Chapter 12: Management of Patients with Oncologic Disorders

A nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with cancer. Which therapies are used to treat cancer? Select all that apply.

- surgery - hyperthermia - radiation therapy - chemotherapy

A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with

seizure. -A serum sodium concentration lower than 115 mEq/L (115 mmol/L) is associated with seizures, abnormal reflexes, papilledema, coma, and death. Anorexia, weight gain, and myalgia are associated with serum sodium concentrations lower than 120 mEq/L.

A client is receiving external radiation to the left thorax to treat lung cancer. Which intervention should be part of this client's care plan?

Avoiding using soap on the irradiated areas -Because external radiation commonly causes skin irritation, the nurse should wash the irradiated area with water only and leave the area open to air. No soaps, deodorants, lotions, or powders should be applied. A lead apron is unnecessary because no radiation source is present in the client's body or room. Skin in the area to be irradiated is marked to position the radiation beam as precisely as possible; skin markings must not be removed.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which assessment finding places the client at the greatest risk for an infection?

Stage 3 pressure ulcer on the left heel -A stage 3 pressure ulcer is a break in the skin's protective barrier, which could lead to infection in a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The WBC count and temperature are within normal limits. Eating 75% of meals is normal and doesn't increase the client's risk for infection. A client who is malnourished is at a greater risk for infection.

The nurse is evaluating the client's risk for cancer. The nurse should recommend the client change which lifestyle choice?

eats red meat such as steaks or hamburgers every day -Dietary substances such as nitrate-containing and red meats appear to increase the risk of cancer. Exercising 30 minutes on 5 days or more is recommended for adults. Measures are taken to protect those people who work around radiation. Alcohol consumption recommendations include drink no more than one drink per day for women or two per day for men.

A nurse is administering daunorubicin (DaunoXome) to a patient with lung cancer. Which situation requires immediate intervention?

The I.V. site is red and swollen. -A red, swollen I.V. site indicates possible infiltration. Daunorubicin is a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent and can be very damaging to tissue if it infiltrates. The nurse should immediately stop the medication, apply ice to the site, and notify the physician. Although nausea, WBC count of 1,000/mm3, and shivering require interventions, these findings aren't a high priority at this time.

The physician is attending to a 72-year-old client with a malignant brain tumor. The physician recommends immediate radiation therapy. What is a reason for the physician's recommendation?

To prevent the formation of new cancer cells -Radiation therapy helps prevent cellular growth. It may be used to cure the cancer or to control malignancy when the tumor cannot be removed or when lymph node involvement is present; also, it can be used prophylactically to prevent spread. Biopsy is used to analyze lymph nodes or to destroy the surrounding tissues around the tumor.

The client is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg intravenously in divided doses over 5 days. The client weighs 176 pounds. How many mg of cyclophosphamide will the client receive each day? Enter the correct number ONLY.

800 -The client's weight of 176 pounds equals 80 kg. The client is to receive 50 mg of cyclophosphamide for each 1 kg of body weight. This is to be divided into 5 doses. 80 kg x 50 mg/kg = 4000 mg. 4000 mg/5 days = 800 mg.

Which is a growth-based classification of tumors?

Malignancy -Tumors classified on the basis of growth are described as benign or malignant. Tumors that are classified on the basis of the cell or tissue of origin are carcinomas, sarcomas, lymphomas, and leukemias.

In which phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?

Mitosis -Cell division occurs in mitosis. RNA and protein synthesis occurs in the G1 phase. DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase. DNA synthesis is complete, and the mitotic spindle forms in the G2 phase.

A nurse assesses an oncology client with stomatitis during a chemotherapy session. Which nursing intervention would most likely decrease the pain associated with stomatitis?

Provide a solution of viscous lidocaine for use as a mouth rinse.

An oncologist advises a client with an extensive family history of breast cancer to consider a mastectomy. What type of surgery would the nurse include in teaching?

prophylactic -Also called preventive surgery, prophylactic surgery may be done when there is a family history or genetic predisposition, ability to detect cancer at an early stage, and client acceptance of the postoperative outcome. Local excision is done when an existing tumor is removed along with a small margin of healthy tissue. Palliative surgery relieves symptoms. Cryosurgery uses cold to destroy cancerous cells.

A client diagnosed with acute myelocytic leukemia has been receiving chemotherapy. During the last 2 cycles of chemotherapy, the client developed severe thrombocytopenia requiring multiple platelet transfusions. The client is now scheduled to receive a third cycle. How can the nurse best detect early signs and symptoms of thrombocytopenia?

Closely observe the client's skin for petechiae and bruising.

A client has received several treatments of bleomycin. It is now important for the nurse to assess

Lung sounds -Bleomycin has cumulative toxic effects on lung function. Thus, it will be important to assess lung sounds.

A client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a chemotherapy-induced complication?

Serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L -Chemotherapy commonly causes nausea and vomiting, which may lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Signs of fluid loss include a serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L, decreased urine output (less than 40 ml/hour), and abnormally low blood pressure. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours, serum sodium level of 142 mEq/L, and a blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg aren't abnormal findings.

A client with a brain tumor is undergoing radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of cancer. The client has recently reported swelling in the gums, tongue, and lips. Which is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

Stomatitis -The symptoms of swelling in gums, tongue, and lips indicate stomatitis. This usually occurs 5 to 10 days after the administration of certain chemotherapeutic agents or radiation therapy to the head and neck. Chemotherapy and radiation produce chemical toxins that lead to the breakdown of cells in the mucosa of the epithelium, connective tissue, and blood vessels in the oral cavity.

A nurse is performing a home visit for a client who received chemotherapy within the past 24 hours. The nurse observes a small child playing in the bathroom, where the toilet lid has been left up. Based on these observations, the nurse modifies the client's teaching plan to include:

chemotherapy exposure and risk factors. -The raised toilet lid exposes the child playing in the bathroom to the risk of inhaling or ingesting chemotherapy agents. The nurse should modify her teaching plan to include content related to chemotherapy exposure and its associated risk factors. Because the client has received chemotherapy, the plan should already include information about expected adverse effects, signs and symptoms of infection, and reinforcement of the medication regimen.

The client is receiving a vesicant antineoplastic for treatment of cancer. Which assessment finding would require the nurse to take immediate action?

Extravasation -The nurse needs to monitor IV administration of antineoplastics (especially vesicants) to prevent tissue necrosis to blood vessels, skin, muscles, and nerves. Stomatitis, nausea/vomiting, and bone pain can be symptoms of the disease process or treatment mode but does not require immediate action.

The oncology nurse is giving chemotherapy to a client in a short stay area. The client confides that they are very depressed. The nurse recognizes depression as which of the following?

A normal reaction to the diagnosis of cancer.

Which type of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) is characterized by cells from a donor other than the patient?

Allogeneic -If the source of donor cells is from a donor other than the patient, it is termed allogeneic. Autologous donor cells come from the patient. Syngeneic donor cells are from an identical twin. Homogenic is not a type of stem cell transplant.

The nurse is conducting a screening for familial predisposition to cancer. Which element should the nurse note as a possible indication of hereditary cancer syndrome?

An aunt and uncle diagnosed with cancer -The hallmarks of hereditary cancer syndrome include cancer in two or more first-degree or second-degree relatives, early onset of cancer in family members younger than age 50, the same type of cancer in several family members, individual family members with more than one type of cancer, and a rare cancer in one or more family members.

The nurse is providing client teaching for a client undergoing chemotherapy. What dietary modifications should the nurse advise?

Avoid spicy and fatty foods. -The nurse advises a client undergoing chemotherapy to avoid hot and very cold liquids and spicy and fatty foods. The nurse also encourages the client to have small meals and appropriate fluid intake.

An oncology nurse is caring for a client who relates that certain tastes have changed. The client states that "meat tastes bad." What nursing intervention can be used to increase protein intake for a client with taste changes?

Encourage eating cheese, eggs, and legumes -The nurse encourages the clients with taste changes to eat cheese, eggs, and legumes. Encouraging the client to take in the maximum amount of fluids does not increase protein intake. The nurse advises the client to drink protein beverages. Sucking on hard candies during treatment does not increase protein intake.

A side-effect of chemotherapy is renal damage. To prevent this, the nurse should:

Encourage fluid intake, if possible, to dilute the urine.

A nurse is administering daunorubicin through a peripheral I.V. line when the client complains of burning at the insertion site. The nurse notes no blood return from the catheter and redness at the I.V. site. The client is most likely experiencing which complication?

Extravasation -The client is exhibiting signs of extravasation, which occurs when the medication leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes swelling, burning, or pain at the injection site. Erythema is redness of the skin that results from skin irritation. Flare is a spreading of redness that occurs as a result of drawing a pointed instrument across the skin. Thrombosis is the formation of clot within the vascular system.

A client has been receiving chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that the client has developed stomatitis?

Red, open sores on the oral mucosa

Which primary cancer treatment goal is prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth?

Control -The range of possible treatment goals may include complete eradication of malignant disease (cure), prolonged survival and containment of cancer cell growth (control), or relief of symptoms associated with the disease (palliation). Prevention is not a treatment goal when the patient has already been diagnosed with cancer. Prevention of metastasis to a secondary site may be a goal.

Which of the following is a term used to describe the process of programmed cell death?

Apoptosis -Apoptosis is the innate cellular process of programmed cell death. Mitosis is the phase of the cell cycle in which cell division occurs. Carcinogenesis is the process by which cancer arises. Angiogenesis is the process by which a new blood supply is formed.

The drug interleukin-2 is an example of which type of biologic response modifier?

Cytokine -Other cytokines include interferon alfa and filgrastim. Monoclonal antibodies include rituximab, trastuzumab, and gemtuzumab. Retinoic acid is an example of a retinoid. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific antineoplastic agents.

A decrease in circulating white blood cells (WBCs) is referred to as

Leukopenia -A decrease in circulating WBCs is referred to as leukopenia. Granulocytopenia is a decrease in neutrophils. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in the number of platelets. Neutropenia is an abnormally low absolute neutrophil count.

Which statement is true about malignant tumors?

They gain access to the blood and lymphatic channels. -By gaining access to blood and lymphatic channels, a tumor can metastasize to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rates of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

While administering cisplatin to a client, the nurse assesses swelling at the insertion site. What is the nurse's first action?

Discontinue the intravenous medication. -If extravasation of a chemotherapeutic medication is suspected, the nurse immediately stops the medication. Depending on the drug, the nurse may then attempt to aspirate any remaining drug, apply a warm or cold compress, administer a neutralizing solution, or all these measures.

A patient is taking vincristine, a plant alkaloid for the treatment of cancer. What system should the nurse be sure to assess for symptoms of toxicity?

Nervous system -With repeated doses, the taxanes and plant alkaloids, especially vincristine, can cause cumulative peripheral nervous system damage with sensory alterations in the feet and hands.

A patient will be having an endoscopic procedure with a diagnostic biopsy. What type of biopsy does the nurse explain will remove an entire piece of suspicious tissue?

Excisional biopsy -Excisional biopsy is most frequently used for small, easily accessible tumors of the skin, breast, and upper or lower gastrointestinal and upper respiratory tracts. In many cases, the surgeon can remove the entire tumor as well as the surrounding marginal tissues. The removal of normal tissue beyond the tumor area decreases the possibility that residual microscopic malignant cells may lead to a recurrence of the tumor. Incisional biopsy is performed if the tumor mass is too large to be removed. In this case, a wedge of tissue from the tumor is removed for analysis. Needle biopsy is performed to sample suspicious masses that are easily and safely accessible, such as some masses in the breasts, thyroid, lung, liver, and kidney. A core needle biopsy uses a specially designed needle to obtain a small core of tissue that permits histologic analysis.

What foods should the nurse suggest that the patient consume less of in order to reduce nitrate intake because of the possibility of carcinogenic action?

Ham and bacon -Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Nitrates are added to cured meats, such as ham and bacon.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?

It gains access to the blood and lymphatic channels. -By this mechanism, the tumor metastasizes to other areas of the body. Cells of malignant tumors are undifferentiated. Malignant tumors demonstrate variable rate of growth; however, the more anaplastic the tumor, the faster its growth. A malignant tumor grows at the periphery and sends out processes that infiltrate and destroy surrounding tissues.

The nurse is assessing the diet of a female client. To decrease the risk of cancer in general, the nurse instructs the client to

Limit alcohol ingestion to one drink per day. -Alcohol increases the risks of certain cancers and should be limited to no more than one drink per day for women. Smoking is strongly associated with certain cancers, and tobacco may act synergistically with other substances. Even decreasing use of tobacco still places one at risk for cancer. Recommendation by the U.S. Department of Agriculture for fruits and vegetables is 4 1/2 cups per day and for protein is 5 1/2 ounces per day with low-fat or lean meat and poultry and/or other proteins such as fish, beans, peas, nuts, and seeds.

A nurse is receiving a client with a radioactive implant for the treatment of cervical cancer. What is the nurse's best action?

Place the client in a private room. -Safety precautions are used for the client with a radioactive implant. They include assigning the client to a private room, seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source, prohibiting visits by children, and preventing exposure to those who may be or are pregnant. Staff needs to wear dosimeters. Family may visit for up to 30 minutes per day.

Palliation refers to

relief of symptoms associated with disease and promotion of comfort and quality of life. -Palliation is the goal for care in patients with terminal cancer. Alopecia is the term that refers to hair loss. Metastasis is the term that refers to the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumor to distant sites. Nadir is the term that refers to the lowest point of white blood cell depression after therapy that has toxic effects on bone marrow.

The clinic nurse is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with a tumor. The client says to the nurse "The doctor says my tumor is benign. What does that mean?" What is the nurse's best response?

"Benign tumors don't usually cause death."

Which of the following would be inconsistent as a common side effect of chemotherapy?

Weight gain -Common side effects seen with chemotherapy include myelosuppression, alopecia, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue.

A nurse is teaching a client with bone marrow suppression about the time frame when bone suppression will be noticeable after administration of floxuridine. What is the time frame the nurse should include with client teaching?

7 to 14 days -Bone marrow suppression becomes noticeable 7 to 14 days after floxuridine administration. Bone marrow recovery occurs in 21 to 28 days.

A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. What is one of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?

Liver -The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The others are the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs are occasional metastasis sites.

A male client has been unable to return to work for 10 days following chemotherapy as the result of ongoing fatigue and inability to perform usual activities. Laboratory test results are WBCs 2000/mm³, RBCs 3.2 x 10¹²/L, and platelets 85,000/mm³. The nurse notes that the client is anxious. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis?

Risk for infection related to inadequate defenses

The nurse is caring for a client with a benign breast tumor. The tumor may have which characteristic?

Slow rate of growth -Benign tumors have a slow rate of growth and well-differentiated cells. Benign tumors do not invade surrounding tissue and do not cause generalized symptoms unless the location of the tumor interferes with the functioning of vital organs.

The nurse is invited to present a teaching program to parents of school-age children. Which topic would be of greatest value for decreasing cancer risks?

Sun safety and use of sunscreen -Pool and water safety as well as infection prevention are important teaching topics but will not decrease cancer risk. While performing breast and testicular self-exams may identify cancers in the early stage, this teaching is not usually initiated in school-age children. Severe sunburns that occur in young children can place the child at risk for skin cancers later in life. Because children spend much time out of doors, the use of sunscreen and protective clothing/hats can protect the skin and decrease the risk.

What should the nurse tell a client who is about to begin chemotherapy and is anxious about hair loss?

The client should consider getting a wig or cap prior to beginning treatment. -If hair loss is anticipated and causing the client anxiety, a wig, cap, or scarf should be purchased before therapy begins. Alopecia develops because chemotherapy affects the rapidly growing cells of the hair follicles. Hair usually begins to grow again within 4 to 6 months after therapy. Clients should know that new growth may have a slightly different color and texture.

The client is diagnosed with a benign brain tumor. Which of the following features of a benign tumor is of most concern to the nurse?

Tumor pressure against normal tissues -Benign tumors grow more slowly than malignant tumors and do not emit tumor-specific antigens or proteins. Benign tumors do not metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors can compress tissues as it grows, which can result in impaired organ functioning.

The nurse is working with a client who has had an allo-hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). The nurse notices a diffuse rash and diarrhea. The nurse contacts the physician to report that the client has symptoms of

graft-versus-host disease. -Graft-versus-host disease is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in clients who have had allogeneic transplant. Clinical manifestations of the disease include diffuse rash that progresses to blistering and desquamation, and mucosal inflammation of the eyes and the entire gastrointestinal tract with subsequent diarrhea, abdominal pain, and hepatomegaly.

A nurse caring for a client who has just received chemotherapy infusion is wearing a disposable gown, gloves, and goggles for protection. The nurse knows that accidental exposure to chemotherapy agents can occur through:

inhalation of aerosols.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 30,000/mm3. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

"I floss my teeth every morning." - A client with a platelet count of 30,000/mm3 is at risk for bleeding and shouldn't floss his teeth. Flossing may increase the risk of bleeding in a client with a platelet count less than 40,000/mm3. Using an electric razor is appropriate because doing so helps minimize the risk of cutting when shaving. Taking a stool softener helps decrease potential trauma to the GI tract that may cause bleeding. Removing throw rugs from the house helps prevent falls, which could lead to uncontrolled bleeding.

The nurse instructs a client receiving chemotherapy on actions to prevent the development of stomatitis. Which client statement indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective?

"I will brush my teeth after every meal."

Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?

"I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." -The client undergoing external radiation therapy requires further teaching when he voices a concern that he might expose his family to radiation. Internal radiation, not external radiation, poses a risk to the client's family. The client requires no further teaching if he states that he should wash his skin with mild soap and water, wear protective clothing when outside, and avoid using a heating pad.

While completing an admission assessment, the client reports a family history of breast cancer among a maternal grandmother, aunt, and sister. The nurse knows that these cancers are mostlikely associated with what etiology?

Inherited gene mutation -Tumor suppressor genes assist the body in normal cell production and death. Tobacco use and chemical carcinogens can contribute to the development of cancer, but there is not enough information provided to suggest a common link. Ontogenesis are genes that have mutated and activate out-of-control cell growth. Inherited gene mutation occurs when the DNA is passed to the next generation.

When caring for an older client who is receiving external beam radiation, which is the key point for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?

Inspect the skin frequently. -Inspecting the skin frequently will allow early identification and intervention of skin problems associated with external radiation therapy. The external markings should not be removed, but clients may shower and lightly wash over the skin. Time, distance, and shielding are key in the management of sealed, internal radiation therapy and not external beam radiation. The use of disposable utensils and care items would be important when caring for clients following systemic, unsealed, internal radiation therapy.

A client is recovering from a craniotomy with tumor debulking. Which comment by the client indicates to the nurse a correct understanding of what the surgery entailed?

"I guess the doctor could not remove the entire tumor." -Debulking is a reference made when a tumor cannot be completely removed, often due to its extension far into healthy tissue. Without complete removal, this is not a cure and, the cancer cells will continue to replicate and require adjuvant therapies to prevent further invasion. The physician, not the nurse, will need to clarify the details of the surgery.

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for chemotherapy. Which is the best statement the nurse can make about the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced alopecia?

"The hair loss is usually temporary."

A nurse is assessing a 75-year-old woman who had a total hysterectomy when she was 30 years old and normal Pap test results for the past 10 years. The client asks about continuing the Pap test. What is the best response by the nurse?

"You may choose to discontinue this test." -The American Cancer Society recommendations for women 66+ years or older who have had normal Pap tests for 10 years and who have had a total hysterectomy may choose to stop having Pap tests for cervical cancer screening.

5-Fluorouracil (5FU) is classified as which type of antineoplastic agent?

Antimetabolite -5-FU is an antimetabolite. An example of an alkylating agent is nitrogen mustard. A nitrosourea is streptozocin. A mitotic spindle poison is vincristine (VCR).

Which does a nurse thoroughly evaluate before a hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) procedure?

Blood studies -Before the HSCT procedure, the nurse thoroughly evaluates the client's physical condition; organ function; nutritional status; complete blood studies, including assessment for past exposure to antigens such as HIV, hepatitis, or cytomegalovirus; and psychosocial status. Before an HSCT procedure, the nurse need not evaluate client's family, drug, or allergy history.

A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: Tis, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?

Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis -Tis, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists, the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, or T4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3.

Which oncologic emergency involves the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space?

Cardiac tamponade -Cardiac tamponade is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space. DIC is a complex disorder of coagulation and fibrinolysis that results in thrombosis and bleeding. SIADH is a result of the failure in the negative feedback mechanism that normally regulates the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Tumor lysis syndrome is a rapidly developing oncologic emergency that results from the rapid release of intracellular contents as a result of radiation- or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia.

A patient with uterine cancer is being treated with internal radiation therapy. What would the nurse's priority responsibility be for this patient?

Explain to the patient that she will continue to emit radiation while the implant is in place. -When the patient has a radioactive implant in place, the nurse and other health care providers need to protect themselves, as well as the patient, from the effects of radiation. Patients receiving internal radiation emit radiation while the implant is in place; therefore, contact with the health care team is guided by principles of time, distance, and shielding to minimize exposure of personnel to radiation. Safety precautions used in caring for a patient receiving brachytherapy include assigning the patient to a private room, posting appropriate notices about radiation safety precautions, having staff members wear dosimeter badges, making sure that pregnant staff members are not assigned to the patient's care, prohibiting visits by children or pregnant visitors, limiting visits from others to 30 minutes daily, and seeing that visitors maintain a 6-foot distance from the radiation source.

A nurse is teaching a client about the rationale for administering allopurinol with chemotherapy. Which example would be the best teaching by the nurse?

It lowers serum and uric acid levels. -The use of allopurinol with chemotherapy is to prevent renal toxicity. Tumor lysis syndrome occurrence can be reduced with allopurinol's action of reducing the conversion of nucleic acid byproducts to uric acid, in this way preventing urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Allopurinol does not stimulate the immune system, treat anemia, or prevent alopecia.

A patient is admitted for an excisional biopsy of a breast lesion. What intervention should the nurse provide for the care of this patient?

Provide time for the patient to discuss her concerns. -Patients who are undergoing surgery for the diagnosis or treatment of cancer may be anxious about the surgical procedure, possible findings, postoperative limitations, changes in normal body functions, and prognosis. The patient and family require time and assistance to process the possible changes and outcomes resulting from the surgery. The nurse serves as the patient advocate and liaison and encourages the patient and family to take an active role in decision making when possible. If the patient or family asks about the results of diagnostic testing and surgical procedures, the nurse's response is guided by the information that was conveyed previously. The nurse may be asked to explain and clarify information for patients and families that was provided initially but was not grasped because of anxiety and overwhelming feelings. It is important that the nurse, as well as other members of the health care team, provide information that is consistent from one clinician to another.

A client reports a new onset of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. The health care provider orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals end-stage gallbladder cancer. What nursing intervention should be used to facilitate adaptive coping?

Refer client for professional counseling.

A nurse is administering a chemotherapeutic medication to a client, who reports generalized itching and then chest tightness and shortness of breath. The nurse immediately

Stops the chemotherapeutic infusion -The client may be experiencing a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which may progress to systemic anaphylaxis. The most immediate action of the nurse is to discontinue the medication followed by initiating emergency protocols.

While doing a health history, a client tells the nurse that her mother, her grandmother, and her sister died of breast cancer. The client asks what she can do to keep from getting cancer. What is the best response by the nurse?

"Cancer prevention and detection can be done with blood analysis for tumor markers to measure your risk level."

The client has finished the first round of chemotherapy. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

"I can continue taking my vitamins and herbs because they make me feel better." -Herbal products are not regulated by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA);although some can decrease the risk of cancer, others can have serious side effects and liver toxicity. Use of vitamins and herbals should be reviewed with the oncologist. Use of clear liquids is recommended for the client experiencing nausea and vomiting. Because hair follicles are sensitive to chemotherapy drugs, it is likely for alopecia to occur especially with consecutive treatments. Chemotherapy includes cytotoxic drugs that are harmful to rapid dividing cells such as cell development in the fetus. To prevent damage to the fetus, birth control is recommended during treatment.

The nurse is caring for a client is scheduled for chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

"I hope they find a bone marrow donor who matches." -An autologous stem cell transplant comes from the client not from a donor. The doctor will remove the stem cells from the bone marrow before beginning chemotherapy and treat the client until most if not all the cancer is eliminated before reinfusing the stem cells. Clients are at risk for infection and will be closely monitored for at least 3 months, but not in protective isolation.

A nurse is caring for a recently married, 29-year-old female client, who was diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia. The client is preparing for an allogeneic bone marrow transplant. Which statement by the client demonstrates she understands the informed consent she gave about the diagnosis and treatment?

"I'll only need chemotherapy treatment before receiving my bone marrow transplant." -This client demonstrates understanding about treatment when she states that she'll need chemotherapy before receiving a bone marrow transplant. Most clients receive chemotherapy before undergoing bone marrow transplantation. Most women older than age 26 can't bear children after undergoing treatment because they experience the early onset of menopause. Clients who undergo chemotherapy or radiation must avoid all fresh fruits and vegetables, and all foods should be cooked to avoid bacterial contamination. Clients who undergo bone marrow transplantation typically remain hospitalized for 20 to 25 days.

A patient will be receiving radiation for 6 weeks for the treatment of breast cancer and asks the nurse why it takes so long. What is the best response by the nurse?

"It will allow time for the repair of healthy tissue." -In external-beam radiation therapy (EBRT), the total radiation dose is delivered over several weeks in daily doses called fractions. This allows healthy tissue to repair and achieves greater cell kill by exposing more cells to the radiation as they begin active cell division. Repeated radiation treatments over time (fractionated doses) also allow for the periphery of the tumor to be reoxygenated repeatedly, because tumors shrink from the outside inward. This increases the radiosensitivity of the tumor, thereby increasing tumor cell death.

A client has been receiving chemotherapy. Upon assessing the client during morning rounds, the nurse notes the client is now bleeding from intravenous and venipuncture sites. Stool is positive for occult blood. The client is requesting to sit in a chair for a meal. The nurse implements the following interventions: (Select all that apply.)

- Assess level of consciousness. - Apply pressure to the bleeding sites. - Check intake and output records.

Which of the following are true statements about effective radiation therapy? Select all that apply.

- Slower-growing tissues at rest (muscle) are more radioresistant. - Tumors that are well oxygenated are more sensitive to radiation. - Tumors that are small in size and dividing rapidly are more sensitive.

The root cause of cancer is damage to cellular deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) which can be caused by many factors, or carcinogens. What factors can be carcinogenic? Select all that apply.

- dietary substances - environmental factors - viruses

A client is undergoing chemotherapy treatment for prostate cancer and has lost considerable weight due to nausea and vomiting. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for the client?

Adjusting the client's meal plan before and after chemotherapy -The nurse should readjust the client's meal plan before and after chemotherapy administration. The nurse should take into consideration the client's likes and dislikes and avoid foods with strong odors. The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration when the client has side effects of nausea and vomiting. Fresh fruits are not recommended when the client is at risk of infection, such as during chemotherapy. Beta-blockers are not administered to control nausea and vomiting.

After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should assign highest priority to which intervention?

Administering metoclopramide and dexamethasone as ordered -The nurse should assign highest priority to administering an antiemetic, such as metoclopramide, and an anti-inflammatory agent, such as dexamethasone, because it may reduce the severity of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. This intervention, in turn, helps prevent dehydration, a common complication of chemotherapy. Serving small portions of bland food, encouraging rhythmic breathing exercises, and withholding fluids for the first 4 to 6 hours are less likely to achieve this outcome.

Which type of vaccine uses the client's own cancer cells, which are killed and prepared for injection back into the client?

Autologous -Autologous vaccines are made from the client's own cancer cells, which are obtained during diagnostic biopsy or surgery. Prophylactic vaccines, such as the polio vaccine, are given to prevent people from developing a disease. Therapeutic vaccines are given to kill existing cancer cells and to provide long-lasting immunity against further cancer development. Allogeneic vaccines are made from cancer cells that are obtained from other people who have a specific type of cancer.

The nurse should teach the patient who is being radiated about protecting his skin and oral mucosa. An important teaching point would be to tell the patient to:

Cleanse the skin with a mild soap, using his fingertips, not a rough wash cloth. -The patient should cleanse himself with a mild soap using his fingertips rather than a wash cloth. All the other choices will irritate the skin and fail to protect it from additional injury.

The nurse is caring for a thyroid cancer client following oral radioactive iodine treatment. Which teaching point is most important?

Flush the toilet several times after every use. -Iodine 131 is a systemic internal radiation that is excreted through body fluids, especially urine. Flushing the toilet several times after each use will avoid the exposure of others to radioactive exposure. Shielding the throat area is not effective because this form of treatment is systemic. Preparing food separately is not necessary, but use of separate eating utensils will be necessary for the first 8 days.

According to the TNM classification system, T0 means there is

no evidence of primary tumor. -T0 means that there is no evidence of primary tumor. N0 means that there is no regional lymph node metastasis. M0 means that there is no distant metastasis. M1 means that there is distant metastasis.

Which type of surgery is used in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer?

Palliative -Palliative surgery is performed to relieve complications of cancer. Prophylactic surgery involves removing nonvital tissues or organs that are likely to develop cancer. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery and is carried out in an attempt to improve function or to obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach.

A 36-year-old man is receiving three different chemotherapeutic agents for Hodgkin's disease. The nurse explains to the client that the three drugs are given over an extended period because:

The three drugs have a synergistic effect and act on the cancer cells with different mechanisms. -Multiple drug regimens are used because the drugs have a synergistic effect. The drugs have different cell-cycle lysis effects, different mechanisms of action, and different toxic adverse effects. They are usually given in combination to enhance therapy. Dosage is not affected by giving the drugs in combination. The second and third drugs do not increase the effectiveness of the first. It is not true that the first two drugs are toxic to cancer cells while the third drug promotes cell growth.

Which of the following would be consistent with a benign neoplasm?

Usually progressive and slow -A benign neoplasm's rate of growth is usually progressive and slow. Malignant neoplasms have undifferentiated cells, grow by invasion, and gain access to the blood and lymph channels to metastasize to other areas of the body.

Following surgery for adenocarcinoma, the client learns the tumor stage is T3,N1,M0. What treatment mode should the nurse anticipate?

Adjuvant therapy is likely. -T3 indicates a large tumor size, with N1 indicating regional lymph node involvement so treatment is needed. A T3 tumor must have its size reduced with adjuncts like chemotherapy and radiation. Although M0 suggest no metastasis, following with adjuvant (chemotherapy or radiation therapy) treatment is indicated to prevent the spread of cancer outside the lymph to other organs. The tumor stage IV wound be indicative of palliative care. A repeated biopsy is not needed until after treatment is completed.