to know" basis. Communication regarding the event should involve only the individuals participating in the client's care. An occurrence report is a problem-solving document; however, its completion is not documented in the nurse's notes. If the nursing supervisor has been made aware of the occurrence, the supervisor will contact the nurse if status update is necessary.

The nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which result validates the nurse's findings? 1. pH 7.25, Paco2 50 mm Hg (50 mm Hg) 2. pH 7.35, Paco2 40 mm Hg (40 mm Hg) 3. pH 7.50, Paco2 52 mm Hg (52 mm Hg) 4. pH 7.52, Paco2 28 mm Hg (28 mm Hg)

Answer: 1 Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition characterized by the collapse of alveoli, preventing the respiratory exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in a part of the lungs. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Paco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). In respiratory acidosis, the pH is decreased and the Paco2 is elevated. Option 2 identifies normal values. Option 3 identifies an alkalotic condition, and option 4 identifies respiratory alkalosis.

The nurse notes documentation that a client is exhibiting Cheyne-Stokes respirations. On assessment of the client, the nurse should expect to note which finding? 1. Rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea 2. Regular rapid and deep, sustained respirations 3. Totally irregular respiration in rhythm and depth 4. Irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration

Answer: 1 Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea and can indicate a metabolic dysfunction in the cerebral hemisphere or basal ganglia. Neurogenic hyperventilation is a regular, rapid and deep, sustained respiration that can indicate a dysfunction in the low midbrain and middle pons. Ataxic respirations are totally irregular in rhythm and depth and indicate a dysfunction in the medulla. Apneustic respirations are irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration and can indicate a dysfunction in the middle or caudal pons.

The nurse calls the primary health care provider (PHCP) regarding a new medication prescription, because the dosage prescribed is higher than the recommended dosage. The nurse is unable to locate the PHCP, and the medication is due to be administered. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Contact the nursing supervisor. 2. Administer the dose prescribed. 3. Hold the medication until the PHCP can be contacted. 4. Administer the recommended dose until the PHCP can be located.

Answer: 1 Rationale: If the PHCP writes a prescription that requires clarification, the nurse's responsibility is to contact the PHCP. If there is no resolution regarding the prescription because the PHCP cannot be located or because the prescription remains as it was written after talking with the PHCP, the nurse should contact the nurse manager or nursing supervisor for further clarification as to what the next step should be. Under no circumstances should the nurse proceed to carry out the prescription until obtaining clarification.

The nurse instructs a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the dietary menu? 1. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee 2. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice 3. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice 4. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, orange juice

Answer: 1 Rationale: The diet for a client with chronic kidney disease who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids, which is indicated in the correct option. The food items in the remaining options are high in sodium, phosphorus, or potassium.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer who is immunosuppressed. The nurse would consider implementing neutropenic precautions if the client's white blood cell count was which value? 1. 2000 mm3 (2.0 × 109/L) 2. 5800 mm3 (5.8 × 109/L) 3. 8400 mm3 (8.4 × 109/L) 4. 11,500 mm3 (11.5 × 109/L)

Answer: 1 Rationale: The normal WBC count ranges from 5000 to 10,000 mm3 (5 to 10 × 109/L). The client who has a decrease in the number of circulating WBCs is immunosuppressed. The nurse implements neutropenic precautions when the client's values fall sufficiently below the normal level. The specific value for implementing neutropenic precautions usually is determined by agency policy. The remaining options are normal values.

The nurse is instructing a client how to perform a testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse should explain that which is the best time to perform this exam? 1. After a shower or bath 2. While standing to void 3. After having a bowel movement 4. While lying in bed before arising

Answer: 1 Rationale: The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.

A postoperative client has been placed on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should provide the client with which items that are allowed to be consumed on this diet? Select all that apply. 1. Broth 2. Coffee 3. Gelatin 4. Pudding 5. Vegetable juice 6. Pureed vegetables

Answer: 1, 2, 3 Rationale: A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent to light and are clear and liquid at room and body temperature. These foods include items such as water, bouillon, clear broth, carbonated beverages, gelatin, hard candy, lemonade, ice pops, and regular or decaffeinated coffee or tea. The incorrect food items are items that are allowed on a full liquid diet

The nurse is caring for a client who takes ibuprofen for pain. The nurse is gathering information on the client's medication history and determines it is necessary to contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the client is also taking which medications? Select all that apply. 1. Warfarin 2. Glimepiride 3. Amlodipine 4. Simvastatin 5. Atorvastatin

Answer: 1, 2, 3 Rationale: Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can amplify the effects of anticoagulants; therefore, these medications should not be taken together. Hypoglycemia may result for the client taking ibuprofen if the client is concurrently taking an oral antidiabetic agent such as glimepiride; these medications should not be combined. A high risk of toxicity exists if the client is taking ibuprofen concurrently with a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine; therefore, this combination should be avoided. There is no known interaction between ibuprofen and simvastatin or atorvastatin.

The clinic nurse prepares to perform a focused assessment on a client who is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion. Which should the nurse include for this type of assessment? Select all that apply. 1. Auscultating lung sounds 2. Obtaining the client's temperature 3. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses 4. Obtaining information about the client's respirations 5. Performing a musculoskeletal and neurological examination 6. Asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease

Answer: 1, 2, 4 Rationale: A focused assessment focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client's complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion, the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete assessment includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to this client's complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client's complaints. However, strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete assessment. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete assessment.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L). The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the primary health care provider (PHCP), and the PHCP prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which acceptable food items does the nurse instruct the client to consume? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Nuts 3. Cheese 4. Cauliflower 5. Processed oat cereals

Answer: 1, 2, 4 Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). A serum sodium level of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) indicates hypernatremia. On the basis of this finding, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid foods high in sodium. Peas, nuts, and cauliflower are good food sources of phosphorus and are not high in sodium (unless they are canned or labeled salted). Peas and cauliflower are also a good source of magnesium. Processed foods such as cheese and processed oat cereals are high in sodium content.

Potassium chloride intravenously is prescribed for a client with heart failure experiencing hypokalemia. Which actions should the nurse take to plan for preparation and administration of the potassium? Select all that apply. 1. Obtain an intravenous (IV) infusion pump. 2. Monitor urine output during administration. 3. Prepare the medication for bolus administration. 4. Monitor the IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis. 5. Ensure that the medication is diluted in the appropriate volume of fluid. 6. Ensure that the bag is labeled so that it reads the volume of potassium in the solution.

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 Rationale: Potassium chloride administered intravenously must always be diluted in IV fluid and infused via an infusion pump. Potassium chloride is never given by bolus (IV push). Giving potassium chloride by IV push can result in cardiac arrest. The nurse should ensure that the potassium is diluted in the appropriate amount of diluent or fluid. The IV bag containing the potassium chloride should always be labeled with the volume of potassium it contains. The IV site is monitored closely, because potassium chloride is irritating to the veins and there is risk of phlebitis. In addition, the nurse should monitor for infiltration. The nurse monitors urinary output during administration and contacts the primary health care provider if the urinary output is less than 30 mL/hr.

The nurse notes that a client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse monitors the client for which clinical manifestations associated with these ABG results? Select all that apply. 1. Nausea 2. Confusion 3. Bradypnea 4. Tachycardia 5. Hyperkalemia 6. Lightheadedness

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 6 Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions that cause overstimulation of the respiratory system. Clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include lethargy, lightheadedness, confusion, tachycardia, dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, and numbness and tingling of the extremities. Hyperventilation (tachypnea) occurs. Bradypnea describes respirations that are regular but abnormally slow. Hyperkalemia is associated with acidosis.

Several laboratory tests are prescribed for a client, and the nurse reviews the results of the tests. Which laboratory test results should the nurse report? Select all that apply. 1. Platelets 35,000 mm3 (35 × 109/L) 2. Sodium 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) 3. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) 4. Segmented neutrophils 40% (0.40) 5. Serum creatinine, 1 mg/dL (88.3 mcmol/L) 6. White blood cells, 3000 mm3 (3.0 × 109/L)

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 6 Rationale: The normal values include the following: platelets 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150 to 400 × 109/L); sodium 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L); potassium 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L); segmented neutrophils 62% to 68% (0.62 to 0.68); serum creatinine male: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (53 to 106 mcmol/L); female: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL (44 to 97 mcmol/L); and white blood cells 5000 to 10,000 mm3 (5.0 to 10.0 × 109/L). The platelet level noted is low; the sodium level noted is high; the potassium level noted is normal; the segmented neutrophil level noted is low; the serum creatinine level noted is normal; and the white blood cell level is low.

The nurse is teaching a client who has iron deficiency anemia about foods she should include in the diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the dietary modifications if which items are selected from the menu? 1. Nuts and milk 2. Coffee and tea 3. Cooked rolled oats and fish 4. Oranges and dark green leafy vegetables

Answer: 4 Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are a good source of iron, and oranges are a good source of vitamin C, which enhances iron absorption. All other options are not food sources that are high in iron and vitamin C.

Which identifies accurate nursing documentation notation(s)? Select all that apply. 1. The client slept through the night. 2. Abdominal wound dressing is dry and intact without drainage. 3. The client seemed angry when awakened for vital sign measurement. 4. The client appears to become anxious when it is time for respiratory treatments. 5. The client's left lower medial leg wound is 3 cm in length without redness, drainage, or edema

Answer: 1, 2, 5 Rationale: Factual documentation contains descriptive, objective information about what the nurse sees, hears, feels, or smells. The use of inferences without supporting factual data is not acceptable, because it can be misunderstood. The use of vague terms, such as seemed or appears, is not acceptable because these words suggest that the nurse is stating an opinion

The nurse reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L (2.5 mmol/L). Which patterns should the nurse watch for on the electrocardiogram (ECG) as a result of the laboratory value? Select all that apply. 1. U waves 2. Absent P waves 3. Inverted T waves 4. Depressed ST segment 5. Widened QRS complex

Answer: 1, 3, 4 Rationale: The normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A serum potassium level lower than 3.5 mEq/L (3.5 mmol/L) indicates hypokalemia. Potassium deficit is an electrolyte imbalance that can be potentially life-threatening. Electrocardiographic changes include shallow, flat, or inverted T waves; ST segment depression; and prominent U waves. Absent P waves are not a characteristic of hypokalemia but may be noted in a client with atrial fibrillation, junctional rhythms, or ventricular rhythms. A widened QRS complex may be noted in hyperkalemia and in hypermagnesemia

The charge nurse is planning the assignment for the day. Which factors should the nurse remain mindful of when planning the assignment? Select all that apply. 1. The acuity level of the clients 2. Specific requests from the staff 3. The clustering of the rooms on the unit 4. The number of anticipated client discharges 5. Client needs and workers' needs and abilities

Answer: 1, 5 Rationale: There are guidelines that the nurse should use when delegating and planning assignments. These include the following: ensure client safety; be aware of individual variations in work abilities; determine which tasks can be delegated and to whom; match the task to the delegatee on the basis of the nurse practice act and appropriate position descriptions; provide directions that are clear, concise, accurate, and complete; validate the delegatee's understanding of the directions; communicate a feeling of confidence to the delegatee and provide feedback promptly after the task is performed; and maintain continuity of care as much as possible when assigning client care. Staff requests, convenience as in clustering client rooms, and anticipated changes in unit census are not specific guidelines to use when delegating and planning assignments.

A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a large abdominal wound. The nurse should encourage the client to eat which food item that is naturally high in vitamin C to promote wound healing? 1. Milk 2. Oranges 3. Bananas 4. Chicken

Answer: 2 Rationale: Citrus fruits and juices are especially high in vitamin C. Bananas are high in potassium. Meats and dairy products are two food groups that are high in the B vitamins

The nurse is explaining the appropriate methods for measuring an accurate temperature to an assistive personnel (AP). Which method, if noted by the UAP as being an appropriate method, indicates the need for further teaching? 1. Taking a rectal temperature for a client who has undergone nasal surgery 2. Taking an oral temperature for a client with a cough and nasal congestion 3. Taking an axillary temperature for a client who has just consumed hot coffee 4. Taking a temperature on the neck behind the ear using an electronic device for a client who is diaphoretic

Answer: 2 Rationale: An oral temperature should be avoided if the client has nasal congestion. One of the other methods of measuring the temperature should be used according to the equipment available. Taking a rectal temperature for a client who has undergone nasal surgery is appropriate. Other, less invasive measures should be used if available; if not available, a rectal temperature is acceptable. Taking an axillary temperature on a client who just consumed coffee is also acceptable; however, the axillary method of measurement is the least reliable, and other methods should be used if available. If electronic equipment is available and the client is diaphoretic, it is acceptable to measure the temperature on the neck behind the ear, avoiding the forehead

Nursing staff members are sitting in the lounge taking their morning break. An assistive personnel (AP) tells the group that she thinks that the unit secretary has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and proceeds to tell the nursing staff that the secretary probably contracted the disease from her husband, who is supposedly a drug addict. The registered nurse should inform the AP that making this accusation has violated which legal tort? 1. Libel 2. Slander 3. Assault 4. Negligence

Answer: 2 Rationale: Defamation is a false communication or a careless disregard for the truth that causes damage to someone's reputation, either in writing (libel) or verbally (slander). An assault occurs when a person puts another person in fear of a harmful or offensive contact. Negligence involves the actions of professionals that fall below the standard of care for a specific professional group.

The nurse arrives at work and is told to report (float) to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the day because the ICU is understaffed and needs additional nurses to care for the clients. The nurse has never worked in the ICU. The nurse should take which best action? 1. Refuse to float to the ICU based on lack of unit orientation. 2. Clarify the ICU client assignment with the team leader to ensure that it is a safe assignment. 3. Ask the nursing supervisor to review the hospital policy on floating. 4. Submit a written protest to nursing administration, and then call the hospital lawyer.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Floating is an acceptable practice used by hospitals to solve understaffing problems. Legally, the nurse cannot refuse to float unless a union contract guarantees that nurses can work only in a specified area or the nurse can prove the lack of knowledge for the performance of assigned tasks. When encountering this situation, the nurse should set priorities and identify potential areas of harm to the client. That is why clarifying the client assignment with the team leader to ensure that it is a safe one is the best option. The nursing supervisor is called if the nurse is expected to perform tasks that he or she cannot safely perform. Submitting a written protest and calling the hospital lawyer is a premature action.

The nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg). The nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this condition? 1. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L (145 mmol/L) 2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L) 3. Magnesium level of 1.8 (0.74 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.0 mg/dL (0.97 mmol/L)

Answer: 2 Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is defined as a deficit of carbonic acid or a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions that cause overstimulation of the respiratory system. Some clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include lightheadedness, confusion, tachycardia, dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, epigastric pain, and numbness and tingling of the extremities. All three incorrect options identify normal laboratory values. The correct option identifies the presence of hypokalemia.

The nurse is testing the extraocular movements in a client to assess for muscle weakness in the eyes. The nurse should implement which assessment technique to assess for muscle weakness in the eye? 1. Test the corneal reflexes. 2. Test the 6 cardinal positions of gaze. 3. Test visual acuity, using a Snellen eye chart. 4. Test sensory function by asking the client to close the eyes and then lightly touching the forehead, cheeks, and chin.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Testing the 6 cardinal positions of gaze (diagnostic positions test) is done to assess for muscle weakness in the eyes. The client is asked to hold the head steady, and then to follow movement of an object through the positions of gaze. The client should follow the object in a parallel manner with the 2 eyes. A Snellen eye chart assesses visual acuity and cranial nerve II (optic). Testing sensory function by having the client close his or her eyes and then lightly touching areas of the face and testing the corneal reflexes assess cranial nerve V (trigeminal).

A client has been admitted to the hospital for gastroenteritis and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level drops to which value? 1. 3 mg/dL (1.08 mmol/L) 2. 15 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) 3. 29 mg/dL (10.44 mmol/L) 4. 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L)

Answer: 2 Rationale: The normal BUN level is 10 to 20 mg/dL (3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L). Values of 29 mg/dL (10.44 mmol/L) and 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L) reflect continued dehydration. A value of 3 mg/dL (1.08 mmol/L) reflects a lower than normal value, which may occur with fluid volume overload, among other conditions.

A client with atrial fibrillation who is receiving maintenance therapy of warfarin sodium has a prothrombin time (PT) of 35 seconds. On the basis of these laboratory values, the nurse anticipates which prescription? 1. Adding a dose of heparin sodium 2. Holding the next dose of warfarin 3. Increasing the next dose of warfarin 4. Administering the next dose of warfarin

Answer: 2 Rationale: The normal PT is 11 to 12.5 seconds (conventional therapy and SI units). A therapeutic PT level is 1.5 to 2 times higher than the normal level. Because the value of 35 seconds is high, the nurse should anticipate that the client would not receive further doses at this time. Therefore, the prescriptions noted in the remaining options are incorrect

The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, Paco2 of 30 mm Hg (30 mm Hg), and HCO3- of 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L). The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis, compensated 2. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated 3. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated 4. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated

Answer: 2 Rationale: The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. In a respiratory condition, an opposite effect will be seen between the pH and the Paco2. In this situation, the pH is at the high end of the normal value and the Pco2 is low. In an alkalotic condition, the pH is elevated. Therefore, the values identified in the question indicate a respiratory alkalosis that is compensated by the kidneys through the renal excretion of bicarbonate. Because the pH has returned to a normal value, compensation has occurred.

The nurse reviews a client's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing a potassium deficit if which situation is documented? 1. Sustained tissue damage 2. Requires nasogastric suction 3. Has a history of Addison's disease 4. Uric acid level of 9.4 mg/dL (557 mcmol/L)

Answer: 2 Rationale: The normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A potassium deficit is known as hypokalemia. Potassium-rich gastrointestinal fluids are lost through gastrointestinal suction, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia. The client with tissue damage or Addison's disease and the client with hyperuricemia are at risk for hyperkalemia. The normal uric acid level for a female is 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL (160 to 430 mcmol/L) and for a male is 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL (240 to 501 mcmol/L).

The nurse is providing medication instructions to an older client who is taking digoxin daily. The nurse explains to the client that decreased lean body mass and decreased glomerular filtration rate, which are age-related body changes, could place the client at risk for which complication with medication therapy? 1. Decreased absorption of digoxin 2. Increased risk for digoxin toxicity 3. Decreased therapeutic effect of digoxin 4. Increased risk for side effects related to digoxin

Answer: 2 Rationale: The older client is at risk for medication toxicity because of decreased lean body mass and an age-associated decreased glomerular filtration rate. This agerelated change is not specifically associated with decreased absorption, decreased therapeutic effect, or increased risk for side effects. Toxicity, or toxic effects, occurs as a result of excessive accumulation of the medication in the body.

The nurse employed in a hospital is waiting to receive a report from the laboratory via the facsimile (fax) machine. The fax machine activates and the nurse expects the report, but instead receives a sexually oriented photograph. Which is the most appropriate initial nursing action? 1. Call the police. 2. Cut up the photograph and throw it away. 3. Call the nursing supervisor and report the occurrence. 4. Call the laboratory and ask for the name of the individual who sent the photograph.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Ensuring a safe workplace is a responsibility of an employing institution. Sexual harassment in the workplace is prohibited by state and federal laws. Sexually suggestive jokes, touching, pressuring a coworker for a date, and open displays of or transmitting sexually oriented photographs or posters are examples of conduct that could be considered sexual harassment by another worker and is an abusive behavior. If the nurse believes that he or she is being subjected to unwelcome sexual conduct, these concerns should be reported to the nursing supervisor immediately. Option 1 is unnecessary at this time. Options 2 and 4 are inappropriate initial actions.

The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is receiving demand-dose hydromorphone via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for pain 325 control. The nurse enters the client's room and finds the client drowsy and records the following vital signs: temperature 97.2° F (36.2° C) orally, pulse 52 beats per minute, blood pressure 101/58 mm Hg, respiratory rate 11 breaths per minute, and SpO2 of 93% on 3 liters of oxygen via nasal cannula. Which action should the nurse take next? 1. Document the findings. 2. Attempt to arouse the client. 3. Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) immediately. 4. Check the medication administration history on the PCA pump.

Answer: 2 Rationale: The primary concern with opioid analgesics is respiratory depression and hypotension. Based on the assessment findings, the nurse should suspect opioid overdose. The nurse should first attempt to arouse the client and then reassess the vital signs. The vital signs may begin to normalize once the client is aroused, because sleep can also cause decreased heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation. The nurse should also check to see how much medication has been taken via the PCA pump and should continue to monitor the client closely to determine whether further action is needed. The nurse should contact the PHCP and document the findings after all data are collected, after the client is stabilized, and if an abnormality still exists after arousing the client

The nurse is conducting a dietary assessment on a client who is on a vegan diet. The nurse provides dietary teaching and should focus on foods high in which vitamin that may be lacking in a vegan diet? 1. Vitamin A 2. Vitamin B12 3. Vitamin C 4. Vitamin E

Answer: 2 Rationale: Vegans do not consume any animal products. Vitamin B12 is found in animal products and therefore would most likely be lacking in a vegan diet. Vitamins A, C, and E are found in fresh fruits and vegetables, which are consumed in a vegan diet.

The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client for manifestations of which disorder that the client is at risk for? 1. Metabolic acidosis 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Respiratory acidosis 4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answer: 2 Rationale:Metabolic alkalosis is defined as a deficit or loss of hydrogen ions or acids or an excess of base (bicarbonate) that results from the accumulation of base or from a loss of acid without a comparable loss of base in the body fluids. This occurs in conditions resulting in hypovolemia, the loss of gastric fluid, excessive bicarbonate intake, the massive transfusion of whole blood, and hyperaldosteronism. Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis as a result of the loss of hydrochloric acid. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse manager is discussing the facility protocol in the event of a tornado with the staff. Which instructions should the nurse manager include in the discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Open doors to client rooms. 2. Move beds away from windows. 3. Close window shades and curtains. 4. Place blankets over clients who are confined to bed. 5. Relocate ambulatory clients from the hallways back into their

Answer: 2, 3, 4 Rationale: In this weather event, the appropriate nursing actions focus on protecting clients from flying debris or glass. The nurse should close doors to each client's room and move beds away from windows, and close window shades and curtains to protect clients, visitors, and staff from shattering glass and flying debris. Blankets should be placed over clients confined to bed. Ambulatory clients should be moved into the hallways from their rooms, away from windows.

The nurse has made an error in documentation of the dose administered of an opioid pain medication in the client's record. The nurse draws 1 mg from the vial and another registered nurse (RN) witnesses wasting of the remaining 1 mg. When scanning the medication, the nurse entered into the medication administration record (MAR) that 2 mg of hydromorphone was administered instead of the actual dose administered, which was 1 mg. The nurse should take which action(s) to correct the error in the MAR? Select all that apply. 1. Complete and file an occurrence report. 2. Right-click on the entry and modify it to reflect the correct information. 3. Document the correct information and end with the nurse's signature and title. 4. Obtain a cosignature from the RN who witnessed the waste of the remaining 1 mg. 5. Document in a nurse's note in the client's record detailing the corrected information.

Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Electronic health records (EHR) will have a time date stamp that indicates an amendment has been entered. If the nurse makes an error in the MAR, the nurse should follow agency policies to correct the error. In the MAR, the nurse can click on the entry (usually right-click) and modify it to reflect the corrected information. Since this is an opioid medication, the nurse should obtain a cosignature from the RN who witnessed the wasting of the excess medication, to validate that 1 mg, rather than 2 mg, was given. A nurse's note should be used to detail the event and the corrections made, and the nurse's name and title will be stamped on the entry in the EHR. An occurrence report is not necessary in this situation.

The nurse provides instructions to a client with a low potassium level about the foods that are high in potassium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select all that apply. 1. Peas 2. Raisins 3. Potatoes 4. Cantaloupe 5. Cauliflower 6. Strawberries

Answer: 2, 3, 4, 6 Rationale: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). Common food sources of potassium include avocado, bananas, cantaloupe, carrots, fish, mushrooms, oranges, potatoes, pork, beef, veal, raisins, spinach, strawberries, and tomatoes. Peas and cauliflower are high in magnesium.

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the client is experiencing Kussmaul's respirations. Which patterns did the nurse observe? Select all that apply. 1. Respirations that are shallow 2. Respirations that are increased in rate 3. Respirations that are abnormally slow 4. Respirations that are abnormally deep 5. Respirations that cease for several seconds

Answer: 2, 4 Rationale: Kussmaul's respirations are abnormally deep and increased in rate. These occur as a result of the compensatory action by the lungs. In bradypnea, respirations are regular but abnormally slow. Apnea is described as respirations that cease for several seconds

A client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has been "bored" with the clear liquid diet. The nurse should offer which full liquid item to the client? 1. Tea 2. Gelatin 3. Custard 4. Ice pop

Answer: 3 Rationale: Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk, pudding and custard, soups that are strained, refined cooked cereals, and strained vegetable juices. A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent. The food items in the incorrect options are clear liquids

A staff nurse is precepting a new graduate nurse and the new graduate is assigned to care for a client with chronic pain. Which statement, if made by The new graduate nurse, indicates the need for further teaching regarding pain management? 1. "I will be sure to ask my client what his pain level is on a scale of 0 to 10." 2. "I know that I should follow up after giving medication to make sure it is effective." 3. "I will be sure to cue in to any indicators that the client may be exaggerating their pain." 4. "I know that pain in the older client might manifest as sleep disturbances or depression."

Answer: 3 Rationale: Pain is a highly individual experience, and the new graduate nurse should not assume that the client is exaggerating his pain. Rather, the nurse should frequently assess the pain and intervene accordingly through the use of both nonpharmacological and pharmacological interventions. The nurse should assess pain using a number-based scale or a picture-based scale for clients who cannot verbally describe their pain to rate the degree of pain. The nurse should follow up with the client after giving medication to ensure that the medication is effective in managing the pain. Pain experienced by the older client may be manifested differently than pain experienced by clients in other age groups, and they may have sleep disturbances, changes in gait and mobility, decreased socialization, and depression; the nurse should be aware of this attribute in this population

A client diagnosed with conductive hearing loss asks the nurse to explain the cause of the hearing problem. The nurse plans to explain to the client that this condition is caused by which problem? 1. A defect in the cochlea 2. A defect in cranial nerve VIII 3. A physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves 4. A defect in the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex

Answer: 3 Rationale: A conductive hearing loss occurs as a result of a physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves. A sensorineural hearing loss occurs as a result of a pathological process in the inner ear, a defect in cranial nerve VIII, or a defect of the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, and crackles are audible on auscultation. What additional manifestations would the nurse expect to note in this client if excess fluid volume is present? 1. Weight loss and dry skin 2. Flat neck and hand veins and decreased urinary output 3. An increase in blood pressure and increased respirations 4. Weakness and decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Answer: 3 Rationale: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. Assessment findings associated with fluid volume excess include cough, dyspnea, crackles, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, bounding pulse, elevated CVP, weight gain, edema, neck and hand vein distention, altered level of consciousness, and decreased hematocrit. Dry skin, flat neck and hand veins, decreased urinary output, and decreased CVP are noted in fluid volume deficit. Weakness can be present in either fluid volume excess or deficit.

While performing a cardiac assessment on a client with an incompetent heart valve, the nurse auscultates a murmur. The nurse documents the finding and describes the sound as which? 1. Lub-dub sounds 2. Scratchy, leathery heart noise 3. A blowing or swooshing noise 4. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise

Answer: 3 Rationale: A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.

A client with a diagnosis of asthma is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. Which type of adventitious lung sounds should the nurse expect to hear when performing a respiratory assessment on this client? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Wheezes 4. Diminished

Answer: 3 Rationale: Asthma is a respiratory disorder characterized by recurring episodes of dyspnea, constriction of the bronchi, and wheezing. Wheezes are described as highpitched musical sounds heard when air passes through an obstructed or narrowed lumen of a respiratory passageway. Stridor is a harsh sound noted with an upper airway obstruction and often signals a life-threatening emergency. Crackles are produced by air passing over retained airway secretions or fluid, or the sudden opening of collapsed airways. Diminished lung sounds are heard over lung tissue where poor oxygen exchange is occurring

The nurse is assessing a client suspected of having meningitis for meningeal irritation and elicits a positive Brudzinski's sign. Which finding did the nurse observe? 1. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet. 2. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended. 3. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. 4. The client's upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Brudzinski's sign is tested with the client in the supine position. The nurse flexes the client's head (gently moves the head to the chest), and there should be no reports of pain or resistance to the neck flexion. A positive Brudzinski's sign is observed if the client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. Kernig's sign also tests for meningeal irritation and is positive when the client flexes the legs at the hip and knee and complains of pain along the vertebral column when the leg is extended. Decorticate posturing is abnormal flexion and is noted when the client's upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. Decerebrate posturing is abnormal extension and occurs when the arms are fully extended, forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, jaws clenched, neck extended, and feet plantar-flexed.

The nurse reviews the electrolyte results of a client with chronic kidney disease and notes that the potassium level is 5.7 mEq/L (5.7 mmol/L). Which patterns would the nurse watch for on the cardiac monitor as a result of the laboratory value? Select all that apply. 1. ST depression 2. Prominent U wave 3. Tall peaked T waves 4. Prolonged ST segment 5. Widened QRS complexes

Answer: 3, 5 Rationale: The client with chronic kidney disease is at risk for hyperkalemia. The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A serum potassium level greater than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) indicates hyperkalemia. Electrocardiographic changes associated with hyperkalemia include flat P waves, prolonged PR intervals, widened QRS complexes, and tall peaked T waves. ST depression and a prominent U wave occurs in hypokalemia. A prolonged ST segment occurs in hypocalcemia.

The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client and notes a positive Romberg's test. The nurse makes this determination based on which observation? 1. An involuntary rhythmic, rapid, twitching of the eyeballs 2. A dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes 3. A significant sway when the client stands erect with feet together, arms at the side, and the eyes closed 4. A lack of normal sense of position when the client is unable to return extended fingers to a point of reference

Answer: 3 Rationale: In Romberg's test, the client is asked to stand with the feet together and the arms at the sides, and to close the eyes and hold the position; normally the client can maintain posture and balance. A positive Romberg's sign is a vestibular neurological sign that is found when a client exhibits a loss of balance when closing the eyes. This may occur with cerebellar ataxia, loss of proprioception, and loss of vestibular function. A lack of normal sense of position coupled with an inability to return extended fingers to a point of reference is a finding that indicates a problem with coordination. A positive gaze nystagmus evaluation results in an involuntary rhythmic, rapid twitching of the eyeballs. A positive Babinski's test results in dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes; if this occurs in anyone older than 2 years it indicates the presence of central nervous system disease.

The nurse is reading a primary health care provider's (PHCP's) progress notes in the client's record and reads that the PHCP has documented "insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily." The nurse makes a notation that insensible fluid loss occurs through which type of excretion? 1. Urinary output 2. Wound drainage 3. Integumentary output 4. The gastrointestinal tract

Answer: 3 Rationale: Insensible losses may occur without the person's awareness. Insensible losses occur daily through the skin and the lungs. Sensible losses are those of which the person is aware, such as through urination, wound drainage, and gastrointestinal tract losses.

The nurse who works on the night shift enters the medication room and finds a coworker with a tourniquet wrapped around the upper arm. The coworker is about to insert a needle, attached to a syringe containing a clear liquid, into the antecubital area. Which is the most appropriate action by the nurse? 1. Call security. 2. Call the police. 3. Call the nursing supervisor. 4. Lock the coworker in the medication room until help is obtained.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Nurse practice acts require reporting impaired nurses. The board of nursing has jurisdiction over the practice of nursing and may develop plans for treatment and supervision of the impaired nurse. This occurrence needs to be reported to the nursing supervisor, who will then report to the board of nursing and other authorities, such as the police, as required. The nurse may call security if a disturbance occurs, but no information in the question supports this need, and so this is not the appropriate action. Option 4 is an inappropriate and unsafe action.

The nurse is instructing a client with hypertension on the importance of choosing foods low in sodium. The nurse should teach the client to limit intake of which food? 1. Apples 2. Bananas 3. Smoked salami 4. Steamed vegetables

Answer: 3 Rationale: Smoked foods are high in sodium, which is noted in the correct option. The remaining options are fruits and vegetables, which are low in sodium.

A Spanish-speaking client arrives at the triage desk in the emergency department and states to the nurse that an interpreter is needed. Which is the best action for the nurse to take? 1. Have one of the client's family members interpret. 2. Have the Spanish-speaking triage receptionist interpret. 3. Page an interpreter from the hospital's interpreter services. 4. Obtain a Spanish-English dictionary and attempt to triage the client

Answer: 3 Rationale: The best action is to have a professional hospital-based interpreter translate for the client. English-speaking family members may not appropriately understand what is asked of them and may paraphrase what the client is actually saying. Also, client confidentiality as well as accurate information may be compromised when a family member or a non-health care provider acts as interpreter.

An adult female client has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL (108 mmol/L). The nurse interprets that this result is most likely caused by which condition noted in the client's history? 1. Dehydration 2. Heart failure 3. Iron deficiency anemia 4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer: 3 Rationale: The normal hemoglobin level for an adult female client is 12 to 16 g/dL (120 to 160 mmol/L). Iron deficiency anemia can result in lower hemoglobin levels. Dehydration may increase the hemoglobin level by hemoconcentration. Heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may increase the hemoglobin level as a result of the body's need for more oxygen-carrying capacity

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. The nurse suspects hyponatremia. What additional signs would the nurse expect to note in a client with hyponatremia? 1. Muscle twitches 2. Decreased urinary output 3. Hyperactive bowel sounds 4. Increased specific gravity of the urine

Answer: 3 Rationale: The normal serum sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is evidenced by a serum sodium level lower than 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Hyperactive bowel sounds indicate hyponatremia. The remaining options are signs of hypernatremia. In hyponatremia, muscle weakness, increased urinary output, and decreased specific gravity of the urine would be noted.

The registered nurse is planning the client assignments for the day. Which is the most appropriate assignment for an assistive personnel (AP)? 1. A client requiring a colostomy irrigation 2. A client receiving continuous tube feedings 3. A client who requires urine specimen collections 4. A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids

Answer: 3 Rationale: The nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment based on the skills of the staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the most appropriate assignment for the AP would be to care for the client who requires urine specimen collections. The AP is skilled in this procedure. Colostomy irrigations and tube feedings are not performed by APs because these are invasive procedures. The client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids is at risk for aspiration.

79. The nurse is planning to teach a client with malabsorption syndrome about the necessity of following a low-fat diet. The nurse develops a list of high-fat foods to avoid and should include which food items on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Oranges 2. Broccoli 3. Margarine 4. Cream cheese 5. Luncheon meats 6. Broiled haddock

Answer: 3, 4, 5 Rationale: Fruits and vegetables tend to be lower in fat because they do not come from animal sources. Broiled haddock is also naturally lower in fat. Margarine, cream cheese, and luncheon meats are high-fat foods.

On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume excess? 1. The client taking diuretics who has tenting of the skin 2. The client with an ileostomy from a recent abdominal surgery 3. The client who requires intermittent gastrointestinal suctioning 4. The client with kidney disease and a 12-year history of diabetes mellitus

Answer: 4 Rationale: A fluid volume excess is also known as overhydration or fluid overload and occurs when fluid intake or fluid retention exceeds the fluid needs of the body. The causes of fluid volume excess include decreased kidney function, heart failure, use of hypotonic fluids to replace isotonic fluid losses, excessive irrigation of wounds and body cavities, and excessive ingestion of sodium. The client taking diuretics, the client with an ileostomy, and the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning are at risk for fluid volume deficit.

A client with a history of upper gastrointestinal bleeding has a platelet count of 300,000 mm3 (300 × 109/L). The nurse should take which action after seeing the laboratory results? 1. Report the abnormally low count. 2. Report the abnormally high count. 3. Place the client on bleeding precautions. 4. Place the normal report in the client's medical record.

Answer: 4 Rationale: A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150 to 400 × 109/L). The nurse should place the report containing the normal laboratory value in the client's medical record. A platelet count of 300,000 mm3 (300 × 109/L) is not an elevated count. The count also is not low; therefore, bleeding precautions are not needed

The nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client rounds, which client should the nurse assess first? 1. A postoperative client preparing for discharge with a new medication 2. A client requiring daily dressing changes of a recent surgical incision 3. A client scheduled for a chest x-ray after insertion of a nasogastric tube 4. A client with asthma who requested a breathing treatment during the previous shift

Answer: 4 Rationale: Airway is always the highest priority, and the nurse would attend to the client with asthma who requested a breathing treatment during the previous shift. This could indicate that the client was experiencing difficulty breathing. The clients described in options 1, 2, and 3 have needs that would be identified as intermediate priorities

A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results, expecting to note which finding? 1. A decreased pH and an increased Paco2 2. An increased pH and a decreased Paco2 3. A decreased pH and a decreased HCO3- 4. An increased pH and an increased HCO3-

Answer: 4 Rationale: Clients experiencing nausea and vomiting would most likely present with metabolic alkalosis resulting from loss of gastric acid, thus causing the pH and HCO3- to increase. Symptoms experienced by the client would include a decrease in the respiratory rate and depth, and tachycardia. Option 1 reflects a respiratory acidotic condition. Option 2 reflects a respiratory alkalotic condition, and option 3 reflects a metabolic acidotic condition.

The nurse manager has implemented a change in the method of the nursing delivery system from functional to team nursing. An assistive personnel (AP) is resistant to the change and is not taking an active part in facilitating the process of change. Which is the best approach in dealing with the AP? 1. Ignore the resistance. 2. Exert coercion on the AP. 3. Provide a positive reward system for the AP. 4. Confront the AP to encourage verbalization of feelings regarding the change.

Answer: 4 Rationale: Confrontation is an important strategy to meet resistance head-on. Face-to-face meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems and issues, and development of strategies to solve the problem. Option 1 will not address the problem. Option 2 may produce additional resistance. Option 3 may provide a temporary solution to the resistance but will not address the concern specifically.

A client with hypertension has been told to maintain a diet low in sodium. The nurse who is teaching this client about foods that are allowed should include which food item in a list provided to the client? 1. Tomato soup 2. Boiled shrimp 3. Instant oatmeal 4. Summer squash

Answer: 4 Rationale: Foods that are lower in sodium include fruits and vegetables (summer squash) because they do not contain physiological saline. Highly processed or refined foods (tomato soup, instant oatmeal) are higher in sodium unless their food labels specifically state "low sodium." Saltwater fish and shellfish are high in sodium.

The nurse employed in an emergency department is assigned to triage clients coming to the emergency department for treatment on the evening shift. The nurse should assign priority to which client? 1. A client complaining of muscle aches, a headache, and history of seizures 2. A client who twisted her ankle when rollerblading and is requesting medication for pain 3. A client with a minor laceration on the index finger sustained while cutting an eggplant 4. A client with chest pain who states that he just ate pizza that was made with a very spicy sauce

Answer: 4 Rationale: In an emergency department, triage involves brief client assessment to classify clients according to their need for care and includes establishing priorities of care. The type of illness or injury, the severity of the problem, and the resources available govern the process. Clients with trauma, chest pain, severe respiratory distress or cardiac arrest, limb amputation, and acute neurological deficits and those who have sustained chemical splashes to the eyes are classified as emergent and are the highest priority. Clients with conditions such as a simple fracture, asthma without respiratory distress, fever, hypertension, abdominal pain, or a renal stone have urgent needs and are classified as a second priority. Clients with conditions such as a minor laceration, sprain, or cold symptoms are classified as nonurgent and are a third priority.

A nursing graduate is attending an agency orientation regarding the nursing model of practice implemented in the health care facility. The nurse is told that the nursing model is a team nursing approach. The nurse determines that which scenario is characteristic of the team-based model of nursing practice? 1. Each staff member is assigned a specific task for a group of clients. 2. A staff member is assigned to determine the client's needs at home and begin discharge planning. 3. A single registered nurse (RN) is responsible for providing care to a group of 6 clients with the aid of an assistive personnel (AP). 4. An RN leads 2 licensed practical nurses (LPNs) and 3 APs in providing care to a group of 12 clients.

Answer: 4 Rationale: In team nursing, nursing personnel are led by a registered nurse leader in providing care to a group of clients. Option 1 identifies functional nursing. Option 2 identifies a component of case management. Option 3 identifies primary nursing (relationship-based practice).

A hospitalized client tells the nurse that an instructional directive is being prepared and that the lawyer will be bringing the document to the hospital today for witness signatures. The client asks the nurse for assistance in obtaining a witness to the will. Which is the most appropriate response to the client? 1. "I will sign as a witness to your signature." 2. "You will need to find a witness on your own." 3. "Whoever is available at the time will sign as a witness for you." 4. "I will call the nursing supervisor to seek assistance regarding your request."

Answer: 4 Rationale: Instructional directives (living wills) are required to be in writing and signed by the client. The client's signature must be witnessed by specified individuals or notarized. Laws and guidelines regarding instructional directives vary from state to state, and it is the responsibility of the nurse to know the laws. Many states prohibit any employee, including the nurse of a facility where the client is receiving care, from being a witness. Option 2 is nontherapeutic and not a helpful response. The nurse should seek the assistance of the nursing supervisor.

A nursing instructor delivers a lecture to nursing students regarding the issue of clients' rights and asks a nursing student to identify a situation that represents an example of invasion of client privacy. Which situation, if identified by the student, indicates an understanding of a violation of this client right? 1. Performing a procedure without consent 2. Threatening to give a client a medication 3. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital 4. Observing care provided to the client without the client's permission

Answer: 4 Rationale: Invasion of privacy occurs with unreasonable intrusion into an individual's private affairs. Performing a procedure without consent is an example of battery. Threatening to give a client a medication constitutes assault. Telling the client that the client cannot leave the hospital constitutes false imprisonment.

The nurse is caring for a client having respiratory distress related to an anxiety attack. Recent arterial blood gas values are pH = 7.53, Pao2 = 72 mm Hg (72 mm Hg), Paco2 = 32 mm Hg (32 mm Hg), and = 28 mEq/L (28 mmol/L). Which conclusion about the client should the nurse make? 1. The client has acidotic blood. 2. The client is probably overreacting. 3. The client is fluid volume overloaded. 4. The client is probably hyperventilating.

Answer: 4 Rationale: The ABG values are abnormal, which supports a physiological problem. The ABGs indicate respiratory alkalosis as a result of hyperventilating, not acidosis. Concluding that the client is overreacting is an inaccurate analysis. No conclusion can be made about a client's fluid volume status from the information provided.

A client who is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results indicate the following: pH is 7.12, Paco2 is 90 mm Hg (90 mm Hg), and is 22 mEq/L (22 mmol/L). The nurse interprets the results as indicating which condition? 1. Metabolic acidosis with compensation 2. Respiratory acidosis with compensation 3. Metabolic acidosis without compensation 4. Respiratory acidosis without compensation

Answer: 4 Rationale: The acid-base disturbance is respiratory acidosis without compensation. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The normal Paco2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg). In respiratory acidosis the pH is decreased and the Pco2 is elevated. The normal bicarbonate ) level is 21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L). Because the bicarbonate is still within normal limits, the kidneys have not had time to adjust for this acid-base disturbance. In addition, the pH is not within normal limits. Therefore, the condition is without compensation. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

A client brought to the emergency department states that he has accidentally been taking 2 times his prescribed dose of warfarin for the past week. After noting that the client has no evidence of obvious bleeding, the nurse plans to take which action? 1. Prepare to administer an antidote. 2. Draw a sample for type and crossmatch and transfuse the client. 3. Draw a sample for an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level. 4. Draw a sample for prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).

Answer: 4 Rationale: The action that the nurse should take is to draw a sample for PT and INR level to determine the client's anticoagulation status and risk for bleeding. These results will provide information as to how to best treat this client (e.g., if an antidote such as vitamin K or a blood transfusion is needed). The aPTT monitors the effects of heparin therapy.

The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of the disorder, the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The nurse determines that the client has the best understanding of the dietary measures to follow if the client states an intention to increase the intake of which food? 1. Milk 2. Chicken 3. Broccoli 4. Legumes

Answer: 4 Rationale: The client with cirrhosis needs to consume foods high in thiamine. Thiamine is present in a variety of foods of plant and animal origin. Legumes are especially rich in this vitamin. Other good food sources include nuts, whole-grain cereals, and pork. Milk contains vitamins A, D, and B2. Poultry contains niacin. Broccoli contains vitamins C, E, and K and folic acid

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin sodium to treat deep vein thrombosis. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 65 seconds. The nurse anticipates that which action is needed? 1. Discontinuing the heparin infusion 2. Increasing the rate of the heparin infusion 3. Decreasing the rate of the heparin infusion 4. Leaving the rate of the heparin infusion as is

Answer: 4 Rationale: The normal aPTT varies between 30 and 40 seconds (30 and 40 seconds), depending on the type of activator used in testing. The therapeutic dose of heparin for treatment of deep vein thrombosis is to keep the aPTT between 1.5 (45 to 60) and 2.5 (75 to 100) times normal. This means that the client's value should not be less than 45 seconds or greater than 100 seconds. Thus, the client's aPTT is within the therapeutic range and the dose should remain unchanged.

Which client is at risk for the development of a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)? 1. The client with colitis 2. The client with Cushing's syndrome 3. The client who has been overusing laxatives 4. The client who has sustained a traumatic burn

Answer: 4 Rationale: The normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L). A serum potassium level higher than 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) indicates hyperkalemia. Clients who experience cellular shifting of potassium in the early stages of massive cell destruction, such as with trauma, burns, sepsis, or metabolic or respiratory acidosis, are at risk for hyperkalemia. The client with Cushing's syndrome or colitis and the client who has been overusing laxatives are at risk for hypokalemi

A client with diabetes mellitus has a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c level of 8%. On the basis of this test result, the nurse plans to teach the client about the need for which measure? 1. Avoiding infection 2. Taking in adequate fluids 3. Preventing and recognizing hypoglycemia 4. Preventing and recognizing hyperglycemia

Answer: 4 Rationale: The normal reference range for the glycosylated hemoglobin A1c is less than 6.0%. This test measures the amount of glucose that has become permanently bound to the red blood cells from circulating glucose. Erythrocytes live for about 120 days, giving feedback about blood glucose for the past 120 days. Elevations in the blood glucose level will cause elevations in the amount of glycosylation. Thus, the test is useful in identifying clients who have periods of hyperglycemia that are undetected in other ways. The estimated average glucose for a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c of 8% is 205 mg/dL (11.42 mmol/L). Elevations indicate continued need for teaching related to the prevention of hyperglycemic episodes.

The nurse is giving a bed bath to an assigned client when an assistive personnel (AP) enters the client's room and tells the nurse that another assigned client is in pain and needs pain medication. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Finish the bed bath and then administer the pain medication to the other client. 2. Ask the AP to find out when the last pain medication was given to the client. 3. Ask the AP to tell the client in pain that medication will be administered as soon as the bed bath is complete. 4. Cover the client, raise the side rails, tell the client that you will return shortly, and administer the pain medication to the other client

Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse is responsible for the care provided to assigned clients. The appropriate action in this situation is to provide safety to the client who is receiving the bed bath and prepare to administer the pain medication. Options 1 and 3 delay the administration of medication to the client in pain. Option 2 is not a responsibility of the AP.

An older woman is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a fractured arm. On physical assessment, the nurse notes old and new ecchymotic areas on the client's chest and legs and asks the client how the bruises were sustained. The client, although reluctant, tells the nurse in confidence that her son frequently hits her if supper is not prepared on time when he arrives home from work. Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "Oh, really? I will discuss this situation with your son." 2. "Let's talk about the ways you can manage your time to prevent this from happening." 3. "Do you have any friends who can help you out until you resolve these important issues with your son?" 4. "As a nurse, I am legally bound to report abuse. I will stay with you while you give the report and help find a safe place for you to stay."

Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse must report situations related to child or elder abuse, gunshot wounds and other criminal acts, and certain infectious diseases. Confidential issues are not to be discussed with nonmedical personnel or the client's family or friends without the client's permission. Clients should be assured that information is kept confidential, unless it places the nurse under a legal obligation. Options 1, 2, and 3 do not address the legal implications of the situation and do not ensure a safe environment for the client.

The nurse has received the assignment for the day shift. After making initial rounds and checking all of the assigned clients, which client should the nurse plan to care for first? 1. A client who is ambulatory demonstrating steady gait 2. A postoperative client who has just received an opioid pain medication 3. A client scheduled for physical therapy for the first crutchwalking session 4. A client with a white blood cell count of 14,000 mm3 (14 × 109/L) and a temperature of 38.4° C

Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse should plan to care for the client who has an elevated white blood cell count and a fever first, because this client's needs are the priority. The client who is ambulatory with steady gait and the client scheduled for physical therapy for a crutch-walking session do not have priority needs. Waiting for pain medication to take effect before providing care to the postoperative client is best.

The nurse employed in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. The nurse needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical nurse and 3 assistive personnel (APs) on a nursing team. Which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to the licensed practical nurse? 1. A client who requires a bed bath 2. An older client requiring frequent ambulation 3. A client who requires hourly vital sign measurements 4. A client requiring abdominal wound irrigations and dressing changes every 3 hours

Answer: 4 Rationale: When delegating nursing assignments, the nurse needs to consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. Giving a bed bath, assisting with frequent ambulation, and taking vital signs can be provided most appropriately by an AP. The licensed practical nurse is skilled in wound irrigations and dressing changes and most appropriately would be assigned to the client who needs this care.

The nurse is caring for a client with Crohn's disease who has a calcium level of 8 mg/dL (2 mmol/L). Which patterns would the nurse watch for on the electrocardiogram? Select all that apply. 1. U waves 2. Widened T wave 3. Prominent U wave 4. Prolonged QT interval 5. Prolonged ST segment

Answer: 4, 5 Rationale: A client with Crohn's disease is at risk for hypocalcemia. The normal serum calcium level is 9 to 10.5 mg/dL (2.25 to 2.75 mmol/L). A serum calcium level lower than 9 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) indicates hypocalcemia. Electrocardiographic changes that occur in a client with hypocalcemia include a prolonged QT interval and prolonged ST segment. A shortened ST segment and a widened T wave occur with hypercalcemia. ST depression and prominent U waves occur with hypokalemia.