CDC 3F151B Services Journeyman Volume 3. Readiness and Mortuary

34. (409) How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when these sites are not located in the same place? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

a. 1.

35. (410) Eligible personnel are entitled to how many military funeral honors (MFH), ceremonies, or services? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

a. 1.

21. (406) Home station and readiness training (HSRT) has how many tiers? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

a. 2.

17. (404) The tent, expandable, modular, personnel (TEMPER) component that provides increased environmental protection is the tent's a. fly. b. plenum. c. top cover. d. door with zippers.

a. fly.

10. (403) Deployment beddown planning should be in concert with a. force modules concepts. b. the deployment cycle. c. command and control (C2). d. bare base (BB) requirements.

a. force modules concepts.

25. (407) A fundamental premise of the Status of Resource and Training System (SORTS) is a. integrity. b. service before self. c. excellence in all we do. d. pride in one's self and unit.

a. integrity.

55. (412) During the recovery process of a search and recovery (S&R) operation the letter "P" on a remains tag denotes a. portion of remains. b. packaged remains. c. preserved effects. d. personal effects.

a. portion of remains.

7. (402) The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in a. rank and position. b. rank and time-in-grade. c. position and time-in-grade. d. position and time-in-service.

a. rank and position.

5. (402) More than one time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) entry may be required for a force requirement due to a. split sourcing. b. multiple pallets. c. multiple delivery dates. d. the need for more than one aircraft.

a. split sourcing.

6. (402) The deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) dictates to units the a. tasking to fill. b. manning requirements. c. number of enlisted to deploy. d. number of officers to deploy.

a. tasking to fill.

50. (412) How many individuals of the 26 person peacetime search and recovery (S&R) team does the mortuary officer ensure are trained as S&R team leaders, flankers, and in recovered remains and tagging procedures? a. 8. b. 10. c. 12. d. 14.

b. 10.

52. (412) How many items must be considered before starting search and recovery (S&R) operations? a. 10. b. 11. c. 12. d. 13.

b. 11.

9. (403) What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability? a. 100. b. 90. c. 80. d. 75.

b. 90.

12. (404) Where can you obtain training transcripts as proof that you are ready to deploy? a. Logistics module (LOGMOD). b. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS). c. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). d. Air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART).

b. Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

15. (404) Which force module sets are being phased out? a. Basic expeditionary airfield resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle. b. Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon. c. Small shelter systems (SSS). d. BEAR and Harvest Falcon.

b. Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

4. (401) In a wartime environment, where possible, levels of service increase commensurate with quality of life programs after a. M+15. b. M+30. c. M+45. d. M+60.

b. M+30

19. (405) Which force module (FM) is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue for more than 45 days? a. Open the Base. b. Operate the Base. c. Establish the Base. d. Command and Control (C2).

b. Operate the Base.

14. (404) Which type of unit type code (UTC) provides nonappropriated fund instrumentality (NAFI) management for a population of 1,100? a. RFSRB. b. RFSRL. c. RFL14. d. RFL05.

b. RFSRL.

3. (401) In War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1), the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force Reserve (AFR) a. and Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and Airmen. b. and ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas. c. and ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and all civilians. d. officers and enlisted Airmen.

b. and ANG officers, NCOs, Airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

1. (401) The base support plan (BSP) is reviewed a. monthly. b. annually. c. bi-monthly. d. bi-annually.

b. annually.

42. (411) The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the mortuary affairs activity at the end of each a. hour. b. day. c. week. d. month.

b. day.

37. (410) The individual in charge of the overall performance, discipline, appearance, and competence of honor guard members is the honor guard a. noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). b. officer in charge (OIC). c. flight commander. d. flight NCOIC.

b. officer in charge (OIC).

18. (405) Which force module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources to make the beddown forces operationally capable? a. Open the Base. b. Operate the Base. c. Establish the Base. d. Command and Control (C2).

c. Establish the Base.

8. (403) Who provides direction to the unit control center (UCC)? a. Base commander. b. Group commander c. Force support commander. d. Readiness officer in charge.

c. Force support commander.

11. (403) Who can provide you with a base map or GeoBase Data? a. Security forces. b. Civil engineering. c. Logistics readiness. d. Data automation office.

c. Logistics readiness.

46. (411) What personnel cannot determine if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions? a. Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC). b. Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD). c. Temporary interment site members. d. Security forces.

c. Temporary interment site members.

45. (411) Given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site, who determines what equipment available on station is adequate to the task? a. Host nation environmental protection agency. b. Bioenvironmental flight chief. c. Department of Agriculture. d. Civil engineers.

d. Civil engineers.

43. (411) Port mortuary services specialty teams receive remains at a. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, New Jersey. b. Shaw Air Force Base (AFB), South Carolina. c. Seymour Johnson AFB, North Carolina. d. Dover AFB, Delaware.

d. Dover AFB, Delaware.

38. (410) Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams? a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). b. Officer in charge (OIC). c. Flight commander. d. Flight NCOIC.

d. Flight NCOIC.

44. (411) Who grants permission for temporary interment? a. Unit commander. b. Installation commander. c. Force support commander. d. Geographic combatant commander.

d. Geographic combatant commander.

32. (408) What type of flag case is presented to the deceased member's family? a. Pewter and glass. b. Smooth plastic. c. Polished metal. d. Hardwood.

d. Hardwood.

33. (408) Who ensures that a government purchase card account is established for mortuary expenses? a. Installation commander. b. Contracting officer. c. Resource manager. d. Mortuary officer.

d. Mortuary officer.

53. (412) During peacetime search and recovery (S&R) operations who coordinates with the civil engineers to determine search areas? a. Medical officer. b. Mortuary officer. c. Force Support commander. d. Search and recovery team leader.

d. Search and recovery team leader.

24. (406) Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification? a. All Air Force members. b. Members with civilian spouses. c. All Air Force contractors and civilians. d. Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

d. Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

29. (408) What program is used as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains? a. Current death. b. Mortuary affairs. c. Concurrent return. d. Temporary interment.

d. Temporary interment.

2. (401) What document outlines the doctrinal concept and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict from small scale contingency operations through major regional war? a. Air Force Handbook (AFH), Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning: Beddown. b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program. c. AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution. d. War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1).

d. War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1).

13. (404) The unit deployment manager (UDM) provides quarterly training status updates to the a. flight chief. b. major command (MAJCOM). c. installation deployment officer. d. force support squadron (FSS) commander.

d. force support squadron (FSS) commander.

22. (406) The mobility A-Bag contains a. parka, gloves, boots, socks, and other cold weather items. b. protective mask, mask filters, gloves, hoods, boots, detection papers. c. an M-9 or M-16, six ammo clips, ammunition, and night vision scope. d. helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit

d. helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit

27. (408) Eligible personnel are provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations through what program? a. Current death. b. Mortuary affairs. c. Veteran Services. d. Survivor assistance program.

a. Current death.

23. (406) What plays a key role in ensuring that all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times? a. Mobility folders. b. Base legal office. c. Squadron readiness office. d. Installation deployment plan.

a. Mobility folders.

26. (408) Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death? a. Mortuary officer. b. Family assistance representative (FAR). c. Base commander of the deceased. d. Person authorized direct disposition (PADD).

a. Mortuary officer.

41. (411) When do you wash remains? a. Never. b. Always. c. When an aircraft is not leaving within 1 hour. d. When an aircraft is not leaving within 2 hours.

a. Never.

31. (408) The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the a. family. b. deceased. c. commander. d. family assistance representative (FAR).

a. family.

30. (408) The family assistance representative (FAR) should contact the family a. daily. b. weekly. c. monthly. d. quarterly.

a. daily.

54. (412) During the recovery phase of a search and recovery (S&R) event how many tags are used for each set of remains found? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

c. 3.

47. (411) Remains must be refrigerated at a. 32 to 34° Fahrenheit (F). b. 36 to 38° F. c. 38 to 40° F. d. 40 to 42° F.

c. 38 to 40° F.

51. (412) Who educates and trains search and recovery (S&R) team members on the use, maintenance, and care of respirators used to protect against the inhalation of harmful atmospheres? a. Medical officer. b. Mortuary officer. c. Bioenvironmental engineer. d. Readiness noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

c. Bioenvironmental engineer.

39. (411) Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)? a. The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC). b. Survival recovery center (SRC). c. Competent medical authority. d. The officer in charge (OIC).

c. Competent medical authority.

28. (408) Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict? a. Current death. b. Mortuary affairs. c. Concurrent return. d. Temporary interment.

c. Concurrent return.

40. (411) When can remains be shipped without processing? a. Never. b. Always. c. When an aircraft leaves within 2 hours. d. when an aircraft leaves within 3 to 5 hours.

c. When an aircraft leaves within 2 hours.

36. (410) Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a a. professional bugler. b. high-quality recorded version the family selects. c. ceremonial bugle if the military service permits. d. ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission.

c. ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.

49. (411) How many members staff a fatality search and recovery team (FSRT)? a. 4. b. 8. c. 10. d. 12.

d. 12.

16. (404) What is the approximate inside measurement when squaring off a small shelter system? a. 32 feet and 6 inches. b. 34 feet and 3 inches. c. 36 feet and 6 inches. d. 38 feet and 3 inches.

d. 38 feet and 3 inches.

48. (411) When a fatality mishap occurs what agency is notified in order to make a fatality search and recovery team (FSRT) determination? a. Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). b. HQ USAF Directorate of Services (HQ USAF/A1S). c. Major Command Services (MAJCOM/SV). d. Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO).

d. Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO).

20. (406) Who must complete home station and readiness training (HSRT)? a. Subject-to-deploy personnel. b. Personnel in upgrade training. c. Identified-to-deploy personnel. d. All force support squadron (FSS) personnel.

d. All force support squadron (FSS) personnel.