Chapter 15: Cancer
what features of cancer cells distinguish them from normal cells?
1. Lack contact inhibition 2. cells return to a previous undifferentiated state 3. New proteins characteristic of embryonic stage emerge on cell membrane
Patients may reduce the risk of developing cancer using health promotion strategies. Identify strategies which can reduce the risk of developing cancer (select all that apply.). A. Control weight B. Genetic testing C. Immunizations D. Use sunscreen E. Stop smoking F. Limit alcohol intake
A, B, C, D, E, F Changing a person's lifestyle can limit cancer promotors, which is key in cancer prevention. Immunizations such as human papilloma virus (HPV) can prevent cervical cancer. Use of sunscreen (SPF 15 or greater) can prevent cell damage and development of skin cancer. Cigarette smoke can initiate or promote cancer development. Alcohol intake combined with cigarette smoking can promote esophageal and bladder cancers. Management of weight can reduce the risk of cancer. Genetic testing (i.e., APC gene) identifies the predisposition of colorectal cancer.
The patient and his family are upset that the patient is going through procedures to diagnose cancer. What nursing actions should the nurse use first to facilitate their coping with this situation (select all that apply.)? A. Maintain hope. B. Exhibit a caring attitude. C. Plan realistic long-term goals. D. Give them antianxiety medications. E. Be available to listen to fears and concerns. F. Teach them about the types of cancer that could be diagnosed.
A, B, E Maintaining hope, exhibiting a caring attitude, and being available to actively listen to fears and concerns would be the first nursing interventions to use as well as assessing factors affecting coping during the diagnostic period. Providing relief from distressing symptoms for the patient and teaching them about the diagnostic procedures would also be important. Realistic long-term goals and teaching about the type of cancer cannot be done until the cancer is diagnosed. Giving the family antianxiety medications would not be appropriate.
Which factors will assist a patient in coping positively with having cancer (select all that apply) a. feeling in control b. strong support system c. internalizing feelings d. possibility of a cure or control e. a young person will adapt more easily f. not having had to cope with previous stressful events
A,B,D
Cancer cells go through stages of development. What accurately describes the stage of promotion (select all that apply)? a. obesity is an example of a promoting factor b. the stage is characterized by increased growth rate and metastasis c. withdrawal of promoting factors will reduce the risk of cancer developing d. tobacco smoke is a complete carcinogen that is capable of both initiation and promotion e. promotion is the stage of cancer development in which there is an irreversible alteration in the cell's DNA
A,C,D
The nurse assesses a 76-yr-old man with chronic myeloid leukemia receiving chemotherapy using a kinase inhibitor medication. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? A. "Have you had a fever?" B. "Have you lost any weight?" C. "Has diarrhea been a problem?" D. "Have you noticed any hair loss?"
A. "Have you had a fever?" An adverse effect of kinase inhibitors is neutropenia. Infection is common in neutropenic patients and is the primary cause of death in cancer patients. Patients should report a temperature of 100.4° F or higher. The other options are possible while undergoing chemotherapy but do not represent the highest priority for assessment.
Match the surgical procedure with their primary purpose in cancer treatment (answers may be repeated) a. _____ mammoplasty b. _____ bowel resection c. _____ cordotomy for pain control d. _____ insertion of feeding tube into stomach e. _____ colostomy to bypass bowel obstruction f. _____ placement of central venous catheter g. _____ debulking procedure to enhance radiation therapy h. _____ surgical fixation of bones at risk for pathologic fracture 1. Cure, control, or both 2. supportive care 3. palliative 4. rehabilitation
A. 4 (mammoplasty= rehabilitation) B. 3 (bowel resection= palliative) C. 2 (cordotomy for pain control= supportive care) D. 3 (insertion of feeding tube into stomach= palliative) E. 3 (colostomy to bypass bowel obstruction= palliative) F. 2 (placement of central v.c.= supportive care) G. 1 (debulking procedure to enhance radiation therapy= cure, control, both) H. 2 (surgical fixation of bones at risk for pathologic fracture= supportive care)
Previous administrations of chemotherapy agents to a cancer patient have resulted in diarrhea. Which dietary modification should the nurse recommend? A. A bland, low-fiber diet B. A high-protein, high-calorie diet C. A diet high in fresh fruits and vegetables D. A diet emphasizing whole and organic foods
A. A bland, low-fiber diet Patients experiencing diarrhea secondary to chemotherapy or radiation therapy often benefit from a diet low in seasonings and roughage before the treatment. Foods should be easy to digest and low in fat. Fresh fruits and vegetables are high in fiber and should be minimized during treatment. Whole and organic foods do not prevent diarrhea.
For which type of malignancy should the nurse expect the use of the intravesical route of regional chemotherapy for delivery? A. Bladder B. Leukemia C. Osteogenic sarcoma D. Metastasis to the brain
A. Bladder
The nurse is teaching a wellness class to a group of women at their workplace. Which findings represent the highest risk for developing cancer? A. Body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoking cigarettes for 20 years B. Family history of colorectal cancer and consumes a high-fiber diet C. Limits fat consumption and has regular mammography and Pap screenings D. Exercises five times every week and does not consume alcoholic beverages
A. Body mass index of 35 kg/m2 and smoking cigarettes for 20 years Cancer prevention and early detection are associated with the following behaviors: limited alcohol use, regular physical activity, maintaining a normal body weight, obtaining regular cancer screenings, avoiding cigarette smoking and other tobacco use, using sunscreen with SPF 15 or higher, and practicing healthy dietary habits (e.g., reduced fat and increased fruits and vegetables).
The laboratory reports that the cells from the patient's tumor biopsy are grade II. What should the nurse know about this histologic grading? A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. B. Cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. C. Cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated. D. Cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated.
A. Cells are abnormal and moderately differentiated. Grade II cells are more abnormal than grade I and moderately differentiated. Grade I cells differ slightly from normal cells and are well-differentiated. Grade III cells are very abnormal and poorly differentiated. Grade IV cells are immature, primitive, and undifferentiated; the cell origin is difficult to determine.
A 70-year-old male patient has multiple myeloma. His wife calls to reports that he sleeps most of the day, is confused when awake and complains of nausea and constipation. Which complication of cancer is this most likely caused by? A. Hypercalcemia B. Tumor Lysis syndrome C. spinal cord compression D. superior vena cava syndrome
A. Hypercalcemia
To prevent the debilitating cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue in patient receiving radiation therapy, what should the nurse encourage the patient to do? A. Implement a walking program B. Ignore the fatigue as much as possible C. Do the most stressful activities when fatigue is tolerable D. Schedule rest periods throughout the day whether fatigue is present or not
A. Implement a walking program
A patient has recently been diagnosed with early stages of breast cancer. What is most appropriate for the nurse to focus on? A. Maintaining the patient's hope B. preparing a will and advance directives C. Discussing replacement child care for the patient's children D. Discussing the patient's past experiences with her grandmother's cancer
A. Maintaining the patient's hope
Which condition would be most likely to be cured with chemotherapy as a treatment measure? A. Neuroblastoma B. Small cell lung cancer C. Small tumor of the bone D. Large hepatocellular carcinoma
A. Neuroblastoma
Which classification of chemotherapy drugs is cell cycle phase-nonspecific, breaks the DNA helix that interferes with DNA replication, and crosses the blood-brain barrier? A. Nitrosureas B. Antimetabolites C. Mitotic inhibitors D. Antitumor antibiotics
A. Nitrosureas
The nurse is presenting a community education program related to cancer prevention. Based on current cancer death rates, the nurse emphasizes what as the most important preventive action for both women and men? A. Smoking cessation B. Routine colonoscopies C. Frequent imaging tests D. Regular examination of reproductive organs
A. Smoking cessation
What does the presence of carcinoembryonic antigens (CEAs) and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) on cell membranes indicate has happened to the cells? A. They have shifted to more immature metabolic pathways and functions B. They have spread from areas of original development to difference body tissues C. They produce abnormal toxins or chemicals that indicate abnormal cellular function D. They have become more differentiated as a result of repression on embryonic functions
A. They have shifted to more immature metabolic pathways and functions
During initial chemotherapy, a patient with leukemia develops hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as an oncologic emergency and anticipates that the priority treatment will be to: A. increase urine output with hydration therapy B. establish ECG monitoring C. administer a bisphosphonate such as pamidronate (Aredia) D. restrict fluids and administer hypertonic sodium chloride solution
A. increase urine output with hydration therapy
When the patient asks about the late effects of chemotherapy and high-dose radiation, what areas of teaching should the nurse plan to include when describing these effects? A. Third space syndrome B. secondary malignancies C. chronic nausea and vomiting D. persistent myelosuppression
B. secondary malignancies
The nurse explains to a patient undergoing brachytherapy of the cervix that she: A. must undergo simulation to locate the treatment area B. requires the use of radioactive precautions during nursing care C. may experience desquamation of the skin on the abdomen and upper legs D. requires shielding of the ovaries during treatment to prevent ovarian damage
B. requires the use of radioactive precautions during nursing care
Which statement by the nurse most facilitates patient cancer prevention during the promotion stage of cancer development? A. "Exercise every day for 30 minutes." B. "Follow smoking cessation recommendations." C. "Following a vitamin regime is highly recommended." D. "I recommend excision of the cancer as soon as possible."
B. "Follow smoking cessation recommendations." The promotion stage of cancer is characterized by the reversible proliferation of the altered cells. Changing the lifestyle to avoid promoting factors (dietary fat, obesity, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption) can reduce the chance of cancer development. Cigarette smoking is a promoting factor and a carcinogen. Daily exercise and vitamins alone will not prevent cancer. Surgery at this stage may not be possible without a critical mass of cells, and this advice would not be consistent with the nurse's role.
Which patient is statistically and medically at the highest risk of developing cancer? A. A 68-yr-old white woman who has BRCA-1 gene and is obese B. A 56-yr-old African American man with hepatitis C who drinks alcohol daily C. An 18-yr-old Hispanic man who eats fast food once per week and drink alcohol D. An 80-yr-old Asian woman with coronary artery disease on blood pressure medication.
B. A 56-yr-old African American man with hepatitis C who drinks alcohol daily The combination of statistically identified risk factors in addition to current liver disease (hepatitis C that is linked to the development of liver cancer) and the added promotor of alcohol makes this patient at the highest risk. Second is the white woman with the gene for breast cancer and the added promotor of obesity. The majority of cancer cases are diagnosed in individuals older than 55 years of age. The overall incidence of cancer is higher in men than women. Cancer incidence is higher in African Americans, then whites, and then people from other cultures.
The nurse is counseling a group if individuals over the age of 50 with average risk for cancer about screening tests for cancer. What screening recommendation should be performed to screen for colorectal cancer? A. Barium enema every year B. Colonoscopy every 10 years C. Fecal occult blood every 5 years D. Annual prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving an initial dose of chemotherapy to treat a rapidly growing metastatic colon cancer. The nurse is aware that the patient is at risk for tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) and will monitor for which abnormality associated with this oncologic emergency? A. Hypokalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypouricemia D. Hypophosphatemia
B. Hypocalcemia TLS is a metabolic complication characterized by rapid release of intracellular components in response to chemotherapy. This can rapidly lead to acute renal injury. The hallmark signs of TLS are hyperuricemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, and hypocalcemia.
When a patient is undergoing brachytherapy, what is important for the nurse to be aware of when caring for this patient? A. The patient will undergo simulation to identify and mark the field of treatment B. The patient is a source of radiation, and personnel must wear film badges during care C. The goal of this treatment is only palliative, and the patient should be aware of the expected outcomes D. Computerized dosimetry is used to determine the maximum dose of radiation to the tumor within an acceptable dose to normal tissue
B. The patient is a source of radiation, and personnel must wear film badges during care
A small lesion is discovered in a patient's lung when an x-ray is performed for cervical spine pain. What is the definitive method of determining if the lesion is malignant? A. Lung scan B. Tissue biopsy C. Oncofetal antigens in the blood D. CT or positron emission tomography (PET scan)
B. Tissue biopsy
The patient is receiving an IV vesicant chemotherapy drug. The nurse notices swelling and redness at the site. What should the nurse do first? A. Ask the patient if the site hurts. B. Turn off the chemotherapy infusion. C. Call the ordering health care provider. D. Administer sterile saline to the reddened area.
B. Turn off the chemotherapy infusion. Because extravasation of vesicants may cause severe local tissue breakdown and necrosis, with any sign of extravasation, the infusion should first be stopped. Then the protocol for the drug-specific extravasation procedures should be followed to minimize further tissue damage. The site of extravasation usually hurts, but it may not. It is more important to stop the infusion immediately. The health care provider may be notified by another nurse while the patient's nurse starts the drug-specific extravasation procedures, which may or may not include sterile saline.
To prevent fever and shivering during an infusion of rituximab, the nurse should premedicate the patient with: A. aspirin B. acetaminophen C. sodium bicarbonate D. meperidine (demerol)
B. acetaminophen
The patient is told that her adenoma tumor is not encapsulated but has normally differentiated cells and surgery will be needed. The patient asks the nurse what this means. What should the nurse tell the patient? A. It will recur. B. It has metastasized. C. It is probably benign. D. It is probably malignant.
C. It is probably benign. Benign tumors are usually encapsulated, have normally differentiated cells, and do not metastasize. Malignant tumors are rarely encapsulated, have poorly differentiated cells, and are capable of metastasis.
The patient has osteosarcoma of the right leg. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that the patient's vital signs are normal, but the patient says he still has pain in his leg and it is getting worse. Which question would best determine treatment measures for the patient's pain? A. "Where is the pain?" B. "Is the pain getting worse?" C. "What does the pain feel like?" D. "Do you use medications to relieve the pain?"
C. "What does the pain feel like?" The UAP told the nurse the location of the patient's pain and the patient reports worsening of pain (pattern). Asking about the quality of the pain will help in planning further treatment. The nurse should already know if the patient is using medication to relieve the pain or can check the patient's medication administration record to see if analgesics have been administered. The intensity of pain using a pain scale should also be assessed.
A female patient is having chemotherapy for brain metastasis. She is concerned about how she will look when she loses her hair. What is the best response by the nurse to this patient? A. "When your hair grows back, it will be patchy." B. "Don't use your curling iron, and that will slow down the loss." C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." D. "You should contact "Look Good, Feel Better" to figure out what to do about this."
C. "You can get a wig now to match your hair so you will not look different." The best response by the nurse is to suggest getting a wig before she loses her hair so she will not look or feel so different. Although hair loss with chemotherapy is usually reversible, hair loss with radiation is usually permanent in the areas radiation was administered. When hair grows back it could be a different color or texture. Avoiding use of electric hair dryers, curlers, and curling irons may slow the hair loss but will not answer the patient's concern. The American Cancer Society's "Look Good, Feel Better" program will be helpful, but this response is avoiding the patient's immediate concern.
The patient was told that he would have intraperitoneal chemotherapy. He asks the nurse when the IV will be started for the chemotherapy. What should the nurse teach the patient about this type of chemotherapy delivery? A. It is delivered via an Ommaya reservoir and extension catheter. B. It is instilled in the bladder via a urinary catheter and retained for 1 to 3 hours. C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed in the abdomen for chemotherapy administration. D. The arteries supplying the tumor are accessed with surgical placement of a catheter connected to an infusion pump.
C. A Silastic catheter will be percutaneously placed in the abdomen for chemotherapy administration. Intraperitoneal chemotherapy is delivered to the peritoneal cavity via a temporary percutaneously inserted Silastic catheter and drained from this catheter after the dwell time in the peritoneum. The Ommaya reservoir is used for intraventricular chemotherapy. Intravesical bladder chemotherapy is delivered via a urinary catheter. Intraarterial chemotherapy is delivered via a surgically placed catheter that delivers chemotherapy via an external or internal infusion pump.
A patient with breast cancer is having teletherapy radiation treatments after her surgery. What should the nurse teach the patient about the care of her skin? A. Use Dial soap to feel clean and fresh. B. Scented lotion can be used on the area. C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. D. Wear the new bra to comfort and support the area.
C. Avoid heat and cold to the treatment area. Avoiding heat and cold in the treatment area will protect it. Only mild soap and unscented, nonmedicated lotions may be used to prevent skin damage. The patient will want to avoid wearing tight-fitting clothing such as a bra over the treatment field and will want to expose the area to air as often as possible.
A patient's breast tumor originates from embryonal ectoderm. It has moderate dysplasia and moderately differentiated cells. It is a small tumor with minimal lymph node involvement and no metastases. What is the best description of this tumor? A. Sarcoma, grade II, T3N4M0 B. Leukemia, grade I, T1N2M1 C. Carcinoma, grade II, T1N1M0 D. Lymphoma, grade III, T1N0M0
C. Carcinoma, grade II, T1N1M0
When teaching the patient with cancer about chemotherapy, which approach should the nurse take? A. Avoid telling the patient about possible side effects of the drugs to prevent anticipatory anxiety. B. Assure the patient that the side effects from chemotherapy are uncomfortable but never life threatening C. Explain that antiemetics, antidiarrheal, and analgesics will be provided as needed to control side effects D. Inform the patient that chemotherapy-related alopecia is usually permanent but can be managed with lifelong use of wigs.
C. Explain that antiemetics, antidiarrheal, and analgesics will be provided as needed to control side effects
The goals of cancer treatment are based on the principle that: A. surgery is the single most effective treatment for cancer B. initial treatment is always directed toward cure of the cancer C. a combination of treatment modalities is effective for controlling many cancers D. although cancer cure is rare, quality of life can be increased with treatment modalities
C. a combination of treatment modalities is effective for controlling many cancers
The nurse counsels the patient receiving radiation therapy or chemotherapy that: A. effective birth control methods should be used for the rest of the patient's life B. if nausea and vomiting occur during treatment, the treatment plan will be modified C. after successful treatment, a return to the person's previous function level can be expected D. the cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue that may occur during treatment may be reduced by restricting activity
C. after successful treatment, a return to the person's previous function level can be expected
While caring for a patient who is at nadir of chemotherapy, the nurse establishes the highest priority for nursing actions related to: A. diarrhea B. grieving C. risk for infection D. inadequate nutritional intake
C. risk for infection
A patient on chemotherapy and radiation for head and neck cancer has a WBC count of 1.9x10^3, hemoglobin of 10.8 g/dL, and platelet count of 99x10^3. Based on the CBC results, what is the most serious clinical finding? A. cough, rhinitis, and sore throat B. fatigue, nausea and skin redness at site of radiation C. temperature of 101.9, fatigue and shortness of breath D. skin redness at site of radiation, headache, constipation
C. temperature of 101.9, fatigue and shortness of breath
The patient is learning about skin care related to the external radiation that he is receiving. Which instruction should the nurse include in this teaching? A. Keep the area shaved of hair B. Keep the area covered if it is sore C. Dry the skin thoroughly after cleansing it D. Avoid extreme temperatures to the area
D. Avoid extreme temperatures to the area
The nurse uses many precautions during IV administration of vesicant chemotherapeutic agents, primarily to prevent, a. septicemia b. extravasation c. catheter occlusion d. anaphylactic shock
b. extravasation
A 33-yr-old patient has recently been diagnosed with stage II cervical cancer. Which statement by the nurse best explains the diagnosis? A. "The cancer is found at the point of origin only." B. "Tumor cells have been identified in the cervical region." C. "The cancer has been identified in the cervix and the liver." D. "Your cancer was identified in the cervix and has limited local spread."
D. "Your cancer was identified in the cervix and has limited local spread." Stage II cancer is associated with limited local spread. Stage 0 denotes cancer in situ or at the point of origin only; stage I denotes tumor limited to the tissue of origin with localized tumor growth. Stage III denotes extensive local and regional spread. Stage IV denotes metastasis such as to the liver.
Which item would be most beneficial when providing oral care to a patient with metastatic cancer who is at risk for oral tissue injury secondary to chemotherapy? A. Firm-bristle toothbrush B. Hydrogen peroxide rinse C. Alcohol-based mouthwash D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse
D. 1 tsp salt in 1 L water mouth rinse A salt-water mouth rinse will not cause further irritation to oral tissue that is fragile because of mucositis, which is a side effect of chemotherapy. A soft-bristle toothbrush will be used. One teaspoon of sodium bicarbonate may be added to the salt-water solution to decrease odor, alleviate pain, and dissolve mucin. Hydrogen peroxide and alcohol-based mouthwash are not used because they would damage the oral tissue.
The patient is receiving immunotherapy and targeted therapy for ovarian cancer. What medication should the nurse expect to administer before therapy to combat the most common side effects of these medications? A. Morphine sulfate B. Ibuprofen (Advil) C. Ondansetron (Zofran) D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) Acetaminophen is administered before therapy and every 4 hours to prevent or decrease the intensity of the severe flu-like symptoms, especially with interferon which is frequently used for ovarian cancer. Morphine sulfate and ibuprofen will not decrease flu-like symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic but is not used first to combat flu-like symptoms of headache, fever, chills, myalgias, and so on.
The nurse is caring for a patient suffering from anorexia secondary to chemotherapy. Which strategy would be most appropriate to increase the patient's nutritional intake? A. Increase intake of liquids at mealtime to stimulate the appetite. B. Serve three large meals per day plus snacks between each meal. C. Avoid the use of liquid protein supplements to encourage eating at mealtimes. D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods.
D. Add items such as skim milk powder, cheese, honey, or peanut butter to selected foods. The nurse can increase the nutritional density of foods by adding items high in protein and/or calories (e.g., peanut butter, skim milk powder, cheese, honey, brown sugar) to foods the patient will eat. Increasing fluid intake at mealtime fills the stomach with fluid and decreases the desire to eat. Small frequent meals are best tolerated. Supplements can be helpful.
A patient is admitted with acute myelogenous leukemia and a history of Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the nurse most likely to find in the patient's history? A. Work as a radiation chemist B. Epstein Barr Virus diagnosed in vitro C. Intense tanning throughout lifetime D. Alkylating agents for treating the Hodgkin's lymphoma
D. Alkylating agents for treating the Hodgkin's lymphoma
The nurse is caring for an 18-yr-old female patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia that is scheduled for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). Which patient statement indicates a correct understanding of the procedure? A. "I understand the transplant procedure has no dangerous side effects." B. "After the transplant, I will feel better and can go home in 5 to 7 days." C. "My brother will be a 100% match for the cells used during the transplant." D. "Before the transplant, I will have chemotherapy and possibly full-body radiation."
D. D. "Before the transplant, I will have chemotherapy and possibly full-body radiation." Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) requires eradication of diseased or cancer cells. This is accomplished by administering higher-than-usual dosages of chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy. A relative such as a brother would not be a perfect match with human leukocyte antigens; only identical twins are an exact match. HSCT is an intensive procedure with adverse effects and possible death. HSCT recipients can expect a 2- to 4-week hospitalization after the transplant.
A patient has been diagnosed with Burkitt's lymphoma. In the initiation stage of cancer, the cells genetic structure is mutated. Exposure to what may have functioned as a carcinogen for this patient? A. Bacteria B. Sun exposure C. Most chemicals D. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Epstein-Barr virus Burkitt's lymphoma consistently shows evidence of the presence of Epstein-Barr virus in vitro. Bacteria do not initiate cancer. Sun exposure causes cell alterations leading to melanoma and squamous and basal cell skin carcinoma. Long-term exposure to certain chemicals (e.g., ethylene oxide, chloroform, benzene) is known to initiate cancer.
When caring for the patient with cancer, what does the nurse understand as the response of the immune system to antigens of the malignant cells? A. Metastasis B. Tumor angiogenesis C. Immunologic escape D. Immunologic surveillance
D. Immunologic surveillance Immunologic surveillance is the process in which lymphocytes check cell surface antigens and detect and destroy cells with abnormal or altered antigenic determinants to prevent these cells from developing into clinically detectable tumors. Metastasis is increased growth rate of the tumor, increased invasiveness, and spread of the cancer to a distant site in the progression stage of cancer development. Tumor angiogenesis is the process of blood vessels forming within the tumor itself. Immunologic escape is the cancer cells' evasion of immunologic surveillance that allows the cancer cells to reproduce.
What is the name of a tumor from the embryonal mesoderm tissue of origin located in the anatomic site of the meninges that has malignant behavior? A. Meningitis B. Meningioma C. Meningocele D. Meningeal sarcoma
D. Meningeal sarcoma
The patient with advanced cancer is having difficulty controlling her pain. She says she is afraid she will become addicted to the opioids. What is the first thing the nurse should do for this patient? A. Administer an NSAID B. Assess the patient's vitals and behavior to determine the medication to use C. Have the patient keep a pain diary to better assess the patient's potential addiction D. Obtain a detailed pain history including quality, location, intensity, duration, and type of pain
D. Obtain a detailed pain history including quality, location, intensity, duration, and type of pain
A 64-yr-old male patient who is receiving radiation to the head and neck as treatment for an invasive malignant tumor complains of mouth sores and pain. Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? A. Provide ice chips to soothe the irritation. B. Weigh the patient every month to monitor for weight loss. C. Cleanse the mouth every 2 to 4 hours with hydrogen peroxide. D. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours.
D. Provide high-protein and high-calorie, soft foods every 2 hours. A patient with stomatitis should have soft, nonirritating foods offered frequently. The diet should be high in protein and high in calories to aid healing. Extremes of temperature are to be avoided. Saline or water should be used to cleanse the mouth (not hydrogen peroxide). Patients should be weighed at least twice each week to monitor for weight loss.
Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a patient experiencing myelosuppression secondary to chemotherapy for cancer treatment? A. Acute pain B. Hypothermia C. Powerlessness D. Risk for infection
D. Risk for infection Myelosuppression is accompanied by a high risk of infection and sepsis. Hypothermia, powerlessness, and acute pain are also possible nursing diagnoses for patients undergoing chemotherapy, but the threat of infection is paramount.
A 70-yr-old man who has end-stage lung cancer is admitted to the hospital with confusion and oliguria for 2 days. Which finding would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? A. Weight gain of 6 lb B. Nausea and vomiting C. Urine specific gravity of 1.004 D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L
D. Serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L Lung cancer cells are able to manufacture and release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) with resultant water retention and hyponatremia. Hyponatremia (serum sodium levels less than 135 mEq/L) may lead to central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, seizures, coma, and death. The other options listed are also symptoms of hyponatremia but are not as critical to report to the health care provider.
The patient is being treated with brachytherapy for cervical cancer. What factors must the nurse be aware of to protect herself when caring for this patient? A. The medications the patient is taking B. The nutritional supplements that will help the patient C. How much time is needed to provide the patient's care D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient
D. The time the nurse spends at what distance from the patient The principles of ALARA (as low as reasonably achievable) and time, distance, and shielding are essential to maintain the nurse's safety when the patient is a source of internal radiation. The patient's medications, nutritional supplements, and time needed to complete care will not protect the nurse caring for a patient with brachytherapy for cervical cancer.
A patient on chemotherapy for 10 weeks started at a weight of 121 lb, now weighs 118 lb and has no sense of taste. Which nursing intervention would be a priority? A. advise the patient to eat foods that are fatty, fried or high in calories B. discuss with the md the need for parenteral or enteral feedings C. advise the patient to drink a nutritional supplement beverage at least 3x a day D. advise the patient to experiment with spices and seasonings to enhance the flavor of food
D. advise the patient to experiment with spices and seasonings to enhance the flavor of food
The most effective method of administering a chemotherapy agent that is a vesicant is to: A. give it orally B. give it intraarterially C. use an Ommaya reservoir D. use a central venous access device
D. use a central venous access device
What describes the primary use of immunotherapy in cancer treatment?
Enhances or supplement the effects of the host's immune responses to tumor cells that produce flu-like symptoms
The nurse is caring for a 59-year old woman who has surgery 1 day ago for removal of a malignant abdominal mass. The patient is awaiting the pathology report. She is tearful and says that she is scared to die. The most effective nursing intervention at this point is to use this opportunity to:
Let her communicate about the meaning of this experience
The characteristic of the stage of progression in the development of cancer is:
Proliferation of cancer cells despite host control mechanisms
Which word identifies a mutation of protooncogens? a. oncogenes b. retrogenes c. oncofetal antigens tumor angiogenesis factor
a. oncogenes
Which mutated tumor suppressor gene is most likely to contribute to many types of cancer, including breast, bladder, colorectal, and lung? a. p53 b. APC c. BRCA1 d. BRCA2
a. p53
The primary protective role of the immune system related to malignant cells is a. surveillance for cells with tumor-associated antigens b. binding with free antigen released by malignant cells c. production of blocking factors that immobilize cancer cells d. responding to a new set of antigenic determinants on cancer cells
a. surveillance for cells with tumor-associated antigens
The patient was told she has carcinoma in situ, and the student nurse wonders what that is. How should the nurse explain this to the student nurse? a. evasion of the immune system by cancer cells b. lesion with histologic features of cancer except invasion c. capable of causing cellular alterations associated with cancer d. tumor cell surface antigens that stimulate immune response
b. lesion with histologic features of cancer except invasion
Which normal tissue manifest early, acute response to pelvic radiation therapy? a. spleen and liver b. kidney and nervous tissue c. bone marrow and GI mucosa d. hollow organs such as the stomach and bladder
c. bone marrow and GI mucosa
An allogenic hematopoetic stem cell transplant is considered as treatment for a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia. What information should the nurse include when teaching the patient about this procedure? a. there is no risk for graft-versus-host disease because the donated marrow is treated to remove cancer cells b. the patient's bone marrow will be removed, treated, stored, and then reinfused after intensive chemotherapy c. peripheral stem cells are obtained from a donor who has a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) match with the patient d. there is no need for posttrasplant protective isolation because the stem cells are infused directly into the blood.
c. peripheral stem cells are obtained from a donor who has a human leukocyte antigen (HLA) match with the patient
Trends in the incidence and death rates of cancer include the fact that a. lung cancer is the most common type of cancer in men. b. a higher percentage of women than men have lung cancer. c. breast cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in women. d. African Americans have a higher death rate from cancer than whites.
d. African Americans have a higher death rate from cancer than whites.
What defect in cellular proliferation is in involved in the development of cancer? a. a rate of cell proliferation that is more rapid than that of normal body cells b. shortened phases of cell life cycles with occasional skipping of GI or S phases c. Rearrangement of stem cell RNA that causes abdominal cellular protein synthesis d. Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition
d. Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition
Which delivery system would be used to deliver regional chemotherapy for metastasis from primary colorectal cancer? a. intrathecal b. intraarterial c. intravenous d. intraperitoneal
d. intraperitoneal
What factor differentiates a malignant tumor from a benign tumor? a. it causes death b. it grows at a faster rate c. it is often encapsulated d. it invades and metastasizes
d. it invades and metastasizes