Chap 13
24. Which of the following is a cause of conflict related to an organization's structure? (A) Authority relations (B) Skills and abilities (C) Values and ethics (D) Perceptions
(A) Authority relations
41. _____ is a withdrawal mechanism that provides an escape from a conflict through daydreaming. (A) Flight (B) Fantasy (C) Withdrawal (D) Displacement
(A) Flight
14. Which of the following is a negative consequence of conflict in an organization? (A) It breaks down group cohesion. (B) It translates into increased productivity. (C) It is cognitive in origin. (D) It motivates change.
(A) It breaks down group cohesion.
33. Which of the following statements is true of defining moments? (A) They help people crystallize their values and serve as opportunities for personal growth. (B) They reduce the potential for conflict within a role or between roles. (C) They create healthy, constructive disagreements between two or more people. (D) They can arise from many individual differences, including personalities and perceptions.
(A) They help people crystallize their values and serve as opportunities for personal growth.
57. In which of the following situations should the avoiding style of conflict management be used? (A) When an issue is trivial or more important issues are pressing (B) When quick, decisive action is vital (C) When the objective is to learn (D) When opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals
(A) When an issue is trivial or more important issues are pressing
44. In the context of ineffective techniques for dealing with conflict, _____ is delaying action on a conflict by buying time, usually by telling the individuals involved that the problem is being worked on. (A) administrative orbiting (B) jurisdictional ambiguity (C) due process nonaction (D) character assassination
(A) administrative orbiting
56. One way of classifying styles of conflict management is to examine the styles': (A) cooperativeness and assertiveness. (B) resources and negotiation approaches. (C) degree of competition. (D) credibility and integrity.
(A) cooperativeness and assertiveness.
52. In the context of confronting and negotiating, sometimes _____ causes negotiators to focus so much on their differences that they ignore their common ground. (A) distributive bargaining (B) nonaction (C) integrative negotiation (D) secrecy
(A) distributive bargaining
48. In the context of changing structure of an organization, a(n) _____ is a liaison between groups with very different interests. (A) integrator (B) role incumbent (C) team sender (D) investigator
(A) integrator
39. A defense mechanism in which a person responds with pessimism to any attempt at solving a problem is known as _____. (A) negativism (B) rationalization (C) displacement (D) withdrawal
(A) negativism
34. Actions that are effective in managing intrapersonal conflict include: (A) role analysis and identifying values of an organization. (B) identification of the power networks in an organization. (C) field analysis and personality inventory analysis. (D) identification of functional and dysfunctional conflict
(A) role analysis and identifying values of an organization.
47. An organizational goal that is more important to both parties in a conflict than their individual or group goals is a(n) _____. (A) superordinate goal (B) strategic goal (C) intermediate goal (D) operational goal
(A) superordinate goal
12. The key to conflict management is: (A) to prevent or resolve dysfunctional conflict. (B) to discourage functional conflict. (C) to enhance creativity in an organization. (D) to improve work relationship between two parties
(A) to prevent or resolve dysfunctional conflict.
27. In the context of intergroup conflict, managers should encourage social interactions across groups so that: (A) trust can be developed. (B) resources can be shared. (C) employees can perform better. (D) human resource activities can be held
(A) trust can be developed.
11. _____ is the ability to see life from another person's perspective. (A) Attribution (B) Empathy (C) Displacement (D) Rationalization
(B) Empathy
23. Which of the following structural conflicts occurs when individuals do not have knowledge of another department's objectives? (A) Interdependence (B) Goal differences (C) Status inconsistency (D) Jurisdictional ambiguity
(B) Goal differences
51. Which of the following is true of distributive bargaining? (A) It causes negotiators to focus on their similarities. (B) It is a competitive, win-lose approach to negotiations. (C) It allows members from different departments to work together. (D) It is a style low on both assertiveness and cooperativeness
(B) It is a competitive, win-lose approach to negotiations.
42. In the context of conflict management strategies, the _____ is founded on different assumptions: the potential for win-win outcomes, honest communication, trust, openness to risk and vulnerability, and the notion that the whole may be greater than the sum of the parts. (A) competitive strategy (B) cooperative strategy (C) compensating strategy (D) complaisant strategy
(B) cooperative strategy
49. Using a _____ made up of members from different departments improves coordination and reduces delays by allowing many activities to be performed at the same time rather than sequentially. (A) functional team (B) cross-functional team (C) resource oriented team (D) self-directed team
(B) cross-functional team
32. When intrapersonal conflicts challenge individuals to choose between right and right, the decision presents _____. (A) bending moments (B) defining moments (C) functional conflicts (D) dysfunctional conflicts
(B) defining moments
19. Personal factors of conflict in an organization arise from: (A) the nature of organizations. (B) differences among individuals. (C) dependence on other people to get work done. (D) a traditional boss-employee relationship.
(B) differences among individuals.
26. Competition between groups must be managed carefully so that it does not escalate into a(n): (A) intragroup conflict. (B) dysfunctional conflict. (C) functional conflict. (D) interorganizational conflict.
(B) dysfunctional conflict.
55. For integrative negotiation to be successful, parties should: (A) change the structure of an organization. (B) have a common goal. (C) determine whether a conflict will have a positive outcome. (D) achieve superordinate goals.
(B) have a common goal.
43. In the context of ineffective techniques for dealing with conflict, _____ is attempting to hide a conflict or an issue that has the potential to create conflict. (A) flight (B) secrecy (C) nonaction (D) fantasy
(B) secrecy
18. To diagnose a conflict as functional or dysfunctional, a manager must look at: (A) the employees' ability to adapt to change and manage adversity. (B) the issue, the context of the conflict, and the parties involved. (C) the expenses that will be borne by the company to solve the conflict. (D) the views of the top-level decision takers.
(B) the issue, the context of the conflict, and the parties involved.
54. _____ is an approach in which the parties' goals are not seen as mutually exclusive, but the focus is on both sides achieving their objectives. (A) Distributive bargaining (B) Accommodating (C) Integrative negotiation (D) Compromising
(C) Integrative negotiation
20. Which of the following is a structural factor of conflict in an organization? (A) Skills and abilities (B) Personalities (C) Interdependence (D) Perception
(C) Interdependence
15. Which of the following statements is true of functional conflict? (A) It can often lead to aggressive acts specifically directed at peers. (B) It is emotional and behavioral in origin. (C) It helps individuals develop a better awareness of themselves. (D) It takes the focus away from the work to be done.
(C) It helps individuals develop a better awareness of themselves.
50. Which of the following statements is true of negotiation? (A) It is a way of opening dialogue between groups that have difficulty communicating. (B) It helps groups realize their similarities rather than their differences. (C) It involves an open discussion of problem solutions. (D) It is delaying action on a conflict by buying time.
(C) It involves an open discussion of problem solutions.
38. _____ is a conflict evident for middle managers in which conflicting expectations are placed on the manager from bosses and employees. (A) Negativism (B) Functional conflict (C) Role conflict (D) Displacement
(C) Role conflict
28. Which of the following statements is true of intragroup conflict? (A) Conflicts within a team can never be functional. (B) Face-to-face interactions hinder the development of trust. (C) Virtual teams are not immune to conflict. (D) Telephone conversations early on cannot eliminate later conflicts in virtual teams.
(C) Virtual teams are not immune to conflict.
25. As organizations move toward the team approach and empowerment, there should be less potential for conflict from _____. (A) cultural differences (B) goal differences (C) authority relationships (D) status inconsistencies
(C) authority relationships
58. Which of the following styles of conflict management is used to achieve temporary settlements to complex issues? (A) Negotiating (B) Avoiding (C) Accommodating (D) Compromising
(D) Compromising
37. In the context of power networks, which of the following is true of an equal versus equal relationship? (A) Conflict in this network can lead to job dissatisfaction. (B) Conflict in this network can lead to low organizational commitment. (C) Conflict in this network can lead to low turnover. (D) Conflict in this network can lead to depression.
(D) Conflict in this network can lead to depression.
40. _____ is a compromise mechanism whereby an individual patterns his or her behavior after another's. (A) Rationalization (B) Fantasy (C) Fixation (D) Identification
(D) Identification
13. Which of the following is a positive consequence of conflict in an organization? (A) It provides a healthy distraction from work. (B) It is emotional or behavioral in origin. (C) It breaks down group cohesion. (D) It leads to the generation of new ideas.
(D) It leads to the generation of new ideas.
59. A win-win style that is high on both assertiveness and cooperativeness is known as _____. (A) competing (B) accommodating (C) compromising (D) collaborating
(D) collaborating
22. One of the causes of conflict related to an organization's structure is _____. (A) personalities (B) perceptions (C) cultural differences (D) common resources
(D) common resources
35. In the context of managing intrapersonal conflicts, political skills can: (A) help people crystallize their values and serve as opportunities for personal growth. (B) help understand power networks in organizations. (C) help resolve conflicts by enabling an individual to direct anger toward someone who is not the source of the conflict. (D) help buffer the negative effects of stress that stem from role conflicts.
(D) help buffer the negative effects of stress that stem from role conflicts.
17. Managers should stimulate functional conflict when their group: (A) is acting aggressively with peers. (B) exceeds any potential gain from the conflict. (C) relies on threats and verbal abuse to communicate. (D) is suspected to be suffering from groupthink.
(D) is suspected to be suffering from groupthink.
16. A key to recognizing a dysfunctional conflict is that: (A) it arises from thinking of new ways to approach problems. (B) it arises from someone challenging old policies. (C) it is often cognitive in origin. (D) it is often emotional or behavioral in origin
(D) it is often emotional or behavioral in origin.
29. In the context of intrapersonal conflicts, the individuals who place expectations on a person are _____. (A) role producers (B) role delegators (C) role incumbents (D) role senders
(D) role senders
10. Emotional intelligence is: (A) an aggressive mechanism in which an individual directs his or her anger toward someone who is not the source of the conflict. ( B) a compromise mechanism whereby an individual patterns her behavior after another's. (C) the emotion of love, cooperation and the common good. (D) the power to control one's emotions and perceive emotions in others.
(D) the power to control one's emotions and perceive emotions in others.