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514. The nurse manager is planning the clinical assignments for the day. Which staff members can be assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. 1.The nurse who never had roseola 2.The nurse who never had mumps 3.The nurse who never had chickenpox 4.The nurse who never had German measles 5.The nurse who never received the varicella-zoster vaccine
1,2,4 Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the causative virus of chickenpox. Individuals who have not been exposed to the varicella-zoster virus or who did not receive the varicella-zoster vaccine are susceptible to chickenpox. Health care workers who are unsure of their immune status should have varicella titers done before exposure to a person with herpes zoster.
506. When assessing a lesion diagnosed as malignant melanoma, the nurse most likely expects to note which finding? 1.An irregularly shaped lesion 2.A small papule with a dry, rough scale 3.A firm, nodular lesion topped with crust 4.A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border
1. A melanoma is an irregularly shaped pigmented papule or plaque with a red-, white-, or blue-toned color. Actinic keratosis, a premalignant lesion, appears as a small macule or papule with a dry, rough, adherent yellow or brown scale. Squamous cell carcinoma is a firm, nodular lesion topped with a crust or a central area of ulceration. Basal cell carcinoma appears as a pearly papule with a central crater and rolled waxy border.
512. A client is brought to the emergency department with partial thickness burns to his face, neck, arms, and chest after trying to put out a car fire. The nurse should implement which nursing actions for this client? Select all that apply. 1.Restrict fluids. 2.Assess for airway patency. 3.Administer oxygen as prescribed. 4.Place a cooling blanket on the client. 5.Elevate extremities if no fractures are present. 6.Prepare to give oral pain medication as prescribed.
2,3,5 The primary goal for a burn injury is to maintain a patent airway, administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemic shock, and preserve vital organ functioning. Therefore the priority actions are to assess for airway patency and maintain a patent airway. The nurse then prepares to administer oxygen. Oxygen is necessary to perfuse vital tissues and organs. An IV line should be obtained and fluid resuscitation started. The extremities are elevated to assist in preventing shock. The client is kept warm and placed on NPO status because of the altered gastrointestinal function that occurs as a result of a burn injury.
519. The nurse is caring for a client who suffered an inhalation injury from a wood stove. The carbon monoxide blood report reveals a level of 12%. Based on this level, the nurse would anticipate noting which sign in the client? 1.Coma 2.Flushing 3.Dizziness 4.Tachycardia
2. Carbon monoxide levels between 11% and 20% result in flushing, headache, decreased visual activity, decreased cerebral functioning, and slight breathlessness; levels of 21% to 40% result in nausea, vomiting, dizziness, tinnitus, vertigo, confusion, drowsiness, pale to reddish-purple skin, tachycardia; levels of 41% to 60% result in seizure and coma; and levels higher than 60% result in death.
509. An adult client was burned in an explosion. The burn initially affected the client's entire face (anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client's clothes caught on fire, and the client ran, causing subsequent burn injuries to the posterior surface of the head and the upper half of the posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extent of the burn injury? 1.18% 2.24% 3.36% 4.48%
3. According to the rule of nines, with the initial burn, the anterior half of the head equals 4.5%, the upper half of the anterior torso equals 9%, and the lower half of both arms equals 9%. The subsequent burn included the posterior half of head, equaling 4.5%, and the upper half of posterior torso, equaling 9%. This totals 36%.
518. The nurse is caring for a client following an autograft and grafting to a burn wound on the right knee. What would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? 1.Out-of-bed activities 2.Bathroom privileges 3.Immobilization of the affected leg 4.Placing the affected leg in a dependent position
3. Autografts placed over joints or on the lower extremities after surgery often are elevated and immobilized for 3 to 7 days. This period of immobilization allows the autograft time to adhere to the wound bed. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.
511. A client is undergoing fluid replacement after being burned on 20% of her body 12 hours ago. The nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/minute, and a urine output of 20 mL over the past hour. The nurse reports the findings to the health care provider (HCP) and anticipates which prescription? 1.Transfusing 1 unit of packed red blood cells 2.Administering a diuretic to increase urine output 3.Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour 4.Changing the IV lactated Ringer's solution to one that contains dextrose in water
3. Fluid management during the first 24 hours following a burn injury generally includes the infusion of (usually) lactated Ringer's solution. Fluid resuscitation is determined by urine output and hourly urine output should be at least 30 mL/hour. The client's urine output is indicative of insufficient fluid resuscitation, which places the client at risk for inadequate perfusion of the brain, heart, kidneys, and other body organs. Therefore the HCP would prescribe an increase in the amount of IV lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour. Blood replacement is not used for fluid therapy for burn injuries. Administering a diuretic would not correct the problem because it would not replace needed fluid. Diuretics promote the removal of the circulating volume, thereby further compromising the inadequate tissue perfusion. Dextrose in water is an isotonic solution, and an isotonic solution maintains fluid balance. This type of solution may be administered after the first 24 hours following the burn injury, depending on the client's physiological needs.
505. A client returns to the clinic for follow-up treatment following a skin biopsy of a suspicious lesion performed 1 week ago. The biopsy report indicates that the lesion is a melanoma. The nurse understands that melanoma has which characteristic? 1.Metastasis is rare. 2.It is encapsulated. 3.It is highly metastatic. 4.It is characterized by local invasion.
3. Melanomas are pigmented malignant lesions originating in the melanin-producing cells of the epidermis. This skin cancer is highly metastatic, and a person's survival depends on early diagnosis and treatment. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not characteristics of a melanoma.
517. The nurse manager is observing a new nursing graduate caring for a burn client in protective isolation. The nurse manager intervenes if the new nursing graduate planned to implement which unsafe component of protective isolation technique? 1.Using sterile sheets and linens 2.Performing strict hand washing technique 3.Wearing gloves and a gown only when giving direct care to the client 4.Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe covers, gowns, and plastic apron
3. Thorough hand washing should be done before and after each contact with the burn-injured client. Sterile sheets and linens are used because of the client's high risk for infection. Protective garb, including gloves, cap, masks, shoe covers, gowns, and plastic apron, need to be worn when in the client's room and when directly caring for the client.
501. A client calls the emergency department and tells the nurse that he came directly into contact with poison ivy shrubs. The client tells the nurse that he cannot see anything on the skin and asks the nurse what to do. The nurse should make which response? 1."Come to the emergency department." 2."Apply calamine lotion immediately to the exposed skin areas." 3."Take a shower immediately, lathering and rinsing several times." 4."It is not necessary to do anything if you cannot see anything on your skin."
3. When an individual comes in contact with a poison ivy plant, the sap from the plant forms an invisible film on the human skin. The client should be instructed to cleanse the area by showering immediately and to lather the skin several times and rinse each time in running water. Calamine lotion may be one product recommended for use if dermatitis develops. The client does not need to be seen in the emergency department at this time.
507. A client arriving at the emergency department has experienced frostbite to the right hand. Which finding would the nurse note on assessment of the client's hand? 1.A pink, edematous hand 2.A fiery red skin with edema in the nail beds 3.Black fingertips surrounded by an erythematous rash 4.A white color to the skin, which is insensitive to touch
4. Assessment findings in frostbite include a white or blue color; the skin will be hard, cold, and insensitive to touch. As thawing occurs, flushing of the skin, the development of blisters or blebs, or tissue edema appears. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.
503. The clinic nurse assesses the skin of a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse understands that which characteristic is associated with this skin disorder? 1.Oily skin 2.Clear, thin nail beds 3.Red-purplish scaly lesions 4.Silvery-white scaly patches
4. Psoriatic patches are covered with silvery white scales. Affected areas include the scalp, elbows, knees, shins, sacral area, and trunk. Thickening, pitting, and discoloration of the nails occur. Pruritus may occur. The lesions in psoriasis are not red-purplish scaly lesions and the skin is dry.
516. The nurse is administering fluids intravenously as prescribed to a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burn injuries of the back and legs. In evaluating the adequacy of fluid resuscitation, the nurse understands that which assessment would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the adequacy? 1.Vital signs 2.Urine output 3.Mental status 4.Peripheral pulses
2. Successful or adequate fluid resuscitation in the client is signaled by stable vital signs, adequate urine output, palpable peripheral pulses, and clear sensorium. However, the most reliable indicator for determining adequacy of fluid resuscitation is the urine output. For an adult, the hourly urine volume should be 30 to 50 mL.
513. The nurse is caring for a client who sustained superficial partial-thickness burns on the anterior lower legs and anterior thorax. Which finding does the nurse expect to note during the resuscitation/emergent phase of the burn injury? 1.Decreased heart rate 2.Increased urinary output 3.Increased blood pressure 4.Elevated hematocrit levels
4. The resuscitation/emergent phase begins at the time of injury and ends with the restoration of capillary permeability, usually at 48 to 72 hours following the injury. During the resuscitation/emergent phase, the hematocrit level increases to above normal because of hemoconcentration from the large fluid shifts. Hematocrit levels of 50% to 55% are expected during the first 24 hours after injury, with return to normal by 36 hours after injury. Initially, blood is shunted away from the kidneys, and renal perfusion and glomerular filtration are decreased, resulting in low urine output. Pulse rates are typically higher than normal, and the blood pressure is decreased as a result of the large fluid shifts.
504. The clinic nurse notes that the health care provider has documented a diagnosis of herpes zoster (shingles) in the client's chart. Based on an understanding of the cause of this disorder, the nurse determines that this definitive diagnosis was made by which diagnostic test? 1.Patch test 2.Skin biopsy 3.Culture of the lesion 4.Wood's light examination
3. With the classic presentation of herpes zoster, the clinical examination is diagnostic. However, a viral culture of the lesion provides the definitive diagnosis. Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the virus that causes chickenpox. A patch test is a skin test that involves the administration of an allergen to the surface of the skin to identify specific allergies. A biopsy would provide a cytological examination of tissue. In a Wood's light examination, the skin is viewed under ultraviolet light to identify superficial infections of the skin.
502. A client is being admitted to the hospital for treatment of acute cellulitis of the lower left leg and asks the admitting nurse to explain what cellulitis means. The nurse bases the response on the understanding that cellulitis has which characteristic? 1.An inflammation of the epidermis only 2.A skin infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis 3.An acute superficial infection of the dermis and lymphatics 4.An epidermal and lymphatic infection caused by Staphylococcus
2. Cellulitis is an infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis that results in a deep red erythema without sharp borders and spreads widely throughout tissue spaces. The skin is erythematous, edematous, tender, and sometimes nodular. Erysipelas is an acute, superficial, rapidly spreading inflammation of the dermis and lymphatics.
508. The evening nurse reviews the nursing documentation in a client's chart and notes that the day nurse has documented that the client has a stage II pressure ulcer in the sacral area. Which finding would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the client's sacral area? 1.Intact skin 2.Full-thickness skin loss 3.Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle 4.Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis
4. In a stage II pressure ulcer, the skin is not intact. Partial-thickness skin loss of the dermis has occurred. It presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed, without slough. It may also present as an intact, open or ruptured, serum-filled blister. The skin is intact in stage I. Full-thickness skin loss occurs in stage III. Exposed bone, tendon, or muscle is present in stage IV.
A client arrives at the emergency department following a burn injury that occurred in the basement at home, and an inhalation injury is suspected. What would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? 1.100% oxygen via an aerosol mask 2.Oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/minute 3.Oxygen via nasal cannula at 15 L/minute 4.100% oxygen via a tight-fitting, nonrebreather face mask
4. If an inhalation injury is suspected, administration of 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting nonrebreather face mask is prescribed until carboxyhemoglobin levels fall (usually below 15%). In inhalation injuries, the oropharynx is inspected for evidence of erythema, blisters, or ulcerations. The need for endotracheal intubation also is assessed. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect and would not provide the necessary oxygen supply needed for adequate tissue perfusion.
510. The nurse is preparing to care for a burn client scheduled for an escharotomy procedure being performed for a third-degree circumferential arm burn. The nurse understands that which finding is the anticipated therapeutic outcome of the escharotomy? 1.Return of distal pulses 2.Brisk bleeding from the site 3.Decreasing edema formation 4.Formation of granulation tissue
1. Escharotomies are performed to relieve the compartment syndrome that can occur when edema forms under nondistensible eschar in a circumferential third-degree burn. Escharotomies are performed through avascular eschar to subcutaneous fat. Although bleeding may occur from the site, it is considered a complication rather than an anticipated therapeutic outcome. Usually, direct pressure with a bulky dressing and elevation control the bleeding, but occasionally an artery is damaged and may require ligation. Escharotomy does not affect the formation of edema. Formation of granulation tissue is not the intent of an escharotomy.
500. The nurse is conducting a session about the principles of first aid and is discussing the interventions for a snakebite to an extremity. The nurse should inform those attending the session that the first priority intervention in the event of this occurrence is which action? 1.Immobilize the affected extremity. 2.Remove jewelry and constricting clothing from the victim. 3.Place the extremity in a position so that it is below the level of the heart. 4.Move the victim to a safe area away from the snake and encourage the victim to rest.
4. In the event of a snakebite, the first priority is to move the victim to a safe area away from the snake and encourage the victim to rest to decrease venom circulation. Next, jewelry and constricting clothing are removed before swelling occurs. Immobilizing the extremity and maintaining the extremity below heart level would be done next; these actions limit the spread of the venom. The victim is kept warm and calm. Stimulants such as alcohol or caffeinated beverages are not given to the victim because these products may speed the absorption of the venom. The victim should be transported to an emergency facility as soon as is possible.
