Ch. 38: Peripheral Vascular Disease NCLEX Questions

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The nurse is admitting a 68-year-old preoperative patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The medication history reveals that the patient has been taking warfarin (Coumadin) on a daily basis. Based on this history and the patient's admission diagnosis, the nurse should prepare to administer which medication? a. Vitamin K b. Cobalamin c. Heparin sodium d. Protamine sulfate

*Correct Answer: A* Coumadin is a Vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant that could cause excessive bleeding during surgery if clotting times are not corrected before surgery. For this reason, vitamin K is given as the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin).

A 40-year-old man tells the nurse he has a diagnosis for the color and temperature changes of his limbs but can't remember the name of it. He says he must stop smoking and avoid trauma and exposure of his limbs to cold temperatures to get better. This description should allow the nurse to ask the patient if he has which diagnosis? a Buerger's disease b Venous thrombosis c Acute arterial ischemia d Raynaud's phenomenon

*Correct Answer: A* Rationale: Buerger's disease is a nonatherosclerotic, segmental, recurrent inflammatory disorder of small and medium-sized veins and arteries of upper and lower extremities leading to color and temperature changes of the limbs, intermittent claudication, rest pain, and ischemic ulcerations. It primarily occurs in men younger than 45 years old with a long history of tobacco and/or marijuana use. Buerger's disease treatment includes smoking cessation, trauma and cold temperature avoidance, and a walking program. Venous thrombosis is the formation of a thrombus in association with inflammation of the vein. Acute arterial ischemia is a sudden interruption in arterial blood flow to a tissue caused by embolism, thrombosis, or trauma. Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm-induced color changes of the fingers, toes, ears, and nose.

The patient has CVI and a venous ulcer. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) decides to apply compression stockings because that is what these patients always have ordered. What assessment by the nurse would cause the application of compression stockings to harm the patient? a Rest pain b High blood pressure c Elevated blood sugar d Dry, itchy, flaky skin

*Correct Answer: A* Rationale: Rest pain occurs as peripheral artery disease (PAD) progresses and involves multiple arterial segments. Compression stockings should not be used on patients with PAD. Elevated blood glucose, possibly indicating uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and hypertension may or may not indicate arterial problems. Dry, itchy, flaky skin indicates venous insufficiency. The RN should be the one to obtain the order and instruct the UAP to apply compression stockings if they are ordered.

When the patient is being examined for venous thromboembolism (VTE) in the calf, what diagnostic test should the nurse expect to teach the patient about first? a Duplex ultrasound b Contrast venography c Magnetic resonance venography d Computed tomography venography

*Correct Answer: A* Rationale: The duplex ultrasound is the most widely used test to diagnose VTE. Contrast venography is rarely used now. Magnetic resonance venography is less accurate for calf veins than pelvic and proximal veins. Computed tomography venography may be used but is invasive and much more expensive than the duplex ultrasound.

Assessment of a patient's peripheral IV site reveals that phlebitis has developed over the past several hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Remove the patient's IV catheter. Correct b. Apply an ice pack to the affected area. c. Decrease the IV rate to 20 to 30 mL/hr. d. Administer prophylactic anticoagulants.

*Correct Answer: A* Rationale: The priority intervention for superficial phlebitis is removal of the offending IV catheter. Decreasing the IV rate is insufficient. Anticoagulants are not normally required, and warm, moist heat is often therapeutic.

Which person should the nurse identify as having the highest risk for abdominal aortic aneurysm? a A 70-year-old male, with high cholesterol and hypertension Correct b A 40-year-old female with obesity and metabolic syndrome c A 60-year-old male with renal insufficiency who is physically inactive d A 65-year-old female with hyperhomocysteinemia and substance abuse

*Correct Answer: A* The most common etiology of descending abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is atherosclerosis. Male gender, age 65 years or older, and tobacco use are the major risk factors for AAAs of atherosclerotic origin. Other risk factors include the presence of coronary or peripheral artery disease, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol.

A 73-year-old man with dementia has a venous ulcer related to chronic venous insufficiency. The nurse should provide education on which type of diet for this patient and his caregiver? a Low-fat diet b High-protein diet c Calorie-restricted diet d High-carbohydrate diet

*Correct Answer: B* A patient with a venous ulcer should have a balanced diet with adequate protein, calories, and micronutrients; this type of diet is essential for healing. Nutrients most important for healing include protein, vitamins A and C, and zinc. Foods high in protein (e.g., meat, beans, cheese, tofu), vitamin A (green leafy vegetables), vitamin C (citrus fruits, tomatoes, cantaloupe), and zinc (meat, seafood) must be provided. Restricting fat or calories is not helpful for wound healing or in patients of normal weight. For overweight individuals with no active venous ulcer, a weight-loss diet should be considered.

A 67-year-old man with peripheral artery disease is seen in the primary care clinic. Which symptom reported by the patient would indicate to the nurse that the patient is experiencing intermittent claudication? a Patient complains of chest pain with strenuous activity. b Patient says muscle leg pain occurs with continued exercise. c Patient has numbness and tingling of all his toes and both feet. d Patient states the feet become red if he puts them in a dependent position.

*Correct Answer: B* Intermittent claudication is an ischemic muscle ache or pain that is precipitated by a consistent level of exercise, resolves within 10 minutes or less with rest, and is reproducible. Angina is the term used to describe chest pain with exertion. Paresthesia is the term used to describe numbness or tingling in the toes or feet. Reactive hyperemia is the term used to describe redness of the foot; if the limb is in a dependent position the term is dependent rubor.

A patient was just diagnosed with acute arterial ischemia in the left leg secondary to atrial fibrillation. Which early clinical manifestation must be reported to the physician immediately to save the patient's limb? a Paralysis b Paresthesia c Crampiness d Referred pain

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: The physician must be notified immediately if any of the six Ps of acute arterial ischemia occur to prevent ischemia from quickly progressing to tissue necrosis and gangrene. The six Ps are paresthesia, pain, pallor, pulselessness, and poikilothermia, with paralysis being a very late sign indicating the death of nerves to the extremity. Crampy leg sensation is more common with varicose veins. The pain is not referred.

A 62-year-old Hispanic male patient with diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The patient is a smoker and has a history of gout. What should the nurse focus her teaching on to prevent complications for this patient? a Gender b Smoking c Ethnicity d Co-morbidities

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: Smoking is the most significant factor for this patient. PAD is a marker of advanced systemic atherosclerosis. Therefore tobacco cessation is essential to reduce PAD progression, CVD events, and mortality. Diabetes mellitus and hyperuricemia are also risk factors. Being male or Hispanic are not risk factors for PAD.

The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with vascular insufficiency. The patient has a new order for enoxaparin (Lovenox) 30 mg subcutaneously. What should the nurse do to correctly administer this medication? a. Spread the skin before inserting the needle. b. Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. c. Use the back of the arm as the preferred site. d. Sit the patient at a 30-degree angle before administration.

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: The nurse should not expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe because it should be injected to clear the needle of medication and avoid leaving medication in the needle track in the tissue.

A patient with varicose veins has been prescribed compression stockings. How should the nurse teach the patient to use these? a. "Try to keep your stockings on 24 hours a day, as much as possible." b. "While you're still lying in bed in the morning, put on your stockings." c. "Dangle your feet at your bedside for 5 minutes before putting on your stockings." d. "Your stockings will be most effective if you can remove them for a few minutes several times a day."

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: The patient with varicose veins should apply stockings in bed, before rising in the morning. Stockings should not be worn continuously, but they should not be removed several times daily. Dangling at the bedside prior to application is likely to decrease their effectiveness.

The patient had aortic aneurysm repair. What priority nursing action will the nurse use to maintain graft patency? a Assess output for renal dysfunction. b Use IV fluids to maintain adequate BP. c Use oral antihypertensives to maintain cardiac output. d Maintain a low BP to prevent pressure on surgical site

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: The priority is to maintain an adequate BP (determined by the surgeon) to maintain graft patency. A prolonged low BP may result in graft thrombosis, and hypertension may cause undue stress on arterial anastomoses resulting in leakage of blood or rupture at the suture lines, which is when IV antihypertensives may be used. Renal output will be assessed when the aneurysm repair is above the renal arteries to assess graft patency, not maintain it.

A female patient with critical limb ischemia has had peripheral artery bypass surgery to improve her circulation. What care should the nurse provide on postoperative day 1? a Keep the patient on bed rest. b Assist the patient with walking several times. c Have the patient sit in the chair several times. d Place the patient on her side with knees flexed.

*Correct Answer: B* Rationale: To avoid blockage of the graft or stent, the patient should walk several times on postoperative day 1 and subsequent days. Having the patient's knees flexed for sitting in a chair or in bed increase the risk of venous thrombosis and may place stress on the suture lines.

A postoperative patient asks the nurse why the physician ordered daily administration of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which reply by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "This medication will help prevent breathing problems after surgery, such as pneumonia." b. "This medication will help lower your blood pressure to a safer level, which is very important after surgery." c. "This medication will help prevent blood clots from forming in your legs until your level of activity, such as walking, returns to normal." d. "This medication is a narcotic pain medication that will help take away any muscle aches caused by positioning on the operating room table."

*Correct Answer: C* Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent DVTs postoperatively. All other explanations/options do not describe the action/purpose of enoxaparin.

The nurse would determine that a postoperative patient is not receiving the beneficial effects of enoxaparin (Lovenox) after noting what during a routine shift assessment? a. Generalized weakness and fatigue b. Crackles bilaterally in the lung bases c. Pain and swelling in lower extremity d. Abdominal pain with decreased bowel sounds

*Correct Answer: C* Rationale: Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used to prevent the development of deep vein thromboses (DVTs) in the postoperative period. Pain and swelling in the lower extremity can indicate development of DVT and therefore may signal ineffective medication therapy.

The nurse is caring for a preoperative patient who has an order for vitamin K by subcutaneous injection. The nurse should verify that which laboratory study is abnormal before administering the dose? a. Hematocrit (Hct) b. Hemoglobin (Hgb) c. Prothrombin time (PT) d. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

*Correct Answer: C* Rationale: Vitamin K counteracts hypoprothrombinemia and/or reverses the effects of warfarin (Coumadin) and thus decreases the risk of bleeding. High values for either the prothrombin time (PT) or the international normalized ratio (INR) demonstrates the need for this medication.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and digoxin (Lanoxin) as treatment for atrial fibrillation. Because the warfarin has been discontinued before surgery, the nurse should diligently assess the patient for which complication early in the postoperative period until the medication is resumed? a. Decreased cardiac output b. Increased blood pressure c. Cerebral or pulmonary emboli d. Excessive bleeding from incision or IV sites

*Correct Answer: C* Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent thrombi from forming on the walls of the atria during atrial fibrillation. Once the medication is terminated, thrombi could again form. If one or more thrombi detach from the atrial wall, they could travel as cerebral emboli from the left atrium or pulmonary emboli from the right atrium.

A 32-year-old female is prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) for Raynaud's phenomenon. To evaluate the patient's expected response to this medication, what is most important for the nurse to assess? a Improved skin turgor b Decreased cardiac rate c Improved finger perfusion d Decreased mean arterial pressure

*Correct Answer: C* Raynaud's phenomenon is an episodic vasospastic disorder of small cutaneous arteries, most frequently involving the fingers and toes. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes smooth muscles of the arterioles by blocking the influx of calcium into the cells, thus reducing the frequency and severity of vasospastic attacks. Perfusion to the fingertips is improved and vasospastic attacks reduced. Diltiazem may decrease heart rate and blood pressure, but that is not the purpose in Raynaud's phenomenon. Skin turgor is most often a reflection of hydration status.

What is a priority nursing intervention in the care of a patient with a diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)? a. Application of topical antibiotics to venous ulcers b. Maintaining the patient's legs in a dependent position c. Administration of oral and/or subcutaneous anticoagulants d. Teaching the patient the correct use of compression stockings

*Correct Answer: D* CVI requires conscientious and consistent application of compression stockings. Anticoagulants are not necessarily indicated and antibiotics, if required, are typically oral or IV, not topical. The patient should avoid prolonged positioning with the limb in a dependent position.

The patient reports tenderness when she touches her leg over a vein. The nurse assesses warmth and a palpable cord in the area. The nurse knows the patient needs treatment to prevent which sequelae? a Pulmonary embolism b Pulmonary hypertension c Post-thrombotic syndrome d Venous thromboembolism

*Correct Answer: D* Rationale: The clinical manifestations are characteristic of a superficial vein thrombosis. If untreated, the clot may extend to deeper veins, and venous thromboembolism may occur. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, and post-thrombotic syndrome are the sequelae of venous thromboembolism.

A male patient was admitted for a possible ruptured aortic aneurysm, but had no back pain. Ten minutes later his assessment includes the following: sinus tachycardia at 138, BP palpable at 65 mm Hg, increasing waist circumference, and no urine output. How should the nurse interpret this assessment about the patient's aneurysm? a Tamponade will soon occur. b The renal arteries are involved. c Perfusion to the legs is impaired. d He is bleeding into the abdomen.

*Correct Answer: D* Rationale: The lack of back pain indicates the patient is most likely exsanguinating into the abdominal space, and the bleeding is likely to continue without surgical repair. A blockade of the blood flow will not occur in the abdominal space as it would in the retroperitoneal space where surrounding anatomic structures may control the bleeding. The lack of urine output does not indicate renal artery involvement, but that the bleeding is occurring above the renal arteries, which decreases the blood flow to the kidneys. There is no assessment data indicating decreased perfusion to the legs.

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enoxaparin (Lovenox) 30 mg subcutaneously. What should the nurse do to administer this medication correctly? a. Remove the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. b. Aspirate before injection to prevent IV administration. c. Rub the injection site after administration to enhance absorption. d. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger before inserting the needle

*Correct Answer: D* Rationale: The nurse should gather together or "bunch up" the skin between the thumb and the forefinger before inserting the needle into the subcutaneous tissue. The nurse should not remove the air bubble in the prefilled syringe, aspirate, nor rub the site after injection.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a recent history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The patient now needs to undergo surgery for appendicitis. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for this patient before administering an ordered dose of vitamin K. The nurse determines that the medication is both safe to give and is most needed when the international normalized ratio (INR) is which result? a. 1.0 b. 1.2 c. 1.6 d. 2.2

*Correct Answer: D* Rationale: itamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin), which the patient has most likely been taking before admission for treatment of DVT. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that impairs the ability of the blood to clot. Therefore it is necessary to give vitamin K before surgery to reduce the risk of hemorrhage. The largest value of the INR indicates the greatest impairment of clotting ability, making 2.2 the correct selection.

A 39-year-old woman with a history of smoking and oral contraceptive use is admitted with a venous thromboembolism (VTE) and prescribed unfractionated heparin. What laboratory test should the nurse review to evaluate the expected effect of the heparin? a Platelet count b Activated clotting time (ACT) c International normalized ratio (INR) d Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

*Correct Answer: D* Unfractionated heparin can be given by continuous IV for VTE treatment. When given IV, heparin requires frequent laboratory monitoring of clotting status as measured by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts can decrease as an adverse reaction to heparin, but that is not the expected effect.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient has an order to receive 30 mg enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which injection site should the nurse use to administer this medication safely? a. Buttock, upper outer quadrant b. Abdomen, anterior-lateral aspect c. Back of the arm, 2 inches away from a mole d. Anterolateral thigh, with no scar tissue nearby

*Correct Answer: b* Rationale: Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight (LMW) heparin that is given as a deep subcutaneous injection in the right and left anterolateral abdomen. All subcutaneous injections should be given away from scars, lesions, or moles.

What medications should the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan to decrease the risk of cardiovascular events and death for PAD patients (select all that apply)? a Ramipril (Altace) b Cilostazol (Pletal) c Simvastatin (Zocor) d Clopidogrel (Plavix) e Warfarin (Coumadin) f Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

*Correct Answers: a, c, d* Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (e.g., ramipril [Altace]) are used to control hypertension. Statins (e.g., simvastatin [Zocor]) are used for lipid management. Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet agent. Cilostazol (Pletal) is used for intermittent claudication, but it does not reduce CVD morbidity and mortality risks. Clopidogrel may be used if the patient cannot tolerate aspirin. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) are not recommended to prevent CVD events in PAD patients.

A key aspect of teaching for the patient on anticoagulant therapy includes which instructions? a. Monitor for and report any signs of bleeding. b. Do not take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for a headache. c. Decrease your dietary intake of foods containing vitamin K. d. Arrange to have blood drawn routinely to check drug levels.

*Correct answer: a* Rationale: Patients taking anticoagulants should be taught to monitor and report any signs of bleeding, which can be a serious complication. Other important patient teaching includes maintenance of a consistent intake of foods containing vitamin K, avoidance of supplements that contain vitamin K, and routine coagulation laboratory studies if a patient is taking warfarin.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which signs and symptoms would suggest that his aneurysm has ruptured? a. Sudden shortness of breath and hemoptysis b. Sudden, severe low back pain and bruising along his flank c. Gradually increasing substernal chest pain and diaphoresis d. Sudden, patchy blue mottling on feet and toes and rest pain

*Correct answer: b* Rationale: The clinical manifestations of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm include severe back pain, back or flank ecchymosis (Grey Turner's sign), and hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, pale clammy skin, decreased urine output, altered level of consciousness, and abdominal tenderness).

The first priority of collaborative care of a patient with a suspected acute aortic dissection is to a. reduce anxiety. b. control blood pressure. c. monitor for chest pain. d. increase myocardial contractility.

*Correct answer: b* Rationale: The initial goals of therapy for acute aortic dissection without complications are blood pressure (BP) control and pain management. BP control reduces stress on the aortic wall by reducing systolic BP and myocardial contractility.

The patient at highest risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a. a 62-year-old man with spider veins who is having arthroscopic knee surgery. b. a 32-year-old woman who smokes, takes oral contraceptives, and is planning a trip to Europe. c. a 26-year-old woman who is 3 days postpartum and received maintenance IV fluids for 12 hours during her labor. d. an active 72-year-old man at home recovering from transurethral resection of the prostate for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

*Correct answer: b* Rationale: Three important factors (called Virchow's triad) in the etiology of venous thrombosis are (1) venous stasis, (2) damage of the endothelium (inner lining of the vein), and (3) hypercoagulability of the blood. Patients at risk for venous thrombosis usually have predisposing conditions for these three disorders (see Table 38-8). The 32-year-old woman has the highest risk: long trips without adequate exercise (venous stasis), tobacco use, and use of oral contraceptives. Note: The likelihood of hypercoagulability of blood is increased in women older than 35 years who use tobacco.

Rest pain is a manifestation of PAD that occurs due to a chronic a. vasospasm of small cutaneous arteries in the feet. b. increase in retrograde venous blood flow in the legs. c. decrease in arterial blood flow to the nerves of the feet. d. decrease in arterial blood flow to the leg muscles during exercise.

*Correct answer: c* Rationale: Rest pain most often occurs in the forefoot or toes and is aggravated by limb elevation. Rest pain occurs when blood flow is insufficient to meet basic metabolic requirements of the distal tissues. Rest pain occurs more often at night because cardiac output tends to drop during sleep and the limbs are at the level of the heart. Patients often try to achieve partial pain relief by dangling the leg over the side of the bed or sleeping in a chair to allow gravity to maximize blood flow.

A 50-year-old woman weighs 95 kg and has a history of tobacco use, high blood pressure, high sodium intake, and sedentary lifestyle. When developing an individualized care plan for her, the nurse determines that the most important risk factors for peripheral artery disease (PAD) that need to be modified are: a. weight and diet. b. activity level and diet. c. tobacco use and high blood pressure. d. sedentary lifestyle and high blood pressure.

*Correct answer: c* Rationale: Significant risk factors for peripheral artery disease include tobacco use, hyperlipidemia, elevated levels of high-sensitivity C-reactive protein, diabetes mellitus, and uncontrolled hypertension; the most important is tobacco use. Other risk factors include family history, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperuricemia, increasing age, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and stress.

A patient with infective endocarditis develops sudden left leg pain with pallor, paresthesia, and a loss of peripheral pulses. The nurse's initial action should be to a. elevate the leg to promote venous return. b. start anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin. c. notify the physician of the change in peripheral perfusion. d. place the bed in reverse Trendelenburg to promote perfusion.

*Correct answer: c* Rationale: The patient has potentially developed acute arterial ischemia (sudden interruption in the arterial blood supply to the extremity), caused by an embolism from a cardiac thrombus that occurred as a complication of infective endocarditis. Clinical manifestations of acute arterial ischemia include any or all of the six Ps : pain, pallor, paralysis, pulselessness, paresthesia, and poikilothermia. Without immediate intervention, ischemia may progress quickly to tissue necrosis and gangrene within a few hours. If the nurse detects these signs, the physician should be notified immediately.

Priority nursing measures after an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair include a. assessment of cranial nerves and mental status. b. administration of IV heparin and monitoring of aPTT. c. administration of IV fluids and monitoring of kidney function. d. elevation of the legs and application of elastic compression stockings

*Correct answer: c* Rationale: Postoperative priorities include administration of IV fluids and maintenance of renal perfusion. An adequate blood pressure is important for maintaining graft patency, and administration of IV fluids and blood components (as indicated) is essential for adequate blood flow. The nurse should evaluate renal function by measuring hourly urine output and monitoring daily blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. Irreversible renal failure may occur after aortic surgery, particularly in individuals at high risk.

In planning care and patient teaching for the patient with venous leg ulcers, the nurse recognizes that the most important intervention in healing and control of this condition is a. sclerotherapy. b. using moist environment dressings. c. taking horse chestnut seed extract daily. d. applying elastic compression stockings.

*Correct answer: d* Rationale: Compression is essential for treating chronic venous insufficiency (CVI), healing venous ulcers, and preventing ulcer recurrence. Use of custom-fitted elastic compression stockings is one option for compression therapy.

The recommended treatment for an initial VTE in an otherwise healthy person with no significant co-morbidities would include a. IV argatroban (Acova) as an inpatient. b. IV unfractionated heparin as an inpatient. c. subcutaneous unfractionated heparin as an outpatient. d. subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin as an outpatient.

*Correct answer: d* Rationale: Patients with confirmed VTE should receive initial treatment with low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), unfractionated heparin (UH), fondaparinux, or rivaroxaban, followed by warfarin for 3 months to maintain the international normalized ratio (INR) between 2.0 and 3.0 for 24 hours. Patients with multiple comorbid conditions, complex medical issues, or a very large VTE usually are hospitalized for treatment and typically receive intravenous UH. LMWH only for 3 months is another option for patients with acute VTE. Depending on the clinical presentation, patients often can be managed safely and effectively as outpatients.

Which clinical manifestations are seen in patients with either Buerger's disease or Raynaud's phenomenon (select all that apply)? a. Intermittent fevers b. Sensitivity to cold temperatures c. Gangrenous ulcers on fingertips d. Color changes of fingers and toes e. Episodes of superficial vein thrombosis

*Correct answers: b, c, d* Rationale: Both Buerger's disease and Raynaud's phenomenon have the following clinical manifestations in common: cold sensitivity, ischemic and gangrenous ulcers on fingertips, and color changes of the distal extremity (fingers or toes).

Which are probable clinical findings in a person with an acute lower extremity VTE (select all that apply)? a. Pallor and coolness of foot and calf b. Mild to moderate calf pain and tenderness c. Grossly diminished or absent pedal pulses d. Unilateral edema and induration of the thigh e. Palpable cord along a superficial varicose vein

*Correct answers: b, d* Rationale: The patient with lower extremity venous thromboembolism (VTE) may or may not have unilateral leg edema, extremity pain, a sense of fullness in the thigh or calf, paresthesias, warm skin, erythema, or a systemic temperature greater than 100.4 F (38 C). If the calf is involved, it may be tender to palpation.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a 68-year-old patient whose warfarin (Coumadin) therapy was terminated during the preoperative period. The nurse concludes that the patient is in the most stable condition for surgery after noting which INR (international normalized ratio) result? a. 1.0 b. 1.8 c. 2.7 d. 3.4

Correct Answer: A Rationale: The therapeutic range for INR is 2.0 to 3.0 for many clinical diagnoses. The larger the INR number, the greater the amount of anticoagulation. For this reason, the safest value before surgery is 1.0, meaning that the anticoagulation has been reversed.


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