Ch 21 Respiratory Care Modalities
Of the following oxygen administration devices, which has the advantage of providing high oxygen concentration? a) Catheter b) Venturi mask c) Face tent d) Non-rebreather mask
Non-rebreather mask The non-rebreather mask provides high oxygen concentration but it is usually poor fitting. The Venturi mask provides low levels of supplemental oxygen. The catheter is an inexpensive device that provides a variable fraction of inspired oxygen and may cause gastric distention. A face tent provides a fairly accurate fraction of inspired oxygen, but is bulky and uncomfortable. It would not be the device of choice to provide high oxygen concentration.
The nurse is preparing to perform chest physiotherapy (CPT) on a patient. Which of the following patient statements would indicate the procedure is contraindicated. a) "I received my pain medication 10 minutes ago, let's do my CPT now." b) "I just finished eating my lunch, I'm ready for my CPT now." c) "I just changed into my running suit; we can do my CPT now." d) "I have been coughing all morning and am barely bringing anything up."
"I just finished eating my lunch, I'm ready for my CPT now." When performing CPT, the nurse ensures that the patient is comfortable, is not wearing restrictive clothing, and has not just eaten. The nurse gives medication for pain, as prescribed, before percussion and vibration and splints any incision and provides pillows for support, as needed. A goal of CPT is for the patient to be able to mobilize secretions; the patient who is having an unproductive cough is a candidate for CPT.
For a client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is the most important? a) Monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours b) Turning the client from side to side every 2 hours c) Providing frequent oral hygiene d) Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds
Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds For the client with an ET tube, the most important nursing action is auscultating the lungs regularly for bilateral breath sounds to ensure proper tube placement and effective oxygen delivery. Although turning the client from side to side every 2 hours, monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours, and providing frequent oral hygiene are appropriate actions for this client, they're secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation.
The nurse is caring for a patient following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a) Heart rate: 112 bpm b) Chest tube drainage of 190 mL/hr c) Moderate amounts of colorless sputum d) Pain of 5 on a 1 to 10 pain scale
Chest tube drainage of 190 mL/hr The nurse should monitor and document the amount and character of drainage every 2 hours. The nurse will notify the primary provider if drainage is 150 mL/hr or greater. The other findings are normal following a thoracotomy; no intervention is required.
A client is recovering from thoracic surgery needed to perform a right lower lobectomy. Which of the following is the most likely postoperative nursing intervention? a) Make sure that a thoracotomy tube is linked to open chest drainage. b) Restrict intravenous fluids for at least 24 hours. c) Assist with positioning the client on the right side. d) Encourage coughing to mobilize secretions.
Encourage coughing to mobilize secretions. The client is encouraged to cough frequently to mobilize secretions. The client will be placed in the semi-Fowler's position. Thoracotomy tubes are always attached to closed, sealed drainage to re-expand lung tissue and prevent pneumothorax. Restricting IV fluids in a client who is NPO while recovering from surgery would lead to dehydration. (less)
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a lobectomy. Following the procedure, the nurse will plan care based on which of the following? a) The patient will return from surgery with no drainage tubes. b) The patient will require mechanical ventilation following surgery. c) The patient will return to the nursing unit with two chest tubes. d) The patient will require sedation until the chest tube (s) are removed.
The patient will return to the nursing unit with two chest tubes. The nurse should plan for the patient to return to the nursing unit with two chest tubes intact. During a lobectomy, the lobe is removed, and the remaining lobes of the lung are re-expanded. Usually, two chest catheters are inserted for drainage. The upper tube is for air removal; the lower one is for fluid drainage. Sometimes, only one catheter is needed. The chest tube is connected to a chest drainage apparatus for several days.
Which type of ventilator has a present volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration? a) Pressure-cycled b) Negative-pressure c) Time-cycled d) Volume-controlled
Volume-controlled With volume-controlled ventilation, the volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration is present. Negative pressure ventilators exert a negative pressure on the external chest. Time-cycled ventilators terminate or control inspiration after a preset time. When the pressure-cycled ventilator cycles on, it delivers a flow of air (inspiration) until it reaches a present pressure, and then cycles off, and expiration occurs passively.
After undergoing a left thoracotomy, a client has a chest tube in place. When caring for this client, the nurse must: a) report fluctuations in the water-seal chamber. b) milk the chest tube every 2 hours. c) clamp the chest tube once every shift. d) encourage coughing and deep breathing.
encourage coughing and deep breathing. When caring for a client who's recovering from a thoracotomy, the nurse should encourage coughing and deep breathing to prevent pneumonia. Fluctuations in the water-seal chamber are normal. Clamping the chest tube could cause a tension pneumothorax. Chest tube milking is controversial and should be done only to remove blood clots that obstruct the flow of drainage.
A client has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first? a) Prepare to start an I.V. line. b) Apply a dressing over the wound and tape it on three sides. c) Prepare a chest tube insertion tray. d) Draw blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level.
Apply a dressing over the wound and tape it on three sides. The nurse should immediately apply a dressing over the stab wound and tape it on three sides to allow air to escape and to prevent tension pneumothorax (which is more life-threatening than an open chest wound). Only after covering and taping the wound should the nurse draw blood for laboratory tests, assist with chest tube insertion, and start an I.V. line.
A client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important? a) Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) b) Bicarbonate (HCO3-) c) Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) d) pH
Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) The most significant and direct indicator of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy is the PaO2 value. Based on the PaO2 value, the nurse may adjust the type of oxygen delivery (cannula, Venturi mask, or mechanical ventilator), flow rate, and oxygen percentage. The other options reflect the client's ventilation status, not oxygenation. The pH, HCO3-, and PaCO2 (less)
A nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What should the nurse conclude? a) The client has a pneumothorax. b) The system has an air leak. c) The chest tube is obstructed. d) The system is functioning normally.
The system has an air leak. Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak and requires immediate intervention. The client with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Clients without a pneumothorax should have no evidence of bubbling in the chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the fluid would stop fluctuating in the water-seal chamber. (less)
The nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider with the removal of a patient's chest tube. Which of the following instructions will the nurse correctly give the patient? a) "Exhale forcefully while the chest tube is being removed." b) "While the chest tube is being removed, raise your arms above your head." c) "During the removal of the chest tube, do not move because it will make the removal more painful." d) "When the tube is being removed, take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down."
"When the tube is being removed, take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down." When assisting in the chest tube's removal, instruct the patient to perform a gentle Valsalva maneuver or to breathe quietly. The chest tube is then clamped and quickly removed. Simultaneously, a small bandage is applied and made airtight with petrolatum gauze covered by a 4 × 4-inch gauze pad and thoroughly covered and sealed with nonporous tape. The other options are incorrect instructions for the patient.
The nurse assesses a patient with a heart rate of 42 and a blood pressure of 70/46. What type of hypoxia does the nurse determine this patient is displaying? a) Hypoxic hypoxia b) Circulatory hypoxia c) Histotoxic hypoxia d) Anemic hypoxia
Circulatory hypoxia Given this patient's vital signs, he appears to be in shock. Circulatory hypoxia is hypoxia resulting from inadequate capillary circulation. It may be caused by decreased cardiac output, local vascular obstruction, low-flow states such as shock, or cardiac arrest. Although tissue partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is reduced, arterial oxygen (PaO2) remains normal. Circulatory hypoxia is corrected by identifying and treating the underlying cause. (less)
A client is on a positive-pressure ventilator with a synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) setting. The ventilator is set for 8 breaths per minute. The client is taking 6 breaths per minute independently. The nurse a) Consults with the physician about removing the client from the ventilator b) Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently c) Changes the setting on the ventilator to increase breaths to 14 per minute d) Contacts the respiratory therapy department to report the ventilator is malfunctioning
Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently The SIMV setting on a ventilator allows the client to breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Data in the stem suggest that the ventilator is working correctly. The nurse would continue making frequent respiratory assessments of the client. There are not sufficient data to suggest the client could be removed from the ventilator. There is no reason to increase the ventilator's setting to 14 breaths per minute or to contact respiratory therapy to report the machine is not working properly.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and temperature of 103° F (39.4° C). Which intervention will most likely lower the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation? a) Encouragement of coughing b) Use of a cooling blanket c) Incentive spirometry d) Endotracheal suctioning
Endotracheal suctioning Endotracheal suctioning removes secretions as well as gases from the airway and lowers the arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) level. Coughing and using an incentive spirometer improve oxygenation and should raise or maintain oxygen saturation. Because of superficial vasoconstriction, using a cooling blanket can lower peripheral oxygen saturation readings, but SaO2 levels wouldn't be affected.
Which ventilator mode provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths and spontaneous breaths? a) Assist-control b) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) c) Pressure support d) Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) provides a combination of mechanically assisted breaths and spontaneous breaths. Assist-control ventilation provides full ventilator support by delivering a preset tidal volume and respiratory rate. SIMV delivers a preset tidal volume and number of breaths per minute. Between ventilator-delivered breaths, the patient can breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Pressure support ventilation assists SIMV by applying a pressure plateau to the airway throughout the patient-triggered inspiration to decrease resistance within the tracheal tube and ventilator tubing.
A client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important? a) Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) b) Bicarbonate (HCO3-) c) Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) d) pH
Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) The most significant and direct indicator of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy is the PaO2 value. Based on the PaO2 value, the nurse may adjust the type of oxygen delivery (cannula, Venturi mask, or mechanical ventilator), flow rate, and oxygen percentage. The other options reflect the client's ventilation status, not oxygenation. The pH, HCO3-, and PaCO2.
A nurse is weaning a client from mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates the weaning process should be stopped? a) Runs of ventricular tachycardia b) Oxygen saturation of 93% c) Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/minute d) Blood pressure increase from 120/74 mm Hg to 134/80 mm Hg
Runs of ventricular tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia indicates that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process. The weaning process should be stopped before lethal ventricular arrhythmias occur. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation of 93% are normal findings. Although the client's blood pressure has increased, it hasn't increased more than 20% over baseline, which would indicate that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process.
The nurse suctions a patient through the endotracheal tube for 20 seconds and observes dysrhythmias on the monitor. What does the nurse determine is occurring with the patient? a) The patient is in a hypermetabolic state. b) The patient is hypoxic from suctioning. c) The patient is having a myocardial infarction. d) The patient is having a stress reaction.
The patient is hypoxic from suctioning. Apply suction while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees (no longer than 10-15 seconds). Prolonged suctioning may result in hypoxia and dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac arrest.
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the ICU. The ventilator alarms begin to sound. The nurse should complete which of the following actions first? a) Notify the respiratory therapist. b) Troubleshoot to identify the malfunction. c) Reposition the endotracheal (ET) tube. d) Manually ventilate the patient.
Troubleshoot to identify the malfunction. The nurse should first immediately attempt to identify and correct the problem and, if the problem cannot be identified and/or corrected, the patient must be manually ventilated with an Ambu bag. The respiratory therapist may be notified, but this is not the first action by the nurse. The nurse should not reposition the ET tube as a first response to an alarm.
After lobectomy for lung cancer, a client receives a chest tube connected to a disposable chest drainage system. The nurse observes that the drainage system is functioning correctly when she notes tidal movements or fluctuations in which compartment of the system as the client breathes? a) Collection chamber b) Air-leak chamber c) Suction control chamber d) Water-seal chamber
Water-seal chamber Fluctuations in the water-seal compartment are called tidal movements and indicate normal function of the system as the pressure in the tubing changes with the client's respirations. The air-leak meter — not chamber — detects air leaking from the pleural space. The collection chamber connects the chest tube from the client to the system. Drainage from the tube drains into and collects in a series of calibrated columns in this chamber. The suction control chamber provides the suction, which can be controlled to provide negative pressure to the chest. (less)
After lobectomy for lung cancer, a client receives a chest tube connected to a disposable chest drainage system. The nurse observes that the drainage system is functioning correctly when she notes tidal movements or fluctuations in which compartment of the system as the client breathes? a) Collection chamber b) Water-seal chamber c) Air-leak chamber d) Suction control chamber
Water-seal chamber Fluctuations in the water-seal compartment are called tidal movements and indicate normal function of the system as the pressure in the tubing changes with the client's respirations. The air-leak meter — not chamber — detects air leaking from the pleural space. The collection chamber connects the chest tube from the client to the system. Drainage from the tube drains into and collects in a series of calibrated columns in this chamber. The suction control chamber provides the suction, which can be controlled to provide negative pressure to the chest. (less)
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases the blood's capacity to carry and deliver oxygen to compromised tissues. This therapy may be used for a client with: a) a malignant tumor. b) a compromised skin graft. c) hyperthermia. d) pneumonia.
a compromised skin graft. A client with a compromised skin graft could benefit from hyperbaric oxygen therapy because increasing oxygenation at the wound site promotes wound healing. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy isn't indicated for malignant tumors, pneumonia, or hyperthermia.
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to: a) hold the breath as the cuff is being reinflated. b) take a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff. c) cough as the cuff is being deflated. d) exhale deeply as the nurse reinflates the cuff.
cough as the cuff is being deflated. The nurse should instruct the client to cough during cuff deflation. If the client can't cough, the nurse should perform suctioning to prevent aspiration of secretions. Because the cuff should be deflated during expiration, the client shouldn't take a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff. Likewise, because the cuff is reinflated during inspiration, the client shouldn't hold the breath or exhale deeply during reinflation.
A client with COPD has been receiving oxygen therapy for an extended period. What symptoms would be indicators that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity? Select all that apply. a) Substernal pain b) Fatigue c) Dyspnea d) Bradycardia e) Mood swings
• Dyspnea • Substernal pain • Fatigue Oxygen toxicity can occur when clients receive too high a concentration of oxygen for an extended period. Symptoms include dyspnea, substernal pain, restlessness, fatigue, and progressive respiratory difficulty. Bradycardia and mood swings are not symptoms of oxygen toxicity.
A client who is undergoing thoracic surgery has a nursing diagnosis of "Impaired gas exchange related to lung impairment and surgery" on the nursing care plan. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriately aligned with this nursing diagnosis? Select all that apply. a) Encourage deep breathing exercises. b) Monitor and record hourly intake and output. c) Regularly assess the client's vital signs every 2 to 4 hours. d) Maintain an open airway. e) Monitor pulmonary status as directed and needed.
• Monitor pulmonary status as directed and needed. • Regularly assess the client's vital signs every 2 to 4 hours. • Encourage deep breathing exercises. Interventions to improve the client's gas exchange include monitoring pulmonary status as directed and needed, assessing vital signs every 2 to 4 hours, and encouraging deep breathing exercises. Maintainin an open airway is appropriate for improving the client's airway clearance. Monitoring and recording hourly intake and output are essential interventions for ensuring appropriate fluid balance.
When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for which of the following time periods? a) 30 to 35 seconds b) 20 to 25 seconds c) 0 to 5 seconds d) 10 to 15 seconds
10 to 15 seconds In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10 to 15 seconds because hypoxia and dysrhythmias may develop, leading to cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 30 to 35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient's developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 20 to 25 seconds is hazardous and may result in the patient's developing hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 0 to 5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.
A client has a tracheostomy but doesn't require continuous mechanical ventilation. When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube for: a) 30 to 40 minutes. b) 5 to 20 minutes. c) 15 to 60 seconds. d) 45 to 60 minutes.
5 to 20 minutes. Initially, the nurse should plug the opening in the tracheostomy tube for 5 to 20 minutes, then gradually lengthen this interval according to the client's respiratory status. A client who doesn't require continuous mechanical ventilation already is breathing without assistance, at least for short periods; therefore, plugging the opening of the tube for only 15 to 60 seconds wouldn't be long enough to reveal the client's true tolerance to the procedure. Plugging the opening for more than 20 minutes would increase the risk of acute respiratory distress because the client requires an adjustment period to start breathing normally.
A nurse is assigned to care for a client with a tracheostomy tube. How can the nurse communicate with this client? a) By suctioning the client frequently b) By placing the call button under the client's pillow c) By supplying a magic slate or similar device d) By providing a tracheostomy plug to use for verbal communication
By supplying a magic slate or similar device The nurse should use a nonverbal communication method, such as a magic slate, note pad and pencil, and picture boards (if the client can't write or speak English). The physician orders a tracheostomy plug when a client is being weaned off a tracheostomy; it doesn't enable the client to communicate. The call button, which should be within reach at all times for all clients, can summon attention but doesn't communicate additional information. Suctioning clears the airway but doesn't enable the client to communicate.
A client is on a positive-pressure ventilator with a synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) setting. The ventilator is set for 8 breaths per minute. The client is taking 6 breaths per minute independently. The nurse a) Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently b) Consults with the physician about removing the client from the ventilator c) Contacts the respiratory therapy department to report the ventilator is malfunctioning d) Changes the setting on the ventilator to increase breaths to 14 per minute
Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently The SIMV setting on a ventilator allows the client to breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Data in the stem suggest that the ventilator is working correctly. The nurse would continue making frequent respiratory assessments of the client. There are not sufficient data to suggest the client could be removed from the ventilator. There is no reason to increase the ventilator's setting to 14 breaths per minute or to contact respiratory therapy to report the machine is not working properly.
The nurse is transporting a patient with chest tubes to a treatment room. The chest tube becomes disconnected and falls between the bed rail. What is the priority action by the nurse? a) Immediately reconnect the chest tube to the drainage apparatus. b) Cut the contaminated tip of the tube and insert a sterile connector and reattach. c) Clamp the chest tube close to the connection site. d) Call the physician.
Cut the contaminated tip of the tube and insert a sterile connector and reattach. If the patient is lying on a stretcher and must be transported to another area, place the drainage system below the chest level. If the tubing disconnects, cut off the contaminated tips of the chest tube and tubing, insert a sterile connector in the cut ends, and reattach to the drainage system. Do not clamp the chest tube during transport. (less)
The nurse is caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube (ET). Which of the following nursing interventions is contraindicated? a) Checking the cuff pressure every 6 to 8 hours b) Ensuring that humidified oxygen is always introduced through the tube c) Deflating the cuff prior to tube removal d) Deflating the cuff routinely
Deflating the cuff routinely Routine cuff deflation is not recommended because of the increased risk for aspiration and hypoxia. The cuff is deflated before the ET is removed. Cuff pressures should be checked every 6 to 8 hours. Humidified oxygen should always be introduced through the tube.
The nurse is assisting a client with postural drainage. Which of the following demonstrates correct implementation of this technique? a) Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. b) Administer bronchodilators and mucolytic agents following the sequence. c) Use aerosol sprays to deodorize the client's environment after postural drainage. d) Perform this measure with the client once a day.
Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times daily, before meals (to prevent nausea, vomiting, and aspiration) and at bedtime. Prescribed bronchodilators, water, or saline may be nebulized and inhaled before postural drainage to dilate the bronchioles, reduce bronchospasm, decrease the thickness of mucus and sputum, and combat edema of the bronchial walls. The nurse instructs the client to remain in each position for 10 to 15 minutes and to breathe in slowly through the nose and out slowly through pursed lips to help keep the airways open so that secretions can drain while in each position. If the sputum is foul-smelling, it is important to perform postural drainage in a room away from other patients or family members. (Deodorizers may be used to counteract the odor. Because aerosol sprays can cause bronchospasm and irritation, they should be used sparingly and with caution.)
A client suffers acute respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The client's condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal (ET) intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm? a) A change in the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm b) Kinking of the ventilator tubing c) An ET cuff leak d) A disconnected ventilator tube
Kinking of the ventilator tubing Conditions that trigger the high-pressure alarm include kinking of the ventilator tubing, bronchospasm, pulmonary embolus, mucus plugging, water in the tube, and coughing or biting on the ET tube. The alarm may also be triggered when the client's breathing is out of rhythm with the ventilator. A disconnected ventilator tube or an ET cuff leak would trigger the low-pressure alarm. Changing the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm would trigger the oxygen alarm, not the high-pressure alarm.
Which of the following are indicators that a client is ready to be weaned from a ventilator? Select all that apply. a) Tidal volume of 8.5 mL/kg b) Rapid/shallow breathing index of 112 breaths/min c) Vital capacity of 13 mL/kg d) FiO2 45% e) PaO2 of 64 mm Hg
• PaO2 of 64 mm Hg • Tidal volume of 8.5 mL/kg • Vital capacity of 13 mL/kg Weaning criteria for clients are as follows: Vital capacity 10 to 15 mL/kg; Maximum inspiratory pressure at least -20 cm H2; Tidal volume: 7 to 9 mL/kg; Minute ventilation: 6 L/min; Rapid/shallow breathing index below 100 breaths/min; PaO2 > 60 mm Hg; FiO2 < 40%
