Chapter 1, 2, 3

61) Which of the following cultural strengths would describe that part of the fire service that gives a firefighter a feeling of self-respect and self-worth? A) Loyalty. B) Courage. C) Respect. D) Pride.

61) D

62) Which of the following cultural strengths would describe an attitude of esteem towards their peers, superiors, and fellow citizens? A) Loyalty. B) Courage. C) Respect. D) Pride.

62) C

104) A 2010 study found that up to ___ of firefighters nationwide or overweight. A) 25%. B) 30%. C) 35%. D) 40%.

104) D

105) A written plan that identifies and analyzes the exposure to hazards and includes selection of appropriate risk management techniques, and monitoring of the results of those risk management techniques is referred to as a - A) Safety protocol. B) Safety program. C) Risk management plan. D) Safety management plan.

105) C

106) An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user, and not certified for fire fighting operations is called - A) Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). B) Supplied-Air Respirator (SAR). C) Remote-Air Respirator (RAP). D) Forward-Air Respirator (FAR).

106) B

108) Prior to 2007, what medical condition prevented firefighters from being hired as career firefighters in accordance with NFPA 1582? A) Hypertension. B) Asthma. C) Diabetes. D) Allergies.

108) C

109) Any agent, condition or experience that causes stress is called a - A) Stress agent. B) Stress force. C) Stress enabler. D) Stressor.

109) D

110) Which NFPA standard is considered the Life Safety Code? A) NFPA 101. B) NFPA 1250. C) NFPA 1401. D) NFPA 1561.

110) A

111) Stress can cause which of the following physical symptoms? A) Headache. B) Nausea. C) Weakness in the legs. D) All the above.

111) D

107) What is the term used in the fire service for a rehabilitation station at a fire or other incident where personnel can rest, rehydrate, and recover from the stresses of the incident? A) MASH. B) Triage. C) Aid station. D) Rehab.

107) D

1) Which of the following statements is true? A) Fire fighters are extraordinary people. B) Fire fighters are ordinary people who consciously put themselves in extraordinary situations. C) Fire fighters should be able to solve every problem in which they are called to respond to. D) Volunteer fire fighters are not expected to calmly evaluate emergency and non emergency situations and work to bring them to a successful conclusion.

1) B

10) Many of the early fraternal groups were made up of military veterans and these organizations adopted the military's rank structure. Most modern day fire departments now use different designations, except for which of the following ranks? A) Privates and corporals. B) Sergeants and lieutenants. C) Lieutenants and captains. D) Captains and majors.

10) C

100) Cardiovascular diseases account for what percentage of firefighter fatalities? A) 20%. B) 35%. C) 45%. D) 60%.

100) C

11) Firefighters who receive reimbursement for each call they attend are known as - A) Career. B) Part time. C) Paid On Call. D) Volunteer.

11) C

12) In the fire service which of the following would best characterize the statement, "obedience to the unenforceable" ? A) Integrity. B) Moral character. C) Pride. D) Work ethic.

12) A

13) Which of the following would best characterize truthfulness and honesty? A) Honorableness. B) Moral character. C) Pride. D) Work ethic.

13) B

14) In what year was the National Fire Protection Association NFPA formed? A) 1896. B) 1900. C) 1924. D) 1936.

14) A

15) Doing what needs to be done without being asked. Doing a job without complaining. Doing a job completely, and doing it to the best of your ability would be characterized by which of the following? A) Honorableness. B) Moral character. C) Pride. D) Work ethic.

15) D

16) The very first standard published by NFPA was - A) NFPA 1. B) NFPA 13. C) NFPA 100. D) NFPA 101.

16) B

17) The most basic mission of the fire service is to - A) Extinguish fires. B) Respond to all emergencies. C) Investigate fires. D) Save lives, property, and protect the environment.

17) D

18) Which of the following is an obsolete term for resistance to fire? A) Fire retardant. B) Fire resistant. C) Fireproof. D) Burn proof.

18) C

19) Hardware mounted on exit doors in public buildings that are locked from the inside that enable doors to be opened when pressure is applied to them is known as - A) Safety bar. B) Safety hardware. C) Egress hardware. D) Panic hardware.

19) D

2) Where was the first recorded major fire in the New World that occurred in 1608? A) Jamestown. B) New Amsterdam. C) New York. D) Boston.

2) A

20) Which of the following fires claimed the most lives? A) Iroquois Theater Fire in Chicago in 1903. B) Coconut Grove Nightclub Fire in Boston in 1942. C) Station Nightclub Fire in West Warwick Rhode Island in 2003. D) Ringling Brothers and Barnum & Bailey Circus Fire in Hartford in 1944.

20) A

21) The ability of two or more systems or components to exchange information and use the information that has been exchanged is known as - A) Multitasking. B) Cross-communication. C) Interoperability. D) Interface.

21) C

22) The National Commission on Fire Prevention and Control was authorized by - A) NFPA 101 - Life Safety Code. B) The Boston Fire Prevention Code of 1979. C) The Fire Protection and Prevention Act of 1997. D) The Fire Research and Safety Act of 1968.

22) D

23) On average, approximately how many firefighters lose their lives in the line of duty each year in America? A) 50. B) 75. C) 86. D) 100.

23) D

24) On average, how many firefighters each year are injured while performing both emergency and nonemergency duties? A) 20000. B) 45000. C) 80000. D) 100000.

24) C

25) Which of the following are organizational principles that must be present, in order to operate effectively as a team member? (1) Unity of command (2) Span of control (3) Division of labor (4) Dissemination of knowledge (5) Discipline A) 1, 3. B) 2, 3, 4. C) 1, 2, 3, 5. D) All the above.

25) C

26) The organization principle, Unity of Command, essentially states that - A) All officers on the fire ground should agree with each other on any tactical fire fighting operation before it is performed. B) All firefighters should report to any officer on the fire ground. C) Each firefighter should report to only one supervisor. D) All firefighters should report directly to the chief of the department.

26) C

27) ____ means that any fire officer can effectively supervise or manage only a certain number of individuals on the fire ground. A) Span of command. B) Span of control. C) Span of direction. D) Span of leadership.

27) B

28) As a rule of thumb, an officer can directly supervise ____ firefighters effectively. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 - 7. D) 7 - 10.

28) C

29) Division of labor in the fire service is necessary for all of the following reasons except - A) To assign responsibility. B) To prevent an unbalanced workload. C) To prevent duplication of effort. D) To make specific and clear-cut assignments.

29) B

3) When did fire fighting tools, equipment, and fire fighting methods begin to change in North America? A) During the first quarter of the 18th Century. B) During the Industrial Revolution beginning in the last quarter of the18th Century. C) During the mid 19th Century. D) During the first quarter of the 20th Century.

3) B

30) Setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them would be considered which of the following? A) Discipline. B) Rules. C) SOPs. D) Regulations.

30) A

31) What is considered a negative connotation for the term discipline as it relates to the fire service? A) Self-realization. B) Suspension. C) Termination. D) Punishment.

31) D

32) The highest and most positive form of discipline is - A) Positive discipline. B) Preventive discipline. C) Corrective discipline. D) Self-discipline.

32) D

33) The main purpose of discipline is to - A) Punish. B) Educate. C) Provide direction. D) Correct inappropriate behavior.

33) B

34) A fire company which deploys hoselines for fire attack and exposure protection is known as a - A) Hazardous materials company. B) Engine company. C) Truck company. D) Rescue company.

34) B

35) Fire companies responsible for extinguishing wildland fires and also protecting structures in the wildland/urban interface are known as - A) Brush companies. B) Engine companies. C) Truck companies. D) Hazardous materials companies.

35) A

36) A ____ provides emergency medical care to patients and may also transport them to a medical facility are - A) Rescue squad. B) Rescue company. C) Emergency medical company. D) Hazardous materials company.

36) C

37) Which of the following is responsible for searching for and removing victims from areas of endanger or entrapment? A) Rescue squad/company. B) Emergency medical company. C) Hazardous materials company. D) Truck company.

37) A

38) Which company would be responsible for mitigating a chemical spill? A) Truck company. B) Rescue company. C) Hazardous materials company. D) Emergency medical company.

38) C

39) Which company would be responsible for performing forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation and overhaul, utilities control, and would provide access to the upper levels of a structure? A) Truck company. B) Rescue company. C) Special rescue company. D) Emergency medical company.

39) A

4) Who was credited for organizing the first volunteer fire department? A) George Washington. B) Sam Adams. C) Thomas Jefferson. D) Benjamin Franklin.

4) D

40) A firefighter is an individual who must meet all the following criteria except - A) Be a knowledgeable expert at all forms of fire fighting. B) Meet the requirements of the NFPA Standard 1001. C) Satisfy the age requirement set by the AHJ. D) Meet the medical requirements set forth in NFPA 1582.

40) A

41) Those who assist in emergency operations with traffic control, crowd control, and scene security are called - A) Information Systems Personnel. B) Fire Department Safety Officers. C) Fire Department Officers. D) Fire Police Personnel.

41) D

42) An individual who informs the public about fire hazards, fire causes, precautions, and actions taken during a fire is called - A) Fire Prevention Officer/Inspector. B) Fire and Arson Investigator. C) Fire and Life Safety Educator. D) Fire Protection Engineer/Specialist.

42) C

43) An individual who acts as a consultant to the upper administration of the fire department in the areas of department operations, and fire prevention is known as - A) Fire Prevention Officer/Inspector. B) Fire and Arson Investigator. C) Fire and Life Safety Educator. D) Fire Protection Engineer/Specialist.

43) D

44) An individual who inspects a variety of occupancies to ensure code compliance and conducts technical and supervisory work in fire prevention is known as - A) Fire Prevention Officer/Inspector. B) Fire and Arson Investigator. C) Fire and Life Safety Educator. D) Fire Protection Engineer/Specialist.

44) A

45) One who conducts the investigation of the fire area and makes analytical judgements based on the remains at the fire scene to determine the origin and cause of a fire is known as - A) Fire Prevention Officer/Inspector. B) Fire and Arson Investigator. C) Fire and Life Safety Educator. D) Fire Protection Engineer/Specialist.

45) B

46) One who oversees a fire department's occupational safety and health program is known as - A) Fire department incident safety officer. B) Fire department officer. C) Fire apparatus driver/operator. D) Fire department health and safety officer.

46) D

47) One who monitors operational safety during emergency incidents is known as - A) Fire department incident safety officer. B) Fire department officer. C) Fire apparatus driver/operator. D) Fire department health and safety officer.

47) A

48) One who manages the collection, entry, storage, retrieval, and dissemination of electronic databases such as fire reporting is known as - A) Informational systems personnel. B) Telecommunicator. C) Computer officer. D) System administrator.

48) A

49) Those whose sustain a patient's life until more competent medical personnel arrive are known as - A) First Aid Firefighters. B) Red Cross workers. C) Bystanders. D) Emergency Medical Responders.

49) D

5) In which American city was the first volunteer fire company organized? A) New York. B) Boston. C) Philadelphia. D) Charleston.

5) C

50) Those able to provide advanced life support (ALS) to a patient are called - A) ER Medics. B) EMTs. C) Paramedics. D) Medical Officers.

50) C

51) Who of the following is responsible for administering all fire department training activities? (1) Training Officer (2) Chief of Training (3) Drill-Master (4) Instructor A) 1 B) 1, 2. C) 1, 2, 3. D) All the above.

51) B

52) ____ is a guide to decision making within an organization. A) Policy. B) Rule. C) Procedure. D) Law.

52) A

53) A step-by-step written plan to help an organization to ensure that it consistently approaches a task in the correct way, in order to accomplish a specific objective is known as a - A) Policy. B) Rule. C) Procedure. D) Law.

53) C

54) What is the difference between a directive and an order? A) Orders are based on policy and procedure, while directives are not. B) Directives are based on policy and procedures, while orders are not. C) Orders are subjective, while directives are objective. D) There is no clear difference between a directive and an order.

54) D

55) A predetermined plan used by fire departments for nearly every conceivable situation is called - A) Standard operating procedure (SOPs). B) Standing orders. C) Directives. D) Protocols.

55) A

56) The National Fallen Firefighters Foundation hosted the Firefighter Life Safety Summit in 2004, which resulted in the Everyone Goes Home program and the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives intended to reduce line of duty deaths by ___ by the year 2014. A) 10%. B) 25%. C) 50%. D) 75%.

56) C

57) During natural disasters, which organization is usually the first to be called and the first to arrive in many communities in order to mitigate and address the potential hazards resulting from any type of natural disaster? A) FEMA. B) The Office of Homeland Security. C) The fire department. D) The police department.

57) C

58) The specialized or technical language of a trade, profession or similar group is known as - A) Jargon. B) Newspeak. C) Vernacular. D) Dialect.

58) A

59) The fire service is often referred to as a paramilitary organization because of its organizational characteristics that closely resemble the military. These characteristics would include which of the following? A) A common structure, including the chain of command. B) Ranks to define positions within the structure along with uniforms, badges and symbols of rank. C) An emphasis on teamwork, discipline, and following orders. D) All the above.

59) D

6) In 1653, which city purchased it's first fire engine, even before forming the first ever paid fire company in 1678? A) Boston. B) New York. C) Philadelphia. D) Hartford.

6) A

60) All officers should meet the requirements specified in - A) NFPA 1001. B) NFPA 1500. C) NFPA 1021. D) NFPA 1501.

60) C

63) Of all the personal characteristics firefighters have, which of the following is the most obvious? A) Loyalty. B) Courage. C) Respect. D) Compassion.

63) B

64) Which of the following cultural strengths would prompt firefighters to risk their own lives to save a trapped or missing firefighter? A) Loyalty. B) Courage. C) Respect. D) Compassion.

64) A

65) Which of the following cultural strengths would describe a firefighter's feelings of care about the citizens they serve, their fellow firefighters, and their families? A) Loyalty. B) Courage. C) Respect. D) Compassion.

65) D

66) The term used in codes and standards to identify the legal entity, such as a building or fire official, that has the statutory authority to enforce a code into approve or require equipment is known as - A) Municipality. B) Authority Having Jurisdiction. C) Fire District. D) Metropolis.

66) B

67) Providing a coordinated approach to a wide variety of incidents; all responders use a similar, coordinated approach with a common set of authorities, protections, and resources is known as - A) Multitask Concept. B) Synchronize Concept. C) All-Hazard Concept. D) Systematic Concept.

67) C

68) The All-Hazard Concept would include all of the following elements except - A) Lobbying local, state, and federal government for funds. B) Emergency medical services. C) Hazardous materials mitigation. D) Emergency management services.

68) A

69) Fire departments that are staffed with a mixture of career and volunteer firefighters are commonly called - A) Mixed departments. B) Combination departments. C) Compound departments. D) Composite departments.

69) B

7) The first fire organization in North America was formed in 1647 in which American city. A) Boston. B) Philadelphia. C) New Amsterdam. D) Hartford.

7) C

70) When fire departments refer to external customers, who are they referring to? A) Citizens of the service area protected by the organization. B) EMS patients who are charged through billing services. C) Victims of interstate highway crashes that live outside the jurisdiction of the department. D) Municipalities outside the jurisdiction of the department who benefit from mutual aid responses.

70) A

71) The term used to describe personnel who provide emergency services to external customers is known as - A) Internal customers. B) Staff/Support functions. C) Line functions. D) Combination customers.

71) C

72) The term used to describe personnel who provide administrative and logistical support to line units is known as - A) Internal customers. B) Staff/Support functions. C) Line functions. D) Combination customers.

72) B

73) Who would you consider to be Internal Customers? A) Employees and members of an organization. B) Members of the public who live within the jurisdiction of a specific engine company or truck company. C) Those in the community who pay taxes in their fire district. D) All the above.

73) A

74) The basic unit of firefighting operations is called the - A) Division. B) Battalion. C) Company. D) Department.

74) C

75) The fire department company that performs technical rescues including rapid intervention for the rescue of firefighters is known as - A) Rescue squad. B) Rescue company. C) Hazardous materials company. D) Special rescue company.

75) D

76) Which of the following would be considered duties performed by a firefighter trained at the Firefighter II level? A) Performing overhaul activities at a fire scene. B) Coordinating an interior attack line at a structure fire. C) Attacking a vehicle fire. D) Performing horizontal and vertical ventilation on a structure fire as part of a team.

76) B

77) A standardized approach to incident management that facilitates interaction between coordinating agencies that are adaptable to incidents of any size or type is known as - A) Incident command system. B) Incident management system. C) Targeted preplanning. D) Incident mediation system.

77) A

78) Certification for hazardous material technician is based on which NFPA standard, that is the Standard for Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Incidents? A) NFPA 475. B) NFPA 471. C) NFPA 472. D) NFPA 473.

78) C

79) Medical personnel who are trained to provide basic emergency medical care and transportation for critical or emergent patients are known as - A) EMRs. B) EMTs. C) Paramedics. D) Advanced EMTs.

79) B

8) Fire insurance companies adopted distinctive symbols and posted them on each property that they protected. These symbols were called - A) Insurance marks. B) Fire marks. C) Maltese Crosses. D) Coat of arms.

8) B

80) Medical personnel who are trained to provide basic and limited advanced emergency medical care and transportation for critical or emergent patients are known as - A) EMRs. B) EMTs. C) Paramedics. D) Advanced EMTs.

80) D

81) Uniform or nonuniform personnel who ensure code compliance by reviewing architectural plans and fire protection system plans, for both new construction and renovations are known as - A) Fire marshals. B) Fire in life safety educators. C) Fire protection engineers/specialists. D) Plan examiners.

81) D

82) Technicians that maintain municipal fire alarm systems based on the requirements of NFPA 72, National Fire Alarm and Signaling Code are known as - A) Fire alarm maintenance personnel. B) Telecommunicators. C) Dispatchers. D) Information systems personnel.

82) A

83) Personnel who receive emergency and nonemergency phone calls, dispatch units, establish and maintain communication links to in service companies, and complete incident reports are known as - A) Dispatchers. B) Information systems personnel C) Telecommunicators. D) Clerical staff.

83) C

84) Uniformed personnel who train members of the department or other students and are certified to the Firefighter I requirements of NFPA 1041 Standard for Fire Service Instructor Professional Qualifications are known as - A) Instructors. B) Training officers. C) Drillmasters. D) Chief of training.

84) A

85) The formal line of authority, responsibility, and communication within an organization is known as - A) Standard operating procedures. B) Chain of command. C) Standard operating guidelines. D) Command structure.

85) B

86) As a firefighter, it is your responsibility to learn and adhere to your department's regulations. To ensure that members have access to these regulations, so they can fully understand them, and be able to comply, organizations should do which of the following - A) Regulations should be distributed to them in written or electronic format. B) Regulations should be communicated to them verbally. C) Regulations should be posted in a conspicuous place in the facilities. D) All the above.

86) D

87) A set of principles, protocols, or procedures that explain how to do something or provide a set of minimum standards to be followed is called a - A) Code. B) Policy. C) Standard. D) Guide.

87) C

88) A collection of rules and regulations that has been enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction is known as a - A) Code. B) Policy. C) Statute. D) Standard.

88) A

89) Organizations that provide pre-hospital patient care and/or transportation to a medical facility is called -A) First Responders. B) Mobile aid stations. C) Emergency medical services (EMS). D) Mobile medical clinics.

89) C

9) The majority of the fire departments and firefighters in the USA and Canada are - A) Career. B) Part time. C) Paid On Call. D) Volunteer.

9) D

90) What is the NFPA Standard on Health-Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members? A) NFPA 1001. B) NFPA 1500. C) NFPA 1823. D) NFPA 1583.

90) D

91) Approximately how many firefighter injuries are reported in the USA each year? A) 1000 to 4000. B) 5000 to 9000. C) 10,000 to 24,000. D) 72,000 to 83,000.

91) D

92) Many firefighter injuries can be prevented through - A) Effective training. B) Maintain company discipline and accountability. C) Following established safety-related SOPs. D) All the above.

92) D

93) The USFA reported serious firefighter injuries for 2010, and found that __ of these injuries occurred on the fireground. A) 35%. B) 40%. C) 45%. D) 64%.

93) C

94) Over the last decade approximately how many firefighters die each year in the USA in the line of duty? A) 50. B) 75. C) 85. D) 100.

94) D

95) The leading cause of all firefighter deaths is due to - A) Smoke inhalation. B) Falls. C) Stress and overexertion. D) Accidents involving apparatus, or firefighter personal vehicles, going to and returning from calls.

95) C

96) Most firefighter injuries are - A) Inevitable. B) A direct result of preventable accidents. C) Taken in stride as part of the job. D) A symptom of the weaknesses in the national fire fighting curriculum.

96) B

97) In 2010, approximately what percentage of firefighter deaths involve volunteers? A) 25%. B) 52%. C) 62%. D) 86%.

97) C

98) Sharp or severe; having a rapid onset and short duration best describes which of the following? A) Acute. B) Chronic. C) Sudden. D) Cutting.

98) A

99) What is the NFPA Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program? A) NFPA 1002. B) NFPA 1500. C) NFPA 1600. D) NFPA 1221.

99) B

101) Which of the following would be considered work related causes for cardiovascular disease in firefighters? A) Exposure to smoke and chemicals. B) Heat stress from fires in high temperatures. C) Psychological stress and long, irregular work hours. D) All the above.

101) D

102) To make less harsh or intense, best describes which of the following? A) Alleviate. B) Mitigate. C) Abate. D) Temper.

102) B

103) A condition, substance, or device that can directly caused injury or loss is known as - A) Hazard. B) Danger. C) Threat. D) Risk.

103) A

112) In 1970, the William-Streiger Occupational Safety And Health Act became federal law in the United States. What government agency was evolved as a result of this act? A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). B) Federal Rail Safety Administration (FRSA). C) Highway Safety Administration (HSA). D) Federal Safety Appliance Administration (FSAA).

112) A

113) An established set of criteria by which tactical decisions can be made based on an assessment of the benefits to be gained compared to the risks involved is known as a - A) National Safety Plan. B) Local Safety Plan. C) Risk Management Plan. D) Risk Analysis Survey.

113) C

114) Which United States fire department has implemented an exemplary risk management plan? A) Phoenix (AZ) Fire Department. B) New York FDNY. C) Boston Fire Department. D) Los Angeles Fire Department.

114) A

115) All of the following situations would NOT warrant firefighters jeopardizing their safety except for - A) When there is no possibility to save lives or property. B) If the property is a high value occupancy. C) When the building is abandoned or derelict. D) If the occupancy is in the incipient phase of burning.

115) D

116) Which should be considered the highest fireground priority? A) Having a viable preplan. B) Protecting your life and the lives of your fellow firefighters. C) Establishing a good water source early. D) Ventilating the structure while attempting interior fire attack and rescue.

116) B

117) Which would be considered first on a list of key behaviors firefighters should exhibit on the fireground? A) Drive defensively. B) Don't ever breathe smoke. C) Think. D) Keep the crew intact.

117) C

118) All of the following would be considered main goals of a safety program except - A) Preventing damage to a structure during salvage and overhaul. B) Preventing human suffering, deaths, injuries, and exposures to hazardous atmospheres and contagious disease. C) Preventing damage to or loss of equipment. D) Reducing the incident and severity of accidents and hazardous exposures.

118) A

119) Pathogenic microorganisms that are present in the human blood and can cause diseases in humans are called - A) Pathogens. B) Viruses. C) Bloodborne Pathogens. D) Bloodborne bacteria.

119) C

120) All of the following would be considered cognitive symptoms of stress except - A) Moodiness. B) Memory problems. C) Poor judgment. D) Anxious thoughts.

120) A

121) All of the following would be considered emotional symptoms of stress except - A) Irritability or short temper. B) Loss of sex drive. C) Agitation, inability to relax. D) Feeling overwhelmed.

121) B

122) All the following would be considered physical symptoms of stress except for - A) Sleeping too much or too little. B) Nausea or dizziness. C) Muscle tension, spasms or nervous tics. D) Shortness of breath.

122) A

123) All the following would be considered behavioral symptoms of stress except for - A) Being easily confused. B) Procrastinating or neglecting responsibilities. C) Isolating yourself from other people. D) Butterflies in the stomach.

123) D

124) A program to help employees and their families would work or personal problems is known as - A) Department benevolent program. B) Employer assistance program. C) Employee assistance program. D) All the above.

124) C

125) __ have statistically been proven to be the most expensive single type of accident in terms of worker's compensation. A) Lung illnesses. B) Knee injuries. C) Back injuries. D) Lacerations and abrasions.

125) C

126) Firefighters should remember to bend their knees before lifting any object. All of the following will occur except - A) The spine will be in a more comfortable position. B) The load will be farther away from the fulcrum. C) The powerful leg muscles will do most of the lifting. D) The load will be lifted closer to the fulcrum.

126) B

127) Horseplay during training sessions - A) Must not be allowed since it may lead to accidents and injuries. B) Must be ignored since it is often inevitable. C) May be encouraged occasionally to promote cooperation. D) May be tolerated occasionally because it releases tension.

127) A

128) When is it permissible for a firefighter to ride on the tailboard of the apparatus? A) When the apparatus is moving slower than 30 mph. B) If there are no more jump seats available on the apparatus. C) Only when going to a working structure fire. D) Never.

128) D

129) Which of the following is the NFPA Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting? A) NFPA 1971. B) NFPA 1975. C) NFPA 1977. D) NFPA 1403.

129) A

130) A training exercise that involves the use of an unconfined open flame or fire in a structure or other combustibles to provide a controlled burning environment is called a - A) Live Fire Exercise. B) Live Burn Exercise. C) Controlled Burn Exercise. D) A and B.

130) D

131) The training structure specially designed to contain live fires for the purpose of fire-suppression training is called - A) Burn Building. B) Burn Barn. C) Controlled Fire Structure (CFS). D) Burn Structure.

131) A

132) __ is the operation of fire service training or suppression covering one or several aspects of fire fighting. A) Session. B) Evolution. C) Exercise. D) All the above.

132) B

133) The Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions is - A) NFPA 1400. B) NFPA 1500. C) NFPA 1451. D) NFPA 1403.

133) D

134) Which of the following is the Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program? A) NFPA 1581. B) NFPA 1582. C) NFPA 1583. D) NFPA 1584.

134) A

135) The most comprehensive NFPA standard dealing with firefighter safety and health is - A) NFPA 1581. B) NFPA 1584. C) NFPA 1500. D) NFPA 1582.

135) C

136) NFPA 1500 requires fire departments to establish a program to counsel personnel involved in highly stressful incidents. What is this program call? A) Diffusing management. B) Critical incident stress management. C) Wellness management. D) Health management.

136) B

137) In a structure fire, which of the following would be the first "Tactical Priority"? A) Fire control (incident stabilization). B) Loss control (property conservation). C) Rescue (life safety). D) Firefighter safety (life safety).

137) D

138) OSHA requirements only apply to which of the following groups? A) Federal employees. B) Private sector employees. C) All firefighters in the United States. D) A and B only.

138) D

139) The level of care that all persons should receive is known as the - A) Standard of response. B) Code of care. C) Standard of care. D) Code of ethics.

139) C

140) The National Fallen Firefighters Foundation is committed to helping the US Fire Administration meet its stated goal of reducing firefighter fatalities by ___ within five years. A) 25%. B) 30%. C) 40%. D) 50%.

140) A

141) The National Fallen Firefighters Foundation is committed to helping the US Fire Administration meet its stated goal of reducing firefighter fatalities by ___ within ten years. A) 35%. B) 40%. C) 50%. D) 65%.

141) C

142) The National Fallen Firefighters Foundation believes that adoption of 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives is a vital step in meeting its goal of reducing firefighter deaths. Which of the following would be considered the first initiative? A) Define and advocate the need for a cultural change relating to safety; incorporating leadership, management, supervision, accountability and personal responsibility. B) All firefighters must be empowered to stop unsafe practices. C) Create a national research agenda and data collection system that relates to the initiatives. D) Thoroughly investigate all firefighter fatalities, injuries, and near misses.

142) A

143) All of the following statements regarding operating at highway incidents is true except - A) Position fire apparatus to block oncoming traffic. B) Turn front wheels of blocking apparatus away from the emergency. C) Keep all apparatus lights on to alert oncoming traffic of the emergency. D) Never walk with your back to the traffic.

143) C

144) You are working at a motor vehicle accident involving two vehicles on a four lane interstate highway. The accident has occurred in the extreme left hand lane. What lanes should you close in order to safely operate at this scene? A) Only the lane the accident has occurred in. B) The lane the accident occurred in, plus the next lane over. C) The lane the accident occurred in, plus the next two lanes over. D) Close the entire highway and have the State Police detour traffic around the accident.

144) B

145) Crowd control at an emergency scene is usually the responsibility of - A) Law enforcement agencies. B) Firefighters working at the scene. C) The incident commander. D) Safety officers present at the scene.

145) A

146) In many cases the best way to maintain scene security is to - A) Establish control zones. B) Block all streets leading to the scene. C) Have an abundance of uniformed police officers on-scene. D) All the above.

146) A

147) The control zone closest to the incident is called the - A) Hazard area. B) Hot zone. C) Warm zone. D) Cold zone.

147) B

148) The Phoenix Arizona Fire Department has implemented an exemplary risk management plan that helps officers make reliable decisions during emergency responses. Which of the following would not be considered an example of one of their plan elements? A) Each emergency response is begun with the assumption that responders can protect lives and property. B) Responders will risk their lives a lot, if necessary, to save savable lives. C) Responders will risk their lives a little, and in a calculated manner, to save savable property. D) Responders will risk their lives a little to recover victims that have already been lost.

148) D

149) Before entering a hazard zone, firefighters should give their tags or passports to the - A) Company Officer they arrived with. B) Incident Commander. C) Designated Accountability Officer (AO). D) Ranking fire officer at the scene.

149) C

150) The personnel accountability system in which entry and expected time of exit are based on the pressure in the lowest-reading SCBA in the team is referred to as the - A) Tag System. B) SCBA Tag System. C) Apparatus Tag System. D) Cascade Tag System.

150) B

151) Your knowledge of a situation or environment around you during an emergency incident is known as - A) Environmental awareness. B) Situational awareness. C) Tunnel vision. D) Topography.

151) B

152) The international distress signal broadcast by voice is - A) SOS. B) Mayday. C) Three blasts of the apparatus air horns. D) Firefighter down.

152) B

153) Which statement regarding "Personnel Accountability" is NOT true? A) The system should be standardized and used at every incident. B) The system should only account for fire department personnel who respond to the scene in fire department apparatus. C) An accountability system identifies and tracks all personnel working at an incident. D) All personnel must be familiar with the system and participate when operating at an emergency incident.

153) B

154) Long-term and reoccurring best describes which of the following? A) Acute. B) Chronic. C) Sudden. D) Cutting.

154) B

155) Which of the following would be considered part of the simplified Phoenix model? A) Risk a lot to save a lot. B) Risk a little to save a little. C) Risk nothing to save nothing. D) All the above.

155) D

156) In most states the CDL (commercial drivers license) is required to operate all but which of the following vehicles? A) Fuel truck. B) Passenger bus. C) Fire apparatus in ambulance. D) Tractor-trailer truck.

156) C

157) Which of the following would not be considered one of the basic causes of fire apparatus collisions? A) Excessive speed by the fire apparatus driver/operator. B) Age of the driver/operator. C) Improper backing of the apparatus. D) Reckless driving by the public.

157) B

158) According to the USFA, what is the second leading cause of firefighter fatalities? A) Smoke inhalation or direct flame contact. B) Falls. C) Contact with electrical utilities. D) Accidents that occur while responding to and returning from emergencies.

158) D

159) What percentage of fatal crashes involving firefighters can be attributed to firefighters operating their private vehicles? A) 25%. B) 35%. C) 45%. D) 55%.

159) A

160) Which of the following statements regarding operating fire apparatus and department vehicles is not true? A) Slowdown. Speed is less important than arriving safely. B) Take the fastest route to an emergency scene. C) Use a low gear when starting from a dead stop. D) Keep all the wheels on the road surface at all times.

160) B

161) An intermediate partial bulkhead that reduces the surge effect in a partially loaded liquid tank is known as a - A) Baffle. B) Piling. C) Abutment. D) Breast wall.

161) A

162) No one should ever be allowed to ride on the exterior of the apparatus with the exception of hose loading operations. When this is done, the apparatus must be driven forward and be driven no faster than -A) 5 mph. B) 7 mph. C) 8 mph. D) 10 mph.

162) A

163) Handtools are also known as - A) Stationary tools. B) Manual tools. C) Unpowered tools. D) All the above.

163) C

164) All of the following would be considered unpowered tools with the exception of - A) Pipe poles. B) Picks. C) Pry bars. D) Spreaders.

164) D

165) According to an NFPA study, how many firefighters died in training related incidents between 1996 and 2005? A) 45 B) 68 C) 100 D) 123

165) C

166) Operation of fire and emergency services training covering one or several aspects of firefighting is known as - A) A training evolution. B) A training session. C) A practical training evolution. D) A and C.

166) D

167) All the following would be considered tactical objectives of the National Incident Management System except for - A) Operate as part of the team. B) Report to the closest supervisor or officer in your area or division. C) Remain constantly aware of your situation. D) Advise your supervisor of any changes in the situation.

167) B

168) Which of the following statements in regards to positioning apparatus on a roadway at an emergency scene is correct? A) Apparatus should be parked as far off the roadway as possible to avoid being hit by oncoming traffic. B) Apparatus should be parked at an angle, with the front wheels turned toward the scene. C) Apparatus should be parked at an angle, with the front wheels turned away from the scene. D) Apparatus should be parked at an angle, with the pump panel facing oncoming traffic.

168) C

169) If additional apparatus are called to an emergency scene on a roadway, they should form a second barrier and be positioned ___ from the first apparatus. A) 50 to 100 feet. B) 150 to 200 feet. C) 200 to 300 feet. D) 250 to 325 feet.

169) B

170) All the following would be considered guidelines for maintaining situational awareness at a roadway incident except for - A) Walk facing away from ongoing traffic. B) Look before you move. C) Follow department SOPs. D) Keep an eye on moving traffic.

170) A

171) Limiting the access of nonemergency personnel to an emergency scene is known as - A) Crowd restraint. B) Crowd restriction. C) Crowd supervision. D) Crowd control.

171) D

172) The area beneath a wall in which the wall is likely to land if it loses structural integrity is known as the - A) Collapse sector. B) Collapse zone. C) Collapse area. D) Collapse region.

172) B

173) Collapse zones are established under which of the following conditions? A) Prolonged heat or fire have weaken the structure. B) A defensive strategy has been adopted. C) Interior operations cannot be justified. D) All the above.

173) D

174) Traditionally, collapse zones must extend the distance ____ of the height of the structure. A) 1 time. B) 1 1/2 times. C) 2 times. D) 2 1/2 times.

174) B

175) Fire department internal communications is responsible for which of the following functions? A) To process and act on information. B) To relay alarms and coordinate field communications. C) To receive telecommunications and dispatch resources. D) To house communication personnel and dispatch field personnel.

175) C

176) Most people who call the fire department are experiencing some kind of problem or difficulty upsetting enough to want assistance. In view of this, telecommunicators must possess which of the following skills? (1) Customer Service (2) A high degree of fire knowledge (3) Personal communications skills A) 1, 2. B) 1, 3. C) 2, 3. D) 1, 2, 3.

176) B

177) Any location or facility at which 911 calls are answered either by direct calling, rerouting, or diversion is known as - A) Public safety answering point. B) Dispatch center. C) Telecommunications center. D) Headquarters.

177) A

197) Wired telegraph circuit boxes are most commonly used in - A) Metropolitan and heavy industrial areas. B) Residential areas. C) Rural areas. D) Wilderness areas.

197) A

178) A telecommunicator's duties include all of the following except - A) Staying in contact with the incident commander. B) Receiving requests for information and/or additional resources. C) Keeping records for each request for assistance and how each one was handled. D) Assigning duties to companies operating on the fire ground.

178) D

179) Who is most likely to have the most contact with the public within the emergency services system? A) Telecommunicators. B) Police Officers. C) Firefighters. D) EMTs, and Paramedics.

179) A

180) Which statement regarding Telecommunicators is NOT true? A) Telecommunicators must be able to weigh the worthiness of individuals for assistance. B) Telecommunicators must project a sense of competence. C) Telecommunicators must be able to dispatch emergency responders in a timely manner. D) Telecommunicators must be knowledgeable about associated social services that are available to the caller.

180) A

181) Which NFPA standard describes the Standard for Installation, Maintenance, and Use of Emergency Services Communications Systems? A) NFPA 1900. B) NFPA 1061. C) NFPA 1060. D) NFPA 1221

181) D

182) What percent of United States is covered by enhanced 911? A) 45%. B) 68%. C) 77%. D) 96%.

182) D

183) If you were assigned to monitor the watch room, you would have which of the following responsibilities - A) Listen to all radio communications, and answer the telephone. B) Acknowledge the receipt of alarms. C) Notify crew members of telephone calls and messages. D) All the above.

183) D

184) As it is applied to the fire service, what does CAD mean? A) Computer-Aided Drafting. B) Computer-Aided Dispatch. C) Computer Agency Dispatch (center). D) Computer Associated Dispatch.

184) B

185) Radio systems used in the fire service can be classified in all the following ways except for - A) By location and size; either fixed, mobile, or portable. B) By the type of signal used; either analog or digital. C) By manufacturer and country code. D) By transmission signal; either direct, repeated, or trunked.

185) C

186) A fixed, nonmobile radio at a center location is known as - A) Telecommunicator radio. B) Dispatch radio. C) Base station radio. D) Internal radio.

186) C

187) Which is the most widely used method for transmitting fire alarms? A) The public telephone system. B) Alarm pull boxes. C) Alarm company emergency reporting. D) Non-wired fire alarms.

187) A

188) Which type of telephone line does not have access to the public switch network and does not have a dial tone? A) Residential lines. B) Commercial lines. C) Telephone fire alarm box. D) Hot lines.

188) C

189) What do TDD/TTY phones do? A) They allow the caller to speak over the phone line even if an electronic alarm is also being transmitted over the same line. B) They allow the telecommunicator to immediately dial back up a caller, if for any reason the connection has been terminated. C) They allow the telecommunicator to know the exact location of the caller even if the caller hangs up. D) They allow the hearing or speech-impaired community to communicate over the phone system.

189) D

190) Equipment designed and approved to be used inflammable atmospheres that are in capable of releasing sufficient electrical energy to cause the ignition of a flammable atmospheric mixture are called - A) Intrinsically safe equipment. B) Explosion proof equipment. C) Explosion resistant equipment. D) Intrinsic safety equipment.

190) A

191) Amplitude Modulation AM waves vary the strength of the signal to reflect the speaker's voice and are sometimes referred to as - A) Analog wave signals. B) Medium wave signals. C) Digital wave signals. D) Highband wave signals.

191) B

192) Which of the following statements regarding digital radios is correct? A) Digital transmission systems have supplemented and, in some cases, replaced analog transmission systems. B) Digital radios have improved audio quality and make better use of their assigned frequency or band. C) A digital transmitter converts the voice into digital data packets, which are then broadcast to the receiver. D) All the above.

192) D

193) What is the first thing a telecommunicator should ask when receiving an emergency call? A) The callers call back number. B) The location of the emergency. C) The type of emergency. D) The name and location of the caller.

193) C

194) Which of the following refers to the straight-line travel of radio signals between the antenna connected to the transmitter and the antenna connected to the receiver? A) Indirect communication. B) Remote access communication. C) Direct communication. D) Digital communication.

194) C

195) When answering business calls, personnel should do all of the following except - A) Be prepared to take a message. B) Answer all calls promptly. C) Post or deliver any messages promptly. D) Terminate calls promptly.

195) D

196) When one radio transmits and another receives, the type of communication is called - A) Simplex system. B) Multiplex system. C) Truncated system. D) Duplex system.

196) A

198) The function included with some portable radios which permit units at an incident to communicate directly to each other our called - A) Walkie-talkie mode. B) Local mode. C) Proximity mode. D) Talk-around mode.

198) D

199) All of the following would be examples of "Public Alerting Systems" except - A) Alarm initiating devices. B) Wired telegraph circuit boxes. C) Radio fire alarm boxes. D) Civilian walk in reporting.

199) A

200) 911 systems that combine telephone and computer equipment, and provide the dispatcher with instant information as to the exact location a call is being made from is called - A) X-911. B) M-911. C) E-911. D) A-911.

200) C

201) Repeaters are normally used to overcome problems of barriers to direct communications. They are used to increase the range of the radio system and to send signals over tall barriers. This is known as â A) Simplex radio communication. B) Multiplex radio communication. C) Full-duplex communication. D) Half-duplex communication.

201) D

202) Which 9-1-1 feature provides the telecommunicator with the location the call is being made from? A) Called party hold. B) ALI. C) ANI. D) ALL.

202) B

203) ____ allows radio communication in both directions simultaneously such as communications on a landline telephone. A) Half-duplex. B) Full-duplex. C) Simplex. D) Digital.

203) B

204) Wired telegraph circuit boxes transmit which of the following information? A) The location of the box. B) The location of the emergency. C) The nature of the emergency. D) All the above.

204) A

205) A radio fire alarm box alerts the telecommunicator by - A) An audible signal. B) A visual light indicator. C) A printed record indicating the location. D) All the above.

205) D

206) The radio system in which a radio frequency is dedicated to a single function such as operations is known as - A) Conventional system. B) Progressive system. C) Trunked system. D) Simplex system.

206) A

207) One of the most effective ways of alerting firefighters of an emergency is via - A) Telephone. B) Pagers. C) Sirens. D) Home electronic monitors.

207) B

208) All radio communications in the United States are under the authorization of the - A) FAA. B) FCC. C) FDA. D) DOT.

208) B

209) For the most part, wired telegraph circuit boxes have been eliminated from many municipalities because problems with - A) Power outages. B) Reoccurring breakdowns. C) False Alarms. D) Vandalism.

209) C

210) The radio system that improves efficiency by assigning transmissions two available frequencies is known as - A) Trunked system. B) Progressive system. C) Conventional system. D) Duplex system.

210) A

211) All of the following methods are normally used to alert unstaffed station personnel of emergencies except - A) Pagers. B) Home electronic monitors. C) Telephones. D) House bell or gong.

211) D

212) In order to be compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), most fire departments communicate over radio waves using - A) 10 Codes. B) Signals. C) Numeric codes. D) Clear text.

212) D

213) When speaking on a portable radio firefighters should - A) Speak slightly louder than normal. B) Speak slightly quieter than normal. C) Shout into the radio. D) Speak as quickly as possible to free up the channel for other radio traffic.

213) A

214) When building a fire report of conditions upon arrival, the first engine company or officer should report which of the following information? A) Building and occupancy description. B) Nature and extent of fire. C) Rescue and exposure problems. D) All the above.

214) D

215) Who is able to make requests for multiple alarms, or additional responses depending on who arrives first? A) Chief Officer. B) Company Officer. C) Firefighters. D) Incident Commander.

215) D

216) A __ is an open communication channel in which the IC can communicate with fireground officers without having units talking over each other. A) Tactical channel. B) Private line. C) IC channel. D) Hot channel.

216) A

217) Which of the following features of a trunked radio system allows the transmission of calls to two or more talk groups? A) Private call. B) Dynamic regrouping. C) Multigroup call. D) Multi-call.

217) C

218) Which of the following features of a trunked radio system permits one radio to call another much like a telephone call? A) Truncated call. B) Multigroup call. C) Dynamic regrouping. D) Private call.

218) D

219) Which of the following features of a trunked radio system has an emergency alert feature that, if activated, sends a signal to the agency's dispatch center? A) Truncated system. B) Private call. C) Dynamic regrouping. D) Multigroup call.

219) C

220) The most reliable evacuation signal used by fire departments is - A) Sounding air horns and sirens. B) Broadcasting an emergency evacuation message and/or tone over fire department radios. C) Word of mouth. D) Activating PASS devices.

220) B

221) Firefighter Chris says that fire incident reports should be filled out in terminology that nonfire service personnel can understand. Firefighter Jason says that fire incident reports should be filled out using fire service technical language for the upmost clarity. A) Firefighter Chris. B) Firefighter Jason. C) Both are correct. D) Both are incorrect.

221) A

222) What is the purpose of NFIRS? A) A computer based system that uses the Internet to transfer fire incident data from each of the states to the federal database. B) The mandatory NFPA standard of fire incident reporting. C) The format in which all local fire incident reports should be filed. D) A FCC certification that all Telecommunicators must possess before being allowed on the air.

222) A

223) A systematic way of confirming the status of any fire unit operating at an incident is known as the - A) Buddy System. B) Personnel Accountability Report (PAR). C) Firefighter Status Report. D) Firefighter Location Report.

223) B

224) A personnel accountability report can be requested from the incident commander at any time, however, which of the following situations would probably not require such a report? A) When firefighters arrive on-scene. B) The incident is declared under control. C) There is a sudden catastrophe at the scene. D) There is an emergency evacuation.

224) A

225) There are four main limitations or barriers to all radio transmissions. They include distance and all but which of the following? A) Power requirements. B) Physical barriers. C) Interference. D) Ambient noise.

225) A

226) The use of plain English, including certain standard words and phrases, in radio communications transmissions is known as - A) Clear Voice. B) Plain Voice. C) Clear Text. D) Plain Text.

226) C

227) Why should firefighters refrain from touching the antenna of a radio while transmitting? A) Doing so blocks incoming messages. B) Doing so blocks your outgoing message. C) Radio frequency burns might result. D) The will become damaged.

227) C

228) When using a radio, you should hold the radio/microphone - A) Right against your lips. B) 1/2 inch away from your lips. C) 1 to 2 inches away from your lips. D) 2 to 3 inches away from your lips.

228) C

229) Any physical barrier between the transmitter and receiver can block a radio signal. Signals can be totally blocked, partially blocked, or reflected. To overcome physical barriers, you may need to - A) Turn your body 90 degrees. B) Lift the portable radio higher. C) Raise the antenna up straight. D) All the above.

229) D

230) Radio dead zones in rural areas may not be possible to overcome without the addition of â A) Higher radio towers. B) Higher wattage radios. C) Vehicle-mounted or fixed repeaters. D) Digital transformers.

230) C

231) During radio communications, the person who initiates the message using both verbal and nonverbal communication is known as the - A) Messenger. B) Sender. C) Receiver. D) Interference.

231) B

232) During radio communications, the person who the sender is attempting to communicate to is known as the - A) Target. B) Feedback. C) Receiver. D) Interference.

232) C

233) In radio communication, the content of the sender is trying to communicate to the receiver is known as the - A) Message. B) Broadcasts. C) Notification. D) Briefing.

233) A

234) In radio communication, anything that may prevent the receiver from completely understanding the message is known as - A) Conflict. B) Obstruction. C) Resistance. D) Interference.

234) D

235) Every firefighter at the emergency scene should follow two basic rules to control communication. The first is, units or individuals must identify themselves in every transmission, as outlined in the local radio protocols. A) Units or individuals must identify their current positions in every transmission, as outlined in the local radio protocols. B) Besides chief officers, only company officers leading fire department companies, should be issued radios at emergency scenes. C) All individuals using portable radios must be at least 25 feet away from any apparatus staged at an emergency scene. D) The receiver must acknowledge every message by repeating the essence of the message to the sender.

235) D

236) To ensure that radio communication is heard and understood, you should follow all the following guidelines except for - A) Know what you are going to say before you open the microphone. B) Avoid expression in your speech; use a monotone whenever possible. C) Do not transmit until the radio frequency is clear. D) Use a voice quality that is not too strong nor two weak.

236) B

237) When arriving at anemergency scene, who will provide the initial radio report? A) The incident commander. B) The first arriving Battalion chief. C) The first arriving company officer. D) The first person on the scene.

237) D

238) Normally, who may request multiple alarm assignments or order additional resources? A) The chief of the department. B) Any company officer on the scene C) The incident commander. D) Any firefighter at the scene.

238) C

239) The predetermined number and type of fire units assigned to respond to an emergency best describes - A) Alarm assignment. B) Apparatus preplan. C) Fire company preplanned. D) Fire company assignment.

239) A

240) What is the first statement the telecommunicator should convey when receiving an emergency call? A) Address the location of the emergency. B) Identify the agency. C) Gather information from the caller. D) Confirm the callers identity.

240) B