Chapter 11 SC, Chapter 10 SC, Chapter 9 SC, Chapter 8 SC, Chapter 7 SC, Chapter 6 SC, Chapter 5 SC, Chapter 4 SC, ACE Personal Training Exam Prep 3
BLANK: this technique is commonly used in athletic drills and in pretraining warm-ups. The bouncing movement trigger the stretch reflex and thus may be associated with an increased risk of injury.
Ballistic stretching
A client who can walk continuously for 10 minutes at a moderate intensity before needing to take a break would start in which Cardiorespiratory Training phase of the ACE IFT Model.
Base training
Any client who is not consistently performing moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise should begin with:
Base training
Which of the following is the best course of action for a client suspected of having a bone fracture in the leg?
Call EMS
You're not keeping your shoulders back.
Remember to keep your shoulder blade muscles engaged. Think about pinching a pencil between your shoulder blades.
Preparticipation health screening for individuals wanted to initiate and exercise program may be conducted using which document as a self-guided screening tool?
The PAR-Q+
If a client can perform the exercise and talk comfortably, he or she is likely exercising below:
The VT1
During a client's preparticipation health screening, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer learns that the client has some existing medical conditions. Who is most appropriate to provide approval before beginning an exercise program?
The client's healthcare professional
The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is:
The delivery of blood to the active cells, which is a function of cardiac output.
A personal trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so only if:
The personal trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist.
Which of the following best describes what is at the heart of a client-centered approach to personal training?
The personal trainer has specialized skills that help the client overcome barriers to achieve fitness and performance goals.
What is the purpose of the ACE Code of Ethics?
This code serves as a guide for ethical and professional practices for all ACE Certified Professionals.
During an initial client interview, an ACE Certified Trainer "breaks the ice" by asking the new client about how her day has been going. Which of the following best identifies this stage of the client-personal trainer relationship?
rapport
To assesses dynamic balance, personal trainers can use the:
Y balance test
Which of the following is a key consideration when setting goals with a client?
goals should be positive
Examine the scope of practice as it relates to nutrition and the various resources listen in chapter 6 and choose three or four strategies you can use to help educate a client who struggles with portion control and random, mindless eating about adopting healthier habits.
o Any of the strategies are appropriate within the identified scope or practice of an ACE Certified Personal Trainer: § Host grocery shopping tours · Hold cooking demonstrations o Share evidence based dietary guidelines § Share MyPlate recommendations § Share information about the types of foods to be included in a balanced daily diet § Teach a client about the principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation
During a training session, a client begins talking about intimate personal issues and problems at home. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to take?
redirect the conversation
Type
§ A series of flexibility exercises for each of the major muscle-tendon units is recommended. § Static flexibility (i.e., passive or active), dynamic flexibility, ballistic flexibility, and PNF are each effective.
Ankle and foot:
§ Anterior Tibialis- dorsiflexion at ankle; inversion at foot § Gastrocnemius- plantar flexion at ankle; eversion at foot
Elbow and radioulnar joints:
§ Biceps brachii- flexion at elbow; supination at forearm § Triceps brachii- extension at elbow; arm extension (long head)
Respiratory
§ Both strength and fatigue resistance of respiratory muscles improve with training. § May lead to an increase in tidal volume making ventilation more efficient
Wrist
§ Flexor carpi radialis- flexion
Breaks from sitting should take place:
Every 60 to 120 minutes
Don't arch your back.
Remember to keep your back in a long straight line.
A client you have been working for several months tells you that a close relative recently became seriously ill. Which of the following response is most appropriate?
"I am so sorry. I can't imagine how difficult that must be for you."
Which of the following statements best represents a SMART goal?
"I will run 4 days per week, progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes for a 5K in four months."
During the initial client investigation stage, which of the following questions is more important to ask?
"What are your likes and dislikes when it comes to activity?"
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is conducting an interview with a new client with obesity who has a physician referral to begin an exercise program. Which of the following best demonstrates a motivational interviewing approach?
"what steps do you feel would be best to take to improve your health?
Describe the five steps of evidence-based practice.
(1) formulating a question, (2) searching for health and fitness research evidence that bests answer the formulated question, (3) scrutinizing the quality of the research evidence, (4) incorporating the research evidence into exercise program design and implementation, and (5) evaluating exercise program outcomes and periodically reevaluating the research evidence.
Define the two main goals of a pre-exercise snack.
(1) to optimize glucose availability and glycogen stores and (2) provide the fuel needed to support exercise performance.
Sinus bradycardia:
(RHR 60 to 100 bpm)
Sinus tachycardia:
(RHR <60 bpm)
Normal sinus rhythm:
(RHR >100 bpm)
If using percentage pf maximal heart rate (%MHR), what percentage range is associated with training in zone 1?
64-76%
Which of the following is the recommended initial frequency of muscular training for a client with osteoporosis?
1-2 nonconsecutive days/week
Whole grains contain BLANK grams of whole grains per 1 ounce equivalent.
16
Table 10-27 offers personal trainers a way to estimate a client's one repetition maximum (1-RM) without requiring the client to perform an exercise with maximal effort, in fact, the client's 1-RM can be estimated by simply observing a workout and make the appropriate calculation. For example, a client is performing bench presses during his or her workout and the personal trainer observes that he or she consistently completes eight repetitions with 145 pounds (65 kg). Using the coefficient of 1.255, calculi the client's 1-RM.
145 pounds (65.8 kg) x 1.255 = 181.9 pounds (82.7 kg)
According to the ACOG, what is the recommended time and frequency of exercise for a healthy woman who is pregnant?
150 minutes over three days per week
Which of the following would be the most appropriate amount of weekly exercise time to prevent significant weight gain, reduce associated chronic disease risk factors, and produce modest weight loss for individuals with overweight or obesity?
150 to 200 minutes
Beta blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors and:
Limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation
McGill suggests that a ratio between flexion and extension should be less than BLANK to indicate balanced endurance among the muscle groups.
1.0
Essential fat for women is:
10-13%
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a very active adult client who has asked about guidelines for protein intake. The client currently weighs 210 pounds. According to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA), how much protein is most appropriate for this client to consume daily?
133 to 163 g
On the 6 to 20 RPE scale, what range is associated with training in zone 2?
14 to 17
According to the 2017 American College of Cardiology and American Heart Association guidelines, which of the following blood pressure readings would be categorized as stage 2 hypertension?
140/82 mmHg
You are working with a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set and repetition combinations would be best for helping him achieve that goal?
2-3 sets of 12 or more reps
Essential fat for men is:
2-5%
When working with a client who has no experience with plyometric drills, an appropriate beginning volume would be:
80-100 contacts per session
The evidence-based recommendation for frequency of flexibility exercise is:
>2-3 days a week
Frequency
>2-3 days/week with daily being most effective
When using percentage of heart rate reserve (%HRR), zone 3 would equate to what percentage range?
>90%
Once a client can sustain steady state cardiorespiratory exercise for BLANK minutes in zone 1, he or she can move on to fitness training.
20
You have a client who is 5'9" and weighs 185 pounds. What is his body mass index?
27.3 kg/m^2
The Y balance test is performed in BLANK directions.
3
Load/speed training includes speed, agility, quickness, and power drills that would be most appropriate for which client?
A 45-year-old male competitive tennis player
A periodized training plan that incorporates workouts below the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), between VT1 and the second ventilatory threshold (VT2) and above VT2, would be most appropriate for which of the following clients?
A woman training to qualify for the Boston Marathon
Which of the following client types if most likely to exhibit positive health behaviors?
A client with an internal locus of control
Refueling should begin within BLANK after exercise.
30 mins
A client with obesity is participating in an exercise session and states that it is beginning to become difficult to talk during exercise and that the exercise has become somewhat hard. Using the 0 to 10 rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale, to which of the following intensity ratings if the client most likely referring?
4
On the day of the event, an athlete should aim to eat a meal BLANK hours before the event.
4-6 hours
According to the resistance-exercise evidence-based recommendations, a minimum of how many hours of rest is needed between sessions training any single muscle group?
48 hours
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every BLANK years.
5
On a physical exertion scale of 0 to 10, what is the suggested aerobic exercise intensity for older adults?
5-6 moderate intensity and 7-8 for vigorous intensity
Which of the following is the recommended exercise time for a client diagnosed with metabolic syndrome who has a weight-loss goal?
50-60 minutes per session
Which of the following is the recommended daily caloric deficit range needed to achieve a weekly weight-loss goal of 1 to 2 pounds?
500 to 1,000 kcal
Which of the following would be the best example of a healthy eating pattern?
A diet that includes a variety of vegetables, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy, and protein-rich foods.
Why is food safety important for clients to comprehend?
A key to healthy eating is to avoid foods contaminated with harmful bacteria, viruses, parasites, and other microorganisms. About one in six Americans, or 48 million people, become sick each year from foodborne illness, 128,000 are hospitalized, and approximately 3,000 die. Populations most at risk include pregnant women, infants and young children, older adults, and people who are immunocompromised. The majority of foodborne illnesses are preventable with a few simple precautions.
If a client exhibits lumber dominance in the squat movement, this indicates:
A lack or core and gluteal strength
Explain the correlation between elevated blood pressure and the risk of cardiovascular events.
A positive correlation exists between elevated blood pressure in the risk of cardiovascular events. For individuals 40-to-70-years old, each 20 mmHg increase in resting systolic blood pressure or each 10 mmHg increase in resting diastolic blood pressure above normal double the risk of cardiovascular disease. A difference of 15 mmHg or more between arms it increases the risk of peripheral vascular disease in peripheral vascular disease and is associated with a 70% risk of dying from heart disease. If you discover an abnormal blood pressure reading, either at rest or during exercise, it is prudent to recommend the client visit his or her personal physician.
Volume
A reasonable target is to perform 60 seconds of total stretching time for each flexibility exercise.
Define "Scope of practice"
A scope of practice defines the legal range of services that professionals in a given field can provide, the settings in which those services can be provided, and the guidelines for parameters that must be followed.
What two skills can a personal trainer apply during the investigation stage to understand his or her client and elicit as much helpful information as possible when uncovering a client's motivation?
Active listening and motivational interviewing
When selecting exercises to improve knee function, which of the following should be the first step?
Addressing any imbalances between right and left sides
You have been working with a client for the past four months and he has been performing 25 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise at an intensity below the talk test threshold three times per week for the past month. Which of the following would be the best next step to take with this client?
Administer the VT1 talk test and begin to include zone 2 intervals at heart rates at and above VT1 to just below VT2
Given the ballistic nature of plyometric-training drills, when is the most appropriate time to include them in a workout session?
After the completion of a dynamic warm-up, before the client is fatigued, to reduce the risk of injury
Key Guideline 1: follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan.
All food and beverage choices matter. Choose a healthy eating pattern at an appropriate calorie level to help achieve and maintain a healthy body weight, support nutrient adequacy, and reduce the risk of chronic disease
What type of stretching should be avoided when working with older adults?
Ballistic
Your client, Rebecca, is in the transition from the preparation stage to the action stage of the stage-of-change model. What should her training volume be? Why?
As a client begins a muscular-training program and is in the transition from the preparation to the action stages of behavioral change, the total training volume should be kept relatively low to allow for adaption and accommodation to the training stress. Another benefit of keeping the training volume by during the initial stages of an exercise program is to allow the client to feel successful after accomplishing the goal of performing a specific volume of training. Training volume can be gradually increased as the client develops adherence to the program, becoming stronger as a result.
If an ACE Certified Personal Trainer makes the following statement early in a pre-participation health screening, which of the following is he or she trying to accomplish? "managing your diabetes is important to you. How do you envision me helping to support your goals?"
Asking open-ended questions to get more details
Which of the following is within the scope of practice for personal trainers?
Assessing clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design.
A new client interested in improving her overall lifestyle seeks your services. She indicates she would like to improve her energy and sleep, as well as build a foundation of muscular strength and flexibility. She is not a competitive athlete and has no desire to train for specific events. She enjoys leisure activities and purposeful exercise that targets the goals. Choose some assessments you think merit consideration. While would you include some and not others? Are there specific assessments you might forgo, given that she is not a competitive athlete and is interested in the health-related benefits of physical activity? Why
Assessment should be conducted only after you have reviewed the preparticipation health screening and conducted the initial interview to identify important program variables based on readiness to change, stage attained, and identified goals. In this case, the client is client is interested in improving overall lifestyle and specifically targeting muscular strength and flexibility. Consider what assessment target those goals. Conducting resting measurements such as heart rate and blood pressure is useful, but it may not be necessary to conduct a full body composition assessment. You can use the first session to evaluate basic movement patterns. You might also consider evaluating core strength, muscular strength, and flexibility. The client is not interested in performance related benefits, so it is not necessary to evaluate skill related components.
A client has mastered the basics of body-weight squats and is now ready for more specific feedback to help refine her squatting techniques. Which of the following stages of learned is best represented in this scenario?
Associative
A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat and is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined and perfected is in which stage of learning?
Associative stage
Explain why a person exercising at high altitude will not be able to deliver as much oxygen to the working muscles and will experience a reduction in exercise intensity.
At moderate (5,000-8,000 feet) to high altitudes (8,000-14,000 feet), the relative ability (i.e., partial pressure) of oxygen in the air is reduced. Because there is less pressure to drive the oxygen molecules into the blood as it passes through the lungs, oxygen carried in the blood is reduced.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a new client who has had consistent exercise history. During the interview, the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise and loves the way a workout makes her feel. Which of the following best describes this client's motivation?
Autonomous Motivation
Self-determination theory examines two types of motivation. What are they and how do they differ?
Autonomous motivation and controlled motivation. Autonomous motivation means that people feel as if they are behaving of their own free will. They are doing something because they want to do it. Controlled motivation, on the other hand, means people are doing something because they feel pressured by demands and external forces.
List five advantages of using the talk test to determine exercise intensity.
Based on actual changes in ventilation due to physiological adaptions to increasing exercise intensities; very easy for practical measurement, no equipment required, can easily be taught by clients allows for personalized programming.
Cardiorespiratory exercise in the fitness training phases includes training at which intensities?
Below, at, and above VT2 to just below VT2
Five primary movements
Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, rotation
Which of the following responses lists the five movement patterns to be introduced when working with clients to develop movement efficiency?
Bend-and-lift, single-leg, pushing, pulling, rotation
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer working with a client makes the following statement: "You want to make these changes to manage your blood pressure, avoid medication, and improve your quality of life. What obstacles do you think might get in the way of these goals?" Which of the following best identifies the approach the personal trainer is taking?
Breaking down barriers
A client has been released from physical therapy for shoulder impingement and is now working with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which course of action would be most appropriate for the personal trainer to take?
Build on the work done in physical therapy.
Which of the following is not part of the knowledge, skills, and abilities assessed by the ACE exam?
Building nutritional plans
Which of the following is the most important factor for personal trainers to focus on to create a client-centered approach to personal training?
Building rapport
The ACE IFT Model includes two training components:
Cardiorespiratory training and muscular training.
Clients with arthritis are at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Cardiovascular disease
What muscles would you suspect are right in a client with a forward head position?
Cervical extensors
Key Guideline 4: shift to healthier food and beverage choices.
Choose nutrient-dense foods and beverages across and within all food groups in place of less healthy choices. Consider cultural and personal preferences to make these shifts easier to accomplish and maintain.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client whose injury fails to progress through the stages of healing, and acute inflammation is present for months. Which of the following best categorizes this injury?
Chronic
Noncommunicable diseases are referred to as:
Chronic diseases
If a client has extreme obesity, somebody-composition assessment approaches will be inaccurate. In such cases, a practical approach a personal trainer can take is to use BMI or BLANK.
Circumference measurements
Describe the procedure you would follow if assessing a client's resting heart rate.
Clients should be resting comfortably for several minutes or more in a quiet, restful environment before obtaining resting heart rate. Resting heart rate may be measured indirectly by placing the fingertips on the pulse site or directly by listening through a Tessa scope. Place the tips of the index and middle fingers over the artery and lightly apply pressure period to determine resting heart rate, count the number of beats for 30 or 60 seconds and then correct that score to be permanent. When measuring by auscultation placed the Bell of the stethoscope to the left of the client's sternum just above or below the nipple line.
How are cognitive and behavioral processes of change different?
Cognitive processes result in new ways of thinking and reinforce a client's motivation to change. Behavioral processes, on the other hand, involve action-oriented learning where clients experience the behaviors and adopt those that work for them.
In which stage of learning should a personal trainer implement the "tell, show, do" teaching technique?
Cognitive stage
What assessments are essential according to the ACE IFT Model and should be completed prior to a client beginning an exercise program?
Collecting health-history data to identify limitations for exercise and the need for referral.
The common sites for measuring the pulse are:
Radial and carotid arteries
Which of the following is within the scope of practice for the ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Conducting fitness assessments and health screens to identify exercise limitations.
Which of the following is MOST likely to create a barrier to fitness-related behavioral change for some clients?
Conducting initial comprehensive assessments of fitness and body composition.
Key Guideline 3: limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake.
Consume an eating pattern low in added sugars, saturated fats, and sodium. Cut back on foods and beverages higher in these components to amounts that fit within healthy eating patterns.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer receives a call from an individual who is inquiring about training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive and nervous, stating that she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. Based on this scenario, which of the following best represents the caller's stage of change?
Contemplation
The gentleman sitting next to you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise, nutrition, and health. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Based on this information, this gentleman is most likely in which of the following stages of behavioral change?
Contemplation
One property that all muscle tissue has in common is its ability to:
Contract
Key Guideline 5: support healthy eating patterns for all.
Everyone has a role in helping create and support healthy eating patterns in multiple settings nationwide, from home to school to work to communities.
You keep dropping your hips.
Remember to keep your hips elevated. Tighten the core and squeeze the glutes.
The Physical Activity Guidelines suggest that BLANK is essential when making a lifestyle change because it increased the caloric deficit to speed weight loss and is crucial for maintaining weight loss.
Exercise
Which of the following strategies is not one of the four interconnected components comprising the spirit of motivational interviewing?
Dependence
Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope or practice regarding training clients with weight-loss goals?
Designing exercise programs that lead to increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition
Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardiovascular events?
Desired intensity level
Which of the following describes a way an ACE Certified personal trainer can have a positive impact on a child's perception of exercise?
Make the activities fun
Upon what foundational element is the ACE IFT Model built?
Developing rapport
Which of the following is the best example of a process goal?
Making it to the fitness facility three times a week
Which of the following puts children at greater risk of health-related illnesses compared to adults?
Diminished sweating capacity
Jack, a personal-training client, has participated in regular exercise for 10 years. In his last session, jack complained of shortness of breath upon mild exertion, as well as dizziness. According to the algorithm, how would you respond?
Discontinue exercise and consult with a qualified medical professional. Jack may return to regular exercise following medical clearance.
During an initial exercise session, a client presents with symptoms of dizziness and mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. Which would be the most appropriate action by an ACE Certified Personal trainer?
Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance.
A client has soreness after a weekend tennis tournament. Which of the following is an appropriate action that is within the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles.
Which of the following antihypertensive medications increased the excretion of water and electrolytes trough the kidneys?
Diuretics
True or false: personal trainers can prescribe dietary supplements to clients interested in improving performance.
False
Benefits gained from exercise and physical activity are:
Dose-related
Exercise BLANK is the most appropriate variable to manipulate initially when progressing a program.
Duration
A regular group exercise participant who works at a moderate intensity for 20 to 30 minutes, three times per week, and with no competitive goals is ready to progress to which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model?
Fitness training
Extension is the opposite joint action of:
Flexion
BLANK: this technique mimics movement patterns to be used in the upcoming workout or sporting event. It is commonly used to help athletes prepare for competition by allowing them to increase sport-specific flexibility.
Dynamic stretching
Which of the following is best defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
Dyspnea
it is ACE's position that personal trainers can and should share what type of nutrition information with their clients?
General nonmedical nutrition information
During the investigation stage, which of the following statements best describes active listening?
Empathetically listening to a client while maintain an open mind and trying to put yourself in the client's shoes.
A client who is cleared to exercise following physical therapy is hesitant to work out and claims she is feeling pain during the exercise session. Which of the following would be the best approach to take with this client?
Empathize with the client, identify the level of pain, and explain that you can offer exercise modifications that would provide a pain-free experience.
A rating of perceived exertion (RPE) of 5 to 6 on the 0 to 10 scale equates to what RPE terminology?
Hard
The Thomas test is used to assess:
Hip flexor length
Which of the following is outside the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
Creating an individualized nutritional program with specific meal plans based on physician recommendations.
Because past performance experience is a critical source of self-efficacy, and what should eat early experience focus?
Creating success and building confidence
Anterior tilting of the pelvis frequently occurs in individuals with tight:
Hip flexors
Individuals with hypertension are advised to follow the BLANK eating plan.
DASH
Which of the following eating plans is recommended to optimize health and decrease blood pressure in individuals with hypertension?
DASH eating plan
What are the ACOG recommendations for a woman to resume exercise after delivery?
Daily activity of 20-30 minutes
Describe the decisional balance.
Decisional balance refers to the evaluation of pros and cons about adopting and/or maintain an activity program.
Functional training focuses on core and balance exercises that improve the strength and function of the muscles that stabilize the spine and center of gravity during static positions and dynamic movements. You have a client who has progressed from the Movement Training phase to the Load/Speed Training phase. List ways you could still incorporate Functional training exercises in this phase. Where in a session might you add them? Why?
Exercises for Functional Training use primarily body-weight resistance. As clients progress to Movement Training and Load/Speed Training. It is important to still include Functional Training exercises in their workouts. These can be included as part of either the warm-up or cool-down, or by incorporating progressions that increase the challenge of the Functional Training exercise by increasing the resistance or balance challenges.
For the past two months, a client has been following his healthcare provider's exercise guidelines of 30 minutes of indoor cycling at a rating of perceived exertion of 8 (on the 6 to 20 scale), followed by mild stretching. The client has asked the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to add the elliptical machine to incorporate upper-body movements. Which would be the most appropriate response?
Explain that, for his safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise.
Your new client is a 47-year-old woman who wants to lose weight but is a bit apprehensive about muscular training because she does not want to "get big". Based on this information what response would best facilitate muscular-training program adherence and motivation?
Explain the average adult muscle tissue loss of 5 lb. per decade, and how resistance training can help her restore muscle and raise resting metabolism.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client states she is interested in using an over-the-counter diuretic for rapid weight loss. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response?
Explain the dangers of using such a product
Which of the following is the primary biological purpose of the hormone leptin?
Facilitate energy intake when energy storage is too low.
T/F: if an individual has purchased a gym membership and personal-training sessions, this is a good indication that he or she is committed to making lasting behavior changes.
False
T/F: it is crucial that all personal-training clients be assessed using a comprehensive assessment protocol.
False
Which of the following claims is allowed on the packaging of a dietary supplement according to the regulatory requirements set forth by the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) of 1994?
Fiber maintains bowel regularity
When a client can consistently perform moderate-intensity physical activity for 20 minutes or more on at least three days per week, he or she should be training on which cardiorespiratory phase of the ACE IFT Model?
Fitness Training
The four angular movements defined for synovial joints are:
Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction
Anatomical position feres to a person standing erect with head, eyes, and palms facing:
Forward
Which of the following would be recommended muscular-training program for a client with osteoarthritis?
Frequency: 2-3 days/week, Intensity: 50-80% of 1-RM, Time 2-4 sets of 8-12 exercises.
A client who has problems performing activities of daily living would benefit most from improving which of the following?
Functional movements
In what phase of the Muscular Training component of the ACE IFT Model would a person be categorized if he has lumbar lordosis and limited range of motion in the hips and shoulders?
Functional training
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer begins working with a new client who has obesity and is apprehensive about beginning an exercise program. Which of the following approaches would be most effective in helping the client achieve early success in this first session?
Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client's current movement abilities and fitness.
Which of the following is the easiest method for monitoring exercise intensity for clients who are not already consistently performing cardiorespiratory exercise?
Have the client perform the talk test
Which of the following most effective in helping a client develop program adherence?
Having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal.
·Which behavioral theory states that at least four variables influence a person's decision to change?
Health belief model
BLANK is a valid indicator of work intensity or stress on the body during exercise.
Heart rate
Cardiac output is the product of BLANK and BLANK. It is the quantity of blood pumped per heartbeat.
Heart rate; stroke volume
The primary emphasis for a personal trainer during Base Training is to:
Help clients have positive experiences with exercise
The greatest impact personal trainers can regularly have on the lives of their clients is to:
Help clients positively change health-related behaviors and establish positive relationships.
Which of the following is within the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice?
Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices.
A nutrition fact label states that one serving of the product contains 3,300 mg of sodium. Which of the following best categorizes this product's sodium content?
High
For what conditions are diuretics usually prescriber?
High blood pressure
Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for adults and other adults?
Improved sleep
Green exercise refers to exercise conducted:
In natural environments
Compare a directing style of communication with a guiding style. What are the primary differences? Is one more effective for helping clients explore their ambivalence toward change?
In the common directing style of communication, the personal trainer takes charge of the conversation and advises a client on what to do, telling him or her how to best proceed by offering advice and specific direction. In contrast, motivational interviewing employs a guiding style of communication in which the personal trainer encourages, supports, and assists the client in the process of change. Motivational interviewing emphasizes establishing rapport, reducing resistance, and eliciting a client's own argument for change, or change talk. The aims of the process are to support people as they resolve their ambivalence toward behavior change, decide to make a change, and then preserve with the new behavior. Miller and Rollnick note that confrontational, forceful, guilt-ridden, and authoritarian approaches are contraindicated in motivational interviewing.
Muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be attributed to many factors (correctible and non-correctible). Describe these factors as if you were explaining them to a client: non-correctible factors
Include congenital conditions, like scoliosis; some pathologies, like rheumatoid arthritis; structural deviations; and certain types of trauma, like surgery, injury, or amputation.
Muscle imbalances and postural deviations can be attributed to many factors (correctible and non-correctible). Describe these factors as if you were explaining them to a client: correctible factors
Include repetitive movements (muscular pattern overload), awkward positions and movements (habitual poor posture), side dominance, lack of joint stability, lack of joint mobility, and an imbalanced strength-training program.
Which of the following would best motivate a client for long-term program adherence?
Including process goals like completing an exercise workout, in addition to performance goals.
List some benefits of muscular training
Increased physical activity, enhanced metabolic function, reduced injury risk, and disease prevention.
List three signs of the overtraining syndrome.
Increased resting heart rate, disturbed sleep, and decreased hunger on multiple days.
The fitness training phase involves:
Increasing the time of the exercise
The role of personal trainers has changed over time. Explain what factors have contributed to the change and in what ways the role has changed.
Initially, the role of personal trainers was primarily focused on working with fitness enthusiasts in traditional fitness facilities. The role has changed due to the increasing number of adults and children who have overweight or obesity, are insufficiently physically active, and have related health uses stemming from physical inactivity. Personal trainers must now be prepared to work with clients ranging in age from youth to older adults and ranging in health and fitness statis from physically inactive to athletic.
The most difficult variable of an exercise program to represent quantitatively is:
Intensity
When increased too much or too soon, which of the following factors most increases the risk of potential musculoskeletal injury in a client with overweight or obesity?
Intensity
Which of the following statements about body mass index is most accurate?
It is associated with health, morbidity, and mortality
Which of the following types of exercise would be contraindicated for a client with overweight or obesity?
Jumping
Don't look down.
Keep your eyes looking directly in front of you.
A client mentions that he prefers tactile feedback and spotting while exercising. This strategy is most likely indicative of which learning style.
Kinesthetic
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following is a key risk factor for chronic disease?
Lack of physical activity.
For a client returning to training after an ankle sprain, which of the following exercises should be used with caution?
Lateral shuffles
Which of the following forms collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the pre-participation health screening?
Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire
Discuss how lifecycle factors and lifestyle factors are interrelated.
Lifestyle factors disrupt natural human development along the lifecycle, which results in individuals regressing doing the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
List the movement pattern progressions for plyometric exercises.
Linear-forward, lateral, backpedal, rotational, crossover/cutting curving
Strength training, body building, and training for muscular endurance all fall under which Muscular Training phase of the ACE IFT Model?
Load/speed training
An anterior pelvic tilt increase BLANK in the lumbar spine.
Lordosis
Calcium channel blockers:
Lower blood pressure
The body-weight squat assessment evaluates:
Lower-extremity muscular endurance
A client has recently lost a significantly amount of weight and is looking for recommendations for maintaining the weight loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
Maintain a food diary, record exercise activity, and monitor weight
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. Which of the following goals would be best for this client?
Maintain interest and reduce risk for boredom
A new client tells you that she used to participate in local 10K and half marathon running events before having twins. Although she had wanted to continue running, she has not been active since her children were born two years ago. Now that they are in daycare three days per week, she has begun walking a bit and wants to begin running, with an eventful goal of completing her first marathon. Based on this information, your client has most likely progressed through which of the following stages of behavior change from pre-pregnancy to meeting with you today?
Maintenance, contemplation, preparation
Which document includes a client's medical information and explains physical activity limitations and/or guidelines as outlined by his or her healthcare provider?
Medical Release
Mike has been a personal-training client for several years. He has performed planned, structure physical activity for at least 30 minutes on at least three days per week at a moderate intensity for the past year. However, he has an interest in adding two sessions of vigorous-intensity exercise to his weekly routine. He has a known history of diabetes. What would your next step be before having Mike engage in vigorous intensity exercise?
Medical clearance is recommended before engaging in vigorous-intensity exercise.
Sarah is a new personal-training client who does not currently participate in regular exercise and has type 2 diabetes. Is medical clearance recommended before initiating an exercise program?
Medical clearance is recommended, as she has a known metabolic condition.
Progression
Methods for optimal progression are not known.
In your own words, explain why sequencing assessments properly is important.
Not all clients need or desire a full fitness assessment. Each client will come up with a unique set of goals, likes, dislikes, and skills. This should be considered when selecting and sequencing the assessments.
When working with clients who have been refereed by their physicians for exercise programming, which of the following steps would be most important for the personal trainer to take?
Obtain written permission from the client prior to communicating with the referring physician.
Which of the following is within the personal trainer's scope of practice?
Offering grocery store tours
Which of the following would be outside the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?
Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence.
Current guidelines recommend physical activity be performed:
On most days of the week
Identify the six sources of self-efficacy.
Past performance experience, vicarious experience, verbal persuasion, physiological state appraisals, emotional state and mood appraisals, and/or imaginal experiences.
Which of the following will most strongly influence a client's current self-efficacy levels?
Past performance experiences
During the initial interview with a new client, you learn the client's desire to exercise regularly was based on the results of a recent medical exam revealing stage 1 hypertension, dyslipidemia, and a family history of cardiovascular disease. Based on this information, the client's motivation to exercise of most likely associated with which of the following components of behavioral change?
Perceived seriousness
According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people's perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?
Perceived susceptibility
What are the four variables that influence a person's decision to change in the behavioral theory mentioned in question1?
Perceived susceptibility to an illness, perceived seriousness of the illness, beliefs about benefits of changing, and beliefs about barriers to change.
The risk of exercise-related acute myocardial infarction and sudden cardiac death is highest among individuals with underlying cardiovascular disease who:
Perform a level of physical activity to which they are not accustomed.
During which phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model will intervals be introduced at intensities at and above the VT2 heart rate?
Performance training
Which of the following is an important consideration prior to starting a sports-conditioning session with a client?
Performing a specific low-intensity warm-up incorporating movements to be used during the conditioning segment of the workout
Becky, a personal-training client, is having a difficult time dealing with some emotional stress on the day of a scheduled training session. She arrives and confides to you that she's learned her best friend was diagnosed with cancer. You respond by stating: "let me give you the number to a counselor I know, I think she can really help you." Examine this response and decide if it was the best way to respond to Becky's situation. How might you respond differently to this difficult disclosure?
Personal trainers are sometimes unsure of how to respond when clients share information that is very sad, such as a disclosure of a client's serious illness or the illness or death of someone close to the client. Often, a short response is all that is required, such as "I am so sorry," "that must have been very hard," or "I can only imagine how difficult that must have been for you and your family." You should follow the client's lead as to whether he or she wants to say anything more on a topic or not. If the situation affects exercise program design in any way, the personal trainer can turn the conversation back to the practical details.
Describe how personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method.
Personal trainers can apply the ACE Mover Method through use of the ACE ABC Approach, which includes asking open ended questions, breaking down barriers, and collaborating with clients.
Time is an environment factor that influences program adherence. Many individuals struggle to balance the many demands they face and, therefore, perceive a lack of time to devote to physical activity. Offer three simple stratifies you can use to help a client reframe his or her thinking related to time. How can you encourage time-efficient activities? How might you coach your client toward lifestyle balance?
Personal trainers may encourage their clients to change their perception of time availability through the use of goal setting, time management, and prioritizing. Further, personal trainers should consider implementing time-efficient exercise sessions or collaborating with clients about opportunities to be physical active throughout their day. If a client considers health and physical activity to be top priorities, it is likely that he or she will find the time to be active.
What is the most appropriate way to approach a situation in which a personal trainer needs to touch a client when explaining or spotting an exercise? What might be the consequence if a personal trainer does not remain cognizant of this boundary?
Personal trainers should discuss their training methods early in the client-trainer relationship, explain the purpose of any physical contact, and ask clients for permission for this type of contact. If the personal trainer does not remain cognizant of this boundary, he or she risks making the client feel uncomfortable or violated in some way.
Which of the following strategies would be most likely to enhance a client's willpower?
Planning in advance for moments of weak self-control
According to the principle of operant condition, which of the following consequences would be best for a personal trainer to use to ensure that a desired client behavior will reoccur in the future?
Positive reinforcement
Which of the following should be the focus of a training program performed early in a pregnancy when designing a program for a pregnant woman?
Posterior leg and trunk strength
Describe three ways, you as a personal trainer, can create an environment in which the basic physiological needs of your client are met?
Promoting relatedness, promotion competence, and promoting autonomy.
BLANK: originally developed and used to treat increased tissue tonicity in the rehabilitation setting, this technique capitalizes on the principles of autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition. There are three basic techniques used: hold-relax, contract-relax, and hold-relax with agonist contraction.
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
The primary purpose of professional certifications is to:
Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence.
Jim comes to a workout session with a flyer for a muscle-building supplement. He is excited about the claims and feels it might be right for him, as he perceives his muscle-building progress to be slow. You tell him that supplements are no good and that he should avoid them at all costs. You throw the flyer in the trash and proceed to lead Jim through his workout session. Analyze this response and describe how you would address this topic with a client. What would you do differently? Discuss how you could better educate the client about dietary supplements.
Provide evidence-based educational resources on the effectiveness of supplements. This will ensure that the client is able to make an informed decision and fully understand how the consumption of dietary supplements can impact his overall health, performance, and training. Further, provide Jim with a list of credible sources such as www.fda.gov or www.ods.od.nih.gov
Resting heart rate is affected by a number of factors. List those factors.
RHR is influenced by many factors, including fitness, fatigue, genetics, body composition, drugs and medication, alcohol, caffeine, and stress.
Which of the following should be developed early in the client-personal trainer relationship in order to build a strong foundation?
Rapport
Identify the stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.
Rapport, investigation, planning, and action.
If a client is on a beta blocker, the best way to monitor exercise intensity is to use:
Rating of perceived exertion
BLANK is a subjective method of measuring exercise intensity.
Rating of perceiver exertion
Describe the principle of reciprocal inhibition.
Reciprocal inhibition is the principle stating that activation of a muscle on one side of a joint (i.e., the agonist) coincides with neural inhibition of the opposing muscle on the other side of the joint (i.e., the antagonist) to facilitate movement.
The level of intake of a nutrient that is adequate to meet the known needs of a practically all healthy persons is referred to as the:
Recommend Dietary Allowance (RDA)
Which of the following best describes the result of muscle mass decline in older adults?
Reduced muscular strength
Which of the following is a known health benefit associated with physical activity for children and adolescents?
Reduced risk of depression
The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based and was developed with a goal of:
Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise
A client asks on ACE Certified Personal Trainer to give her an eating plan designed after a diet she found on the internet. What would be the most appropriate action for the personal trainer?
Refer the client to a registered dietitian or other qualified healthcare professional
In general, a pre-exercise or pre-workout meal or snack should be:
Relatively low in fat and fiber and moderate in protein
Don't hold your breath.
Remember to breathe.
The preparticipation guidelines from the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) are designed to:
Remove any unnecessary barriers to becoming more physically active.
During which stage of healing should an ACE Certified Personal Trainer suggest gentile, pain-free movement?
Repair
What are some considerations when using metabolic equivalents (METs) to measure intensity?
Requires measured VO2 max for most accurate programming; limited in programming by knowledge of METs for given activities; relative MET ranges for programming are population-specific and not individually specific.
Which of the following resources would be most appropriate for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to utilize when providing dietary advice for clients?
Resources developed or endorsed by the Federal Government.
Which of the following could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise pre-participation health-screening process for a client?
Risk-factor profiling or classification
Compare the difference between sedentary behavior and physical inactivity.
Sedentary behavior refers to too much sitting, while physical inactivity signifies to little exercise. For example, an individual can be considered active according to the current-physical activity guidelines, but still spend too much time sitting in front of the TV. This is known as the "active couch potato" phenomenon.
Which of the following is the most important factor for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to consider when designing an initial exercise program for a client with overweight or obesity?
Selecting exercises that the client will enjoy
Flexion occurs in what plan of motion.
Sagittal
Explain why the concept of self-efficacy is important to exercise-related behavior change.
Self-efficacy is strongly related to the program adoption and maintenance.
Describe self-myofascial release.
Self-myofascial release is a technique that applies pressure to tight, restricted areas of fascia and underlying muscle is an attempt to relieve tension and improve flexibility. It is thought that applying direct sustained pressure to a tight area inhibit the tension in a muscle. Tightness in soft tissue may be diminished through the application of pressure (e.g., self-myofascial release) followed by static stretching.
Jake has a goal of developing general muscular fitness.
Sets: 1-4; reps: 8-15; rest intervals: 2-3 minutes; intensity: 20-70% of one-rep max (1-RM)
Sarah has a goal of improving muscular endurance.
Sets: 2-3; reps: >12; rest interval <30 sec; intensity < 67% 1-RM
Jessica would like to develop greater muscular strength.
Sets: 2-6; reps <6; rest interval: 2-5 minutes; intensity: >85% 1-RM
David is a power lifter who performs single-effort events.
Sets: 3-5; reps: 1-2; rest interval: 2-5 minutes; intensity: 80-90% 1-RM
Ray would like to experience muscular hypertrophy.
Sets: 3-6; reps 6-12; rest interval: 30-90 seconds; intensity 67-85% 1-RM
What is the recommended frequency of aerobic activity for children and adolescents?
Seven days per week
A 68-year-old female client performs the unipedal stance test. With her eyes open, she holds the position for 40 seconds before the test is terminated because her nondominant foot touches the floor. How does this score compare to the normative data?
She exceeded the normative figure for her age and gender, which is 30.4 seconds
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is developing a program for a client with low-back pain, with a goal of targeting the lateral muscles of the torso in order to optimize stability. Which of the following exercises would be the best option to achieve this goal?
Side bridge
An approach to estimating body fat that incorporates the measure of subcutaneous fat is:
Skinfold measurements
Differentiate between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Slow-twitch muscle fibers (also called slow-oxidative or type 1 muscle fibers) contain relatively large amounts of mitochondria and are surrounded by more capillaries than fast-twitch fibers. Additionally, slow-twitch fibers contain higher concentrations of myoglobin than do fast-twitch fibers (also called type 2 muscle fibers). The high concentration of myoglobin, the large number of capillaries, and the high mitochondrial content make slow-twitch fibers resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism. As the name implies, slow-twitch fibers contract more slowly than fast-twitch fibers. Furthermore, slow-twitch fibers create lower force outputs and are more efficient than fast-twitch fibers.
Explain why information about a client's medication use is important to gather during the screening process.
Some substances alter the biochemistry of the body and may affect a client's ability to perform or respond to exercise. The properties of these drugs must be understood by the personal trainer and discussed with the client. When designing and supervising and exercise program, it is important to realize that many substances, over the counter- medications, and prescription drugs affect the heart's response to exercise.
Which of the following behaviors would most likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session?
Speaking with confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking and hands resting when listening.
Ultimately, an individual personal trainer's scope of practice related to nutrition is determined by:
State policies and regulations, education and experience, and competencies and skills
Which type of stretching is most effective during the cool-down for a client post-injury?
Static
BLANK: this technique places the targeted muscle group in an end-range position and is held for up to 30 seconds. This technique does not require a partner and does not elicit the stretch reflex, reducing the likelihood of injury. As long as the stretch is not too intense (i.e., does not provoke pain), there are no real disadvantages to this technique.
Static stretching
The primary reason ACE has established to a minimum continuing education requirement for 20 hours every two years in order to maintain a certification is to help ACE Certified Personal Trainers:
Stay current with the latest exercise science research and guidelines for fitness and health.
List the key steps for client-centered exercise programming.
Step 1- establish rapport and identify client goals; step 2- administer an exercise preparticipation health screening; step 3- identify barriers and collaborate on next; step 4- determine if physiological or movement assessments are necessary; step 5- determine in which phase (s) of the ACE FIT Model to begin; step 6- prioritize program design and select exercise order.
Which of the following processes is best exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on the direct route between home and work?
Stimulus control
The most common type of joint in the body is the BLANK joint, which is freely moveable.
Synovial
Which of the following is a primary goal of an exercise program for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
Strengthen the muscles around affected joints
Intensity
Stretch to the point of feeling tightness or slight discomfort
In which section of a SOAP note would it be most appropriate to document a client's reporting of his or her own fitness levels as well as your notes regarding how the client feels about the exercise program?
Subjective
The easiest method for monitoring intensity with clients during Base Training is to use the:
Talk test
Which of the following is the most appropriate cardiorespiratory assessment to determine intensity levels for a deconditioned client?
Talk test
What is the most appropriate solution for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to provide a client who has tight iliotibial (IT) bands?
Teach the client self-myofascial release techniques.
What is the most effective way to teach a new exercise to a client?
Tell the client what the exercise is, demonstrate the exercise, and have the client perform the exercise while providing feedback.
Which of the following best defines exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?
Temporary narrowing of the airways following moderate to vigorous exercise
The oxygen carrying capacity of blood is determined primarily by what two variables
The ability to adequately ventilate alveoli in the lungs and the hemoglobin concentration of the blood.
Explain why personal trainers should focus on obvious, gross imbalances, and avoid getting caught up in minor postural asymmetries.
The body is rarely perfectly, symmetrical, so overanalyzing asymmetries is time-consuming potentially intimidating to clients, and may induce muscle fatigue in the client that can alter his or her posture even further.
The need for medical clearance before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency, intensity, and/or volume of an existing program is dependent upon the presence of clinically significant diseases and any signs of symptoms suggestive of such diseases. List the names of the diseases and the signs and symptoms of which a personal trainer should be aware in order to accurately assess the need for medical clearance.
The diseases a personal trainer should be aware of for making the determination for medical clearance would include cardiovascular disease, metabolic disease, and renal disease.
Describe the purpose of Base Training
The exercise programming in the base training phase is intended to help people move more consistently to establish basic cardiorespiratory endurance. This, in turn, will lead to improved overall health, energy, and mood, and increased caloric expenditure. Encouragement and exercise activities that can be successfully completed in each workout are crucial for building client self-efficacy in this phase.
Describe what takes place during the planning and action stages of the client-personal trainer relationship.
The planning stage involves setting goals, generating and discussing alternatives, formulating a plan, and evaluating the exercise program. In contrast, the action stage involves the client participating in his or her exercise program. Here, the personal trainer may introduce the client to self-monitoring techniques.
Describe the right-angle rule of the body.
The right-angle rule describes how the body represents itself in vertical alignment across the major joints- the ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, and spine. Applying the right-angle rule allows the personal trainer to observe postural deviations in all three planes, nothing specific "static" asymmetries at the joints (e.g., front to back and left to right).
You are conducting a cardiorespiratory assessment with a client. Although the client was cleared to participate in exercise, five minutes into the test he starts to experience shortness of breath, lightheadedness, and leg cramping. You stop the assessment and instruct the client to drink some water and rest for a few minutes before resuming. What might you have done differently? Establish a three-zone model for this client:
The signs and symptoms this client is experiencing warrant immediate termination of the session. A referral to a qualified healthcare may be necessary. o HR at VT1 is 150 bpm o HR at V2 is 170 bpm § Zone 1- < 150 bpm § Zone 2- HR > 150 BPM TO <170 BPM § Zone 3- HR >170 BPM
Discuss the difference between the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when there is a stressor or an emergency, such as severe pain, anger, or fear. Called the "fight or flight" response, this activation affects nearly every organ to enable the body to stop storing energy and mobilize all resources to respond to the stressful event or activity. The parasympathetic nervous system aids in controlling normal functions when the body is relaxed and aids in digesting food, storing energy, and promoting growth.
Describe in your own words, the overall purpose and intent of the Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans.
These guidelines are intended to provide individuals throughout the lifespan, women during pregnancy and postpartum period, and adults with chronic conditions with specific physical-activity recommendations to follow in an effort to improve multiple aspects of health-related fitness. These aspects include cardiorespiratory fitness muscular strength, balance, and flexibility.
A client who has been using a beta blocker medication since she started working with you. As you do with several of your clients, you assign a target heart rate to this client as a means of gauging exercise intensity. Did you choose the most appropriate method for monitoring exercise intensity? Why or why not? What might you do differently and why?
These medications block beta-adrenergic receptors and limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation. In other words, they block the effects of catecholamines throughout the body and reduce resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise intensity. Using rating of perceived exertion or the talk test versus target heart rate for example, would be appropriate for a safe and effective cardiorespiratory exercise program for someone on beta blockers.
What do most allied health certification programs, such as the credentials for registered dietitians, occupational therapists, and nurse practitioners, have in common with certifications from the American Council on Exercise?
They are accredited by the National Commission for certifying Agencies
Which of the following statements about the role of type 1 muscle fibers during muscular training exercises is most accurate?
They contract more slowly and create lower force outputs
How long does acute inflammatory phase last after an injury?
Three to four days
If a personal trainer observes that a client has a medically rotated humerus, it might indicate:
Tightness in the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and subscapularis muscles
If it is observed that a client's shoulders are not level, it might indicate:
Tightness in the upper trapezium, levator scapulae, and rhomboids
What is the goal of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?
To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended.
Describe the purpose of functional assessments.
To help the personal trainer observe a client's efficacies in postural stabilization, balance, and core function.
Key Guideline 2: focus on variety, nutrient density, and amount.
To meet nutrient needs within calorie limits, choose a variety of nutrient-dense food across and within all food groups in recommended amounts.
What is the primary purpose of the ACE Personal Trainer Certification program?
To protect the public from harm.
T/F: in reality, most adults experience some amount of controlled motivation.
True
T/F: the risk of cardiovascular complications during resistance exercise is low.
True
True or false: to truly affect chronic disease on a global level, health equity must be a priority for professionals across the full spectrum of healthcare in all communities.
True
How does understanding the concept of willpower help you prepare clients to avoid a relapse?
Understanding willpower may help personal trainers empathize with their clients and help define strategies to employ when willpower is limited or diminished. For example, when a client makes food choices when he or she is hungry or tired, the choices made are often poorer nutritional quality. A better strategy is to organize meals for the day in advance when the client has higher resolve.
The BLANK can be used to test a client's static balance.
Unipedal stance test
Which of the following is most accurate regarding personal trainers recommending supplements tot their clients?
Unless the personal trainer has other credentials, he or she does not possess the qualifications to legally recommend supplements.
When designing an exercise program for youth, what is one of the most important components for the ACE Certified personal trainer to include?
Use all three planes of motion
A new client with low-risk coronary artery disease wants to start muscular-training program with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which of the following is the best initial program design?
Using free weights (40-60% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for all major muscle groups.
Jenny, your personal-training client, has some questions about nutritional practices and health eating. Although Jenny gas tried to identify healthy foods and prepare nutritious meals, she still feels a bit loss in her process. She approaches you about her concerns. She feels what she really needs is a weekly meal plan, a specific shopping list, and recipes to follow. As Jenny's personal trainer, how would you approach this situation?
Validate jenny's concerns and desires and explain that you can refer her to the appropriated allied healthcare professional who can help address her concerns more specifically. Creating meal plans and menus is outside the scope of practice of a certified personal trainer. If a client wants specific nutritional direction, it is best to refer the client to registered dietician in your network.
Many new clients will begin a program with a BLANK self-efficacy for exercise ability.
Very low
Dark green vegetables are highest in:
Vitamin K
Which of the following is the best question a personal trainer can encourage a client to ask him- or herself if he or she is experiencing a cognitive distortion?
What is the evidence for and against this thought?
At what point does a candidate for the personal trainer certification agree to uphold the ACE Code of Ethics?
While registering for an ACE certification exam.
Discuss how willpower is a mind-body response and not a virtue.
Willpower is the ability to ignore temporary pleasure or discomfort to pursue a longer-term goal, and it is a biological function. Anyone using willpower for long periods or for multiple tasks will have less resolve to make better choices. Using willpower is essentially relying on one's rational side to control or dictate what the emotional side wants- and it is not really a fair fighting, as emotions are a more powerful driver for decisions than reason.
Which of the following situations would require a personal trainer to refer a client to a registered dietitian?
Working with clients who present with signs of disordered eating
Compare the screening process for self-direct exercise and exercise being conducted under the supervision of a personal trainer.
With self-directed exercise, a standard questionnaire is completed by the individual with little to no feedback from the personal trainer. This questionnaire is designed to provide information regarding existing risks for participation in physical activity and the need for medical clearance beforehand. Initialing an exercise program under the guidance of a personal trainer offers an opportunity for the client and personal trainer to begin building rapport, as this step is included in the investigation stage of the client-personal trainer relationship. Also, the act of having the personal trainer conduct the screening process allows for the ACE Mover Method and the ACE ABC Approach to be implemented right away. The difference between a self-directed approach and a personal trainer-guided approach is that the latter turns an often intimidating and confusing individual experience into a collaborative one that draws upon the knowledge and experience of both the client and the personal trainer. Irrespective of the type of supervision, an exercise preparticipation health screening must be performed on all new participants, regardless of age, upon entering a gym. The screening procedures should be valid, simple, cost-efficient, time-efficient, and appropriate for the target population.
Describe Wolff's law.
Wolff's law indicates that changes in bone structure coincide with changes in bone changes. That is, when the skeleton is subjected to stressful forces, such as those that occur with exercise, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, thereby increasing its density. Conversely, when individuals experience prolonged periods of bed rest due to illness or injury, their bones lose mineral and become less dense. Maintaining adequate bone density is an important issue for all adults.
Providing feedback to clients about progress and performance is an important role of a personal trainer. What type of feedback would you provide to a client after he has completed his first few repetitions of a body-weight squat if you observe that he is lowering himself by driving his knees forward and he his holding his breath during the upward phase of the movement?
Your tempo of lowering and raising the body was just right. Remember to drive your hips back to lower down and breathe, even as the exercise feels harder. Breathing continuously and using your larger hip muscles to lower your body will make the movement feel easier.
If a client can talk comfortably during exercise, he or she is in zone:
Zone 1
Which exercise would be most appropriate in the movement training phase of the ACE IFT Model Muscular Training component?
body-weight lunges
Which of the following components of motivational interviewing is being displayed when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer deliberately purses the welfare and best interests of the client?
compassion
Which of the following best describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?
competence
Which of the following is the best strategy for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to use when working with a client who is a visual leaner?
demonstrations
Which of the following is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?
discuss lapses with the client in advance
Precontemplation:
during this stage, people are physically inactive and are not even intending to begin an activity program.
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer has a new client sign a behavior-change contract that awards a free-personal training session if the client complies with 100% of the contract's terms. Which of the following best describes the type of motivation used?
extrinsic motivation
Which stage of the client-personal trainer relationship is characterized by discussions about the client's health, fitness, and lifestyle?
investigation
In which muscular training phase of the ACE IFT Model would drills to build agility and power be incorporated?
load/speed training
To establish baseline measurements, you conduct the following types of assessments with a client in the following sequence during the client's first session prior to reviewing the preparticipation health-screening questionnaire. This client is interested in improving flexibility and physical endurance and would like to lose 15 pounds.
o Cardiorespiratory assessment o Static posture and movement o Body mass index o Resting vital signs
Identify the three Cardiorespiratory Training phases in the ACE IFT Model.
o Cardiorespiratory training- performance, fitness, base o Muscular training- load/speed, movement, functional
Identify five ways to reduce the risk of foodborne illness while grocery shopping.
o Check produce for bruises and feel and smell for ripeness. o Look for a "sell-by" date for breads and bakes goods, a "use-by" date on some packaged foods, and "expiration date" on yeast and baking powder, and a "packaged date" on canned and some packaged foods. o Make sure packaged goods are not torn and cans are not dented, cracked, or bulging. o Separate fish and poultry from other purchases by wrapping them separately in plastics bags. o Pick up refrigerated and frozen foods last. Make sure all perishable items are refrigerated within one hour of purchase.
List three key deviations of the thoracic spine and shoulders.
o Correct responses include the following: § Shoulders not level § Asymmetry to midline § Protracted (forward, rounded) § Medially rotated humerus § Kyphosis and depressed chest
Monitoring clinical progress for medically referred clients
o Documenting progress and reporting it to the appropriate healthcare professional or physician after receiving the client's permission to do so. o Following recommendations from a physician, physician therapist, registered dietitian, or other healthcare professional.
Diagnosing illness or disease
o Following accepted guidelines for exercise programming for diseases and disorders as presented by the appropriate governing body. o Assessing for exercise limitations. o Identifying potential risk factors through health screening and fitness assessment. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed. o Adhering to guidance and limitations outlined in a medical release form provided by a client's physician or other healthcare professional.
Identify five practical tips a personal trainer can share to help prepare the gut for exercise or competition.
o Get acclimatized to heat o Stay hydrate o Practice drinking during training to improve competition- day comfort o Avoid eating too much before and during exercise o Avoid high-energy, hypertonic food and drinks before (within 30 to 60 minutes) and after exercise. Limit protein and fat intake before exercise. o Ingest a high-energy, high-carbohydrate diet o Avoid high-fiber foods before exercise o Limit nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and naproxen, alcohol, caffeine, antibiotics, and nutritional supplements before and during exercise, as they can cause gastrointestinal (GI) discomfit. The client should experiment during training to identify his or her triggers. o Urinate and defecate prior to exercise o Consult a physician if GI problems persist, especially abdominal pain, diarrhea, or bloody stool
Discuss the precautionary guidelines associated with plyometric drills.
o Given the ballistic nature of plyometric-training drills, appropriate strength, flexibility, and postural mechanics are required to avoid injury. The following recommendations are provided to reduce the potential for injury. The following recommendations are provided to reduce the potential for injury and increase the likelihood of performance-related goal achievement for goals. § Plyometric drills should be performed at the beginning of a training session after the completion of a dynamic warm-up (while clients are not fatigued) to reduce the risk of injury. § Proper technique is crucial. Clients should not jump unless they know how to land. Ensure that clients are capable of landing correctly by initially teaching small, low intensity jumps and using appropriate landing techniques.
A client you've been working with for the past year is in the maintenance stage of change for engaging in regular physical activity. He reveals to you that in a month he will be starting a new job that requires a considerable amount of travel-something that was not required for his previous job. As you know, you can't assume permanency with any stage of change, so it is important to consider how to prepare for and prevent potential lapses and relapses. Your client will be traveling up to four times a month, staying in hotels, and "eating on the road." Create a plan by first identifying the high-risk situation your client is likely to face and then come up with three strategies to help your client stay on track and avoid a derailment of his progress thus far.
o High risk situation: traveling four times per month, eating on the road, and staying in hotels. o Strategy 1: address the situation before it happens. You may inform your client about the likelihood of a lapse and prepare him in advance so that he is are able to get back on track with his activity programs soon after experiencing a lapse. o Strategy 2: collaborate on ways to stay active and make healthy dietary choices while on the road. Ideas for staying physically active may include staying at hotels that provide a fitness center and are in walkable communities and creating a body-weight exercise program that can be completed within a hotel room. Options for making healthy dietary choices while traveling may include discussing healthier options when eating out, eating a healthy meal or snack before going out to eat with colleagues, and being mindful of portion control, especially if physical activity is decreased. The ACE ABC Approach can be used during this conversation to allow the client to remain in control of his program and behavior-change journey. o Strategy 3: enhance social support. You can offer support outside of the training session, whether in the form of a phone call, email, text message, or social media platform. Further, you may explore with the client enhanced support at home, as it is important to get family members and/or friends involved to some degree when a client is embarking on a behavior-change plan.
Rewrite the following goal statements as SMART goals.
o I want to exercise more. § I will begin exercising by walking 30 minutes at lunch on 3 or more days of the week. o I want to be healthier. § I will take walk breaks for every 1 hour I sit at my desk on 5 days of the week. o I want to tone up. § I will lift weight 3 days a week and practice yoga on 2 days of the week.
Linda is a new client who has been physically inactive for a number of years prior to seeking the services of a personal trainer. Her primary goals in hiring you are to lose weight, lower her blood pressure, and reduce stress. Based on this information, in what phase of the Cardiorespiratory Training component of the ACE IFT Model would Linda begin? What, if any assessments, are recommended? And how should you respond if Linda, given her physically inactive status, is only able to initially complete five minutes of activity during the cardiorespiratory training segment of planned workouts?
o Linda is in the base training phase. o Any client who is not consistently performing moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise for bouts of at least 20 minutes on at least three days per week should begin with Base Training. o No cardiorespiratory assessments are recommended during the Base Training phase, since many clients who start in this phase will be unfit and may have difficulty completing an assessment of this nature. o In this case, you should give the client positive feedback for completing the five-minute exercise bout, remind the client that bouts of physical activity of any length are beneficial in reducing health risks, and document the total time completed. o This would serve as the client's baseline cardiorespiratory fitness data and the starting point for cardiorespiratory training progressions to build an aerobic base. o Regardless of the initial duration, the goal for all clients in Base Training is to gradually increase exercise duration and frequency until the client is performing cardiorespiratory exercise three to five days per week for a duration of 20 minutes or more. o The easiest method for monitoring intensity with clients during Base Training is to use the talk test.
Identify an example for each component of OARS you can use with your clients.
o Open ended questions: what would you gain by exercising more? o Affirmations: you really worked hard this week! o Reflective listening: you're concerned that you're not making progress fast enough. o Summarizing: after you exercise, you feel strong and healthy.
Describe how personal trainers can use and apply the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
o Personal trainers can utilize this concept to understand that clients ebb and flow along this continuum based on where they are in their lifecycle and lifestyle factors that are impacting, positively or negatively, their opportunities for, and participation in, physical activity. o Personal trainers can help clients progress along this continuum by meeting them where they are and providing personalized exercise programs and coaching based on each client's current health, fitness, and goals.
Describe how you can identify scapular winging and scapular protraction on a client.
o Personal trainers may perform a quick observational assessment to identify scapular winging and scapular protraction. While looking at the client from the posterior view, if the vertebral (medial) and/or inferior angle of the scapulae protrude outward, this indicates an inability of the scapular stabilizers (primarily the rhomboids and serratus anterior) to hold the scapulae in place. Noticeable protrusion of the vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "scapular protraction," while protrusion of the inferior angle and vertebral (medial) border outward is termed "winged scapulae". o Scapular protraction can also be identified from the anterior view. If the palms face backward instead of to the sides, this generally indicates internal (medial) rotation of the humerus and/or scapular protraction.
Exercising in the heat requires certain considerations. How would you educate a client about exercising in the heat? Are there three strategies or tips you can share to help you client safely participate in activity in higher temperatures and humidity?
o Personal trainers should share the following tips with clients before they consider exercising in the heat: § Begin exercising in the heat gradually § Always wear lightweight, well-ventilated clothing § Never wear impermeable or nonbreathable garments § Replace body fluids as they are lost
List nutrition topics personal trainers should be prepared to discuss with their clients.
o Principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation o Food to be included in the balanced daily diet o Essential nutrients needed by the body o Actions of nutrients on the body o Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients o How nutrient requirements vary through the Lifecyle o Principles of pre- and post- workout nutrition and hydration o Information about nutrients contained in foods or supplements
Prescribing diets or nutritional supplements
o Referring clients to a registered dietician for meal planning or a specific diet plan. o Providing general information or health, evidence-based nutrition.
Review the www.choosemyplate.gov website and familiarize yourself with the many resources available. As it is within your scope of practice to share this resource with future clients, it is crucial you be familiar with what this site has to offer. List three resources on the website you could use when working with your clients.
o Resources found at www.choosemyplate.gov include the following: o Creating a MyPlate plan o Add the MyPlate Plan widget to my website o Use MyPlate graphics o Share the tip library o Share MyPlate print materials
List and describe the planes of motion.
o Sagittal- divides the body into right and left halves o Transverse- divides the body into superior and inferior halves o Frontal- divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
Sarah is a personal training client who falls into the "active couch potato" domain. She exercises for 45 minutes each day but spends the rest of the day sitting at her desk or in her car. List five strategies Sarah can employ in her daily life to help her sit less and move more.
o Set a time to get up and move once every 90 minutes o Take regular stretch breaks o Hold walking meetings whenever possible o Rely less on email and electronic communication and visit coworkers face to face o Walk for an additional 10 minutes at lunch
Jill is a new client of yours who has been active off and on for years. She followed exercise routines before but once the newness wore off, she became bored and didn't enjoy her sessions. In gathering more information, you learn that Jill likes variety and becomes bored easily if she's "bored in" to a specific program. As you know lack of enjoyment can negatively influence adherence to a workout program. Create a list of ideas you have for making activity fun and enjoyable. Consider how you can challenge clients. Think about ways you might be able to add variety to a workout.
o Strategy 1: ask questions to find out what types of activities Jill has enjoyed in the past. o Strategy 2: use interval training and varied equipment while staying focused on training goals. o Strategy 3: collaborate with the client on creating the exercise program and consider the client's stage of change in that she perceives boredom as a con to becoming a regular exerciser. o Strategy 4: evaluate goals and come up with a plan for adding challenges and showing progress.
Explain the function-health-fitness-performance continuum.
o The function-health-fitness performance continuum is based on the premise that human movement and fitness can progress and regress along a spectrum that starts with developing or reestablishing basic functional movements and extends to performing highly advanced and specialized motions and physical work seen in athletics. o Each individual is at a unique point on this continuum based upon factors that include health status and physical limitations, frequency, intensity, and types of physical activities and any participation in, and goals for athletic performance. o Both lifecycle and lifestyle factors can influence where an individual currently falls on the continuum.
You have a new client who is seeking your services to lose wight, increase her energy level, and reduce stress. After evaluating her stage of change, you note she is in the preparation stage. What strategies and processes of change would apply to this stage? How might you start coaching this client?
o The goal with this stage is to collaborate on an action plan that includes frequent positive feedback and reinforcements on the client's progress. Some strategies might include the following: (1) verifying that the individual has the skills necessary to change his or her behavior and encouraging small steps toward building self-efficacy; (2) identifying and assisting with overcoming/addressing obstacles the client may face; (3) assisting the client in identifying necessary social support and developing goals.
The new health-screening process is based on what three factors?
o The individual's current level of physical activity o Diagnosed cardiovascular metabolic, or renal disease and/or the presence of signs or symptoms. o The desired exercise intensity
The new health-screening process is designed to identify what three categories of individuals?
o Those who should receive medical clearance before initiating an exercise program or increasing the frequency, intensity, and/or volume of their current program. o Those with clinically significant disease (s) who may benefit from participating in a medically supervised exercise program. o Those with medical conditions that may require exclusion from exercise programs until those conditions are resolved or better controlled.
Describe the three main functions of intramuscular fascia (deep fascia).
o To provide a framework that ensures proper alignment of muscle fibers, blood vessels, and nerves. o To enable the safe and effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle. o To provide the necessary lubricated surfaces between muscle fibers that allow muscles to change shape during contraction and elongation.
Analyze the food label presented as Figure 6-13 on page 190 of your textbook and identify the total number of calories; calories from fat; calories from protein, and calories from carbohydrate. Examine the overall nutritional quality of the food and write your conclusion.
o Total calories per container § 230 calories per serving x 8 servings per container = 1,840 calories per container o Calories from fat § 8 g of fat x 9 calories/gram = 72 calories from fat o Calories from protein § 3 g of protein x 4 calories/gram = 12 calories from protein o Calories from carbohydrate § 37 g of carbohydrate x 4 calories/gram = 148 calories from carbohydrate o Overall nutritional quality conclusion § This product is low in protein, high in carbohydrate and added sugar, and high in calories per serving. While the product has 4 g of fiber per serving, the additional sugars means this product is not nutrient dense. A product with fewer added sugars, more protein, and whole grains would be a healthier option.
Counseling clients
o Using coaching techniques to support clients through behavior change. o Providing general health and wellness information. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed.
Treating injury or disease or rehabilitating clients following injury
o Using exercise programming to help clients improve overall health. o Helping clients adhere to advice from a physician or physical therapist. o Designing an exercise program after a client has been release from rehabilitation. o Referring clients to appropriate healthcare professionals as needed.
· Use the following information to determine this client's waist-to-hip ratio and relative risk, as well as his disease risk relative to waist circumference. o Abdominal circumference: 45.7 inches (116 cm) o Hip circumference: 42.5 inches (108 cm) o Waist circumference: 46.1 (117 cm) o Age: 41 o Sex: male
o Waist-to-hip ratio/relative risk: 1.08 (at risk) o Disease risk relative to wait circumference: high
Describe how scope of practice relates to the health screening process.
o While the identification of the signs and symptoms refereed in the health-screening algorithm may be within the scope of practice of most personal trainers, interpretation of those same signs and symptoms should be made only by qualified healthcare professional within the context in which they appear.
Which of the following OARS skills is being used when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer states, "your intention to exercise 5 days this week was good, even though you were only able to make it to the gym 3 days"?
offering affirmations
During a training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer asks the client to explain what benefits might be gained by increasing her exercise frequency from 2 day/week to 3 days/week. Which of the following best identifies the type of communication skill used by the trainer?
open-ended questions
Which of the following is one of the five primary movement patterns that are the focus of movement training?
single-leg movement
Conditioning phase
the primary component of a workout. This should be aligned with client goals and should be based on frequency, duration, intensity, and modality.
Warm up
this is a period of later exercise preceding the conditioning phase and should last for five to 10 minutes for most healthy adults.
Cool-down
this phase occurs after the primary workout has concluded. It should last five to 10 minutes and has the goal of helping the body return to pre-exercise state. An active cooldown can help remove metabolic waste as well.
Contemplation:
this stage consists of people who are still inactive but are thinking about becoming more active in the near future, within the next six months.
Action:
this stage is comprised of people who are engaging in regular physical activity but have been doing so for less than six months.
Maintenance:
this stage is marked by regular physical-activity participation for longer than six months.
Preparation:
this stage is marked by some engagement in physical activity, as individuals are mentally and physically preparing to adopt an activity program.
Load/speed training
§ Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet desired goals. § Integrate the five primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes of motion and combinations. § Integrate Functional Training exercises to enhance postural stability and kinetic chain mobility to support increased workloads. § Programs should focus on adequate resistance training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, and hypertrophy goals. § Clients with goals for athletic performance will integrate exercises and drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.
Load/speed training:
§ Focus on application of external loads to movements to create increased force production to meet desired goals. § Integrate the five primary movement patterns through exercises that load them in different planes of motion and combinations. § Integrate functional training exercises to enhance postural stability and kinetic chain mobility to support increased workloads. § Programs should focus on adequate resistance training loads to help clients reach muscular strength, endurance, and hypertrophy goals. § Clients with goals for athletic performance will integrate exercises and drills to build speed, agility, quickness, and power.
Movement training
§ Focus on developing good movement patterns without compromising postural or joint stability. § Program should include exercises for all five primary movement patterns in varies planes of motion. § Integrate Functional Training exercises to help clients maintain and improve postural stability and kinetic chain mobility.
Movement training:
§ Focus on developing good movement patterns without compromising postural or joint stability. § Programs should include exercises for all five primary movement patterns in varied planes of motion. § Integrate functional training exercises to help clients maintain and improve postural stability and kinetic chain mobility.
Functional training:
§ Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility. § Exercise programs should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, and static and dynamic balance. § Progress exercise volume and challenge as function improves
Functional training
§ Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility. § Exercise programs should improve muscular endurance, flexibility, core function, and statistic and dynamic balance. § Progress exercise volume and challenge as function improves.
Base training:
§ Focus on moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise (RPE = 3 to 4), while keeping an emphasis on enjoyment. § Keep intensities below the talk-test threshold (below VT1). § Increase duration and frequency of exercise bouts. § Progress to fitness training when the client can complete at least 20 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold.
Base training
§ Focus on moderate-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise (RPE = 3 to 4), while keeping an emphasis on enjoyment. § Keep intensities below the talk—test threshold (below VT1). § Increase duration and frequency of exercise bouts. § Progress to Fitness Training when the client can complete at least 20 minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise below the talk test threshold.
Hip
§ Gluteus maximus- extension and external rotation; superior fibers: abduction § Biceps femoris- extension, abduction, and slight external rotation
Cardiovascular
§ Heart muscle hypertrophy § Large stroke volume § Same evidence suggests that redistribution of cardiac output to active muscles may improve after training.
Time
§ Holding a static stretch for 10-30 seconds is recommended for most adults. § In older individuals, holding a stretch for 30-60 seconds may confer greater benefit. § For proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching, a 3-6 second light-to-moderate contraction (e.g., 20-75% of maximum voluntary contraction) followed by a 10- to 30- second assisted stretch is desirable.
Muscular
§ Increased size and number of mitochondria § Growth in more capillaries around the recruited muscle fibers. § Could also be adaptions to contractile mechanisms § Increase in number of anerobic enzymes § May also be hypertrophy of the contractile proteins within the muscle fiber
Shoulder grille
§ Pectoralis major- flexion, extension, adduction, internal rotation, and horizontal adduction § Deltoid- entire muscle: abduction; anterior fibers: flexion, internal rotation, and horizontal rotation; posterior fibers: external rotation and horizontal abduction § Latissimus dorsi- extension, adduction, horizontal abduction, and internal rotation
Seated single-arm overhead press in the scapular plane:
§ Plane (s) of motion- frontal and sagittal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- shoulder abduction and adduction; elbow and shoulder flexion and extension; scapular upward and downward rotation
Squat:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- downward phase: hip and knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion; upward phase: hip and knee extension and ankle plantar flexion
Biceps curl:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: elbow flexion; downward phase: elbow extension
Step-up with dumbbells:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: knee and hip flexion; downward phase: hip and knee extension
Front arm raise:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: shoulder flexion; downward phase: hip and knee extension
Modified curl-up
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal § Joint actions- upward phase: trunk flexion; downward phase: trunk extension
Standing single-leg reach:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- forward each: hip flexion; side reach: hip abduction; backward reach: hip extension; back and across reach: hip extension and adduction
Lunge with rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and transverse § Joint actions- downward phase: hip and knee flexion; upward phase: hip extension; trunk rotation
Standing gate opened:
§ Plane (s) of motion- sagittal and transverse (multiplanar) § Joint actions- hip and knee flexion; hip lateral and medial rotation
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Standardized (220-age)
§ THR = (HRR X %intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 220 - 35 = 185 bpm § HRR = 185 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 125 bpm § THR = 125 (HRR) X 0.60 (exercise intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 135 bpm
Quadruped thoracic spine rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse § Joint actions- spinal rotation is in the transverse plane; the knees and hips are flexed, but no motion is taking place. The elbow is also flexed, but no extension occurs.
High plank thoracic spine rotation:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- spinal and hip rotation; arm abduction when in the rotational phase
Seated cable chest press:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse and sagittal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- upward phase: horizontal adduction and elbow extension; downward phase: abduction and elbow flexion
Standing cable wood chop:
§ Plane (s) of motion- transverse, sagittal, and frontal (multiplanar) § Joint actions- trunk rotation (some shoulder flexion and extension as well as abduction and adduction)
Side lunge:
§ Plane (s) of motion-frontal and sagittal § Joint actions- downward phase: hip abduction and hip and knee flexion; upward phase: hip and knee extension and hip adduction
Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
§ Premise- Measures electrical signals as they pass through fat tissue, lean mass, and water in the body. § Pros- Noninvasive, simple to administrate § Cons- accuracy can vary based on hydration level of the client, sophistication of the machine, and validity the of the prediction algorithms § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)
§ Premise- Measures the amount of air that is displaced when a person sits in the machine. § Pros- high accuracy § Cons- equipment is expensive § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
§ Premise- delivers a low dose x-ray that reads bone and soft tissue mass to identify regional body fat distribution § Pros- accuracy, precision § Cons- § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Hydrostatic weighing
§ Premise- measures the amount of water displaced when a person is completely submerged in water; indirectly measures body fat via body density. § Pros- gold standard for body fat assessment § Cons- uncomfortable procedure for many individuals, size of apparatus § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Near-infrared interactance (NIR)
§ Premise- uses a fiber optic probe connected to a digital probe that indirectly measures tissues composition § Pros- relatively inexpensive and fast § Cons- not as accurate as other techniques § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Total body electrical conductivity (TOBEC)
§ Premise- uses an electromagnetic force field to assess relative body fat § Pros- § Cons- impractical an expensive § Practical for a personal training setting? no
Skinfold measurements
§ Premise- uses calipers to pinch a fold of skin and fat; equations are used to calculate body fat percentage § Pros- ease of administration and low cost § Cons- large margin of error with lack of experience § Practical for a personal training setting? yes
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
§ Premise- uses magnetic fields to assess how much fat a person has an where it has deposited § Pros- § Cons- not practical for assessing body fat § Practical for a personal training setting? no
You've been working with a client for the past three months who has made excellent progress with her fitness goals but is now interested in making more specific dietary changes. She asks you to create a weekly meal plan for her and provide recommend grocery lists. Knowing the defined scope of practice of a personal trainer, how might you address her desires while remaining within your scope? What other options can you offer her?
§ Principles of healthy nutrition and food preparation § Food to be included in the balanced diet § Essential nutrients needed by the body § Actions of nutrients on the body § Effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients § How nutrient requirements vary through the lifecycle § Principles of pre- and post-workout nutrition and hydration § Information about nutrients contained in foods or supplements
Performance training:
§ Program moderate- and vigorous-intensity cardiorespiratory exercise § Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals § Integrate near-maximal and maximal intensity (RPE = 7 to 10) intervals performed at and above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, and performance. § Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training time below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at or above VT2.
Fitness training
§ Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration and frequency based on the client's goals and available time. § Integrate vigorous-intensity (RPE = 5 to 6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals with segments performed at intensities below, at, and above VT1 to just below VT2.
Fitness training:
§ Progress cardiorespiratory exercise duration and frequency based on the client's goals and available time. § Integrate vigorous-intensity (RPE = 5 to 6) cardiorespiratory exercise intervals with segments performed at intensities below, at, and above VT1 to just below VT2.
Performance training
§ Progress moderate and vigorous intensity cardiorespiratory exercise. § Program sufficient volume for the client to achieve goals. § Integrate near maximal and maximal intensity (RPE = 7 to 10) intervals performed at and above VT2 to increase aerobic capacity, speed, and performance. § Periodized training plans can be used to incorporate adequate training time below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at or above VT2.
Spine
§ Rectus abdominis- flexion and lateral flexion of the trunk § Erector spinae- extension (both sides) and lateral flexion
Knee
§ Rectus femoris- extension (most effective when hip is extended) § Biceps femoris- flexion and internal rotation
Pattern
§ Repetition of each flexibility exercise 2-4 times is recommended. § Flexibility exercise is most effective when the muscle is warmed through light-to-moderate aerobic activity or passively through external methods such as moist heat packs or hot baths.
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Gellish et al. (206.9 - (0.67 x age))
§ THR = (HRR x % intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 206.9 - (0.67 X 35) = 183 bpm § HRR = 183 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 123 bpm § THR = 123 (HRR) X 0.60 (exercise intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 134 bpm
Calculate the target heart rate (using the Karvonen Method) for a 35-year-old client with a resting heart rate of 60 bpm who wants to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise at 60% of heart rate reserve: Tanaka, Monahan, and Seals (208 - (0.7 x age))
§ THR = (HRR x intensity) + RHR § Where: HRR = MHR - RHR § MHR = 208 - (0.7 x 35) = 184 bpm § HRR = 184 (MHR) - 60 (RHR) = 124 bpm § THR = 124 (HRR) x 0.60 (desired intensity) + 60 (RHR) = 134 bpm
Base training
§ Training focus- the principal focus is on getting clients who are either physically inactive or have little cardiorespiratory fitness to begin engaging in regular exercise. § Program design purpose- to create positive experiences for clients in order to facilitate program adherence and success. § Associated zone- zone 1 § Who it is for- this phase is the starting point for all deconditioned individuals, but these intensities will continue to be incorporated after progressing beyond Base Training to maintain cardiorespiratory fitness.
Performance training
§ Training focus- this phase focuses on endurance-performance objectives that require specialized training to ensure that adequate training volume and appropriate training intensity and recovery are included to create performance changes that help her client reach his or her objectives. § Program design purpose- to focus on helping the client enhance his or her cardiorespiratory to ensure completion of goal events, while building anaerobic capacity to achieve endurance-performance goals. § Associated zone- all three zones can be utilized. § Who is it for- clients who have endurance-performance objectives
Fitness training
§ Training focus- this phase has a principal training focus of increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve fitness and health. § Program design purpose- to enhance the client's cardiorespiratory efficiency by progressing the program through increased duration of sessions, increased frequency of sessions when possible, and the introduction of zone 2 intervals. § Associated zone- zone 1 introduction and zone 2 intervals. § Who it is for- regular clients in a fitness facility who have goals for improving or maintaining fitness and/or health.
Examples of questions:
§ What motivated you to seek the services of a personal trainer? § What do you hope to gain or accomplish by working with a personal trainer? § What has worked for you in the past? § What do you need to start doing now to move closer to your goals? § What do you need to stop doing that will enable you to reach your goals?
Examples of strategies for collaborating:
§ Work together to identify SMART goals and establish specific action-oriented steps to take. § Allow the client to lead the discussion of how to monitor and measure progress (this fosters client ownership in the process).
